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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Random Variable and Mathematical Expectation Ex 6.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Random Variable and Mathematical Expectation Ex 6.2

Question 1.
Find the expected value for the random variable of an unbiased die
Solution:
When a un based die is thrown , any one of the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, can turn up that x denote the random variable taking the values from 1 to 6

Question 2.
Let X be a random variable defining number of students getting A grade. Find the expected value of X from the given table

Solution:
Expected value of X, E(X) = \(\sum_{x} x P_{x}(x)\)
E(X) = (0 × 0.2) + (1 × 0.1) + (2 × 0.4) + (3 × 0.3)
= 0 + 0. 1 + 0.8 + 0.9
= 1.8

Question 3.
The following table is describing about the probability mass function of the random variable X

Find the standard deviation of x.
Solution:
Let x be the random variable taking the values 3, 4, 5
E(x) = Σpixi
= (0.1 × 3) + (0.1 × 4) + (0.2 × 5)
0.3 + 0.4 + 1.0
E(x) = 1.7
E(x²) = Σpixi²
= (0.1 × 3²)+ (0.1 × 4²) + (0.2 × 5²)
= (0.1 × 9) + (0.1 × 16) + (0.2 × 25)
E(x²) = 7.5
Var(x) = E(x²) – (E(x)]²
= 7.5 – (1.7)²
= 7.5 – 2.89
Var(x) = 4.61
Standard deviation(S.D) = \(\sqrt { var (x)}\)
= \(\sqrt { 4.61}\)
σ = 2.15

Question 4.
Let X be a continuous random variable with probability density function
f_x (x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{l}
2 x, 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\
0, \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find the expected value of X.
Solution:
Let x be a continuous random variable. In the probability density function, Expected

Question 5.
Let X be a continuous random variable with probability density function
f_x (x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{l}
2 x, 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\
0, \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find the mean and variance of X.
Solution:
Let x be a continuous random variable. In the probability density function,

Question 6.
In investment, a man can make a profit I of ₹ 5,000 with a probability of 0.62 or a loss of ₹ 8,000 with a probability of 0.38. Find the expected gain.
Solution:

X	5000	-8000
P(x = x)	0.62	0.38

Let x be the random variable of getting gain in an Investment
E(x) be the random variable of getting gain in an Investment
E(x) = ΣPixi
= (0.62 × 5000) + [0.38 × (-8000)]
= 3100 – 3040
E(x) = 60
∴ Expected gain = ₹ 60

Question 7.
What are the properties of mathematical expectation?
Solution:
The properties of Mathematical expectation are as follows:

1. E(a) = a, where ‘a’ is a constant
2. Addition theorem: For two r.v’s X and Y, E(X + Y) = E(X) + E(Y)
3. Multiplication theorem: E(XY) = E(X) E(Y)
4. E(aX) = aE(X), where ‘a’ is a constant
5. For constants a and b, E(aX + b) = a E(X) + b

Question 8.
What do you understand by mathematical expectation?
Solution:
The average value of a random Phenomenon is termed as mathematical expectation or expected value.
The expected value is a weighted average of the values of a random variable may assume

Question 9.
How do you define variance in terms of Mathematical expectation?
Solution:
Let X be a random variable. Let E(X) denote the expectation of X.
Then the variance is defined in terms of the mathematical expectation as follows.
(a) X is discrete r.v with p.m.f p(x). Then Var(X) = \(\sum[x-\mathrm{E}(\mathrm{X})]^{2} p(x)\)
(b) X is continuous r.v with p.d.f f_x(x). Then Var(X) = \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}[X-E(X)]^{2} f_{X}(x) d x\)

Question 10.
Define mathematical expectation in tears of a discrete random variable?
Solution:
Let X be a discrete random variable with probability mass function (p.m.f.) p(x). Then, its expected value is defined by
E(X) = \(\sum_{ x }\) x p(x) ……(1)

Question 11.
State the definition of mathematical expectation using continuous random variables.
Solution:
Let X be a continuous random variable with probability density function f(x). Then the expected value of X is
\(\mathrm{E}(\mathrm{X})=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x f(x) d x\)
If the integral exists, E(X) is the mean of the values, otherwise, we say that the mean does not exist.

Question 12.
In a business venture, a man can make a profit of ₹ 2,000 with a probability of 0.4 or have a loss of ₹ 1,000 with a probability of 0.6. What are his expected, variance and standard deviation of profit?
Solution:
Let X be the random variable of getting profit in a business

X	2000	-1000
P(x = x)	0.4	0.6

E(x) = Σ_xxp_x(x)
= (0.4 × 2000) +[0.6 × (-1000)]
= 800 – 600
E(X) = 200
∴ Expected value of profit = ₹ 200
E(X²) = Σx² P_x(x)
= [(2000)² × 0.4] + [(-1000)² × 0.6]
= (4000000 × 0.4) + (1000000 × 0.6)
E(X²) = 2200000
Var(X) = E(X²) – [E(X)]²
= 22000000 – (200)²
= 2200000 – 40000
Var(X) = 21,60,000
Variance of his profit = ₹ 21,60,000
Standard deviation(S.D) = \(\sqrt { var (x)}\)
σ = \(\sqrt { 2160000}\)
σ = 1469.69
Standard deviation of his profit is ₹ 1,469.69

Question 13.
The number of miles an automobile tire lasts before it reaches a critical point in tread wear can be represented by a p.d.f.

Find the expected number of miles (in thousands) a tire would last until it reaches the critical tread wear point.
Solution:
We know that,

Question 14.
A person tosses a coin and is to receive ₹ 4 for a head and is to pay ₹ 2 for a tail. Find the expectation and variance of his gains.
Solution:
Let X denote the amount the person receives in a game
Then X takes values 4,-2 and
So P(X = 4) = P (of getting a head)
= \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
P(X = – 2) = P (of getting a tail)
= \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
Hence the Probability distribution is

X	4	-2
P(x = x)	1/2	1/2

E(x²) = 10
Var(x) = E(x²) – E(x²)
= 10 – (1)²
Var(x) = 9
∴ His expected gain = ₹ 1
His variance of gain = ₹ 9

Question 15.
Let X be a random variable and Y = 2X + 1. What is the variance of Y if the variance of X is 5?
Solution:
Given X is a random variable and Y = 2X + 1 and Var(X ) = 5
Var (Y) = Var (2X + 1) = (2)² = 4
Var X = 4(5) = 20

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

11th Bio Zoology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What is the function of lymph?
a. Transport of O₂ into brain
b. Transport of CO₂ into lungs
c. Bring interstitial fluid in blood
d. Bring RBC and WBC in lymph node
Answer:
c. Bring interstitial fluid in blood

Question 2.
Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
a. Globulin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Albumin
d. Serum amylase
Answer:
b. Fibrinogen

Question 3.
Which of the following WBCs are found in more numbers?
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte
Answer:
b. Neutrophil

Question 4.
Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?
a. Fibrin
b. Calcium
c. Platelets
d. Bilirubin
Answer:
d. Bilirubin

Question 5.
Lymph is colourless because
a. WBC are absent
b. WBC are present
c. Haemoglobin is absent
d. RBC are absent
Answer:
d. RBC are absent

Question 6.
Blood group is due to the presence or absence of surface
a. Antigens on the surface of WBC
b. Antibodies on the surface of RBC
c. Antigens on the surface of RBC
d. Antibodies on the surface of WBC
Answer:
c. Antigens on the surface of RBC

Question 7.
A person having both antigen A and antigen B on the surface of RBCs belongs to blood group
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
Answer:
c. AB

Question 8.
Erythroblastosis foetalis is due to the destruction of
a. Foetal RBCs
b. Foetus suffers from atherosclerosis
c. Foetal WBCs
d. Foetus suffers from mianmata
Answer:
a. Foetal RBCs

Question 9.
Dub sound of heart is caused by
a. Closure of atrio-ventricular valves
b. Opening of semi-lunar valves
c. Closure of semi-lunar values
d. Opening of atrio-ventricular valves.
Answer:

Question 10.
Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in the capillaries?
a. The systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
b. Capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
c. The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.
d. The capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
e. The diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
Answer:
c. The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.

Question 11.
An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs a fast blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you as her doctor, give her?
a. A
b. AB
c.  Q^+ve
d. O ^–ve
Answer:
d. O ^–ve

Question 12.
Which of these functions could or could not be carried out by a red blood cell?
a. Protein synthesis
b. Cell division
c. Lipid synthesis
d. Active transport
a. Protein synthesis – Red blood cells have no DNA.
b. Cell division – Red blood cells have no nucleus. So do not undergo any mitosis and mesiosis.
c. Lipid synthesis – Red blood contains none of the cellular orgakelles.
d. Active transport – Yes, RBC transport O₂ and CO₂ with in the cell.
Answer:
d. Active transport – Yes, RBC transport O₂ and CO₂ with in the cell.

Question 13.
At the venous end of the capillary bed, the osmotic pressure is
a. Greater than the hydrostatic pressure
b. Result in net outflow of fluids
c. Results in net absorption of fluids
d. No change occurs.
Answer:
a. Greater than the hydrostatic pressure

Question 14.
A patient’s chart reveals that he has a cardiac output of 75G0mL per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL. What is his pulse rate (in beats/min)
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d.400
Answer:
c. 150

Question 15.
At any given time there is more blood in the venous system than that of the arterial system. Which of the following features of the veins allows this?
a. relative lack of smooth muscles
b. presence of valves
c. proximity of the veins to lymphatic’s
d. thin endothelial lining
Answer:
b. presence of valves

Question 16.
Distinguish between arteries and veins.
Answer:

Arteries	Veins
1. They carry blood away from the heart	They carry blood from the parts of the body towards the heart.
2. They lie deep inside the body.	They lie on the surface beneath the skin.
3. The walls are thick and non-collapsible	They have thinner walls.
4. There are no valves.	They have valves.
5. Except for the pulmonary artery all the arteries carry oxygenated blood.	Except for the pulmonary vein, all the veins carry deoxygenated blood.
6. Blood pressure is high in the arteries	Blood pressure is low in the veins.
7. A small sphincter lies at the junction between the arterioles and capillaries to regulate the blood supply.	There is no sphincter muscles

Question 17.
Distinguish between open and closed circulation
Answer:

Open circulation	Closed circulation
1. The blood pumps from the heart pass into the coelom through blood vessels.	The body cavity is known as haemocoel. The blood pumps from the heart push into the blood vessels.
2. (Eg.) Arthropoda Mollusca	(Eg.) Annelida vertebrates

Question 18.
Distinguish between the mitral valve and semilunar valve.
Answer:

Mitral valve	Semilunar valve
1. It guards the opening between the left atrium and left ventricle	It guards the opening of the pulmonary artery and aorta.
2. It allows the blood to flow from auricle to ventricle	It allows the blood to flow from the ventricle to the pulmonary artery and aorta.
3. It prevents the backflow of blood	It prevents the backflow of blood.
4. The mitral valve closes during contraction of heart and produces a sound lub.	The dub sound is produced due to the closure of lunar valves on dialation of heart
5. The chordae tendinae is not connected to this valve.	The chordae tendinae is connected to this valve.

Question 19.
The right ventricular wall is thinner than the left ventricular wall. Why?
Answer:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood, to the lungs through pulmonary artery. The left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood to all parts of the body through the aorta. Hence, left ventricle has to exert more pressure. Hence right ventricular wall is thinner but the left ventricular walls is thicker.

Question 20.
What might be the effect on a person whose diet has less iron content?
Answer:

• The number of red blood cells decreases.
• Due to the depletion of haemoglobin he finds it difficult to breath.
• Due to the deficiency of iron anaemia may develop.
• Due to the deficiency of iron, the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin reduces.

Question 21.
Describe the mechanism by which the human heartbeat is initiated and controlled.
Answer:

• The human heart is myogenic in nature.
• The heartbeat is originated from a pacemaker. The total rate of heartbeat is decided by this node.
• This pacemaker is situated in the right sinuatrial node.
• On the left side of the right atrium is a node called auricula ventricular node.
• Two special cardiac muscle fibres originate from the auriculo ventricular node and are called the bundle of His which runs down into the interventricular septum and the fibres spread into the ventricle called Purkinje fibres.

Origin of heartbeat:

• Pacemaker cells produce excitation through depolarisation of their cell membrane. The j excitation is spread in to the auricle. Then this is passed on to bundle of His through auriculo ventricular node.
• The purkinje fibres cause ventricular contraction.

Regulation:

• The pacemaker cells produce excitation through depolarisation of their cell membrane. Each polarisation is slow taken place by sodium influx and reduction in potassium efflux.
• Minimal potential is required to activate voltage gated calcium (Ca+) channels that causes rapid depolarisation which results in action potential.
• The pacemaker cells repolarise slowly via K+ efflux.

Question 22.
What is lymph? Write its function.
Answer:
About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries eventually seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to blood system by me of a series of tubules known as lymph vessels or lymphatics.

The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph. The lymphatic system consists of a complex network of thin walled ducts (lymphatic vessels), filtering bodies (lymph nodes) and a large number of lymphocytic cell concentrations in various lymphoid organism.

The lymphatic vessels have smooth walls that run parallel to the blood vessels, in the skin, along the respiratory and digestive tracts. These vessels serve as return ducts for the fluids that are continually diffusing out of the blood capillaries into the body tissues.

Lymph fluid must pass through the lymph nodes before it is returned to the blood. The lymph nodes that filter the fluid from the lymphatic vessels of the skin are highly concentrated in the neck, inguinal, axillaries, respiratory and digestive tracts.

The lymph fluid flowing out of the lymph nodes flow into large collecting duct which finally drains into larger veins that runs beneath the collar bone, the subclavian vein and is emptied into the bloodstream. The narrow passages in the lymph nodes are the sinusoids that are lined with macrophages.

The lymph nodes successfully prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the bloodstream. Cells found in the lymphatics are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes collected in the lymphatic fluid are carried via the arterial blood and are recycled back to the lymph. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall.

Question 23.
What are the heart sounds? When and how are these sounds produced?
Answer:
Rhythmic contraction and expansion of the heart are called heartbeat. The contraction of the heart is called systole and the relaxation of the heart is called diastole. The heart normally beats 70-72 times per minute in a human adult. During each cardiac cycle, two sounds are produced that can be heard through a stethoscope.

The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves whereas the Second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance. An increased heart rate is called tachycardia and decreased heart rate is called bradycardia.

Question 24.
Select the correct biological term.
Lymphocytes, red cells, leukocytes, plasma, erythrocytes, white cells, hemoglobin, phagocyte, platelets, blood clot.
Answer:

a. Disc-shaped cells which are concave on both sides.	Red cells
b. Most of these have a large bilobed nucleus	Leucocytes
c. Enable red cells to transport blood.	Haemoglobin
d. The liquid part of the blood	Plasma
e. Most of them move and change shape like an amoeba	Leucocytes
f. Consists of water and important dissolved substances.	Plasma
g. Destroyed in the liver and spleen after circulating in the blood for four months.	Red cells
h. The substances which give red cells their colour	Haemoglobin
i. Another name for red cells	Erythrocytes
j. Blood that has been changing to jelly	Blood clot
k. A word that means cell eater	Phagocytes
l. Cells without nucleus	Red cells
m. White cells made in the lymphatic tissue	Lymphocytes
n. Blocks wound and prevent excessive bleeding.	Blood clot
o. Fragment of cells which are made in the bone marrows	Platelets
p. Another name for white blood cells.	Leucocytes
q. Slowly releases oxygen to blood cells.	Haemoglobin
r. Their function is to help blood clots in wounds.	Platelets

Question 25.
Select the correct biological term. Cardiac muscle, atria, tricuspid systole, auricles, arteries, diastole, ventricles, bicuspid valve, pulmonary artery, cardiac cycle, semilunar valve, veins, pulmonary vein, capillaries, vena cava, aorta.
Answer:

a. The main artery’ of the blood.	Dorsal aorta
b. Valves between the left atrium and ventricle.	Bicuspid valve
c. Technical name for relaxation of the heart.	Diastole
d. Another name for atria.	Auricle
e. The main vein.	Vena cava
f. Vessels which carry blood away from the heart.	Aorta
g.Two names for the upper chambers of the heart.	Auricle
h. Thick-walled chambers of the heart.	Ventricle
I. Carries blood from the heart to the lungs.	Pulmonary artery
j. Takes about 0.8 sec to complete.	Cardiac cycle
k. Valves situated at the point where blood flows out of the heart.	Semilunar valve
l. Vessels which carry blood towards the heart.	Vein
m. Carries blood from the lungs to the heart.	Pulmonary vein
n. The two lower chambers of the heart.	Ventricle
o. Prevent blood from re-entering the ventricles after entering the aorta.	Semilunar valve
P. Technical name for one heartbeat.	Cardiac cycle
q. Valves between right atrium and ventricles.	Tricuspid valve
r. The technical name for the contraction of the heart.	Systole
s. Very narrow blood vessels.	Capillaries

Question 26.
Name and Label the given diagrams to show A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.
Answer:

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Which of the following is not the function of circulatory system?
(a) Transport of respiratory gases
(b) Carrying of digested food materials
(c) Transport of hormones to target organism
(d) Removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body
Answer:
(d) Removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body

Question 2.
Find out the wrong statement.
a. The density of protein in tissue fluid is lesser than plasma
b. Blood is a fluid connective tissue
c. The amount of blood present in the 70 kg man is 5 litre
d. The plasma protein albumin provided immunity.
Answer:
d. The plasma protein albumin provided immunity.

Question 3.
What is the function of albumin?
(a) Transport of hormones
(b) Blood clothing
(c) Maintenance of osmotic pressure
(d) Immunity
Answer:
(c) Maintenance of osmotic pressure

Question 4.
Which of the following is rich in urea?
a. Hepatic vein
b. Splenic vein
c. Pancreatic vein
d. Pulmonary vein
Answer:
a. Hepatic vein

Question 5.
The red colour of the RBC is due to the presence of a respiratory pigment ……………
(a) Haemoerythrin
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Haemocyanin
(d) Chlorocronin
Answer:
(b) Haemoglobin

Question 6.
Which is a heterophil?
a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocytes
Answer:
a. Neutrophils

Question 7.
What is hematocrit/packed cells volume?
(a) The ratio of WBCs to blood plasma
(b) The ratio of RBCs to blood plasma
(c) The ratio of platelets to blood plasma
(d) The ratio of plasma and blood cells
Answer:
(b) The ratio of RBCs to blood plasma

Question 8.
Name the blood cell secreted by megakaryocytes?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. None of the above
a. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
b. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c
c. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c
d. I – d, II – c, III – a, IV – b
Answer:
c. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c

Question 10.
Name the protein which is similar to the protein present in the red blood cells of Rhesus Monkey.
a. D – antigen
b. A – antigen
c. B – antigen
d. A, B – antigen
Answer:
a. D – antigen

Question 11.
Confirm A: Red blood cell contains more hemoglobin
Reason B: There are no cell organelles in the red blood cells.
a. A – True, B – False
b. A – True, B – True
c. A – False, B – True
d. A – False, B – False
Answer:
b. A – True, B – True

Question 12.
‘A’ blood group has ………………….. antigen and …………………. antibody
(a) A, anti B
(b) AB, no antibodies
(c) No antigen, anti A, Anti B
(d) B, Anti A
Answer:
(d) B, Anti A

Question 13.
Name the white blood cells present in lymph?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Monocytes
c. Neutrophils
d. Basophils
Answer:
a. Lymphocytes

Question 14.
Name the layer which is not seen in capillaries
a. Tunica intima
b. Tunica media
c. Tunica external
d. Tunica internal
Answer:
b. Tunica media

Question 15.
How much time is taken for a single cardiac cycle?
a. 0.7 secs
b. 0.8 secs
c. 0.6 secs
d. 10.9 secs
Answer:
b. 0.8 secs

Question 16.
Pulmonary veins carry ………………. blood from lungs to ……………….
(a) Oxygenated, right auricle
(b) Deoxygenated, right auricle
(c) Deoxygenated, left auricle
(d) Oxygenated, left auricle
Answer:
(c) Deoxygenated, left auricle

Question 17.
The slow excitation of the ‘QRS’ wave indicates ………………………….. defect.
a. Inflammation of ventricle
b. Defects in bicuspid valve
c. Block in the coronary artery
d. Defects in the atrioventricular node
Answer:
a. Inflammation of ventricle

Question 18.
Who has explained first about blood circulation?
a. Raymond deviessens
b. William Harvey
c. Robert William
d. James Elam
Answer:
b. William Harvey

Question 19.
What is the normal blood pressure of a man?
a. 120/90 mm Hg
b. 120/80 mm Hg
c. 120 /80 mm Hg
d. 130/80 mm Hg
Answer:
c. 120 /80 mm Hg

Question 20.
Which of the following is the cause of a stroke?
a. Rupture of blood vessels in the brain
b. A clot in the blood vessels of brain
c. Deposition in the blood vessels of the brain
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 21.
Does ischemic heart disease indicate?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Rheumatoid heart disease
c. Angino pectoralis
d. Stroke
Answer:
a. Myocardial infarction

Question 22.
Which hormone increases the heartbeat?
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Gastrin
(d) Epinephrine
(d) Oxytocin
Answer:
(c) Epinephrine

Question 23.
Match the following and find the correct answer?
I. Erythropoietin – a. Agglutinization
II. Haematocrit – b. It takes an important role in the inflammation of body tissues
III. Heparin – c. Finding the ratio between blood plasma and red blood cells.
IV. Antigen – d. It stimulates the synthesis of RBCs in the bone marrow.
a. I-d, II-c, III – b, IV-a
b. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
c. I – a, II – c, III – d, IV – b
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
Answer:
a. I-d, II-c, III – b, IV-a

Question 24.
Note the given diagram and find out the correct answers.
a. T wave represents the repolarisation of auricle
b. The ‘P’ wave represents the functions of auricle
c. Te ‘Q’ wave represents the depolarization of ventricular septum
d. ‘R’ and ‘S’ wave represents depolarization of auricle

Answer:
b. The ‘P’ wave represents the functions of the auricle

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
What are the types of body fluids?
Answer:
The intra-cellular fluid present inside the cells and the extracellular fluid present outside the cells are the two types of body fluids.

Question 2.
What is meant by interstitial fluid or tissue fluid?
Answer:
A fluid that surrounds the cell is known as interstitial fluid.
(Eg.) Plasma, Lymph

Question 3.
Give short notes on blood?
Answer:

• Blood is the most common body fluid that transports substances from one part of the body to the other. It is known as fluid connective; tissue.
  • The plasma constitutes 55% of total blood volume.
• The average blood volume is about 5000 mZ (51) is an adult weighing 70 kg.

Question 4.
What are the components of blood?
Answer:

1. Red blood cells
2. White blood cells.
3. Platelets

Question 5.
Why is the spleen considered a graveyard of red blood cells?
Answer:

• The average life span of red cells is 120 days.
• After 120 days the red cells are destroyed in the spleen. Hence the spleen said to be a graveyard of RBCs.

Question 6.
What is hematocrit?
Answer:
The ratio of red blood cells to blood plasma is expressed as hematocrit (packed cell volume).

Question 7.
What are the types of lymphocytes? What are its uses?
Answer:

• B – lymphocytes – Produces antibodies
• T – lymphocytes – Involves in cell-mediated immunity.

Question 8.
Classify the monocytes based on its location?
Answer:

Location	Name
1. Central nervous system	Microglia
2. Liver sinuses	Kupffer cells
3. Lungs	Macrophages of alveolei

Question 9.
What are the types of ‘ABO’ blood groups?
Answer:

• A -blood group
• B – blood group
• AB – blood group
• O- blood group

Question 10.
What is meant by alleleic genes?
Answer:
The gene that regulates the synthesis of A, B and O blood groups in ‘ABO’ type.

Question 11.
What are agglutinogens? What is it’s composition?
Answer:
Antigens present on the surface of RBCs are called agglutinogens.

Composition:
Sucrose, D – galactose, N – acetyl glucosamine, 11 terminal amino acids

Question 12.
What are the steps to be taken to prevent erythroblastosis f oetalis?
Answer:
After the first delivery if the first child is the Rh^+ve, we should give anti D – antibodies -Rhocum to the
Rh^-ve mother.

Question 13.
What is serum?
Answer:
Plasma without fibrinogen is called serum.

Question 14.
What is an anticoagulant substance? Where is it synthesized?
Answer:
Heparin is an anti-coagulant substance. It is synthesized in the mast cells.

Question 15.
What are the layers of blood vessels
Answer:

1. Tunica externa – Outer layer
2. Tunica media – Mid layer
3. Tunica indima – Inner layer

Question 16.
Give notes on capillaries.
Answer:

• There is no tunica media in the capillaries
• It is the site for the exchange of materials between blood and tissues.
• The blood volume is high but the flow of blood is low.
• The walls of the capillaries are guarded by semilunar valves.
• The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is present in the capillaries.

Question 17.
What is meant by single circulation?
Answer:

• Single circulation is seen in fishes. There is only one auricle and ventricle in the heart of fishes.
• The blood flows from heart to gills there it gets oxygenated and supplies to the organ and then returns to the heart.

Question 18.
What is meant by incomplete double circulation?
Answer:
Reptiles have an incompletely divided ventricle. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is mixed here. Hence it is known as incomplete double circulation.

Question 19.
What is meant by complete double circulation?
Answer:

• There are well divided 2 auricle and 2 ventricles in the heart of birds, crocodiles and mammals.
• The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is completely separated.
• The pulmonary and systemic circulation is well defined.

Question 20.
Differentiate the tachycardia and bradycardia?
Answer:

Tachycardia

1. The rate of heartbeat increases

Bradycardia

The rate of heartbeat decreases.

Question 21.
What is meant by cardiac output?
Answer:
The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is called the cardiac output.

Question 22.
What is meant by pulse or pulse rate?
Answer:
The rate of heartbeat per minute is called a pulse.

Question 23.
What is meant by pulse pressure?
Answer:
Pulse pressure: Systolic pressure -diastolic pressure.

Question 24.
What is meant by stroke volume?
Answer:
Stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle with each beat.
CO = HR x SV

Question 25.
When will the stroke volume double?
Answer:

• During vigorous exercise, SV may double as a result of venous return.
• The amount of blood pumps out of the ventricle is also increased.

Question 26.
What is meant by mean arterial pressure?
Answer:
Mean arterial pressure is a function of cardiac output and resistance in the arterioles.

Question 27.
What is the baroreceptor reflex?
Answer:
The primary reflex pathway for homeostatic control of mean arterial pressure is the baroreceptor reflex.

Question 28.
What is meant by orthostatic hypotension?
Answer:
When we are lying flat the gravitational force is evenly distributed. When you stand up gravity causes blood to pool in the lower extremities. The decrease in blood pressure upon standing is known as orthostatic hypotension.

Question 29.
What is myogenic heart?
Answer:
The heartbeat of man is originated from the cardiac muscles. Hence human heart is a myogenic heart.

Question 30.
Tabulate the cardiac diseases?
Answer:

Diseases	Defects
1. Coronary heart disease	When the coronary arteries are blocked the amount of blood goes to heart muscles decreases leads to oxygen and nutrient deficiency.
2. Vascular diseases	Infection in the arteries veins and lymphatic glands
3. Aorta disease	The wall of the aorta weakened and bulges to form a balloon-like sac aneurysm.
4. Pericarditis	Inflammation in the layers of the pericardium
5. Cardio myopathy	An abnormally thick heart muscle causing the heart to pump weaker than normal and leads to heart failure.
6. Heart valve disease	One or more of the heart valves does not work.
7. Heart failure	The heart cannot pump as powerfully as it need to in order to supply like body with 0, and nutrients carrying heart muscles to overwork and weaker.
8. Arrhythmia	The heart beats irregularly

Question 31.
What is edema?
Answer:
The concentration of proteins in the blood becomes much lower than usual leads to the accumulation of fluid.

Question 32.
The walls of arteries nearer to the heart are more elastic than the arteries away from the heart? Why?
Answer:

• When the heart contracts the blood is pushed into the artery hence the pressure in the arteries increases.
• To withstand the pressure the artery walls nearer to the heart are more elastic and hence they relax and reduce the pressure.

Question 33.
How is the blood needed for the skeletal muscle during exercise compensated?
Answer:

• During exercise, more blood is needed for skeletal muscle.
• Hence the blood is diverted from the digestive system to skeletal muscle.

Question 34.
Define Laplace law? What do you infer from this?
Answer:

• It states that the tension in the walls of the blood vessel is proportional to the blood pressure and vessel radius.
• This law is used to understand the structure and function of blood vessels and the heart.

Question 35.
When blood volume drops down abruptly? What happens to the stroke volume?
Answer:
When there is a drop in blood volume the blood flows to the heart decreases hence the blood coming out of the heart during contraction decreases. (Stroke volume decreases)

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
List the characteristics of the circulatory system?
Answer:

• Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the luiìgs and tissues.
• Nutrients are taken from the digestive system and are carried to the liver and through blood taken to all parts of the body.
• Wastes from the tissues are carried by the blood and finally removed by the kidneys.
• The hormones are transported to their target organs.
• Circulatory system helps to maintain the homeostasis of the body fluids and body temperature.

Question 2.
Explain the role of the Rh factor?
Answer:
Rh factor is a protein (D antigen) present on the surface of the red blood cells in the majority (80%) of hum. This protein is similar to the protein present in Rhesus monkey, hence the term Rh. Individuals who carry the antigen D on the surface of the red blood cells are Rh⁺ (Rh-positive) and the individuals who do not carry antigen D, are Rh^– (Rh-negative). Rh factor compatibility is also checked before blood transfusion.

When a pregnant woman is Rh⁺ and the foetus is Rh⁺ incompatibility (mismatch) is observed. During the first pregnancy, the Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the mother’s blood as both their blood are separated by the placenta. However, small amount of the foetal antigen becomes exposed to the mother’s blood during the birth of the first child.

The mother’s blood starts to synthesize D antibodies. But during subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh^–) enters the foetal circulation and destroys the foetal RBCs. This becomes fatal to the foetus because the child suffers from anaemia and jaundice. This condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis. This condition can be avoided by administration of anti D antibodies (Rhocum) to the mother immediately after the first childbirth.

Question 3.
Describe red blood cells?
Answer:

1. Red blood cells are abundant than other blood cells. There are about 5 – 5.5 million RBC mm of blood in a healthy man and 4.5 – 5 million RBC mm” in healthy women.
2. The red colour of the RBC is due to the respiratory pigment haemoglobin and it involves in the transport of respiratory gases.
3. The biconcave-shaped RBC s increase the surface area.
4. The RBCs are devoid of nucleus mitochondria ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum.
5. The average life span of RBC is about 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
6. RBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow.

Question 4.
Give notes on platelets?
Answer:

• Platelets are known as thrombocytes.
• They are synthesized by the megakaryocytes of bone marrow.
• They are devoid of a nucleus.
• Blood normally contains 150000 – 350000 platelets mm3 of blood.
• They are involved in blood coagulation.
• The reduction in platelet number can lead to clotting disorders leads to excessive loss of blood from the body.

Question 5.
Arrange the blood groups, their antigens and antibodies and tabulate them.
Answer:

Blood group	Agglutiongens (antigens) on the RBC	Agglutinin antibodies in the plasma
A	A	Anti B
B	B	Anti A
AB	AB	No antibodies
O	No antigens	Anti A and Anti B

Question 6.
What are anastomoses?
Answer:

• These are connections of one blood vessel with another blood vessel.
• They provide an alternate route of blood flow if the original blood vessel is blocked.
• Arteries in the joints contain numerous anastomoses. This allows blood to flow freely even if one of the arteries closes during bending of the joints.

Question 7.
Write notes on coronary blood vessels.
Answer:

• Blood vessels that supply blood to the cardiac muscles with all nutrients and remove wastes are the coronary artries and veins.
• Heart muscle is supplied by two arteries namely the right and left coronary arteries.
• These arteries are the first branch of the aorta.
• These arteries usually surround the heart in the manner of a crown hence called the coronary artery.
• Right ventricle and posterior portion of the left ventricle are supplied by the right coronary artery.
• Anterior and lateral part of the left ventricle is supplied by the left coronary arteries.

Question 8.
Give notes on the heartbeat.
Answer:

1. Rhythmic contraction and expansion of heart is called heartbeat. The contraction of the heart is called systole and the relaxation of the heart is called diastole.
2. The heart normally beats 70 – 72 times per min in a normal adult. Lub and dub sound is produced. These are heart sounds.
3. The sound lub is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid and the dub sound is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves.
4. The heart sounds can be heard through a stethoscope.
5. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.
6. An increased heart rate is called tachycardia and decreased heart rate is called bradycardia.

Question 9.
What is blood pressure?
Answer:

• Blood pressure is the pressure exerted on the surface of blood vessels by the blood.
• This pressure circulates the blood through arteries veins and capillaries.
• There are 2 types of pressure the systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.
• Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries as the chambers of the heart contract.
• Diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries when the heart chambers relax
• Blood pressure is measured using a sphygmomanometer.
• Normal blood pressure in man is about 120 / 80 mm Hg.

Question 10.
What is single circulation and what is double circulation?
Answer:
Single circulation:

• The blood circulates once through heart and supplies blood to all the parts of the body. This is single circulation.
• There is systemic and pulmonary circulation. (Eg.) The two-chambered heart of fishes.

Double circulation:
There are two types of circulation.
Systemic circulation:

• The oxygenated blood entering the aorta from the left ventricle is carried by a network of arteries to the tissues.
• The deoxygenated blood from the tissue is collected and emptied into the right atrium.

Pulmonary circulation:
The blood from right ventricle is taken to the lungs by the pulmonary artery and the oxygenated blood from the lungs is emptied into the left auricle by the pulmonary vein.

Question 11.
Why the pressure in the blood vessels nearer to the alveolei of lung is low and the pressure of arteries nearer to the heart is high?
Answer:

• The alveoli are very thin. Hence exchange of gases are taking place easily.
• If the pressure of the blood vessels of alveoli increases the blood vessels will damage and there is collection of tissue fluid

Question 12.
Explain heart failure or myocardial infarction?
Answer:

• This heart failure is due to a decrease in cardiac muscle contractility.
• When the blood supply to the heart muscle is remarkably reduced it leads to the death of the muscle fibres.
• The blood clot or thrombosis blocks the blood supply to the heart and weakens the muscle fibres.
• It is also called Ischemic heart disease due to a lack of oxygen supply to the heart muscles.
• If this persists it leads to chest pain or angina.
• Prolonged angina leads to death of the heart muscle resulting in heart failure.

Question 13.
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
Answer:
1. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is a life-saving procedure that is done at the time of emergency conditions such as when a person’s breath on heartbeat has stopped abruptly in case of drowning electric shock or heart attack.

2. CPR includes rescue of breath which is achieved by mouth to mouth breathing to deliver oxygen to the victim’s lungs by external chest compression which helps to circulate blood to the vital organs.

3. CPR must be performed within 4 to 6 minutes. Brief electric shock is given to the heart to recover the function of the heart (defibrillation).

Question 14.
What is meant by varicose veins?
Answer:

• The veins are so dilated that the valves prevent the backflow of blood.
• The veins lose their elasticity and become congested.
• Common sites are legs rectal anal regions, and spermatic cords.

Question 15.
What is embolism?
Answer:

• It is the obstruction of the blood vessel.
• It is due to the abnormal mass of materials such as fragments of the blood clot.
• If embolus occurs in the lungs coronary artery or liver that leads to death.

Question 16.
Write notes on Rheumatoid heart disease?
Answer:

• Rheumatic fever is an auto immense disease.
• It is due to the streptococcal infection in the throat.
• The fever occurs 2-4 weeks after the infection.
• The antibodies developed to combat the infection cause damage to the heart.
• The symptoms include fibrous nodules on the mitral valve.
• Fibrosis of the connective tissue and accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity.

Question 17.
Write notes on stroke and Angina pectoris?
Answer:
Stroke:
Stroke is a condition when the blood vessels in the brain bursts or when there is a block in the artery that supplies the brain. The part of the brain tissue that is supplied by this damaged artery dies due to lack of oxygen, (cerebral infarction)

Angina Pectoris:
If Atheroma may partially block the coronary artery and reduce the blood supply to the heart. As a result, there is tightness or choking with difficulty in breathing.
This leads to angina or chest pain. It lasts for a short duration of time.
reduces the blood flow.

Question 19.
Give short notes on heart transplantation?
Answer:

• The first heart transplantation surgery was performed by South African professor – Christian Bernard in the year 1959.
• He has done heart transplantation operation on December 3rd, 1967 Inkrute shour hospital at Capetown.
• In India, in 1994 at AIMS hospital on August 3rd Dr. Anangipalli Venu Gopal has performed heart transplantation surgery.

Question 20.
What is an aneurysm?
Answer:

• The weekened regions of the wall of the artery orvein bulge to forma baloon like sac. This is called aneurysm.
• Unruptured aneurysm may exert pressure on the adjacent tissues or may burst causing massive hemorrhage.

( 5 marks)

V. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe white blood cells.
Answer:

• White blood cells are colourless amoeboid nucleated cells devoid of hemoglobin and hence colourless.
• 6000 – 8000 per cubic mm of WBC s are seen in the blood. WBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow these are of two types.
• Granulocytes and agranolocytes.

I Granulocytes:
a) Neutrophils:

• They are also called heterophils. Hence the nucleus has 3-4 lobes they are called polymorphonuclear.
• This constitutes about 60 – 65 % of the total WBC.

b) Eosinophils:

• They have a bilobed nucleus.
  Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils
• It constitutes about 2 – 3 % of total WBCs.
• Their number increases during allergic reactions.

c) Basophils:

• They are less numerous than any other type of WBCs constituting 0.5 % -1 % of total WBCs.
• The nucleus is large and has granules in the cytoplasm.
• They secrete heparin serotonin and histamines.

II A granulocytes:
a) Lymphocytes:

• They are secreted in the lymph gland and spleen.
• Lymphocytes constitute 28% of WBCs. They have large nucleus and small amount of cytoplasm.
• The two types of lymphocytes are B and T cells.
• B cells produce antibodies to neutralize the harmful effects of foreign substances. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity.

b) Monocytes:

• They are phagocytic cells. They have kidney-shaped nucleus. They constitute 1 – 3 % of the total WBCs.
• The macrophages of the central nervous system are the microglia and in the liver they are called “Kupffer cells” and in the pulmonary region they are the alveolar macrophages.

Question 2.
Explain cardiac output in a man?
Answer:
The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is called cardiac output (CO). It is a product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV). Heart rate or pulse is the number of beats per minute. Pulse pressure = systolic pressure – diastolic pressure. Stroke volume (SV) is the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle with each beat. SV depends on ventricular contraction.

CO = HR x SV. SV represents the difference between EDV (amount of blood that collects in a ventricle during diastole) and ESV (volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction). SV = EDV – ESV. According to Frank-Starling law of the heart, the critical factor controlling SV is the degree to which the cardiac muscle cells are stretched just before they contract.

The most important factor stretching cardiac muscle is the amount of blood returning to the heart and distending its ventricles, venous return.
During vigorous exercise, SV may double as a result of venous return.

Heart’s pumping action normally maintains a balance between cardiac output and venous return. Because the heart is a double pump, each side can fail independently of the other. If the left side of the heart fails, it results in pulmonary congestion and if the right side fails, it results in peripheral congestion. Frank – Starling effect protects the heart from abnormal increase in blood volume.

Question 3.
What is the coagulation of blood?
Answer:
The mechanism by which excessive blood loss is prevented by the formation of clot is called blood coagulation.

• The clotting process begins when the endothelium of the blood vessel is damaged and the connective tissue in its wall is exposed to the blood.
• Platelets adhere to collagen fibres in the connective tissue and release blood clotting factors.
• The blood clotting factors with platelets form the platelet plug which provides emergency protection against blood loss.
• Clotting factors released from the clumbed platelet mix with clotting factors in the plasma.
• The inactivated prothrombin is converted into active thrombin in the presence of calcium and vitamin K.

Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin in plasma Fibrinogen Thrombin Fibrin

The threads of fibers become interlinked into a patch that traps blood cell and seals the injured vessel and prevents blood loss.

Question 4.
Give an account of the composition of lymph and explains its significances?
Answer:

• About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to the blood system by means of lymph vessel.
• The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph.

Lymphatic system:

• The lymphatic system consists of a complex network of thin-walled ducts having group of immune response cells.
• The lymphatic vessels have smooth walls that run parallel to the blood vessels in the skin along the respiratory and digestive tracts.
• These vessels serve as return ducts for the fluids that are continually diffusing out of the blood capillaries into the body tissues.
• The lymphatic nodes arc concentrated in the neck ingunial axillaries respiratory and digestive tracts.
• The lymph fluid flowing out of the lymph nodes flows into large collecting ducts which finally drains into larger veins that run beneath the collar bone the subclavian vein and is emptied into the bloodstream.
• The lymph nodes contain macrophage cells and they prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the bloodstream. Cells found in the lymphatics are lymphocytes.
• Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall

Question 5.
Describe the structure of the heart with a diagram?
Answer:

• The structure of the human heart was described by Raymond devises in 1706.
• It is situated in the thoracic cavity and its apex portion is slightly tilted towards left. It weighs about 300 g in a adult. The size of our heart is roughly equal to a closed fist.
• Heart is divided into four chambers upper two auricles and lower two ventricles.
• The walls of the ventricles are thicker than the auricle.
• The heart is covered with pericardium. The pericardial space is filled with pericardial fluid.
• The heart wall is made up of three layers. The outer epicardium middle myocardium the inner endocardium.
• The two auricles are separated by inter auricular septum and the two ventricles are separated by interventricular septum.
• Tricuspid valve is present in between the opening of right auricle and right ventricle and the bicuspid valve is present in between the opening of left auricle and left ventricle.
• From the right ventricle arises pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle arises the dorsal aorta.
• The semilunar valve is present at the beginning of these arteries.
• The deoxygenated blood from all the parts of body reaches left auricle through superior and inferior venacava.
• The oxygenated blood reaches the left auricle through four pulmonary vein.

Question 6.
Describe the functioning of heart with a diagram or Describe about the cardiac cycle?
Answer:

The events that occur at the beginning of heart beat and lasts until the beginning of next beat is called cardiac cycle. It lasts for 0.8 seconds.

Phase I:
Ventricular diastole – During this phase the blood pressure increases AV valves are opened and the semilunar valves are closed. Blood flows from the auricles into the ventricles passively.

Phase II:
During atrial systole the ventricle is in relaxed position. The contraction of the auricles pushes maximum volume of blood to the ventricles.
The end-diastolic volume is related to the length of the cardiac muscle fibre. More the muscle is stretched greater the EDV and the stroke volume.

Phase III:
Ventricular systole – During this phase the ventricular pressure increases and the AV value closes.
The blood is pumped from the ventricles into the aorta.

Phase IV:
Ventricular systole – During this phase the ventricular pressure increases that forces semi lunar valve to open.
Blood is ejected out of the ventricles without back flow of blood.
This point is the end of systolic volume.

Phase V:
Ventricular diastole – The ventricles begins to relax pressure in the arteries exceeds ventricular pressure resulting in the closure of semilunar valves.
The heart returns to phase I of the cardiac cycle.

Question 7.
Explain Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)?
Answer:
In 1956, James Elam and Peter Safar were the first to use mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. CPR is a life-saving procedure that is done at the time of emergency conditions such as when a person’s breath or heart beat has stopped abruptly in case of drowning, electric shock or heart attack.

CPR includes rescue of breath, which is achieved by mouth to mouth breathing, to deliver oxygen to the victim’s lungs by external chest compressions which helps to circulate blood to the vital organiser.

CPR must be performed within 4 to 6 minutes after cessation of breath to prevent brain damage or death. Along with CPR, defibrillation is also done. Defibrillation me a brief electric shock is given to the heart to recover the function of the heart.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement

11th Bio Zoology Guide Locomotion and Movement Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

Question 1.
Muscles are derived from
a) ectoderm
b) mesoderm
c) endoderm
d) neuroectoderm
Answer:
b) mesoderm

Question 2.
Muscles are formed by
a) myocytes
b) leucocytes
c) osteocytes
d) lymphocytes
Answer:
a) myocytes

Question 3.
The muscles attached to the bones are called
a) skeletal muscle
b) cardiac muscle
c) involuntary muscle
d) smooth muscles
Answer:
a) skeletal muscle

Question 4.
Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones by
a) tendon
b) ligament
c) pectin
d) fibrin
Answer:
a) tendon

Question 5.
The bundle of muscle fibers is called
a) Myofibrils
b) fascicle
c) sarcomere
d) sarcoplasm
Answer:
b) fascicle

Question 6.
The pigment present in the muscle fiber to store oxygen is
a) myoglobin
b) troponin
c) myosin
d) actin
Answer:
a) myoglobin

Question 7.
The functional unit of a muscle fibre is
a) sarcomere
b) sarcoplasm
c) myosin
d) actin
Answer:
a) sarcomere

Question 8.
The protein present in the thick filament is
a) myosin
b) actin
c) pectin
d) leucine
Answer:
a) myosin

Question 9.
The protein present in the thin filament is
a) myosin
b) actin
c) pectin
d) leucine
Answer:
b) actin

Question 10.
The region between two successive Z-discs is called a
a) sarcomere
b) microtubule
c) myoglobin
d) actin
Answer:
a) sarcomere

Question 11.
Each skeletal muscle is covered by
a) epimysium
b) perimysium
c) endomysium
d) hyponychium
Answer:
a) epimysium

Question 12.
The knee joint is an example of
a) saddle joint
b) hinge joint
c) pivot joint
d) gliding joint
Answer:
b) hinge joint

Question 13.
The name of the joint present between the atlas and axis is
a) synovial joint
b) pivot joint
c) saddle joint
d) hinge joint
Answer:
b) pivot joint

Question 14.
ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in
a) actinin
b) troponin
c) myosin
d) actin
Answer:
c) myosin

Question 15.
Synovial fluid is found in
a) Ventricles of the brain
b) Spinal cord
c) immovable joint
d) freely movable joints
Answer:
d) freely movable joints

Question 16.
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as
a) Gout
b) myasthenia gravis
c) osteoporosis
d) osteomalacia
Answer:
a) Gout

Question 17.
The acetabulum is located in
a) collar bone
b) hip bone
c) shoulder bone
d) thigh bone
Answer:
b) hip bone

Question 18.
Appendicular skeleton is
a) girdles and their limbs
b) vertebrae
c) skull and vertebral column
d) ribs and sternum
Answer:
a) girdles and their limbs

Question 19.
The type of movement exhibits by the macrophages are
a) flagellar
b) ciliary
c) muscular
d) amoeboid
Answer:
d) amoeboid

Question 20.
The pointed portion of the elbow is
a) acromion process
b) glenoid cavity
c) olecranon process
d) symphysis
Answer:
c) olecranon process

Question 21.
Name the different types of movement
Answer:

• Amoeboid movement
• Ciliary movement
• Flagellar movement
• Muscular movement

Question 22.
Name the filaments present in the Sarcomere.
Answer:
Thick and thin filaments are the two types of filaments present inside the sarcomere.

Question 23.
Name the contractile proteins present in the skeletal muscle.
Answer:

• Myosin – thick filament
• Actin – Thin filament

Question 24.
When describing a skeletal muscle. What does “Striated mean?
Answer:
Each skeletal muscle fibre has a repeated series of dark and light bands. The dark A-bands and light I-bands give a striated appearance to the muscle.

Question 25.
How does an isotonic contraction take place?
Answer:
In isotonic contraction, the length of the muscle changes but the tension remains constant.
(eg) lifting dumbbells and weight lifting.

Question 26.
How does an isometric contraction take place?
Answer:
In isometric contraction, the length of the muscle does not change but the tension of the muscle changes. The force produced is changed, e.g., pushing against a wall, holding a heavy bag.

Question 27.
Name the bones of the skull.
Answer:
The cranial bones are 8 in number.

1. Paired parietal
2. Paired temporal
3. frontal
4. Sphenoid
5. Occipital
6. Ethmoid

Question 28.
Which is the only jointless bone in the human body?
Answer:
The jointless bone is the hyoid bone in our throat. The hyoid bone (lingual bone) is a horseshoe.

Question 29.
List the three main parts of the axial skeleton.
Answer:

1. Cranium
2. Hyoid (Lingual)
3. Vertebral column
4. Thoracic cavity.

Question 30.
How is tetany caused?
Answer:
Tetany is caused when rapid muscle spasms occur in the muscles due to deficiency of parathyroid hormone resulting in reduced calcium levels in the body.

Question 31.
How does rigor mortis happen?
Answer:
After the death of an individual, the membrane of muscle cells becomes more permeable to calcium ions. This happens due to the partial contraction of skeletal muscles. The contracted muscles are unable to relax. This condition is known as rigor mortis.

Question 32.
What are the different types of rib bones that form the rib cage?
Answer:
Thoracic vertebrae ribs and sternum together constitute the ribcage.

Question 33.
What are the bones that make the pelvic girdle?
Answer:

• Ilium
• Ischium
• Pubis

Question 34.
List the disorders of the muscular system.
Answer:

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Tetany
3. Muscle fatigue
4. Atrophy
5. Muscle pull
6. Muscular dystrophy

Question 35.
Explain the sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction.
Answer:
Sliding filament theory is an active process. It is proposed by Andrw F. Huxley in 1954 and Rolf Niedergerke.

• Muscle contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse sents by the central nervous system through a motor neuron
• When the nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction acetylcholine is released and created action potential.
• This action potential triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
• The released calcium ions bind to troponin on thin filaments.
• The active sites are exposed to the heads of myosin to form a cross bridge. Hence actin and myosin form a protein complex called actomyosin.
• Utilizing the energy released from the hydrolysis of ATP the myosin head rotates until it forms a 90° angle with a long axis of the filament.
• The power stroke begins after the myosin head and hinges region tilt from a 90° angle to a 45° angle.
• The cross-bridge transforms into a strong high force bond which allows the myosin head to swells it.
• When the myosin head swells it pulls the attached actin filament towards the centre of the A – band.
• The myosin returns back to its relaxed state and releases ADP and phosphate ions. A Newer ATP molecule binds to the head of the myosin and the cross-bridge is broken.
• At the end of each power stroke each myosin head detaches from actin then swivels back and binds to a new actin molecule to start another contraction cycle.
• The power stroke repeats many times and the thin filaments move toward the centre of the sarcomere.
• In this process, there is no change in the lengths of thick or thin filaments.
• The Z – discs attached to the actin filaments are also pulled inwards from both sides causing the shortening of the sarcomere. This process continues.
• When motor impulse stops the calcium ions are purnbed back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum results in the masking of the active sites of the actin filament and the myosin head fails to bind with the actin and causes Z – discs back to their original relaxed position.

Question 36.
What are the Benefits of regular exercise?
Answer:

1. The benefits of regular exercise are:
2. The muscles used in exercise grow larger and stronger.
3. The resting heart rate goes down.
4. More enzymes are synthesized in the muscle fiber.
5. Ligaments and tendons become stronger.
6. Joints become more flexible.
7. Protection from a heart attack.
8. Influences hormonal activity.
9. Improves cognitive functions.
10. Prevents obesity.
11. Promotes confidence, esteem.
12. Aesthetically better with a good physique.
13. Overall well-being with good quality of life.
14. Prevents depression, stress, and anxiety.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Locomotion and Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Which of the following is not related to skeletal muscle?
(a) It is attached to the bone
(b) It is striated
(c) It is an involuntary muscle
(d) It brings about movement of the organ
Answer:
(c) It is an involuntary muscle

Question 2.
Where is a ciliary movement taking place?
Answer:
a) Respiratory tract
b) Stomach
c) oesophagus
d) Reproductive tract
Answer:
d) Reproductive tract

Question 3.
The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is ……………….
(a) Sarcolemma
(b) Sarcoplasm
(c) Ectoplasm
(d) Endoplasm
Answer:
(b) Sarcoplasm

Question 4.
Muscles are made up of ………………….
a) Myocytes
b) Lymphocytes
c) adenocytes
d) leucocytes
Answer:
a) Myocytes

Question 5.
The cranial bones are ………………..
(a) 22
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 6.
Name the connective tissue which covers the entire muscle?
a) Epimycium
b) Perimycium
c) Endomyciurn
d) Mesornyscium
Answer:
a) Epimycium

Question 7.
The number of vertebrates is ………………..
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 33
Answer:
(d) 33

Question 8.
Name the membrane which covers each muscle fiber?
a) Epimycium
b) Perimycium
c) Endomycium
d) Mesomysciurn
Answer:
c) Endomycium

Question 9.
Match and Find the Correct Pair
1. Sarcoplasm – a) Respiratory pigment
2. Myoglobin – b) Glucose giver
3. Glycosome – c) Unit of skeletal muscle
4. Sarcomere – d) cytoplasm

Answer:
a) I- d, II – a, III – b,IV- c

Question 10.
Find the correct and wrong statement and arrange the following statement.
1. The contraction of muscle fibres depends on the actin and myosin protein.
2. The thick muscle fibres depend on Myosin.
3. Each meromyosin molecule will have a globular head with a long arm.
4. The head of the meromyosin bears an actin-binding site and an ATP binding site.

Answer:
a) True True False True

Question 11.
The joint between carpal and metacarpals is ………………..
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Ball and socket joint
(c) Saddle joint
(d) Hinge joint
Answer:
(c) Saddle joint

Question 12.
Who has proposed sliding – filaments hypothesis?
a) Andrew F. Huxley and Rolf Nieder gerke
b) Andrew F. Huxley and Nelson
c) Andrew F. Pluxley and Darwin
d) Andrew F. Huxley and Mendal
Answer:
a) Andrew F. Huxley and Rolf Nieder gerke

Question 13.
Which of the following disorders is related to the endocrine gland?
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Tetany
(c) Atrophy
(d) Muscular dystrophy
Answer:
(b) Tetany

Question 14.
Find out the wrong pair
a) Fast – oxidative fibres – have high ATP ase activity
b) Slow – oxidative fibres – low rates of ATP ase activity
c) Oxidative fibres – less number of mitochondria
d) Red muscle fibres – oxidative fibres
Answer:
c) Oxidative fibres – less number of mitochondria

Question 15.
Which of the following is deficiency disorder?
(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gouty arthritis
(d) Osteoporosis
Answer:
(d) Osteoporosis

Question 16.
………………………… a number of bones from the endoskeleton of man?
a) 210
b) 220
c) 206
d) 209
Answer:
c) 206

Question 17.
Hove many bones are there in the axial and appendicular skeleton?
a) 80 and 126
b) 126 and 80
c) 80 and 120
d) 80 and 118
Answer:
a) 80 and 126

Question 18.
How many bones are there in the facial and cranial bones?
a) 14 and 9
b) 14 and 8
c) 14 and 10
d) 14 and 12
Answer:
b) 14 and 8

Question 19.
Name the opening of the temporal bone
a) External auditory meatus
b) Nasal opening
c) Optic opening
d) Mouth
Answer:
a) External auditory meatus

Question 20.
Name the U-shaped single bone present at the base of the buccal cavity.
a) Palantine bone
b) Hyoid bone
c) Ethmoid bone
d) Sphenoid bone
Answer:
b) Hyoid bone

Question 21.
How many bones from the vertebral column?
a) 33
b) 32
c) 30
d) 36
Answer:
a) 33

Question 22.
Match and find the correct pair
1) Cervical vertebrae – a) – 5
2) Thoracic – b)-l
3) Pelvic bone – 0-7
4) Coccyx bone – d) -12

Answer:
a) I -c, II – d, III – a,IV – b

Question 23.
In which bone ………….. situated?
a) Cervical vertebra
b) thoracic vertebra
c) Pelvic vertebra
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 24.
Name the first vertebra?
a) Atlas
b) Maleus
c) Incus
d) Stapes
Answer:
a) Atlas

Question 25.
Name the second vertebra?
a) Atlas
b) Axis
c) Maleus
d) Stapes
Answer:
b) Axis

Question 26.
How many are the number of ribs?
a) 14 pair
b) 13 pair
c) 12 pair
d) 15 pair
Answer:
c) 12 pair

Question 27.
Match and find the correct answer
1) ribs – a) – 1, 7
2) True ribs – b) -11, 12
3) False ribs – c) – Bicephalic
4) Floating ribs – d) – 8, 10

Answer:
b) I – c, II – a, III – d,IV -b

Question 28.
How many bones are there appendicular skeleton?
a) 130
b) 140
c) 126
d) 122
Answer:
c) 126

Question 29.
Which forms the appendicular skeleton?
a) Upper and hindlimbs
b) Upper limbs and thoracic bones
c) Hind and vertebral column
d) Hind and cranial bones
Answer:
a) Upper and hindlimbs

Question 30.
Name the bones which join the axial and appendicular skeleton.
a) Clavicle bone
b) Scapula
c) Acromian process
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Clavicle bone

Question 31.
Flow many bones are there in the upper arm.
a) 30
b) 32
c) 34
d) 36
Answer:
a) 30

Question 32.
Find the wrong pair.
a) Wrist bone – 8
b) Fore arm bones – 30
c) Facial bone – 16
d) Cranial bones – 8
Answer:
c) Facial bone – 16

Question 33.
Find the wrong pair
a) Palm bones – 5
b) Phalanges – 14
c) Thoracic bone – 12
d) Vertebral column – 33
Answer:
d) Vertebral column – 33

Question 34.
Match and find the correct pair.
1) Cervical vertebra – a) 12
2) Thoracic vertebra – b) 1
3) Pelvic vertebra – c) 7
4) Coccyx – d) 5

Answer:
a) I- c, II – a, III – d, IV – b

Question 35.
The oxidative skeletal muscle fibres are termed as
a) Fatty muscle fibres
b) White muscle fibres
c) red muscle fibres
d) yellow muscle
Answer:
c) red muscle fibres

Question 36.
Whether the following statement is correct or wrong find out the correct sequence.
1) Pelvic bone Ilium, Ischium, and pubis
2) Acetabulum cavity is present in the sacrum
3) The head of the thigh bone fits in the acetabulum cavity
4) The pubic bones articulate anteriorly at the pubic symphysis
Sequence:
a) 1 – True, 2 – False, 3 – True, 4 – True
b) 1 – False, 2 – False, 3 – True, 4 – True
c) 1 – False, 2 – True, 3 – True, 4 – True
d) 1 – True, 2 – True, 3 – False, 4 – True
Answer:
a) 1 – True, 2 – False, 3 – True, 4 – True

Question 37.
Which is the prominent bone of the pelvic bone?
a) Ilium
b) Ischium
c) Pubis
d) all the above
Answer:
a) Ilium

Question 38.
What is the number of hind limbs?
a) 32
b) 37
c) 30
d) 34
Answer:
c) 30

Question 39.
Name the longest bone
a) Femur
b) Humerus bone
c) Tibia
d) all the above

Answer:
a) I – a, II – d, III – c, IV – b

Question 40.
Match and find the correct pair.
1)Patella – a) 14
2) Tarsus – b) 5
3) Metatarsus – c) 7 bones
4) Phalanges – d) kneecap
Answer:
3) Metatarsus – c) 7 bones

Question 41.
Name the membrane which covers the femur bone.
a) Periosteum
b) Endosteum
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteoblast
Answer:
a) Periosteum

Question 42.
Name the joints seen in the cranial region
a) Fibrous joints
b) Cartilagenous joints
c) Diarthroses joints
d) Synovial joints
Answer:
a) Fibrous joints

Question 43.
The Synovial fluid is seen in joints.
a) Cartilagenous joints
b) Diarthroses joints
c) Fibrous joints
d) all the above
Answer:
b) Diarthroses joints

Question 44.
Name the diseases due to the deficiency of acetylcholine.
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Tetany
c) Duchene muscular dystrophy
d) Muscle pull
Answer:
a) Myasthenia gravis

Question 45.
Name the disease due to the deficiency of ATP
a) Muscle fatigue
b) Muscle pull
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Tetany
Answer:
a) Muscle fatigue

Question 46.
A tear in the muscle
a) Muscle fatigue
b) Muscle pull
c) Atrophy
d) Muscular dystrophy
Answer:
b) Muscle pull

Question 47.
Name arthritis due to aging.
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Gout
d) Osteoporosis
Answer:
a) Osteoarthritis

Question 48.
Osteoporosis is due to
a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Magnesium
d) Potassium
Answer:
a) Calcium

Question 49.
The deposition of urate crystals on the joints is called as
a) Gout
b) Rheumatoid
c) arthritis
d) Osteoporosis
Answer:
a) Gout

Question 50.
Assertion A: Acetylcholine is secreted in the Neuromuscular junction.
Reason B: If acetylcholine is not secreted there won’t be any multiple gated channels in the sarcolemma.
a) A true B wrong
b) A true B this explains the action of A
c) A wrong B true
d) A wrong B wrong
Answer:
b) A true B this explains the action of A

Question 51.
Assertion A: The upper limbs are attached to the pectoral girdles.
Reason B: The pectoral girdles are very light and allow the mobility of the hand
a) A wrong B wrong
b) A True B does not explain the A
c) A True B explains the functions of A
d) A True B wrong
Answer:
c) A True B explains the functions of A

Question 52.
Assertion A: In the pelvis bone a deep socket is present called acetabulum.
Reason B: The head of the femur bone fits in the acetabulum.
a) A True B explains the functions of A
b) A wrong B explains the functions of A
c) A True B wrong
d) B does not explain the structure of B
Answer:
a) A True B explains the functions of A

Question 53.
Assertion A: The pelvis of the female is shallow wide and flexible in nature
Cause B: This helps during pregnancy.
a) A True B explains the functions of A
b) A wrong B explains the functions of A
c) A True B wrong
d) B does not explain the structure of A
Answer:
a) A True B explains the functions of A

Question 54.
Assertion A: The lower arm carries the entire weight of the body and is subjected to exceptional forces when we jump or run.
Reason B: To bear the weight of the body it has 46 bones
a) A True B True
b) A wrong B wrong
c) A True B does not explain the functions of A
d) A True B Wrong
Answer:
c) A True B does not explain the functions of A

Question 55.
Assertion A: The cranium belongs to immovably fixed joints.
Reason B: Structures of the flat skull bones are fibrous joints.
a) A True B Wrong
b) A True B explains the structure of A
c) A True B True
d) B does not explain the structure of A
Answer:
b) A True B explains the structure of A

Question 56.
Assertion A: The decreased synthesis of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction, causes myasthenia gravis.
Reason B: This leads to muscle fatigue weakness, paralysis.
a) A and B are True
b) A and B are wrong
c) A True B wrong
d) A wrong B True
Answer:
a) A and B are True

Question 57.
Match and arrange the sequence:


Answer:
a) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B

Question 58.
Match and arrange the sequence:


Answer:
b) I – C, II – D, III – B, IV -A

2 marks

II. Very Short answers

Question 1.
What is amoeboid movement?
Answer:
The movement of cells by streaming movements of the cytoplasm forming pseudo-podia is known as amoeboid movement, e.g., macrophages.

Question 2.
What are the types of muscles?
Answer:

• Skeletal muscle
• Visceral muscles
• Cardiac muscles

Question 3.
What is flagellar movement?
Answer:
The movement due to the lashing of flagella is known as flagellar movement, e.g., sperm cells.

Question 4.
Name the regulatory proteins in the thin filaments.
Answer:

• Tropomyosin
• Troponin

Question 5.
What is a fascicle?
Answer:
Each muscle is made up of bundles of muscle fibres called fascicles.

Question 6.
On the basis of ATP formation, how are muscles classified?
Answer:

• Oxidative fibres
• Glycolytic fibres

Question 7.
What is epimysium?
Answer:
The connective tissue covering the whole muscle is the epimysium.

Question 8.
What is perimysium?
Answer:
The connective tissue covering around each fascicle is the perimysium.

Question 9.
Differentiate the oxidative fibre from the glycolytic fibre.
Answer:

Oxidative fibre	Glycolytic fibre
1. Numerous mitochondria	There are few mitochondria
2. Depends on blood flow	Not depend on blood flow
3. Myoglobin is present	No myoglobin
4. These are known as red muscle fibres	These are called muscle fibres as white muscle fibres

Question 10.
What is endomysium?
Answer:
The connective tissue surrounding the muscle fibre is called the endomysium.

Question 11.
What is a tendon?
Answer:
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by a bundle of collagen fibres known as tendons.

Question 12.
What is an endoskeleton?
Answer:
It is found inside the body of vertebrates. It is composed of bones and cartilages, (eg) Man.

Question 13.
What is sarcoplasm?
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called the sarcoplasm.

Question 14.
What are Glycosomes?
Answer:
Glycosomes are the granules of stored glycogen that provide glucose during the period of muscle fiber activity.

Question 15.
What is sarcomere?
Answer:
The functional unit of the skeletal muscle is known as the sarcomere.

Question 16.
Name the ear ossicles?
Answer:

• Malleus
• incus
• stapes

Question 17.
What is meromyosin?
Answer:
The monomer of the myosin molecule is called meromyosin.

Question 18.
Name the openings of the skull?
Answer:

• The orbits
• Nasal cavity
• Foramen magnum

Question 19.
What is meant by foramen magnum?
Answer:

• It is a large opening found at the posterior base of the skull.
• Through this opening, the medulla oblongata of the brain descends down as the spinal cord.

Question 20.
What are oxidative fibres?
Answer:
The muscle fibres that contain numerous mitochondria and have a high capacity for oxidative phosphorylation are classified as oxidative fibres. They are also called red muscle fibres.

Question 21.
Name the first two bones of the vertebral column.
Answer:

1. Atlas
2. Axis

Question 22.
What are the functions of the vertebral column?
Answer:

• It protects the spinal cord.
• Supports the head
• Serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back.

Question 23.
Give short notes on sternum?
Answer:

• The sternum is a flat bone on the midventral line of j the thorax.
• It provides space for the attachment of the thoracic ribs and abdominal muscles.

Question 24.
What is a metaphysis?
Answer:
The bone region where the diaphysis and epiphyses meet is called the metaphysis.

Question 25.
What are true ribs?
Answer:
The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Daily they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum.

Question 26.
What is endosteum?
Answer:
Internal bone surfaces are covered with a delicate connective tissue membrane called the endosteum.

Question 27.
What is the sternum?
Answer:
The sternum is a flat bone on the midventral line of the thorax. It provides space for the attachment of the thoracic ribs and abdominal muscles.

Question 28.
What is meant by an appendicular skeleton?
Answer:
The bones of the upper and lower limbs along with their girdles constitute the appendicular skeleton. It is composed by 126 bones.

Question 29.
White the 3 segments of the lower limb.
Answer:

1. The thigh
2. the leg or the shank and
3. the foot.

Question 30.
What is meant by the acromion process?
Answer:
The scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine which projects as a flat expanded process called the acromion.

Question 31.
What is meant by the glenoid cavity?
Answer:
Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.

Question 32.
What is meant by the olecranon process?
Answer:
The radius and ultra bones present in the forearm that form the pointed portion of the elbow called the olecranon process.

Question 33.
What is meant by carpal tunnel?
Answer:

• There are 8 bones in the wrist arranged in two rows of four each.
• The anterior surface of the wrist has a tunnel-like appearance. This tunnel is termed a carpal tunnel.

Question 34.
Name the bones which form the coxal bones.
Answer:

• Ilium
• Ischium
• Pubis

Question 35.
What is meant by pubic symphysis?
Answer:
Ventrally the two halves of the pelvic girdle meet and form the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.

Question 36.
Where calcium ion binds with the muscle fibre? Name the molecules which bind with calcium?
Answer:

• The calcium released from the sarcoplasm binds with the thin fibre of the muscle.
• The released calcium binds to troponin thin filaments.

III. Fill Up The Blanks With Suitable Options

1. Scapula – Acromian process
……………. – Bones of the upper arm
2. First 7 pair of rib bones – True ribs
11 and 12th pair of ribs – …………….
3. Cervical vertebrae – 7
……………. – Lumbar bones
4. Skull bones – 22
……………. – Skull bones
5. Thick fibres – Myosin
……………. – Thin fibres
6. Amoeboid movement – Macrophage cells
……………. – Sperm cells
Answer:

1. Olecranon process
2. Floating ribs
3. 5
4. 8
5. Actin
6. Flagellated movement

3 marks

IV. Short answers

Question 1.
Give short notes on skeletal muscle and their covering membranes.
Answer:

• Each muscle is made up of bundles of muscle fibres called fascicles. Each muscle fibre contains rod-like structures called myofibrils.
• The connective tissue covering the muscle is the epimysium.
• The covering around each fascicle is the perimysium.
• The muscle fibre is surrounded by endomysium.

Question 2.
Give the structure of a skeletel muscle fibre.
Answer:

• Each muscle fibre is thin and elongated.
• Most of the taper at one or both ends.
• Muscle fibres are surrounded by sarcolemma the cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called the sarcoplasm.
• It contains glycosomes myoglobin and sarcoplasmic reticulum.
• Myoglobin is a red-coloured respiratory pigment and glycosomes are reserved glycogen.
• Muscle fibres contain muscle protein actin and myosin.

Question 3.
Give notes on slow oxidative fibres.
Answer:

• These fibers have low rates of myosin ATP hydrolysis but have the ability to make large amounts of ATP.
• This type of fiber seen in long-distance swimmers and long-distance runners.

Question 4.
Give notes on fast – oxidative fibres.
Answer:

• These fibres have high myosin ATP as activity and can make large amounts of ATP.
• They are suited for rapid action.

Question 5.
Give notes on fast glycolytic fibres.
Answer:

• These fibres have myosin ATP ase activity but cannot make as much ATP as oxidative fibres because their source of ATP in glycolysis.
• These fibres are best suited for rapid intense actions such as short sprints at maximum speed.

Question 6.
Name the facial bones.
Answer:
There are 14 facial bones.

1. Pair of maxilla
2. Pair of Zygomatic
3. Pair of Palantine
4. Pair of lacrimal
5.  Pair of Nasal
6. Mandible or lower jaw
7. Vomer

Question 7.
Give notes on fibrous joints.
Answer:

• They are immovably fixed joints in which no movement between the bones is possible.
• Sutures of the flat skull bones are fibrous joints.

Question 8.
Give notes on cartilaginous joints.
Answer:
They are slightly movable joints in which the joint surface is separated by cartilage and slight movement is only possible.

Question 9.
Give notes on synovial joints.
Answer:
They are freely movable joints the articulating bones are separated by a cavity which is filled with synovial fluid.

Question 10.
Give notes on myasthenia gravis.
Answer:

• It is an autoimmune disorder affecting the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue.
• Weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
• Acetylcholine receptors on the sarcolemma are blocked by antibodies leading to weakness of muscles.
• When the disease progresses it can make chewing swallowing talking and even breathing difficult.

Question 11.
Give notes on muscle fatigue.
Answer:

• It is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle contraction.
• This is due to lack of ATP and accumulation of lactic acid by anaerobic break down of glucose.

Question 12.
Give notes on the Atrophy of muscles.
Answer:

• A decrease in the activity of muscles results in the atrophy of muscles.
• There is a reduction in the size of the muscle and makes the muscle become weak which occurs with lack of usage as in chronic bedridden patients.

Question 13.
What is meant by muscle pull?
Answer:

• Muscle pull is actually a muscle tear.
  Atraumatic pulling of the fibres produces a tear known as a sprain.
• This can occur due to the sudden stretching of muscle beyond the point of elasticity.
• Back pain is a common problem caused by muscle pull due to improper posture with static sitting for long hours.

Question 14.
What is meant by muscular dystrophy?
Answer:

• The group of diseases collectively called muscular dystrophy is associated with the progressive degeneration of skeletel muscle fibers weakening the muscles and leading to death from lung or heart failure.
• (eg) Duchene muscular dystrophy.

Question 15.
What is meant by skeletel muscle glycogen analysis?
Answer:

• This is used to measure an athlete’s muscle glycogen.
• Muscle glycogen provides the main source of energy during anaerobic exercise.
• A single glycogen molecule may contain 5000 glucose molecules.

Question 16.
Give notes on osteoporosis?
Answer:

• It occurs due to deficiency of vitamin D and hormonal imbalance.
• It causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adult females.
• The bones become soft and fragile.
• It can be minimized with adequate calcium intake vitamin D intake and regular physical activities.

Question 17.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Answer:

• The narrow passage bounded by bones and ligaments in the wrist gets narrowed and pinches the median nerve.
• This syndrome is mostly seen among clerks, software professionals, and people who constantly play or text on mobile phones.

5 Marks

V. Give Detailed Answers 

Question 1.
Explain the structure of skeletal muscle fibre?
Answer:

1. Each muscle fibre is thin and elongated.
2. It has multiple oval nuclei beneath sarcolemma.
3. The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called sarcoplasm.
4. It contains glycosomes, the stored glycogen granules, myoglobin, respiratory pigment, and sarcoplasmic reticulum.
5. Actin and myosin are muscle proteins present in the muscle fibre.
6. Each myofibril has a repeated series of dark and light bands called A-bands and I-bands.
7. Each dark band has a lighter region in its middle called the H-zone.
8. Each H-zone is bisected vertically by a dark line called the M-line.
9. Each light I-band has a darker mid-line area called the Z-disc.
10. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the skeletal muscle. It is a region of a myofibril between two successive Z-discs.
11. Sarcomere has thick and thin filaments. The thick filaments extend the entire length of the A-band, the thin filaments extend across the I-band and partly into the A-band.
12. The invagination of the sarcolemma forms transverse tubules (T-tubules) and they penetrate into the junction between the A and I-bands.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of the sarcomere.
Answer:

• The unit of the skeletal muscle is the sarcomere A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive z – discs.
• It contains an ‘A’ band with a half I band which are perfectly aligned with one another.
• This type of arrangement gives the cell a striated appearance.
• Each dark band has a lighter region in its middle called the M – zone.
• Each H – zone is bisected vertically by a dark line called the M – line.
• The I bands have a darker mid-line area called the z – disc.

• Inside the sarcomere, two types of filaments are present namely the thick filaments and thin filaments.
• The thick filaments extend the entire length of the A band, the thin filaments extend across the I band and partly into the A – band.
• The invagination of the sarcolemma forms transverse (T- tubules) tubules and they penetrate into the junction between the A and I bands.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of muscle protein.
Answer:
Contraction of the muscle depends on the presence of contractile proteins such as actin and myosin.
Myosin fibre:

• The thick filaments are composed of the protein myosin.
• Each myosin molecule is made up of a monomer called meromyosin.
• The meromyosin have a globular head with a j short arm and a tail.
• The short arm have heavy meromyosin and the tail portion have light meromyosin.
• The head bears actin-binding site and an ATP binding site
• It also contains ATP ase enzyme that split ATP to generate energy for the contraction of muscle.

Actin filament:

• Actin has polypeptide subunits called globular actin or G – actin and filamentous form F – actin.
• Each thin filament is made of two F – actins helically wound to each other.
• Each F – actin is a polymer of monomeric G – actins, It also contains a binding site for myosin.
• The thin filament contain several regulatory protein like tropomyosin, troponin, which help in regulating the contraction of muscles along with actin and myosin.

Thick filament:
Each thick filament consists of many myosin molecules whose heads produce at opposite ends of the filament Portion of a thick filament

Thin filament:
A thin filament consists of two strands of actin subunits twisted into a helix plus two types of regulatory proteins (troponin and tropomyosin) Portion of a thin filament.

Question 4.
Give the schematic representation of muscle contraction.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write the functions of skeletal system?
Answer:
Functions of skeletal system

1. Support -It forms a rigid framework and supports the weight of the body against gravity.
2. Shape – It provides and maintains the shape of the body.
3. Protection – It protects the delicate internal organs of the body.
4. Acts as reservoir – It stores minerals such as calcium and phosphate. Fat (triglyceride) is stored in yellow bone marrow and represents a source of stored energy for the body.
5. Locomotion – It acts as lever along with the muscles attached to it.
6. Strength – It can withstand heavyweight and absorbs mechanical shock.
7. Asa hemopoietic tissue – Red and white blood cells are produced in the bone marrow of the ribs, spongy bones of vertebrae and extremities of long bones.

Question 6.
Explain the bones that form the skull?
Answer:
The skull is composed of two sets of bones – cranial and facial bones. It consists of 22 bones of which 8 are cranial bones and 14 are facial, bones. The cranial bones form the hard protective outer covering of the brain and called the brain box. The capacity of the cranium is 1500 cm3.

These bones are joined by sutures which are immovable. They are paired parietal, paired temporal and individual bones such as the frontal, sphenoid, occipital and ethmoid. The large hole in the temporal bone is the external auditory meatus. In the facial bones maxilla, zygomatic, palatine, lacrimal, nasal are paired bones whereas mandible or lower jaw and vomer are unpaired bones. They form the front part of the skull.

A single U-shaped hyoid bone is present at the base of the buccal cavity. It is the only bone without any joint. Each middle ear contains three tiny bones- malleus, incus, and stapes collectively are called ear ossicles. The upper jaw is formed of the maxilla and the lower jaw is formed of the mandible.

The upper jaw is fused with the cranium and is immovable. The lower jaw is connected to the cranium by muscles and is movable. The most prominent openings in the skull are the orbits and the nasal cavity. The foramen magnum is a large opening found at the posterior base of the skull. Through this opening, the medulla oblongata of the brain descends down as the spinal cord.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the vertebral column?
Answer:
The vertebral column is also called the backbone. It consists of 33 serially arranged vertebrae which are interconnected by cartilage known as an intervertebral disc. The vertebral column extends from the base of the skull to the pelvis and forms the main framework of the trunk. The vertebral column has five major regions.

They are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum (5 sacral vertebrae found in the infant which are fused to form one bone in the adult), and coccyx (4 coccygeal vertebrae found in the infant which are fused to form one bone in the adult).

Each vertebra has a central hollow portion, the neural canal, through which the spinal cord passes. The first vertebra is called the atlas and the second vertebra is called the axis. Atlas is articulated with the occipital condyles. The vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head, and serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back.

Question 8.
Give an account of the ribcage.
Answer:

• There are 12 pairs of ribs.
• Each rib bone is connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
• It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end called bicephalic.
• The first 7 pairs of ribs are called true ribsorvertebro – sternal ribs.
• Dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilages.
• The 8th, 9th, and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but joined with the cartilaginous part of the seventh rib.
• These are called false ribs or vertebro – chondral ribs.
• The last 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally.

• They are called floating ribs or vertebral ribs.
• Thoracic vertebrae ribs and sternum from the rib cage.

Question 9.
Give an account of the pectoral girdle?
Answer:

• The upper limbs are attached to the pectoral girdles.
• These are very light and allow the upper limbs a degree of mobility not seen anywhere else in the body.
• The girdle is formed of two halves.
• Each pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle or collar bone and a scapula.
• The scapula is a large triangular bone situated in the dorsal surface of the ribcage between the second and seventh ribs.
• It has an elevated expanded process called the acromion.

• The clavicle articulates this process.
• Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.
• Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures which lie horizontally and connect the axial skeleton with the appendicular skeleton.

Question 10.
Describe the structure of the upper limb.
Answer:

• The upper limb consists of 30 separate bones and is specialized for mobility.
• The region between the shoulder and elbow is the humerus.
• The head of humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula and forms the shoulder joint.
• The distel end of humerus articulates with the two forearm bones the radius and ulna
• Olecranon process is situated at the upper end of the ulna which forms the pointed portion of the elbow.
• The hand consists of carpals metacarpals and phalanges.
• Carpals the wrist bones 8 in number are arranged in two rows of four each and form a tunnel termed as carpal tunnel.
• Meta carpals the palm bones are 5 in number and phalanges the digit bones are 14 in number.

Question 11.
Give an account of pelvic girdle.
Answer:

• The pelvic girdle is a heavy structure specialised for weight-bearing.
• It is composed of two hib bones called coxal bones that secure the lower limbs to the axial skeleton.
• Together with the sacrum and coccyx the hib bones form the basin-like bony pelvis.
• Each coxal bone consists of three fused bones ilium, ischium, and pubis.
• At the point of fusion of these three bones forms a deep hemispherical socket called the acetabulum present on the lateral surface of the pelvis.
• It receives the head of the femur at hip joint and helps in the articulation of the femur.
• Ventrally the two halves of the pelvic girdle meet and form the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
• The ilium is the superior flaring portion of the hip bone. Each ilium forms a secure joint with the sacrum posteriorly.
• The ischium is a curved bar of bone. The ‘V’ shaped pubic bones articulate anteriorly at the pubic symphysis.
• The pelvis of male is deep and narrow with larger heavier bones and the female is shallow wide and flexible in nature and this helps during pregnancy which is influenced by female hormones.

Question 12.
Give an account of the lower limb.
Answer:

• The lower limb consists of 30 bones which carries the entire weight of the erect body and is subjected to exceptional forces when we jump or run.
• The bones of the lower limbs are thicker and stronger than the upper limbs.
• Each lower limb consists of the thigh, the leg or the shank and the foot.
• The femur is the strongest and longest bone of the body.
• The head of femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis to form the hip joint.
• The tibia and fibula form the skeleton of the shank.
• A thick triangular patella forms the knee cap which protects the knee joint arteriorly and improves the leverages of thigh muscles acting across the knee.
• The foot includes the bones of ankle the tarsus (7) the metatarsus (5) and the phalanges or toe ebones. (14)
• The foot supports our body weight and acts as a lever to propel the body forward while walking and running.
• The phalanges of the foot are smaller than those of the fingers.

Question 13.
Give an account of a structure of a typical long bone.
Answer:

• The typical long bone has a diaphysis, epiphysis, and membranes.
• A tubular diaphysis or shaft forms the long axis of the bone and has a central medullary cavity.
• The epiphyses are the bone ends.
• Compact bone forms the exterior of epiphyses and their interior contains spongy bone with red marrow.
• The region where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet is called metaphysics.
• The external surface of the entire bone except the joint surface is covered by a double-layered membrane called the periosteum.
• The outer fibrous layer is dense irregular connective tissue.
• The inner osteogenic layer consists of osteoblasts cell. ( bone-forming cells) and osteoclasts cells (E bone – destroying cells)
• There are primitive stem cells osteogenic cells that give rise to the osteoblasts.
• The periosteum is richly supplied with nerve fibres lymphatic vessels and blood vessels.
• Internal bone surfaces are covered with a delicate connective tissue membrane called the endosteum It also contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts cells.
• Between the epiphysis and diaphysis growth plate or epiphyseal plate is present.

Question 14.
Explain the disorders of the skeletal system?
Answer:
Arthritis and osteoporosis are the major disorders of the skeletal system.
1. Arthritis: Arthritis is an inflammatory or degenerative disease that damages the joints. There are several types of arthritis.

(I) Osteoarthritis: The bone ends of the knees and other freely movable joints wear away as a person ages. The joints of the knees, hip, fingers, and vertebral column are affected.

(II) Rheumatoid arthritis: The synovial membranes become inflamed and there is an accumulation of fluid in the joints. The joints swell and become extremely painful. It can begin at any age but symptoms usually emerge before the age of fifty.

(III) Gouty arthritis or gout: Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals or inability to excrete it. It gets deposited in synovial joints.

2. Osteoporosis: It occurs due to deficiency of vitamin D and hormonal imbalance. The bone becomes soft and fragile. It causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adult females. It can be minimized with adequate calcium intake, vitamin D intake, and regular physical. activities.

Question 15.
Tabulate the differentiate between joints man
Answer:

Pivot joint	between atlas and axis
Gliding joint	between the carpals
Saddle joint	between the carpal and metacarpal
Ball and socket joint	between humerus and pectoral gridle
Hinge joint	Knee joint
Condyloid or Angular or Ellipsoid	Joint between radius joint and carpal

Question 16.
Draw the diagram of different types of fracture and arrange them.
Answer:

Question 17.
Bones of the skeletal system. Table: 1 Bones of skeletal system
Answer:

Notes:

1. The strongest muscle in the human: Massetter in cheeks
2. The smallest muscle in the human: Middle ear in stapedius
3. Well moving muscle: Tongue
4. The largest muscle in the human: Buttock in Glutens Maximus
5. The longest muscle in the human : Hip to knee (sartorius)
6. Total number of bones is adults = 206

Question 18.
Explain the basic categories of exercise and physical activity?
Answer:
Exercise and physical activity fall into four basic categories. Endurance, strength, balance, and flexibility. Endurance or aerobic activities increase the breathing and heart rate. They keep the circulatory system healthy and improve overall fitness.

Strength exercises make the muscles stronger. They help to stay independent and cany out everyday activities such as climbing stairs and carrying bags.

Balance exercises help to prevent falls which is a common problem in older adults. Many strengthening exercises also improve balance.

Flexibility exercises help to stretch body muscles for more freedom of joint movements.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
Using three yearly moving averages, Determine the trend values from the following data.

Solution:

Question 2.
From the following data, calculate the trend values using fourly moving averages.

Solution:

Question 3.
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares to the following data.

Solution:

Therefore, the required equation of the straight line trend is given by
y = a + bx
y = 55.9875 + 0.830 x
⇒ y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { x-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
The trend values can be obtained by
When x = 1980
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1980-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (-7)
= 55.9875 – 5.81
= 50.1775
When x = 1981
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1981-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (-5)
= 55.9875 – 4.15
= 51.8375
When x = 1982
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1981-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (-3)
= 55.9875 – 2.49
= 53.4975
When x = 1983
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1983-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (-1)
= 55.9875 – 0.83
= 55.1575
When x = 1984
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1984-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
55.9875 + 0.83 (1)
= 56.8175
when x = 1985
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1985-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (3)
= 55.9875 + 2.49
= 58.4775
when x = 1986
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1986-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (5)
= 55.9875 + 4.15
= 60.1375
when x = 1987
y = 55.9875 + 0.83 (\(\frac { 1987-1983.5 }{0.5}\))
= 55.9875 + 0.83 (7)
= 55.9875 + 5.81
= 61.7975

Question 4.
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares to the following data.

Solution:

Lasperyre’s price Index number


Hence Fisher’s Ideal Index satisfies Time reversal test

Question 5.
Using the following data, construct Fisher’s Ideal Index Number and Show that it satisfies Factor Reversal Test and Time Reversal Test?

Solution:

Factor reversal test

Hence Fisher’s Ideal Index satisfies Factor reversal test.

Question 6.
Compute the consumer price index for 2015 on the basis of 2014 from the following data.

Solution:

Question 7.
An Enquiry was made into the budgets of the middle class families in a city gave the following information.

What changes in the cost of living have taken place in the middle class families of a city?
Solution:

Conclusion:
The cost of living has increased up to 26.10% in 2011 as compared to 2010.

Question 8.
From the following data, calculate the control limits for the mean and range chart.

Solution:

UCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 51 + 0.577(6.5)
= 51 + 3.7505
= 54.7505
= 54.75
CL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) = 51
UCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) – A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 51 – 0.577(6.5)
= 51 – 3.7505
= 47.2495
= 47.25
The control limits for Range chart is
UCL = D₄\(\bar { R}\)
= 2.114(6.5)
= 13.741
CL = \(\bar { R}\) = 6.5
LCL = D₃\(\bar { R}\) = 0(6.5) = 0

Question 9.
The following data gives the average life(in hours) and range of 12 samples of 5 lamps each. The data are

Construct control charts for mean and range Comment on the control limits.
Solution:

UCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 1367.5 + 0.577(427.5)
= 1367.5 + 246.6675
= 1614.1675
= 1614.17
CL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) = 1367.5
LCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 1367.5 – 0.577(427.5)
= 1367.5 – 246.6675
= 1120.8325
= 1120.83
The control limits for Range chart is
UCL = D₄\(\bar { R}\)
= 2.115(427.5)
= 904.1625
= 904.16
CL = \(\bar { R}\) = 427.5
LCL = D₃\(\bar { R}\)
= 0(427.5)
= 0

Question 10.
The following are the sample means and I ranges for 10 samples, each of size 5. Calculate ; the control limits for the mean chart and range chart and state whether the process is in control or not.

Solution:

UCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 4.982 + 0.577(0.36)
= 4.982 + 0.20772
= 5.18972
= 5.19
CL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) = 4.982
LCL = \(\bar { \bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
= 4.982 – 0.577(0.36)
= 4.982 – 0.20772
= 4.77428
= 4.774
The control limits for range chart is
UCL = D₂\(\bar { R}\) = 2.115(3.6)
= 7.614
CL = \(\bar { R}\) = 3.6
LCL = D₃\(\bar { R}\)
= 0(0.36) = 0

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Random Variable and Mathematical Expectation Ex 6.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Random Variable and Mathematical Expectation Ex 6.1

Question 1.
Construct cumulative distribution function for the given probability distribution.

Solution:
F(0) = P(x ≤ 0) = p(0) = 0.3
F(1) = P(x ≤ 1) = p(0) + p(1)
= 0.3 + 0.2 = 0.5
F(2) = P(x ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)
= 0.3 + 0.2 + 0.4 = 0.9
F(3) = P(x ≤ 3) = P(0) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4)
= 0.3 + 0.2 + 0.4 + 0.1 = 1

Question 2.
Let X be a discrete random variable with the following p.m.f

Find and plot the c.d.f. of X.
Solution:
F(3) = P(x ≤ 3) = P(3) = 0.3
F(5) = P(x ≤ 5) = P(x = 3) + (x = 5)
= 0.3 + 0.2 = 0.5
F(8) = P(x ≤ 8) = P(3) + P(5) + P(8)
= 0.3 + 0.2 + 0.3
= 0.8
F(10) = P(x ≤ 10)
= P(3) + P(5) + P(8) + P(10)
= 0.3 + 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.2
= 1

Question 3.
The discrete random variable X has the following probability function.

where k is a constant. Show that k = \(\frac { 1 }{18}\)
Solution:
From the data
P(x = 2) = kx = 2k
P(x = 4) = kx = 4k
P(x = 6) = kx = 6k
P(x = 8) = k(x – 2)
= k(8 – 2)
= 6k
Since P(X = x) is a probability mass function
\(\sum_{x=2}^{8}\) P(X = x) = 1
\(\sum_{i=2}^{∞}\) P(xi) = 1
(i.e) P(x = 2) + P(x = 4) + P(x = 6) + P(x = 8) = 1
2k + 4k + 6k + 6k = 1
18k = 1
∴ k = \(\frac { 1 }{18}\)

Question 4.
The discrete random variable X has the probability function

Solution:
\(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} p\left(x_{i}\right)=1\)
gives k + 2k + 3k + 4k = 1
⇒ 10k = 1
⇒ k = \(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.1

Question 5.
Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Getting a head is termed a success. Find the t probability distribution of the number of successes.
Solution:
Let X is the random variable which counts the Number of Heads when the coins are tossed the outcomes are stated below

Question 6.
The discrete random variable X has the probability function.

(i) Find k
(ii) Evaluate p( x < 6), p(x ≥ 6)and p(0 < x < 5) (iii) If P(X ≤ x) > 1, 2 then find the minimum value of x.
Solution:
(i) Since the condition of probability mass function
\(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} p\left(x_{i}\right)=1\)
\(\sum_{i=0}^{7} p\left(x_{i}\right)=1\)
0 + k + 2k + 2k + 3k + k² + 2k² + 7k² + k = 1
⇒ 10k² + 9k – 1 = 0
⇒ (10k – 1) (k + 1) = 0
⇒ k = \(\frac{1}{10}\) and k = -1
Since p(x) cannot be negative, k = -1 is not applicable. Hence k = \(\frac{1}{10}\)

(ii) P(x < 6)
P(x < 6) = P(x = 0) + P(x = 1) + P(x = 2)+ P(x = 3) + p(x = 4) + P(x = 5)
= 0 + k + 2k +2k + 3k + k²
= 8k + k²

P(x ≥ 6) = P(x = 6) + p(x = 7)
= 2k² + 7k² + k
= 9k² + k

P(0 < x < 5)
= P(x = 1) + P(x = 2) + p(x = 3) + P(x = 4)
= k + 2k + 2k + 3k
= 8k = 8(\(\frac { 1 }{10}\))
∴ P(0 < x < 5) = \(\frac { 8 }{10}\)

(iii) We want the minimum value of x for which P(X ≥ x) > \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
Now P(X ≤ 0) = 0 < \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
P(X ≤ 1) = P(x = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0 + k = k
\(\frac { 1 }{10}\) < \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
P( X ≤ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)
= 0 + k + 2k = 3k
\(\frac { 3 }{10}\) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
P(X ≤ 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)
= 0 + k + 2k + 2k = 5k
= \(\frac { 5 }{10}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
P(X ≤ 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)
= 0 + k + 2k + 2k + 3k = 8k
= \(\frac { 8 }{10}\) > \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
This Shows that the minimum value of X for which P(X ≤ x) > \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) is 4

Question 7.
The distribution of a continuous random variable X in range (-3, 3) is given by p.d.f.

Verify that the area under the curve is unity.
Solution:
Since(-3, 3) in the range of given p.d.f
Area under the curve A = \(\int_{-∞}^{∞}\) f(x)dx = \(\int_{-3}^{3}\) f(x)dx

Hence the Area under the curve is unity

Question 8.
A continuous random variable X has the following distribution function:

Find (i) k and (ii) the probability density function.
Solution:
We have \(\frac{d}{d x}\)F(x) = f(x) ≥ 0, where F(x) is the distribution function and f(x) is the probability density function.
Here F(x) = 0 for x ≤ 1
f(x) = 0 for x ≤ 1
Again F(x) = 1 for x > 3
f(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (1) = 0 for x > 3
In 1 < x ≤ 3, F(x) = k(x – 1)4
f(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (k(x – 1)4) = 4k(x – 1)3
(i) We know that \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) d x\) = 1
This gives \(\int_{1}^{3} 4 k(x-1)^{3} d x=1\)
\(\left[k(x-1)^{4}\right]_{1}^{3}=1\)
k[16 – 0] = 1
k = \(\frac{1}{16}\)
(ii) The probability density function is
f(x) = \(\frac{1}{4}(x-1)^{3}\), 1 < x ≤ 3
= 0, otherwise

Question 9.
The length of time (in minutes) that a certain person speaks on the telephone is found to be a random phenomenon, with a probability function specified by the probability density function f(x) as

(a) Find the value of A that makes f (x) a p.d.f.
(b) What is the probability that the number of minutes that person will talk over the phone is
(i) more than 10 minutes
(ii) less than 5 minutes, and
(iii) between 5 and 10 minutes.
Solution:
(a) Since f(x) is a probability density Function

b (i) more than 10 minutes

Question 10.
Suppose that the time in minutes that a person has to wait at a certain station for a train is found to be a random phenomenon with a probability function specified by the distribution function

(a) Is the distribution function continuous? If so, give its probability density function?
(b) What is the probability that a person will have to wait (i) more than 3 minutes, (ii) less than 3 minutes, and (iii) between 1 and 3 minutes?
Solution:
(i) Yes, the distribution function is continuous on [0, 4]
The probability density function

(b) The probability that a person will have to wait
(i) more than 3 minutes

(iii) between 1 and 3 minutes

Question 11.
Define random variable.
Solution:
A Random variable is a set of possible values from a random experiment. The set of possible values is called the sample space. A random variable (r.v) is denoted by a capital letter such as X, Y and Z etc. If X and Y are r.v’s then X + Y is also an r.v.

Question 12.
Explain What are the types of random variables.
Solution:
Random variables are classified into two types namely discrete and continuous random variables these are important for practical applications in the field of Mathematics and Statistics.

Question 13.
Define discrete Random Variable
Solution:
A variable which can assume a finite number of possible values or an infinite sequence of countable real numbers is called a discrete random variable.
Examples:

1. Marks obtained in an exam.
2. The number of chocolates in a box.
3. The number of phone calls during a day.
4. The number of TV sets sold during a month by a dealer.

Question 14.
What do you understand by continuous random variables?
Solution:
A random variable X which can take on any value (integral as well as fraction) in the interval is called a continuous random variable.

Question 15.
Describe what is meant by a random variable
Solution:
A Random variable is a set of possible values from a random experiment. The set of possible values is called the sample space. A random variable (r.v) is denoted by a capital letter such as X, Y, and Z, etc. If X and Y are r.v’s then X + Y is also an r.v.

Question 16.
Distinguish between a discrete and continuous random variable
Solution:

Question 17.
Explain the distribution function of a random variable.
Solution:
The discrete cumulative distribution function or distribution function of a real-valued discrete random variable X takes the countable number of points x₁, x₂, …. with corresponding probabilities p(x₁), p(x₂),… and then the cumulative distribution function is defined by
F_x(x) = P(X ≤ x), for all x ∈ R
i.e. F_x (x) = \(\sum_{x \leq x}\) p(x_i)

Question 18.
Explain the terms (i) probability Mass function (ii) probability density function and (iii) probability
Solution:
(i) If X is a discrete random variable with distinct values x₁, x₂, …. x_n, …, then the function, denoted by P_x(x) and defined by

This is defined to be the probability mass function or discrete probability function of X.

(ii) The probability that a random variable X takes a value in the interval [t₁, t₂] (open or closed) is given by the integral of a function called the probability density function f_x(x):
P(t₁ ≤ X ≤ t₂) = \(\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}\) f_x(x)dx.

(iii)The probability distribution of a random variable X is defined only when we have the various values oft the various values of the random variable e.g. x₁, x₂ …… x_n togather with respective probabilities p₁, p₂, p₃ …… p₄ satisfying
\(\sum_{i=1}^{n}\) Pi = 1

Question 19.
What are the properties of
(i) discrete random variable and
(ii) Continuous random variable
Solution:
Discrete Random Variable:

• A variable which can take only certain values.
• The value of the variables can increase incomplete numbers
• Binomial, Poisson, Hypergeometric probability distributions come under this category
• Example: Number of students who opt for commerce in class 11, say 30, 35, 40, 45, and 50.

Continuous random variable:

• A variable which can take any value in a particular limit.
• Its value increases infractions but not in jumps.
• Normal, student’s t and chi-square distribution come under this category.
• Example: Height, Weight, and age of family members: 50.5 kg, 30 kg, 42.8 kg, and 18.6 kg.

Question 20.
State the properties of the distribution function.
Solution:

• Property 1: The distribution function F is increasing, (i.e) if x ≤ y, then F(x) ≤ F(y)
• Property 2: F(x) is continuous from right, (i.e) for each x ∈ R, F (x⁺) = F (x)
• Property 3: F (∞) = 1
• Property 4: F (-∞) = 0
• Property 5: F'(x) = f(x)
• Property 6: P(a ≤ X ≤ b) = F(b) – F(a)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Ex 9.4 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Ex 9.4

Question 1.
A time series is a set of data recorded
(a) Periodically
(b) Weekly
(c) successive points of time
(d) all the above
Solution:
(d) all the above

Question 2.
A time series consists of
(a) Five components
(b) Four components
(c) Three components
(d) Two components
Solution:
(b) Four components

Question 3.
The components of a time series which is attached to short term fluctuation is
(a) Secular trend
(b) Seasonal variations
(c) Cyclic variation
(d) Irregular variation
Solution:
(d) Irregular variation

Question 4.
Factors responsible for seasonal variations are
(a) Weather
(b) Festivals
(c) Social customs
(d) All the above
Solution:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
The additive model of the time series with the components T, S, C and I is
(a) y = T + S + C × I
(b) y = T + S × C × I
(c) y = T + S + C + I
(d) y = T + S × C + I
Solution:
(c) y = T + S + C + I

Question 6.
Least square method of fitting a trend is
(a) Most exact
(b) Least exact
(c) Full of subjectivity
(d) Mathematically unsolved
Solution:
(a) Most exact

Question 7.
The value of ‘b’ in the trend line y = a + bx is
(a) Always positive
(b) Always negative
(c) Either positive or negative
(d) Zero
Solution:
(c) Either positive or negative

Question 8.
The component of a time series attached to long term variation is trended as
(a) Cyclic variation
(b) Secular variations
(c) Irregular variation
(d) Seasonal variations
Solution:
(b) Secular variations

Question 9.
The seasonal variation means the variations occurring with in
(a) A number of years
(b) within a year
(c) within a month
(d) within a week
Solution:
(b) within a year

Question 10.
Another name of consumer’s price index number is:
(a) Whole-sale price index number
(b) Cost of living index
(c) Sensitive
(d) Composite
Solution:
(b) Cost of living index

Question 11.
Cost of living at two different cities can be compared with the help of
(a) Consumer price index
(b) Value index
(c) Volume index
(d) Un-weighted index
Solution:
(a) Consumer price index

Question 12.
Laspeyre’s index = 110, Paasche’s index = 108, then Fisher’s Ideal index is equal to:
(a) 110
(b)108
(c) 100
(d) 109
Solution:
(d) 109
Hint:
p²₀₁ = 110; p^p₀₁ = 108
Fisher’s Ideal Index = \(\sqrt { 110×108 }\) = \(\sqrt { 11880 }\) = 108.99 = 109

Question 13.
Most commonly used index number is:
(a) Volume index number
(b) Value index number
(c) Price index number
(d) Simple index number
Solution:
(c) Price index number

Question 14.
Consumer price index are obtained by:
(a) Paasche’s formula
(b) Fisher’s ideal formula
(c) Marshall Edgeworth formula
(d) Family budget method formula
Solution:
(d) Family budget method formula

Question 15.
Which of the following Index number satisfy the time reversal test?
(a) Laspeyre’s Index number
(b) Paasche’s Index number
(c) Fisher Index number
(d) All of them.
Solution:
(c) Fisher Index number

Question 16.
While computing a weighted index, the current period quantities are used in the:
(a) Laspeyre’s method
(b) Paasche’s method
(c) Marshall Edgeworth method
(d) Fisher’s ideal method
Solution:
(b) Paasche’s method

Question 17.
The quantities that can be numerically measured can be plotted on a
(a) p – chart
(b) c – chart
(c) x bar chart
(d) np – chart
Solution:
(c) x bar chart

Question 18.
How many causes of variation will affect the quality of a product?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Solution:
(c) 2

Question 19.
Variations due to natural disorder is known as
(a) random cause
(b) non-random cause
(c) human cause
(d) all of them
Solution:
(a) random cause

Question 20.
The assignable causes can occur due to
(a) poor raw materials
(b) unskilled labour
(c) faulty machines
(d) all of them
Solution:
(d) all of them

Question 21.
A typical control charts consists of
(a) CL, UCL
(b) CL, LCL
(c) CL, LCL, UCL
(d) UCL, LCL
Solution:
(c) CL, LCL, UCL

Question 22.
\(\bar { x}\) chart is a
(a) attribute control chart
(b) variable control chart
(c) neither Attribute nor variable control chart
(d) both Attribute and variable control chart
Solution:
(b) variable control chart

Question 23.
R is calculated using
(a) x_max – x_min
(b) x_min – x_max
(c) \(\bar { x}\)_max – \(\bar { x}\)_min
(d) \(\bar {\bar x}\)_max – \(\bar {\bar x}\)_min
Solution:
(a) x_max – x_min

Question 24.
The upper control limit for x chart is given by
(a) \(\bar { x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
(b) \(\bar {\bar x}\) + A₂R
(c) \(\bar {\bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)
(d) \(\bar { x}\) + A₂\(\bar {\bar R}\)
Solution:
(c) \(\bar {\bar x}\) + A₂\(\bar { R}\)

Question 25.
The LCL for R chart is given by
(a) D₂\(\bar { x}\)
(b) D₂\(\bar {\bar R}\)
(c) D₃\(\bar {\bar R}\)
(d) D₃\(\bar { x}\)
Solution:
(d) D₃\(\bar { x}\)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation

11th Bio Zoology Guide Tissue Level of Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options.

Question 1.
The main function of the cuboidal epithelium is
a. Protection
b. Secretion
c. Absorption
d. Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
d. Both (b) and (c)

Question 2.
The ciliated epithelium lines the
a. Skin
b. Digestive tract
c. Gall bladder
d. Trachea
Answer:
d. Trachea

Question 3.
What type of fibres are found in connective tissue matrix?
a. Collagen
b. Areolar
c. Cartilage
d. Tubular
Answer:
a. Collagen

Question 4.
Prevention of substances from leaking across the tissue is provided by
a. Tight junction
b. Adhering junction
c. Gap junction
d. Elastic junction
Answer:
a. Tight junction

Question 5.
Non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates produces heat through
a. White fat
b. Brown fat
c. Yellow fat
d. Colourless fat
Answer:
b. Brown fat

Question 6.
Some epithelia are pseudostratified. What does this mean?
Answer:
Pseudostratified epithelial cells are columnar but unequal in size. Although the epithelium is single-layered yet it appears to be multilayered due to the fact that nuclei lie at different levels in different cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate white adipose tissue from brown adipose tissue
Answer:

White adipose tissue	Brown adipose tissue
1. They have less number of Mitochondria.	They have more numbers of mitochondria.
2. They store nutrients	It is used to heat the bloodstream to warm the body.

Question 8.
Why blood is considered a typical connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is considered as a typical connective tissue because it is the fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets. It functions as the transport medium for the cardiovascular system carrying nutrients, nitrogenous wastes, and respiratory gases throughout the body.

Question 9.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue.
Answer:

Elastic Fibres	Elastic connective tissue
1. It is found in the skin as the leathery dermis and forms fibrous capsules of organs such as kidneys bones and cartilages.	This is present in tendons that attach skeletal muscles to bones and ligaments.
2. It allows recoil of tissues following stretching.	It attaches one bone to another.
3. It maintains the pulsative flow of blood through the arteries and the passive recoil of lungs following inspiration.	It is able to with stand tension exerted in many directions and provides structural strength.

Question 10.
Name any four important functions of epithelial tissue and provide at least one example of a tissue that exemplifies each function.
Answer:

Functions	Tissues
1. Protection	Squamous epithelium. In heart lungs and blood vessels as a protective covering.
2. Absorption	Columnar epithelium. (It lines the digestive track)
3. Secretion	Cuboidal and columnar epithelium. Salivary gland endocrine glands.
4. Filteration	Squamous epithelium glomerulus.

Question 11.
Write the classification of connective tissue and their functions.
Answer:

Question 12.
What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia. Epithelial tissue is a sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Answer:

Types of epithelium	Characters
1. Squamous epithelium	Made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
2. Cuboidal epithelium	Made up of a single layer of cube-like cells.
3. Columnar epithelium	Made up of a single layer of tall cells with round to oval nuclei at the base.
4. Ciliated epithelium	It bears cilia on their free surfaces.
5. Nonciliated epithelium	There is no cilia on the free surfaces of columnar epithelium
6. Pseudostratified epithelium	Columnar but unequal in size
7. Compound epithelium	Made up of more than one layer of cells.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Tissue Level of Organisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What are the types of epithelium
a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified epithelium
Answer:
a. Simple squamous epithelium

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not the functions of the epithelium.
a. Protection
b. Absorption
c. Reproduction
d. Excretion
Answer:
c. Reproduction

Question 3.
Find out the epithelium with irregular boundaries
a. Ciliated epithelium
b. Squamous epithelium
c. Columnar epithelium
d. Pseudostratified epithelium
Answer:
b. Squamous epithelium

Question 4.
Name the epithelium which helps in protection, absorption, and secretion.
a. Pseudostratified epithelium
b. Compound epithelium
c. Cuboidal epithelium
d. Columnar epithelium
Answer:
a. Pseudostratified epithelium

Question 5.
Name the tissue which has numerous mitochondria?
a. Brown adipose tissue
b. White adipose tissue
c. Dense connective tissue
d. Loose connective tissue
Answer:
a. Brown adipose tissue

Question 6.
Match and find the correct answers
I. Ciliated epithelium – a. Outer skin
II. Ciliated epithelium – b. Heart
III. Squamous epithelium – c. Gall bladder
IV. Compound epithelium – d. Ureter
a. I – c, II – b, III – d, IV – a
b. I – b, II – c, III – d, IV – a
c. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
Answer:
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
a. Exocrine glands – Saliva
b. Endocrine glands – Hormones
c. Ants – Adipocytes
d. Blood – Fluid connective tissue
Answer:
c. Ants – Adipocytes

Question 8.
Name the tissues present in osteocytes
a. Connective tissue
b. Bone tissue
c. Blood
d. Adipose
Answer:
b. Bone tissue

Question 9.
What are myofibrils?
a. Minute fibrils of muscle fibres
b. Fibers of epithelial tissues
c. The end of nerve tissue
d. In cardiac muscles
Answer:
a. Minute fibrils of muscle fibres

Question 10.
Match and find the correct answer
I. Simple squamous epithelium – a. Respiratory tract
11. Simple Cuboidal epithelium – b. Intestine
III. Simple columnar epithelium – c. Kidney
IV. Ciliated epithelium – d. Alveoli
a. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
b. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
c. I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b
d. I – a, II – c, III – b, IV – d
Answer:
b. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Group of cells that are similar in structure and perform common or related functions are called tissues.

Question 2.
Define organ system?
Answer:
If two or more organs perform common physical and chemical functions they are called “organ systems”.

Question 3.
What are the four types of tissues?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is epithelial tissue? What are its types?
Answer:
It is a sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Simple epithelium
2. Compound epithelium

Question 5.
What are the functions of epithelial tissues?
Answer:

• Outer covering
• Protection
• Absorption
• Excretion
• Secretion

Question 6.
What is unicellular glandular epithelium?
Answer:
It consists of isolated glandular cells.
(Eg.) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal.

Question 7.
Based on the secretion how are exocrine glands classify?
Answer:

1. Merocrine
2. Holocrine
3. Apocrine

Question 8.
Where are connective tissues originated from?
Answer:
Connective tissues originated from Mesoderm.
Types of connective tissue: Bones and blood, Cartilage.

Question 9.
What are the functions of connective tissue?
Answer:

• Binding
• Support
• Protection
• Insulation
• Transportation

Question 10.
What are the fibers present in the connective tissues?
Answer:

• Collagen
• Elastic
• Reticular

Question 11.
What is meant by myofibrils?
Answer:
Each muscle is made of many long cylindrical fibers arranged in parallel arrays known as myofibrils.

Question 12.
What are involuntary muscles?
Answer:
Smooth muscles are involuntary as their functions cannot be directly controlled. (Eg.) Blood vessels, Stomach intestine

Question 13.
What is the unit of nervous system and name the tissues which made the nervous system?
Answer:
The unit of nervous system is neuron. Cells:

• Excitable cells
• Neuroglial cells.

Question 14.
What is the function of compound stratified epithelium and where is it seen?
Answer:
Uses:
Protection, secretion and absorption.

Site of occurrence:
Ciliated epithelium — Respiratory tract. Nonciliated epithelium – Epididymis urethra of male.

Question 15.
What is meant by tissue fluid? What is its composition?
Answer:
The areolar connective tissue acts as a reservoir of water and salts for the surrounding body tissue. Hence it is called tissue fluid.
Composition:

• Fibroblasts
• Macrophages
• Mast cells

Question 16.
What is Ehler’s Danlos syndrome?
Answer:
Defect in the synthesis of collagen in the joints heart values organ walls and arterial walls.

Question 17.
What is stickler syndrome?
Answer:
It is a defect that affects collagen and results in facial abnormalities.

Question 18.
What is Rhabdo Myo sarcoma?
Answer:
It is a life-threatening soft tissue tumour of the head neck and urinogenital tract.

Question 19.
What is Rheumatoid arthritis?
Answer:
The immune cell attack and inflame the membranes around the joints.

Question 20.
What is Sjogren’s syndrome?
Answer:
It is a disease in which progressive inability to secrete saliva and tears.

Question 21.
What is Palmaris muscle?
Answer:
It is a long narrow muscle run from the elbow to the wrist and is important for hanging and climbing in primates.

Question 22.
What is Parkinson’s disease?
Answer:
It is a degenerative disorder of the nervous system that affects movement often including tremors.

Question 23.
What is Alzheimer’s disease?
Answer:
It is a chronic neurodegenerative disease which includes the symptoms of difficulty in remembering recent events.

Question 24.
What is Biopsy?
Answer:
It is an examination of tissue or liquid removed from a living body to discover the presence cause or extent of a disease.

Question 25.
What is an autopsy?
Answer:
It is a dissection of a dead body (Post – mortem) examination to discover the cause of death or the extent of disease.

Question 26.
What is Forensic science?
Answer:
It is the field of science that effectively uses histological techniques to trace out crimes.

Question 27.
The multicellular epithelium helps protect and prevent friction. What is special about the unicellular epithelium
Answer:
The unicellular epithelium is made up of a single layer of cells. These are seen in the organs which do the functions of absorption secretion and filtration.

Question 28.
What is acinus?
Answer:
It is the unit of secretion.

Question 29.
What are adipocytes?
Answer:
This is composed of big adipose tissue in the centre and the cytoplasm is seen as a thin covering layer.

Question 30.
What is the substrate of bone tissue?
Answer:
The mineral hydroxyapatite is a substrate of bone tissue.

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions 

Question 1.
Write a short note on specialized junctions of epithelia.
Answer:
All cells of epithelia are held together with little intercellular material forming specialized junctions. These provide structural and functional links between the cells. Three types of cell junctions, tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in animal tissues.

Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across the tissue. Adhering junctions cement the neighbouring cells together. Gap junctions facilitate the transfer of ions, small and big molecules between the adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm of these cells.

Question 2.
Compare dense regular connective tissue with dense irregular connective tissues?
Answer:

Dense regular connective tissue	Dense irregular connective tissue
1.Collagen fibres are present.	Collagen fibres are present.
2. Fibroblast cells are present.	Fibroblast cells are present.
3. it connects the bone with skeletal muscles,	It is able to withstand tension exerted in many direction and provides structural strength.

Question 3.
Classify the muscles and their location?
Answer:
Muscles are of three types.

1. Skeletal muscles
2. Smooth muscles
3. Cardiac muscles.

1. Skeletal muscles:
These muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.
Location: They are closely attached to skeletal
bones.

2. Smooth muscles:
These fibres are tapered at both ends and do not show striations.
Location: Blood vessels stomach intestine.

3. Cardiac Muscles:
In these muscles, cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick together.
Location: Heart.

Question 4.
Explain compound epithelium.
Answer:

• The compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
• These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
• These cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands, and pancreatic ducts.

(5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
What is glandular epithelium? Describe its types?
Answer:
Some of the epithelial cells get specialized for secretion they are called the glandular epithelium.
I. Based on cellular structure
They are classified as Unicellular (Eg.) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal. Multicellular (Eg.) Salivary gland

II. Based on mode of pouring
Exocrine glands – The products are released through ducts. (Eg.) Mucus secreting glands, Saliva secreting glands.
Endocrine glands – They do not have ducts. Their secretions directly secreted into the fluid bathing the glands.
(Eg.) Pituitary gland.

a) Exocrine glands based on cellular nature

•  Unicellular
• Multicellular

b) Exocrine based on the structure

•  Simple
• Compound glands

c) Based on their secretary units

• tubular
• alveolar
• tubulo alveolar

d) Based on their mode of secretion

• Merocrine
• Holocrine
• Apocrine.

Question 2.
What is meant by compound gland? What are its uses and its types?
Answer:
It is made up of more than one layer of cells.

Uses:
It helps in providing protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

Location:
Buccal cavity, Pharynx salivary glands, Pancreatic ducts

Types:

• Stratified squamous epithelium. It is present in the dry epidermis of the skin,
• Keratinized type-Mouth and vagina.
• Non – Keratinized type
• Stratified cuboidal epithelium – Sweat glands, Mammary gland
• Columnar epithelium-Pharynx urethra
• Transitional epithelium – Ureters, urinary bladder.

Question 3.
Explain the types of muscle.
Answer:
Each muscle is made of long, cylindrical fibres. They are composed of fine fibrils called myofibrils. Muscle fibres contract and relax. Skeletal muscle is attached to skeletal bones. It is striped or striated. It is a voluntary muscle. The smooth muscle fibres are fusiform and do not have striations. It is an involuntary muscle. Cardiac muscle tissue is present in the heart. It is striated and branched and involuntary.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration

11th Bio Botany Guide Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part-I.

Question 1.
The number of ATP molecules formed by complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid is:
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 2.
During oxidation of two molecules of cytosolic NADH + H⁺, number of ATP molecules produced in plants are
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer:
b) 4

Question 3.
The compound which links glycolysis and Krebs cycle is:
(a) succinic acid
(b) pyruvic acid
(c) acetyl CoA
(d) citric acid
Answer:
(c) acetyl CoA

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
Reason (R): Succinyl Co A is phosphorylated into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation.
a) A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A
b) A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A,
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A and R is wrong
Answer:
c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 5.
Which of the following reaction is not involved in Krebs cycle.
(a) Shifting of phosphate from 3C to 2C
(b) Splitting of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate of into two molecules 3C compounds.
(c) Dephosphorylation from the substrates
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 6.
What are enzymes involved in phosphorylation and dephosphorylation reactions in EMP pathway?
Answer:
(i) Enzymes involved in phosphorylation are
a) Hexokinase and phospnofructio kinase.
(ii) Enzymes involved in dephosphorylation are
a) Phosphoglycerate Kinase
b) Pyruvate Kinase

Question 7.
The respiratory quotient is zero in succulent plants. Why?
Answer:
In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without the corresponding release of CO₂ but O₂ is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

Question 8.
Explain the reactions taking place in mitochondrial inner membrane.
Answer:
Electron and hydrogen (proton) transport takes place across four multiprotein complexes (I-IV). They are.
1. Complex-I (NADH dehydrogenase).
It contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non-heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe-S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADFI (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ)
NADH+H⁺UQ ⇌ NAD^–+UQH₂

2. In plants, an additional NADH dehydrogenase (External) complex is present on the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria which can oxidise cytosolic NADH + H⁺.
Ubiquinone (UQ) or Coenzyme Quinone (CoQ) is a small, lipid-soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria).

3. Complex-II (succinic dehydrogenase) It contains FAD flavoprotein is associated with non-heme iron Sulphur (Fe-S) protein. This complex receives electrons and protons from succinate in Kerbs cycle and is converted into fumarate and passes to ubiquinone.
Succinate + UQ Fumaraic LQH₂

4. Complex-III (Cytochrome bcj complex) This complex oxidises reduced ubiquinone (ubiquinol) and transfers the electrons through Cytochrome bc1 Complex (Iron Sulphur centci bcl complex) to cytochrome c.

5. Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase) Complex IV is the terminal oxidase and brings about the reduction of 1/2 O₂ to H₂O. TWO protons are needed to form a molecule of H₂O (terminal oxidation).

Question 9.
What is the name of alternate way to glucose breakdown? Explain the process in involved in it?
Answer:

• Pentose phosphate pathway is the alternate pathway for breakdown of glucose.
• Pentose phosphate pathway was described by Warburg, Dickens and Lipmami (1938).
• It is also known as Hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP shunt) or Direct oxidative phase and non – oxidative phase.
• The oxidative phase convert six molecules of six carbon Glucose 6 phosphate to 6 molecules of five-carbon sugar Ribulose – 5 Phosphate with loss of 6CO₂ and generation of 12 NADPH + H⁺

Non oxidative pathway convert Ribulose – 5 – phosphate molecules to various intermediates such as
Ribose – 5 – phosphate (5C)
Xylulose – 5 – phosphate (5C)
Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate (3C)
Sedoheptulose – 7 – phosphate (7C) and
Erythrose – 4 – phosphate (4C)

Finally five molecules of glucose 6 – phosphate is regenerated
6 x Glucose – 6 – phosphate + 12NADP⁺ + 6H₂O
↓
5 x glucose – 6 – phosphate + 6CO₂ + Pi + 12 NADPH + 2H⁺
The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose – 6 – phosphate yield 6CO₂ and 12 NADPH + H⁺. The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme which is inhibited by high ratio of NADPH to NADP^+.

Question 10.
How will you calculate net products of one sucrose molecule upon complete oxidation during aerobic respiration as per recent view?
Answer:
When the cost of transport of ATPs from the matrix into the cytosol is considered, the number will be 2.5 ATPs for each NADH + H⁺ and 1.5 ATPs for each FADH₂ oxidized during the electron transport system. Therefore, in plant cells net yield of 30 ATP molecules for complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose. But in those animal cells (showing malate shuttle mechanism) net yield will be 32 ATP molecules. Since the sucrose molecule gives, two molecules of glucose and net ATP in plant cell will be 30 × 2 = 60.
In an animal cell, it will be 32 × 2 = 64.

Part-II.

11th Bio Botany Guide Respiration Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The term respiration was coined by:
(a) Lamark
(b) Kerb
(c) Pepys
(d) Blackman
Answer:
(c) Pepys

Question 2.
Black man divided respiration into floating respiration and protoplasmic respiration based on respiratory ………..
a) Quotient
b) respiratory reaction
c) respiratory pathway
d) substrate
Answer:
d) substrate

Question 3.
The discovery of ATP was made by:
(a) Lipman
(b) Hans Adolt
(c) Warburg
(d) Karl Lohman
Answer:
(d) Karl Lohman

Question 4.
The type of respiration which is rare and liberates toxic ammonia
a) Protoplasmic respiration
b) floating respiration
c) Aerobic respiration
d) Anaerobic respiration
Answer:
a) Protoplasmic respiration

Question 5.
On hydrolysis, one molecule of ATP releases energy of:
(a) 8.2 Kcal
(b) 32.3 kJ
(c) 7.3 Kcal
(d) 7.8 Kcal
Answer:
(c) 7.3 Kcal

Question 6.
To convert Kcal to KJ multiply by 4.18(100 Kcal=418 KJ) calculate the amount KJ energy for 7.3 Kcal
a) 30.6 KJ
b) 32.06 KJ
c) 29.03 KJ
d) 5.01 KJ
Answer:
a) 30.6 KJ

Question 7.
Identify the link reaction:
(a) conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid
(b) conversion of glucose into ethanol
(c) conversion of acetyl CoA into CO₂ and water
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A
Answer:
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A

Question 8.
Food materials like carbohydrate, fat and proteins are completely oxidised into CO₂, H₂O and energy in ………………. respiration
a) anaerobic
b) aerobic
c) Bacterial respiration
d) Facultative
Answer:
b) aerobic

Question 9.
Kreb’s cycle is a:
(a) catabolic pathway
(b) anabolic pathway
(c) amphibolic pathway
(d) hydrolytic pathway
Answer:
(c) amphibolic pathway

Question 10.
Which process is occur in yeast and some bacteria and 2 ATP molecules are produced during this process.
a) Anaerobic respiration
b) aerobic respiration
c) mixed fermentation
d) CAC cycle
Answer:
a) Anaerobic respiration

Question 11.
The oxidation of one molecule of NADH + H⁺ gives rise to:
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 3 ATP
(c) 4 ATP
(d) 2.5 ATP
Answer:
(b) 3 ATP

Question 12.
Net product in Glycolysis are
a) 4ATP and 2NADH + H⁺
b) 2 ATP and 2NADH + H⁺
c) 6ATP
d) 24 ATP
Answer:
b) 2ATP and 2NADH + H⁺

Question 13.
Cyanide acts as electron transport chain inhibitor by preventing:
(a) synthesis of ATP from ADP
(b) flow of electrons from NADH + H⁺
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a₃ to O₂
(d) oxidative phosphorylation
Answer:
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a₃ to O₂

Question 14.
Which is the raw material for the formation of chlorophylls, cytochrome, phytochrome and pyrrole substance
a) acetyl COA
b) Pyruvic acid
c) Malic acid
d) Succinyl COA
Answer:
d) Succinyl COA

Question 15.
End products of fermentation in yeast is:
(a) pyruvic acid and CO₂
(b) lactic acid and CO₂
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO₂
(d) mixed acid and CO₂
Answer:
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO₂

Question 16.
Which cycle is considered as amphibolic pathway.
a) Calvin cycle
b) Glycolysic
c) ETS chain
d) Kreb cycle
Answer:
d) Kreb cycle

Question 17.
The external factors that affect respiration are:
(a) temperature, insufficient O₂ and amount of protoplasm
(b) temperature, insufficient O₂ and high concentration of CO₂
(c) temperature, high concentration of CO₂ and respiratory substrate
(d) temperature, high concentration of CO₂ and amount of protoplasm
Answer:
(b) temperature, insufficient O_2, and high concentration of CO₂

Question 18.
The complex system responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondria to ubiquinone is ………………..
a) Complex I
b) Complex II
c) Complex III
d) Complex IV
Answer:
a) Complex I

Question 19.
The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by the enzyme:
(a) glucose, 1, 6 diphosphate dehydrogenase
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) fructose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 20.
Which are the high energy phosphate groups in ATP
a) adenine
b) Pentose sugar
c) Last two phosphate group
d) First two phosphate group
Answer:
c) Last two phosphate group

Question 21.
In-plant tissue erythrose is used for the synthesis of:
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Xanthophyll
(c) Erythrocin
(d) Anthocyanin
Answer:
(d) Anthocyanin

Question 22.
How many ATP molecules are produced when a molecule of glucose undergo fermentation?
a) TwoATPs
b) Six ATPs
c) Eight ATPs
d) one ATP
Answer:
a) Two ATPs

Question 23.
Identify the electron transport inhibitor:
(a) phosphoenol
(b) dinitrophenol
(c) xylene
(d) indol acetic acid
Answer:
(b) dinitrophenol

Question 24.
Enzymatic reaction for partial oxidation of glucose in the absence of oxygen is present in
a) Some Bacteria
b) Yeast fungus
c) A and B
d) Bryophytes
Answer:
c) A and B

Question 25.
Cyanide resistant respiration is known to generate heat in thermogenic tissues as high as:
(a) 35° C
(b) 38° C
(c) 40° C
(d) 51° C
Answer:
(d) 51° C

Question 26.
Match the Column I with the enzyme responsible for its production in column II
Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Citric acid	1. Hexose Kinase
B. Glucose 6-Phosphate	2. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Lactic acid	3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. Acetvl CO.A	4. Citric acid Synthetase

Answer:
a) A-4,B -1,C-2,D-3.

Question 27.
Which one is wrongly matched

Column I	Column II
A. NADH +H+	Three ATP
B. Glycolysis	Twenty four ATP
C. FAD	Two ATP
D. Cytoplasmic NADH+H+	Two ATP

Answer:
B. Glycolysis – Twenty four ATP

II. 2 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Define respiration?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins, and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated.

Question 2.
Name some High energy compounds present in a cell
Answer:

• ATP → Adenosine Tri Phosphate
• GTP → Guanosine Tri Phosphate
• UTP → Uridine Tri Phosphate

Question 3.
What do you understand by compensation of point?
Answer:
The point at which CO₂ released in respiration is exactly compensated by CO₂ fixed in photosynthesis that means no net gaseous exchange takes place, it is called the compensation point.

Question 4.
What is Anaerobic respiration? What are its steps?
Answer:

• In the absence of molecular oxygen-glucose is incompletely degraded into either ethyl alcohol (or) Lactic acid.
• It includes two steps (i) Glycolysis (ii) Fermentation

Question 5.
What is anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
In the absence of molecular oxygen-glucose is incompletely degraded into either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid. It includes two steps:

1. Glycolysis
2. Fermentation

Question 6.
What is Link reaction?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration, Conversion of Pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A in the mitochondrial matrix with two molecules of NADH + H⁺ and 2 CO₂. This is called Link reaction (or) transition reaction.

Question 7.
Who is Sir Hans Adolf Krebs?
Answer:
Sir Hans Adolf Krebs was born in Germany on 25th August 1900. He was awarded Nobel Prize for his discovery of Citric acid cycle in Physiology in 1953.

Question 8.
Why Kreb cycle is called as citric acid cycle (or) Tri Carboxylic acid Cycle?
Answer:

• TCA cycle starts with condensation of acetyl COA with oxaloacetate in the presence of water to yield Citri acid (or) Citrate.
• So it is also known as citric acid cycle (or) Tricarboxylic acid cycle.

Question 9.
Mention the role of NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in the electron transport system.
Answer:
NADH dehydrogenase contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non – heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe – S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADH (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ).

Question 10.
Which cycle is amphibolic pathway? Why? The Krebs cycle is called an amphibolic pathway.
Answer:

• Kreb cycle is primarily a catabolic pathway Later it is an anabolic pathway too.
• Hence it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question 11.
Mention any two electron transport chain inhibitors.
Answer:
Two electron transport chain inhibitors:

1. 2, 4 DNP (Dinitrophenol) – It prevents synthesis of ATP from ADP, as it directs electrons from Co Q to O₂.
2. Cyanide – It prevents flow of electrons from Cytochrome a₃ to O₂.

Question 12.
How many ATP molecules are produced in aerobic respiration present in plants?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration net gain of 36 ATP molecules produced in complete oxidation of glucose.

Question 13.
What are the significances of Respiratory Quotient?
Answer:
The significances of Respiratory Quotient:

1. RQ value indicates which type of respiration occurs in living cells, either aerobic or anaerobic.
2. It also helps to know which type of respiratory substrate is involved.

Question 14.
Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation in mitochondria?
Answer:
Peter Mitchell, a British Biochemist received Nobel Prize for chemistry in 1978.

Question 15.
Mention any two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
Two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation:

1. In bakeries, it is used for preparing bread, cakes, biscuits.
2. In beverage industries for preparing wine and alcoholic drinks.

Question 16.
Define mixed acid fermentation.
Answer:

• Formation of Lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid and gases like CO₂ and H₂ from pyruvic acid.
• eg. Enterobacteriaceae.

Question 17.
Mention any two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants.
Answer:
Two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants:

1. The amount of protoplasm and its state of activity influence the rate of respiration.
2. The concentration of respiratory substrate is proportional to the rate of respiration.

Question 18.
Why microorganisms respire an anaerobically?
Answer:

• Bacteria are prokaryotes and they are devoid of membrane-bound organelle mitochondria.
• So they are respire anaerobically.

Question 19.
Write down any two significance of the pentose phosphate pathway.
Answer:
Two significance of pentose phosphate pathway:

1. HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products.
2. Coenzyme NADPH generated is used for reductive biosynthesis and counter damaging the effects of oxygen-free radicals.

Question 20.
Complete the following Picture.

Answer:
A. Compensation point
B. Rate of Respiration

Question 21.
Write the missing A and B.

Answer:
A. Ribose
B. Adenine

III. 3 Mark Questions

Question 1.
In the biosphere how do plants and animals are complementary systems, which are integrated to sustain life?
Answer:
In plants, oxygen enters through the stomata and it is transported to cells, where oxygen is utilized for energy production. Plants require carbon dioxide to survive, to produce carbohydrates, and to release oxygen through photosynthesis, these oxygen molecules are inhaled by humans through the nose, which reaches the lungs where oxygen is transported through the blood and it reaches cells. Cellular respiration takes place inside or the cell for obtaining energy.

Question 2.
What is Respiration?
Answer:

• Breaking of C-C bonds of complex organic compounds through oxidation within the cells.
• The energy released during respiration is stored in the form of ATP and heat is liberated.
• It occurs in all the living cells of organisms.

Question 3.
What are the factors associated with the compensation point in respiration?
Answer:
The two common factors associated with compensation points are CO₂ and light. Based on this there are two types of compensation points. They are the CO₂ compensation point and light compensation point. C₃ plants have compensation points ranging from 40 – 60 ppm (parts per million) CO₂ while those of C₄ plants range from 1 – 5 ppm CO₂.

Question 4.
Differentiate floating respiration and protoplasmic respiration.
Answer:

Floating respiration	Protoplasmic respiration
Carbohydrate (or) fat (or) organic acid serves as a respiratory substrate	Whereas protein is a respiratory substrate.
It is a common mode of respiration and does not produce any toxic product.	It is rare and liberates toxic ammonia.

Question 5.
What is a redox reaction?
Answer:
NAD⁺ + 2e^– + 2H⁺ → NADH + H⁺
FAD + 2e^– + 2H⁺ → FADH₂
When NAD⁺ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide – oxidized form) and FAD (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) pick up electrons and one or two hydrogen ions (protons), they get reduced to NADH + H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. When they drop electrons and hydrogen off they go back to their original form. The reaction in which NAD⁺ and FAD gain (reduction) or lose (oxidation) electrons are called redox reactions (Oxidation-reduction reactions). These reactions are important in cellular respiration.

Question 6.
Define ETS (or) Electron transport chain (or) What is the importance of ETS and oxidative Phosphorylation in respiration.
Answer:

• Electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation remove hydrogen atoms from the products of glycolysis, link reaction, and Kreb cycle.
• It releases water molecule with energy in the form of ATP molecules in the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The significance of Kreb’s cycle:

1. TCA cycle is to provide energy in the form of ATP for metabolism in plants.
2. It provides carbon skeleton or raw material for various anabolic processes.
3. Many intermediates of the TCA cycle are further metabolised to produce amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
4. Succinyl CoA is the raw material for the formation of chlorophylls, cytochrome, phytochrome, and other pyrrole substances.
5. α – ketoglutarate and oxaloacetate undergo reductive amination and produce amino acids.
6. It acts as a metabolic sink which plays a central role in intermediary metabolism.

Question 8.
Write the differences between ubiquinone and Cytochrome C.
Answer:

Ubiquinone	Cytochrome C
It is a small, lipid-soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria.	It is a small protein attached to the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria
It is associated with ETS – complex I	It is associated with ETS – complex IIII

Question 9.
Write down the characteristic of Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
The characteristic of Anaerobic respiration:

1. Anaerobic respiration is less efficient than aerobic respiration.
2. A limited number of ATP molecules is generated per glucose molecule.
3. It is characterized by the production of CO₂ and is used for Carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Question 10.
RQ will be less than one in Red colour Parts Present in Plants? Why?
Answer:

• Red colour parts present in plants is due to the presence of anthocyanin
• Synthesis of anthocyanin require more O₂ than CO₂ evolved.
• So RQ will be less than one.

Question 11.
Write down any three external factors, that affect respiration in plants.
Answer:
Three external factors, that affect respiration in plants:

1. The optimum temperature for respiration is 30°C. At low temperatures and very high temperatures rate of respiration decreases.
2. When a sufficient amount of O₂ is available the rate of aerobic respiration will be optimum and anaerobic respiration is completely stopped. This is called the Extinction point.
3. The high concentration of CO₂ reduces the rate of respiration.

Question 12.
Define Lactic acid fermentation.
Answer:
Formation of Lactic acid from pyruvic acid is Lactic acid fermentation.
Eg. Bacillus bacteria, fungi, muscles of vertebrates.

Question 13.
What is the Pentose phosphate pathway?
Answer:

• It is an alternate pathway for break down of glucose.
• It takes place in the cytoplasm of mature plant cells.
• In this pathway glucose 6 phosphate molecule is converted to Ribulose 5 phosphate with CO₂ and NADPH^– + H⁺.

Question 14.
How alcoholic beverages like beer and wine is made?
Answer:

• The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol takes place in malted barley and grapes through fermentation.
• Yeast Carryout this process under anaerobic conditions and this conversion increases ethanol concentration.
• If the concentration increases It’s toxic effect kills yeast cells and the left out is called beer and wine respectively.

IV. 5 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Ambulate the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. It occurs in all living cells of higher organisms.	It occurs yeast and some bacteria.
2. It requires oxygen for breaking the respiratory substrate	Oxygen is not required for breaking the respiratory substrate.
3. The end products are CO2 and H2O	The end products are alcohol and CO2 (or) lactic acid
4. Oxidation of one molecule of glucose produces 36 ATP molecules	Only 2 ATP molecules are produced.
5. It consists of four stages – glycolysis, link reaction, TCA cycle and electron transport chain.	It consists of two stages – glycolysis and fermentation.
6. It occurs in cytoplasm and mitochondria	It occurs only in cytoplasm

Question 2.
Draw the flow chart diagram For Glycolysis (or) EMP pathway.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the Pay – off phase of EMP Pathway of Glycolysis (or) Explain the oxidative phase of Glycolysis (or) Triose phase of Glycolysis.
Answer:

• Two molecules of glyceraldehyde 3 – phosphate oxidatively phosphorylated into two molecules of 1-3
  bisphospho glycerate.
• During this reaction 2 NAD⁺ is reduced to 2NADH+ H⁺ by glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
• Further reactions are carried out by different enzymes at the end two molecules of pyruvate are produced.
• In this phase 4 ATPS are produced (at step 7 and step 10)
• Through Direct transfer of phosphate from substrate molecule to ADP and is converted into ATP is called substrate Phosphotylation. (or) Direct Phosphorylation (or) transphosphorylation.
• During the reaction (at step 9)2 phospo glycerate dehydrated into phosphoenol pyurvate, a water molecule is removed by the enzyme enolase.
• As a result enol group is formed within the molecule. This process is called Enolation.

Energy Budge of pay off phase:

• In the payoff phase totally 4 ATP and 2NADH + H⁺ molecules are produced.
• Since 2 ATP molecules are already consumed in the preparatory phase the net products in glycolysis are 2ATP and 2NADH + H⁺

Question 4.
Explain the preparatory phase of Glycolysis (or) EMP pathway (or) Describe the energonic phase phase of Glycolysis (or) EMP pathway. Describe the hexose phase of Glycolysis (or) EMP pathway.
Answer:
Glycolysis is a linear series of reactions in which 6- carbon glucose split into two molecules of 3 carbon pyruvic acid.
Preparatory phase:

• Glucose enters glycolysis which is the end product of photosynthesis.
• Glucose is phosphorylated into glucose 6 phosphate by the enzyme hexokinase and subsequent reactions are carried out by different enzymes.
• At the end of this phase fructose 1,6 – bisphote is cleaved into glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate by the enzyme aldolase.
• These two are Isomers.
• Dihydroxyacetone phosphate is isomerised into glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate by the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase.
• Now two molecules of glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate enter into pay off phase.

During the preparatory phase, two ATP molecules are àonsumed.

Question 5.
Explain pyruvate oxidation (or) Link reaction of Glycolysis.
Answer:

• Two molecules of pyruvate formed by glycolysis in the cytosol enter into mitochondnalrnatrxi.
• In aerobic respiration this pyruvate with coenzyme A is oxidatively decarboxylated into acetyl CoA by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. .
• It produces two molecules of NADH + H⁺ and 2CO₂

It is also called transition reaction (or) Link reaction.

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex consists of three distinct enzymes.

1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
2. Dihydroiipoyil transacetylase
3. Dihydrolipoyil dehydrogenase and 5 coenzymes TPP (thymine pyrophosphate)
   • NAD⁺
   • FAD
   • COA and lipoate.

Question 6.
Draw the flow chart diagram for the Kreb cycle (or) Citric acid cycle.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain Kreb cycle (or) Citric acid cycle (or) TCA cycle.
Answer:

• Two molecules of acetyl CoA formed from link reaction now enter into Kreb Cycle.
• It is named after its discoverer German Biochemist Sir Hans Adolf Kreb (1937).
• It is takes place in the mitochondrial matrix and inner membrane of mitochondria.
• The enzymes needed for TCA cycle are found in the mitochondrial matrix except for succinate dehydrogenase which is found in the mitochondrial inner membrane.
• First step starts with condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate in the presence of water to yield citric acid (or) citrate.
• It is followed by the action of different enzymes in cyclic manner.
• During the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinate by the enzyme succinyl CoA synthetase a molecule of ATP Synthesis from Substrate without entering the electron transport chain is called substrate-level phosphorylation.
• Kreb Cycle is repeated twice for every glucose molecule.
• Where two molecules of pyruvic acid produces six molecules of CO₂, eight molecules of NADH+H⁺ two molecules of FADH₂ and two molecules of ATP.

Question 8.
Significance of Kreb Cycle.
Answer:

• TCA cycle is to provide energy in the form of ATP for metabolism in plants.
• It provides carbon skeleton or raw material for various anabolic process.
• many intermediates of TCA cycle are further metabolised to produce amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids.
• Succinyl CoA is raw material for formation of chlorophyll, cytochrome, phytochrome and other pyrroles
  substances.
• α – ketoglutarate and oxaloacetate undergo reductive amination and produce amino acids.
• it acts as metabolic sink which plays a central role in intermediary metabolism.

Question 9.
Write four Electron transport chain in hibitors.
Answer:

• 2,4 DNP (Dinitrophenol) – It prevents the synthesis of ATP from ADP, as it directs electrons from CoQ to O₂
• Cyanide – It prevents the flow of electrons from Cytochrome a3 to O₂
• Rotenone – It prevents flow of electrons from NADH + H⁺ / FADH₂ to Co Q
• Oligomycin – It inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

Question 10.
Tabulate Net Products of ATP gained during aerobic respiration per glucose molecule.
Answer:

Question 11.
Experiment to demonstrate the production of CO₂ in aerobic respiration.
Answer:

• Take small quantity of any seed (groundnut or bean seeds) and allow them to germinate by imbibing them.
• While they are germinating place them in a conical flask.
• A small glass tube containing 4 ml of freshly prepared Potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution is hing into the conical flask with the help of a thread and tightly close the one holed cork.
• Take a bent glass tube, the shorted end of which is inserted into the conical flask through the hole in the cork.
• The longer end is dipped in a beaker containing water.
• Observe the position of initial water level in bent glass tube.
• This experimental setup is kept for two hours.
• After two hours, the level of water rises in the glass tube. It is because the CO₂ evolved during aerobic
  respiration by germinating seeds will be absorbed by KOH solution and the level of water will rise in the glass tube.
• CO₂ + 2KOH → K₂CO3 + H₂O

Question 12.
Compare Alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:

Alcoholic fermentation	Lactic acid fermentation
1. it produces alcohol and releases CO2 from pyruvic acid	It produces lactic acid and does not release CO2 from pyruvic acid
2. It takes place in two steps.	It takes place in single steps.
3. It involves two enzymes, pyruvate decarboxylase with Mg++ and alcohol dehydrogenase	It uses one enzyme, lactate dehydrogenase with Zn++
4. It forms acetaldehyde as an intermediate compound	Does not form an intermediate compound.
5. It commonly occurs in yeast.	Occurs in bacteria, some fungi, and vertebrate muscles.

Question 13.
Write the Industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:

• In bakeries, it is used for preparing bread, cakes, biscuits.
• In beverage industries for preparing wine and alcoholic drinks.
• In producing vinegar and in tanning, curing of leather.
• Ethanol is used to make gasohol (a fuel that is used for cars in Brazil).

Question 14.
Tabulate the comparison between glycolysis and fermentation.
Answer:

Glycolysis	Fermentation
1. Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid	Stars from pyruvic acid and is converted into alcohol or lactic acid.
2. It takes place in the presence or absence of oxygen.	it takes place in the absence of oxygen.
3. Net gain is 2ATP.	No net gain of ATP molecules.
4. 2NADH + H+ molecules are produced.	2NADH+ H+molecules are utilised
5. It commonly occurs in yeast.	Occurs in bacteria, some fungi and vertebrate muscles.

Question 15.
Explain the demonstration of alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:

• Take a Kuhne’s fermentation tube which consists of an upright glass tube with a side bulb
• Pour 10% sugar solution mixed with baker’s yeast into the fermentation tube the side tube is filled plug the mouth with lid.
  After some time, the glucose solution will be fermented. The solution will give out an alcoholic smell.
• The level of the solution in the glass column will fall due to the accumulation of CO₂ gas.
• It is due to the presence of zymase enzyme  yeast which converts the glucose solution into alcohol and CO₂
• Now introduce a pellet of KOH into the tube, the KOH will absorb CO₂ and the level of solution will rise in the upright tube.
• This experiment proves during fermentation CO₂ gas is evolved.

Question 16.
Write the Factors (Internal and External) which affect the process of respiration.
Answer:
External Factors:

• The optimum temperature for respiration is 30°C. At low temperatures and very high temperatures rate, respiration decreases.
• When sufficient amount of O₂ is available the rate of aerobic respiration will be optimum and anaerobic respiration  is completely stopped. This is called Extinction point.
• The high concentration of CO₂ reduces the rate of respiration.
• A plant or tissue transferred from water to salt solution wi li increase the rate of respiration. It is called silt respiration.
• Light is an indirect factor affecting the rate of respiration.
• Wounding of plant organs stimulates the rate of respiration in that region.

Internal Factors:

• The concentration of respiratory substrate is proportional to the rate of respiration
• The amount of protoplasm and its state of activity influence the rate of respiration.

Question 17.
Write about the alternate pathway for glucose break down (or) Write about pentose phosphate pathway. (or) Phosphogluconate pathway (or) War burg – Dickens Lipmann pathway (or)Hexose Monophosphate pathway (or) HMP Shunt pathway.
Answer:

• The pentose phosphate pathway was described by Warburg, Dickens, and Lipmann (1938). Hence, it is also called Warburg – Dickens Lipmann pathway.
• It takes place in the cytoplasm of mature plant cells. It is an alternate way for break4own of glucose.
• It consists of two phases, oxidative phase, and non-oxidative phase.
• The oxidative events concert six molecules of six carbon Glucose 6 phosphate to 6 molecules of five-carbon sugar Ribulose -5 phosphate with loss of 12 NADPH + H⁺ (not NADH).
• The remaining reactions known as non oxidative pathway, covert Rihulose 5phosphate molecules to various intermediates such as Ribose – 5 – phosphate (5C), Xylulose – 5 – phosphate (5C), Glyceraldehyde – 7 – Phosphate (7C), and Eiythrose -4- phosphate (4C).
• Finally, five molecules of glucose -6- phosphate is regenerated. The overall reaction is:
  6 x Glucose – 6 – Phosphate + 12NADP⁺ + 6H₂O
  ↓
  5 x Glucose-6- Phosphate + 6CO₂ + Pi + 12NADPH + 12H⁺
  
• The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose-6-phosphate yield 6CO₂ and12NADPH+H⁺

Question 18.
Draw the cycle for pentsoe phosphate pathway (or) Draw the flow chart for HMP Shunt.
Answer:

Question 19.
Write about the Significance of Pentose Phosphate pathway.
Answer:

• HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products. NADPH and pentsoe sugars, which play a vital role in anaholic reactions.
• Coenzyme NADPH generated is used by reductive bisynthesìs and counter damaging the effects of oxygen-free radicals.
• Ribose – 5 – phosphate and its derivatives are used in the synthesis of DNA, RNA, ATP, NAD, FAD and
  Coenzynie A. .
• Erythrose is used for the synthesis of anthocyanin Jignin and other aromatic compounds.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia

11th Bio Zoology Guide Kingdom Animalia Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
The symmetry exhibited in cnidarians is
a. Radial
b. Bilateral
c. Pentamerous radial
d. Asymmetrical
Answer:
a. Radial

Question 2.
Sea anemone belongs to phylum
a. Protozoa
b. Porifera
c. Coelenterata
d. Echinodermata
Answer:
c. Coelenterata

Question 3.
The excretory cells that are found in platyhelminthes are
a. Protonephridia
b. Flame cells
c. Solenocytes
d. All of these
Answer:
b. Flame cells

Question 4.
In which of the following organisms, self fertilization is seen.
a. Fish
b. Round worm
c. Earthworm
d. Liver fluke
Answer:
d. Liver fluke

Question 5.
Nephridia of Earthworms are performing the same functions as
a. Gills of prawn
b. Flame cells of Planaria
c. The trachea of insects
d. Nematoblasts of Hydra
Answer:
b. Flame cells of Planaria

Question 6.
Which of the following animals has a true coelom?
a. Ascaris
b. Pheretima
c. Sycon
d. Taenia solium
Answer:
b. Pheretima

Question 7.
Metameric segmentation is the main feature of
a. Annelida
b. Echinodermata
c. Arthropoda
d. Coelenterata
Answer:
a. Annelida

Question 8.
In Pheretima locomotion occurs with the help of
a. circular muscles
b. longitudinal muscles and setae
c. circular, longitudinal muscles and setae
d. parapodia
Answer:
c. circular, longitudinal muscles and setae

Question 9.
Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
a. Insects
b. Birds
c. Angiosperms
d. Fungi
Answer:
a. Insects

Question 10.
Which of the following is a crustacean?
a. Prawn
b. Snail
c. Sea anemone
d. Hydra
Answer:
a. Prawn

Question 11.
The respiratory pigment in cockroach is
a. Haemoglobin
b. Haemocyanin
c. Heamoerythrin
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 12.
Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle?
a. Annelida
b. Porifera
c. Arthropoda
d. Echinodermata
Answer:
c. Arthropoda

Question 13.
Lateral line sense organs occur in
a. Salamander
b. Frog
c. Water snake
d. Fish
Answer:
d. Fish

Question 14.
The limbless amphibian is
a. Icthyophis
b. Hyla
c. Rana
d. Salamander
Answer:
a. Icthyophis

Question 15.
Four chambered heart is present in
a. Lizard
b. Snake
c. Scorpion
d. Crocodile
Answer:
d. Crocodile

Question 16.
Which of the following is not correctly paired?
a. Humans – Ureotelic
b. Birds – Uricotelic
c. Lizards – Uricotelic
d. Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
d. Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 17.
Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
a. Delphinus
b. Macropus
c. Ornithorhynchus
d. Equus
Answer:
c. Omithorhynchus

Question 18.
Pneumatic bones are seen in
a. Mammalia
b. Aves
c. Reptilia
d. Sponges
Answer:
b. Aves

Question 19.
Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column -I	Column – II
(p) Pila	(i) Devil fish
(q) Dentalium	(ii) Chiton
(r) Chaetopleura	(iii) Apple snail
(s) Octopus	(iv) Tusk shell

a. p – (ii), q – (i), r – (iii), s – (iv)
b. p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)
c. p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)
d. p – (i), q – (ii), r – (iii), s – (iv)
Answer:
b. p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)

Question 20.
In which of the following phyla, the adult shows radial symmetry but the larva shows bilateral symmetry?
a. Mollusca
b. Echinodermata
c. Arthropoda
d. Annelida
Answer:
b. Echinodermata

Question 21.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Physalia – Portuguese man of war
b. Pennatula – Sea fan
c. Adamsia – Sea pen
d. Gorgonia-Sea anemone
Answer:
a. Physalia – Portuguese man of war

Question 22.
Why are spongin and spicules important to a sponge?
Answer:
Spongin and spicules provide support and support to the soft body parts of the sponges. The spicules give the sponges rigidity and form to the sponges.

Question 23.
What are the four characteristics common to most animals?
Answer:

1. Cellular structure
2. The nature of coelom ;
3. Notochord
4. Segmentation or absence of segmentation.

Question 24.
List the features that all vertebrates show at some point in their development.
Answer:
All vertebrates possess notochord during the embryonic stay. li is repLaced by vertebra) column. All vertebrates possess pained appendages such as fins or lunits. Skin is covered by a protective skeleton comprising of scales. feathers hairs, claws, nails, etc. Respiration is aerobic through gills, skin. buccopharyngeal cavity’ and lungs. All vertebrates have a muscular heart with two, three, or four chambers and kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation.

Question 25.
Compare closed and opened circulatory system
Answer:

Open Circulation	Closed Circulation
1. There are no blood vessels	Presence of blood vessels.
2. Blood remains filled in the tissue spaces.	Blood is circulated through blood vessels
3. (Eg.) Arthropods, Mollusca, Echinodermata	(Eg.) Earthworm, Cephalochordates, Chordates

Question 26.
Compare Schizocoelom with enterocoelom
Answer:

Schizocoelomate	Enterocoelomate
1. Body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm.	The body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches or archenterons.
2. (Eg.) Annelids, Arthropods	(Eg.) Echinodermata Chordates

Question 27.
Identify the structure that the archenteron becomes in a developing animal.
Answer:
The archenteron becomes the cavity of the digestive tract.

Question 28.
Observe the animal below and answer the following questions
a. Identify the animal
b. What type of symmetry does this animal exhibit?
c. Is this animal Cephalized?
d. How many germ layers does this animal have?
e. How many openings does this animal’s digestive system have?
f. Does this animal have neurons?
Answer:
a) Sea anemone
b) Bilateral symmetry
c) It is not a cephalized animal
d) Diploblastic animal
e) One
f) Yes.

Question 29.
Choose the term that does not belong in the following group and explain why it does not belong?
Answer:

• Notochord, cephalization, dorsal nerve cord, and radial symmetry.
• Notochord, cephalization, and dorsal nerve cord are the characteristic features of chordates. The radial symmetry is not a characteristic feature of chordate. It is the feature of cnidarian and adult echinoderms. Hence it does not belong to the group.

Question 30.
Why flatworms are called acoelomates?
Answer:
The body cavity is formed from mesoderm but in flatworms, there is nobody cavity their body is solid with a perivisceral cavity.

Question 31.
What are flame cells?
Answer:
Flame cells are the specialized excretory cells in flat worms. They help in excretion and osmoregulation.

Question 32.
Concept Mapping – Use the following terms to create a concept map that shows the major characteristic features of the phylum Nematoda: Roundworms, pseudocoelomates, digestive tract, cuticle, parasite, sexual dimorphism
Answer:

Question 33.
In which phyla is the larva trochophore found?
Answer:
Trochopore larva is seen in the Phylum – Annelida.

Question 34.
Which of the chordate characteristics do tunicates retain as adults?
Answer:
Ventral and tabular heart. Respiration is through gill slits.

Question 35.
List the characteristic features that distinguish cartilaginous fishes from living jawless fishes.
Answer:

Cyclostomata	Chondrichthyes
1. Some are ectoparasites on some fishes.	They are free living.
2. Body is slender and eel-like	Skin is tough and covered with placoid scales
3. 6 to 15 pairs of gillslits for respiration.	Respiration is by lamelliform gills.
4. Mouth is circular without jaws and suctorial.	There are lower and upper jaws.
5. Migrate to freshwater for spawning	There is no migration during breeding.
6. After spawning they die	They don’t die after spawning
7. Oviparous	Oviparous, viviparous and Ova viviparous

Question 36.
List three features that characterize bony fishes.
Answer:

1. These fishes have a bony endoskeleton.
2. The skin is covered by ganoid, cycloid or ctenoid scales.
3. Gills are covered by an operculum.
4. They are ammonotelic.
5. They have mesonephric kidneys.
6. External fertilization is seen.

Question 37.
List the functions of air bladder in fishes.
Answer:

• Air bladder may be connected to the gut or not.
• They help in gaseous exchange.
• In ray-finned fishes, they help in buoyancy.

Question 38.
Write the characteristics that contribute to the success of reptiles on land.
Answer:

• The characteristics that contribute to the success of reptiles on land are as follows:
• The presence of dry and cornified skin with epidermal scales or scutes prevents the loss of water.
• The presence of metanephric kidney.
• They are uricotelic (they excrete uric acid to prevent the loss of water).

Question 39.
List the unique features of a bird’s endoskeleton.
Answer:

• The endoskeleton is fully ossified.
• The long bones are hollow with air cavities. So that they can easily fly with lesser weight.

Question 40.
Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous female be equal? Why?
Answer:
No. The number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous female cannot be equal. When the oviparous animals lay eggs in the external environment or in the medium, the chance of survival and successful development into the adults are not certain. But in the case of viviparous animals, young ones are nurtured by the adult animals. Hence, oviparous animals lay more eggs if they are fertilized in the medium or in water.

Part-II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Kingdom Animalia Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Which of the following has loose aggregates of cells without tissues?
(a) cnidarians
(b) flatworms
(c) sponges
(d) echinodenns
Answer:
(c) sponges

Question 2.
Name the organs formed from ectoderm.
a. Heart
b. Hair
c. Muscle
d. Intestine
Answer:
b. Hair

Question 3.
Which of the following is advantageous for the animals in locomotion, food capture etc.?
(a) asymmetrical
(b) radially symmetrical
(c) biradially symmetrical
(d) bilaterally symmetrical
Answer:
(d) bilaterally symmetrical

Question 4.
Inporiferans through ………………. pores water enters into the body and goes out through.
a. Osculum Ostia
b. Ostia Osculum
c. Mouth Ostia
d. Mouth Osculum
Answer:
b. Ostia Osculum

Question 5.
Radiata include
(a) Diploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical animals
(b) Triploblastic and radially symmetrical animals
(c) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical animals
(d) Triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical animals
Answer:
(c) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical animals.

Question 6.
Find out the correct and wrong statement and find out the correct sequence
I. In the phylum cnidaria on the tentacles nematocysts are present.
II. In evolutionary history the annelid is the first segmented animal.
III. The roundworms are diploblastic bilateral animals.
IV. The arthropods excrete through flame cells.
a. I – False, II – False, III – True, IV – True
b. I – True, II – False, III – False, IV – True
c. I – True, II – True, III – False, IV – Flase
d. I – False, II – True, III – True, IV – False
Answer:
c. I – True, II – True, III – False, IV – False

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Polyp forms are free-living
(b) Medusa forms are sessile
(c) Medusa produces gametes
(d) Polyp reproduces sexually
Answer:
(c) Medusa produces gametes

Question 8.
What is the excretory organ of roundworm?
a. Flame cells
b. Rennet glands
c. Green glands
d. Malphigeal tubules
Answer:
b. Rennet glands

Question 9.
Sexual dimorphism is seen in
(a) Sycon
(b) Hydra
(c) Liver flukes
(d) Ascaris
Answer:
(d) Ascaris

Question 10.
Name the respiratory organ of Mollusca.
a. Ctenidia
b. Gills
c. Book lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
a. Ctenidia

Question 11.
Name the excretory organ of Cephalo Chordata.
a. Mesonephridia
b. Metanephridia
c. Protonephridia
d. Flame cells
Answer:
d. Flame cells

Question 12.
Which of the following is the rasping organ of mollusks found in the mouth?
(a) radula
(b) pallium
(c) visceral mass
(d) mantle
Answer;
(a) radula

Question 13.
…………………….. are called as tunicates
a. Urochordates
b. Cephalo chordates
c. Vertebrata
d. Hemi Chordata
Answer:
a. Urochordates

Question 14.
The eggs of birds are ………………..
a. Megalecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Telolocithal
d. Alecithal
Answer:
a. Megalecithal

Question 15.
Urochordate means
(a) Chordates which have notochord in the head region
(b) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of larval forms
(c) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of adults
(d) Chordates which have no notochord
Answer:
(b) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of larval forms.

Question 16.
Find out the correct pair.
a. Planula – Planeria
b. Regeneration – Annelida
c. Trochopore larva – Cnidaria
d. Veliger larva – Mollusca
Answer:
d. Veliger larva – Mollusca

Question 17.
Which one of the following is not correctly paired?
a) Ctenophora – Veliger
b) Annelida – Trochophore
c) Cnidaria – Planula
d) Porifera – Parenchymula
Answer:
a) Ctenophora – Veliger

Question 18.
Which of the following is the flight adaptation of birds?
(a) Pneumatic bones and strong flight muscles
(b) Homeothermic condition
(c) Migration to distant places
(d) Presence of homy covering on the beak
Answer:
(a) Pneumatic bones and strong flight muscles

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish invertebrates and chordates.
Answer:
Invertebrates:

• The major group of animals which do not have notochord or vertebral column are Invertebrates.
• These are lower animals.

Chordates:

• The major group of animals which have notochord or vertebral column are chordates.
• These are higher animals.

Question 2.
What are choanocytes?
Answer:
The inner layer of sponges is formed of flagellated collar cells called coanocytes. They maintain water flow through the sponges thus facilitating respiratory and digestive functions.

Question 3.
What are choanocytes?
Answer:
The inner layer of sponges has a special type of cells called choanocytes. These flagellated collar cells create and maintain water flow through the sponge. It helps in respiration and digestion.

Question 4.
Define organ? Which was the first animal to have an organ system?
Answer:

• Different kinds of tissues aggregate to form an organ to perform a specific function.
• In phylum Platyhelminthes, the organ level of organisation is first formed.

Question 5.
Differentiate between a complete digestive system from an incomplete digestive system.
Answer:

Incomplete Digestive System	Complete Digestive System
1. There is a single opening in the digestive system which serves as both mouth and anus. (Eg.) Platyhelminthes	1. There are separate openings for the mouth and anus. (Eg.) Chordates

Question 6.
What are asymmetrical animals?
Answer:
The animals which lack a definite body plan and any plane passing through the center of the body does not divide them into two equal halves are known as asymmetrical animals, e.g. Sponges.

Question 7.
What is radial symmetry?
Answer:
When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two identical parts, it is called radial symmetry, e.g. Cnidarian.

Question 8.
What is bilateral symmetry?
Answer:
The symmetry in which the animals have two similar halves on either side of the central place is bilateral symmetry, e.g. Flatworms and annelids.

Question 9.
What are deutrostomia ?
Answer:
Eumetazoans in which the anus is formed from or near the blastopore and the mouth is formed away from the blastopore are deuterostomes.

Question 10.
What are the advantages of bilaterally symmetrical animals?
Answer:
The bilaterally symmetrical animals can seek food, locate mates, escape from predators and move more efficiently. These animals have dorsal-ventral sides and anterior, posterior ends, right and left sides. They exhibit cephalization with sense organs and brain at the anterior end of the animal.

Question 11.
Differentiate the respiratory pigment haemoglobin from haemocyanin.
Answer:

Haemoglobin	Haemocyanin
1. It’s an iron-containing respiratory pigment.	It’s a copper-containing respiratory pigment.
2. This is present in Annelida and Chordata	This is present in molluscan blood.

Question 12.
What are pseudocoelomates?
Answer:
The animals which have a body cavity that is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium are called pseudocoelomates. The pseudocoel is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid. It acts as a hydrostatic skeleton and allows free movement of visceral organs and circulation of nutrients e.g. Roundworms.

Question 13.
What is cleidoic egg?
Answer:
If the female organisms lay cleidoic eggs or shelled egg then it is known as cleidoic eggs.

Question 14.
What are the extraembryonic membranes present in reptiles?
Answer:

1. Amnion
2. Allantois
3. Chorion
4. Yolk sac

Question 15.
Distinguish between schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates
Answer:
Schizocoelomates:
In schizocoelometes, the body cavity is formed by splitting mesoderm, e.g. Annelids, arthropods, and mollusks.

Enterocoelomates:
In enterocoelomates, the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches of the archenteron. e.g. Echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
What are the structures formed from ectoderm endoderm and mesoderm?
Answer:

1. Ectoderm – Skin, Hair, Nerves, Nail, Teeth
2. Mesoderm – Muscles, Bones, Heart
3. Endoderm – Intestine, Lungs, Liver.

Question 2.
Name the parts A, B, and C in the diagram?
Answer:

A) Ectoderm
B) Pseudo coelom
c) Mesodorm

Question 3.
Differentiate parazoa from eumetazoa?
Answer:

Parazoa	Eumetazoa
1.Multicellular	Multicellular
2. Cells are loosely	Well-developed tissues arranged. and organ system is present

Question 4.
Match


a) I – b, II – d, III – a, IV – c
b) I – a, II – b, III – d, IV – c
c) I – b, II – a, III – d, IV – c
Answer:
a) I – b, II – d, III – a, IV – c

Question 5.
Distinguish between Agnatha and Gnathostomata.
Answer:
Agnatha:

• These include jawless fish-like aquatic vertebrates.
• They do not have paired appendages.

Gnathostomata:

• These include jawed vertebrates.
• They have paired appendages.

Question 6.
In the given diagram Balanoglossus mark A, B, and C.

Answer:
A) Proboscis
B) Collarette
c) Genital wings

Question 7.
Explain various patterns of organisation in animals.
Answer:
Animals exhibit different patterns of organisation:
The cellular level of organisation:

• Cells are loosely arranged without the formation of tissues.
• There is a division of labour among the cells, e.g., sponges.

Tissue level of organisation:

• Cells which perform a similar function are grouped into tissues.
• The tissues perform a common function, e.g., cnidarians.

Organ level of organisation:
Different kinds of tissues aggregate to form an organ to perform a specific function e.g., flatworms and other hyper phyla.

Organ system level of organisation :

• The tissues are organized to form organs and organ systems.
• All the organ systems function in a coordinated manner.

Question 8.
Look at the picture given below and answer questions.
a) What is the name of this fish?
b) What is the name of the larva of this fish?
c) What is the shape of the mouth?

Answer:
a) iprey
b) Ammocete
c) Circular

Question 9.
Classify animals based on coelom.
Answer:
The cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is called coelom. If the animals do not have coelom, they are called acoelomates. e.g., flatworms. In some animals, the body cavity is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium. The mesoderm is formed as scattered pouches between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called a pseudocoel. The animals which have pseudocoel e.g. roundworms.

If the coelom develops within the mesoderm and is lined by mesodermal epithelium it is called eucoelom. The animals which have true coelom are called eucoelomates. If the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm, the animals are called schizocoelomates e.g., Annelids, arthropods and mollusks. If the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal ‘ pouches of archenteron, the animals are called enterocoelomate animals, e.g., echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

(5 Marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Explain various patterns of organisation in animals.
Answer:
Animals exhibit different patterns of organisation:
The cellular level of organisation:

• Cells are loosely arranged without the formation of tissues.
• There is a division of labour among the cells, e.g., sponges.

Tissue level of organisation:

• Cells which perform a similar function are grouped into tissues.
• The tissues perform a common function, e.g., cnidarians.

Organ level of organisation:
Different kinds of tissues aggregate to form an organ to perform a specific function e.g., flatworms and other hyper phyla.

Organ system level of organisation:

• The tissues are organised to form organs and organ systems.
• All the organ system function in a coordinated manner.

Question 2.
Write the general characters of the phylum Ctenophora.
Answer:

• The animals are marine, diploblastic and radially symmetrical.
• They have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
• Bioluminescence is seen.
• They lack nematocysts but have lasso cells which help in food capture.
• Digestion is by both extracellular and intracellular.
• Sexual reproduction is seen.
• Fertilization is external and development is indirect.
• Cydippid larva is seen, e.g., Pleurobrachia.

Question 3.
Compare Platyhelminthes with Aschelminthes?
Answer:

Platyhelminthes	Aschelminthes
1. The body is flattened one	They are round in shape.
2. They are bilateral and triploblastic animal.	They are bilateral and triploblastic animal.
3. Acoelomate	Pseudo coelom is present.
4. They have pseudo segmentation	The body is unsegmented
5. Excretion is through flame cells.	Excretion is through rennet glands.
6. Sexes are not separate. They are monoecious.	Sexes are separate and exhibit sexual dimorphism.
7. Some show regeneration capacity.	No regeneration capacity.
8. Larva is present.	No larva
9. (Eg.) Tape worm, Planeria	(Eg.) Ascaris

Question 4.
Write the general characters of the phylum Mollusca.
Answer:

• Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic with organ system level of organisation.
• They are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals.
• Body is divided into head, foot and visceral hump.
• The digestive system is complete.
• Nephridia are the excretory organs.
• Open type of circulatory system is seen.
• Blood contains a copper-containing respiratory pigment called hemocyanin.
• They are oviparous.
• Development is indirect with a veliger larva, e.g., Pila and Octopus.

Question 5.
What are the characteristic features of Hemichordata?

• They possess the characters of invertebrates and chordates.
• This phylum consists of soft worm-like organisms.
• They are triploblastic coelomate animals.
• They are bilaterally symmetrical.
• Their circulatory system is simple and open type.
• They are ciliary feeders.
• Respiration is through paired gill silts opening into the pharynx.
• Excretion is through the glomerulus.
• The nervous system is primitive sexes are separate.
• In its development, there is a free-swimming to maria larva.

Question 6.
Write the general characters of hemichordate.
Answer:

• The Hemichordates have both invertebrate and vertebrate characters.
• They are worm-like, tuberculous animals.
• They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic coelomate animals with organ system level of organisation.
• The body is divided into proboscis, collar, and trunk.
• They are ciliary feeders.
• The circulatory system is simple and open.
• Excretion is by a single proboscis gland or glomerulus situated in the proboscis.
• Sexes are separate.
• Fertilization is external.
• Development is indirect with tomaria larva, e.g., Balanoglossus.

Question 7.
Write the general characters of cephalochordates.
Answer:

• They are marine found in shallow waters.
• They lead a burrowing mode of life.
• They are fish-like with notochord, nerve cord and pharyngeal gill slits throughout their life.
• Closed type of circulatory system is seen without heart.
• Excretion is by protonephridia.
• Sexes are separate.
• Fertilization is external.
• Development is indirect with a larva e.g. Amphioxus.

Question 8.
What are the general characters of mammals?
Answer:

• The body is covered by hairs.
• They are found in a variety of habitats.
• The presence of the mammary gland is the most unique feature of mammals.
• They have two pairs of limbs.
• The skin consists of sweat glands and sebaceous glands.
• Exo skeleton includes horns spines, scales claws, etc.
• Teeth are thecodont heterodont and diphyodont.
• The heart is four-chambered and posses a left systematic arch.
• Mammals have a large brain when compared to other animals.
• Their kidneys are metanephric and are ureotelic.
• All are homeothermic.

Question 9.
Give three distinct features of all chordates that are seen at some stage of their life cycle? What is the fate of two characters out of three in the matured adults?
Answer:

1. Presence of notochord below the nerve chord and above the alimentary canal.
2. The presence of the nerve cord lies above the notochord and below the dorsal body wall.
3. Presence of pharyngeal gill slits in all chordates at some stage of their life cycle.

Features saw in the matured adult animals

Larva	Adult
Notochord	It may be partially or completely replaced by a backbone.
Nerve cord	They enlarged to form the brain and spinal cord.

Question 10.
Compare the chordates with non-chordates?
Answer:

Chordates	Non-chordates
1. Notochord is present	Absence of notochord.
2. Dorsal hollow and single nerve cord	Double ventral solid nerve cord.
3. Pharynx perforated by gill slits.	Gill slits absent.
4. Heart is ventrally placed.	Heart indoors or laterally placed or absent.
5. A post-anal tail is present	Post anal tail is absent
6. Alimentary canal placed ventral to the nerve cord	The alimentary canal is placed dorsal to the nerve cord.

Question 11.
What are the parts of ABCD in the model diagram of Chordata?

Answer:
A) Dorsal Nerve Cord
B) Notochord
C) Mouth
D) Pharyngeal gill clefts
E) Muscle segment

Question 12.
Look into the given diagram and answer the question.
a) What is the name of the organism.
b) What is the respiratory organ of this animal.
c) What type of metamorphosis is seen?
d) Whether this organism contain nerve card?
e) What is the outer covering of it’s body?

Answer:
a) Ascidian
b) Gill clefts
c) Retrogressive metamorphosis
d) The larva consists of a nerve cord.
e) Tunic

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

11th Bio Botany Guide Plant Growth and Development Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I.

Question 1.
Select the wrong statement from the following:
(a) Formative phase of the cells retain the capability of cell division.
(b) In elongation phase development of central vacuole takes place.
(c) In maturation phase thickening and differentiation takes place.
(d) In maturation phase, the cells grow further.
Answer:
(d) In maturation phase, the cells grow further.

Question 2.
If the diameter of the pulley is 6 inches, length of pointer is 10 inches and distance travelled by pointer is 5 inches. Calculate the actual growth in length of plant.
a) 3 inches
b) 6 inches
c) 12 inches
d) 30 inches
Answer:
options are wrong, (correct Ans = 1.5 inches)
Solution:
Step I:
Diameter of the Pulley=6 inches
Radius of the pulley \(=\frac{6}{2}\)= 3 inches
Actual growth in length= Distance travailed by pointer x Radius of the pulley Length of the pointer
=\(\frac{5 \times 3}{10}\) =1.5=1.5.
Answer:
1.5 inches

Question 3.
In unisexual plants, sex can changed by the application of
a) Ethanol
b) Cytokinins
c) ABA
d) Auxin
Answer:
c) ABA

Question 4.
Select the correctly matched one
A) Humanurine i) Auxin-B
B) Corn gram oil ii) GA₃
C) Fungs iii) Abscisic acid II
D) Herring fish sperm iv) Kinetin
E) Unripcrnaizegrains v) AuxinA
F) Young cotton boils vi) Zeatin

Answer:
b) A – v, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E – vi, F – iii

Question 5.
Seed dormancy allows the plants to:
(a) overcome unfavorable climatic conditions
(b) develop healthy seeds
(c) reduce viability
(d) prevent deterioration of seeds
Answer:
(a) overcome unfavorable climatic conditions

Question 6.
What are the parameters used to measure growth of plants?
Answer:
Growth in plants can be measured in terms, of

• Increase in length or girth (roots and stems)
• Increase in fresh or dry weight
• Increase in area or volume (fruits and leaves)
• Increase in a number of cells produced.

Question 7.
What is plasticity?
Answer:
Plasticity refers to the environmental heterophylly seen in Butter cup plant (Ranunculus). In this aquatic plant, the leaves in the air is normal, where as the leaves submerged underwater are highly thin and hairy highly adapted to do carbon assimilation Developmental heterophlly seen in the juvenile plant leaves of cotton and corianter. Where the young leaves have a different shape from the mature leaves is not considered as plasticity.

Question 8.
Write the physiological effects of Cytokinins.
Answer:

1. Cytokinin promotes cell division in the presence of auxin (IAA).
2. Induces cell enlargement associated with IAA and gibberellins
3. Cytokinin can break the dormancy of certain light-sensitive seeds like tobacco and induces seed germination.
4. Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral bud in the presence of apical bud.
5. Application of cytokinin delays the process of aging by nutrient mobilization. It is known as the Richmond Lang effect.
6. Cytokinin:
   • increases rate protein synthesis
   • induces the formation of inter-fascicular cambium
   • overcomes apical dominance
   • induces the formation of new leaves, chloroplast and lateral shoots.
7. Plants accumulate solutes very actively with the help of cytokinins.

Question 9.
Describe the mechanism of photoperiodic induction of flowering.
Answer:
Mechanism of photoperiodic induction of flowering.

• The physiological change on flowering due to the relative length of light and darkness (photoperiod) is called Photoperiodism.
• The photoperiod required to induce flowering is called critical day length. Eg. 12 hours in Maryland Mammoth’s Tobacco Xanthium 15.05 hours.

Photoperiodic induction:

• An appropriate photoperiod in 24 hours cycle constitutes one inductive cycle. Plants may require one or more inductive cycles for flowering.
• The phenomenon of conversion of leaf primordia into flower primordia under the influence of suitable inductive cycles is called photoperiodic induction. Example: Xanthium (SDP) -1 inductive cycle and Plantago (LDP) -25 inductive cycles.

Site of photoconductive perception:

• Leaves are the parts that receive photoperiodic stimulus (PPS), again it is only leaves that synthesize floral hormones and translocate them to the apical tip to promote flowering.
• This can be demonstrated by experiments conducted in the Cocklebur plant. Which is an SD plant. The nature of flower-producing stimulus has been elusive so far. It is believed by physiologists that a hormone is responsible for it, Chailakyan (1936) named it as Florigen It is not possible to isolate it.

Procedure	Observation	Inference
1. Take potted plant A and defoliate the plant subject it to SD – a condition	There is no induction of flowering	No leaf to receive stimulus or induction of flowering
2.  Take potted plant B – and defoliate all, except one leaf subject it to SD – condition.	There is the induction of flowering	One leaf is enough to receive stimulus or induction of flowering.
3.  Take potted plant C – and defoliate it and subject it to LD condition	There is no induction of flowering	no leaf to receive stimulus or induction of flowering
4. Take potted plant D and subject all leaves to LD but one leaf to SD	There is the induction of flowering	One leaf is enough to receive an induction in the SD condition

Question 10.
Give a brief account of programmed cell death (PCD).
Answer:
Senescence is controlled by plants’ own genetic program and the death of the plant or plants part consequent to senescence is called Programmed Cell Death. In short senescence of an individual cell is called PCD. The proteolytic enzymes involving PCD in plants are phytases and in animals are caspases. The nutrients and other substrates from senescing cells and tissues are remobilized and reallocated to other parts of the plant that survives.

The protoplasts of developing xylem vessels and tracheids die and disappear at maturity to make them functionally efficient to conduct water for transport. In aquatic plants, aerenchyma is normally formed in different parts of the plant such as roots and stems which enclose large air spaces that are created through PCD. In the development of unisexual flowers, male and female flowers are present in earlier stages, but only one of these two completes its development while the other aborts through PCD.

Part-II.

11th Bio Botany Guide Plant Growth and Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The open form of the growth occurs in:
(a) leaves and flowers
(b) stem and root
(c) leaves and stem
(d) stem and flowers
Answer:
(b) stem and root

Question 2.
An example of a De-Differentiating cell is ………………
a) Tracheary element
b) shoot apex
c) Cork cambium
d) root apex
Answer:
c) Cork cambium

Question 3.
Primary growth of the plant is due to the activity of:
(a) phloem parenchyma
(b) phloem meristem
(c) vascular cambium
(d) apical meristem
Answer:
(d) apical meristem

Question 4
Choose the natural Auxin of the following
a) Anti Auxin
b) NAA
c) 2.4.D
d) IndoleAcetic Acid (IAA)
Answer:
d) Indole Acetic Acid (IAA)

Question 5.
Thickening and differentiation of cells take place during:
(a) elongation phase
(b) formative phase
(c) maturation phase
(d) flowering phase
Answer:
(c) maturation phase

Question 6.
The hormone present in Coconut milk is
a) Gibberellins
b) Ethylene
c) Cytokinin
d) Auxin
Answer:
c) Cytokinin

Question 7.
The total growth of the plant consists of four phases in the following order.
(a) Log phase, lag phase, decelerating phase and maturation phase
(b) Log phase, lag phase, maturation phase and decelerating phase
(c) Lag phase, log phase, maturation phase and decelerating phase
(d) Lag phase, log phase, decelerating phase and maturation phase
Answer:
(d) Lag phase, log phase, decelerating phase and maturation phase

Question 8.
Which of the following Phytóhormone does not occur naturally in plants?
a) 2. 4. D
b) GibberellicAcid
c) 6. Furfuryl amino purine
d) IAA
Answer:
a) 2.4.D

Question 9.
Absence of light may lead to the yellowish color in plants and this is called:
(a) venation
(b) etiolation
(c) estivation
(d) vernation
Answer:
(b) etiolation

Question 10.
Apical dominance is caused when Auxin
a) Concentration is more than Cytokinins
b) Concentration is less than Cytokinins
c) and Cytokinin concentration are equal
d) and Cytokinin concentration are fluctuating
Answer:
a) Concentration is more than Cytokinins

Question 11.
Indicate a plant growth regulator from the following:
(a) cytocin
(b) cytokinins
(c) acetic acid
(d) methylene
Answer:
(b) cytokinins

Question 12.
Which prevents premature fall of fruit?
a) NAA
b) Ethylene
c) GA₃
d) Zeatin
Answer:
a) NAA

Question 13.
The activity of synergistic effect involves the activity of:
(a) auxin and gibberellins
(b) auxin and ethylene
(c) ABA and gibberellins
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) auxin and gibberellins

Question 14.
The term Auxin was coined by
a) Went
b) Darwin
c) Smith
d) Garner
Answer:
a) Went

Question 15.
The term auxin was first coined by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Kogl
(c) F.W. Went
(d) Smith
Answer:
(c) F.W. Went

Question 16.
The term Gibberellin was coined by
a) Went
b) Kurosawa
c) Skoog
d) Yabuta
Answer:
d) Yabuta

Question 17.
Indicate a synthetic auxin.
(a) Indole Acetic Acid
(b) Phenyl Acetic Acid
(c) Indole Butyric Acid
(d) Naphthalene Acetic Acid
Answer:
(d) Naphthalene Acetic Acid

Question 18.
The mineral required for the synthesis of IAA is
a) Copper
b) Magnesium
c) Zinc
d) Boron
Answer:
c) Zinc

Question 19.
Auxin stimulates:
(a) transpiration
(b) respiration
(c) flowering
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) respiration

Question 20.
The most widely occurring Cytokinin in plants is
a) ABA
b) NAA
c) TNT
d) IPA
Answer:
d) IPA

Question 21.
Who established the structure of gibberellic acid?
(a) Brain etal
(b) Kurosawa
(c) Cross et al
(d) Yabuta and Sumiki
Answer:
(c) Cross etal

Question 22.
The term Florigen was coined by
a) Maheswari
b) Chailakyan
c) R Gane
d) Richmond Lang
Answer:
b) Chailakyan

Question 23.
Cytokinins inducing cell division was first demonstrated by:
(a) Haberlandt
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Clarke
(d) Hubert
Answer:
(a) Haberlandt

Question 24.
Which of the following is a bioassay for Cytokinins?
a) Chlorophyll preservation test
b) Dwarf maize Assay
c) Seed germination Assay test
d) Neem cotyledon Assay
Answer:
d) Neem cotyledon Assay

Question 25.
Indicate correct statements.
(i) Genes are intracellular factors for growth.
(ii) Temperature has no role in the growth of plant.
(iii) Oxygen has a vital role in the growth of plants.
(iv) CIN ratio of soil does not affect the growth of plant.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 26.
Avena curvature test as a BioAssay for
a) Auxins
b) GA₃
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Answer:
a) Auxins

Question 27.
The stress phytohormones (Abscisic acid) was first isolated by:
(a) Linn et al
(b) Addicott et al
(c) Edward et al
(d) Stone and Black
Answer:
(b) Addicott et al

Question 28.
The Gibberellins have been commercially exploited for
a) increasing the size of grapefruits
b) inducing rooting in stem cuttings
c) breaking the dormancy in seeds
d) production of disease-resistant varieties
Answer:
c) breaking the dormancy in seeds

Question 29.
Pick out the correct statement from the following:
(i) Abscisic acid is found abundantly inside the chloroplast of green cells.
(ii) ABA is a powerful growth promotor.
(iii) ABA is formed from the pentose phosphate pathway.
(iv) ABA has anti-auxin and anti-gibberellin properties.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (iv)

Question 30.
Biennials can be induced to flower in the first season itself by treatment with
a) Auxin
b) Kinetin
c) GA
d) ABA
Answer:
c) GA

Question 31.
Pea and barley are classified under:
(a) short-day plants
(b) short long day plants
(c) long day plants
(d) long short day plants
Answer:
(c) long day plants

Question 32.
Auxin a was isolated from human urine by
a) F.W. went
b) Charles Darwin
c) Kogl and Haugen Smith
d) Denny
Answer:
c) Kogl and Haugen smith

Question 33.
Usually, Xanthiumpensylvanicum will flower under:
(a) long day condition
(b) short long day condition
(c) photo neutral condition
(d) short-day condition
Answer:
(d) short-day condition

Question 34.
The most widely occurring Cytokinin in plants is
a) Indole Acetic Acid (LAA)
b) Indole Butyric Acid (IBA)
c) Pentenyl Adenine (IPA)
d) Naphthalene  Acetic Acid (NAA)
Answer:
c) Pentenyl Adenine (IPA)

Question 35.
Who found out the phytochrome in plants?
(a) Butler et al
(b) Michell et al
(c) Boumick et al
(d) Gamers and Allard
Answer:
(a) Butler et al

Question 36.
Scientists, those who are connected with Ethylene
(I) Denny
(II) R. Gane
(III) Kurosawa
(IV) Cocken
Options:
a) (I) (II) & (III)
b) (II) (III) & (IV)
c) (I) (II) & (IV)
d) (I) (III) & (IV)
Answer:
c) (I)(II)& (IV)

Question 37.
Pick out the wrong statement from the following:
(a) Vernalization increases the cold resistance of plants
(b) It increases the resistance of plants to fungal disease
(c) Vemalizatiqn increase the vegetative period of the plant
(d) It accelerates the plant breeding
Answer:
(c) Vemalizatiqn increase the vegetative period of the plant

Question 38.
Day-neutral plants are
a) Sugarcane & Coleus
b) Bryophyllum& Night Jasmine
c) Wheat, rice & Oats.
d) Potato, Tomato & Cotton
Answer:
d) Potato, Tomato & Cotton

Question 39.
In apple and plum, the method of breaking seed dormancy involves the process of:
(a) impaction
(b) Scarification
(c) exposing to red light
(d) Stratification
Answer:
(d) Stratification

Question 40.
Xanthium (Cocklebur) requires …………….. hours of light to induce flowering,
a) 12
b) 9
c) 15.05
d) 13.05
Answer:
c) 15.05

Question 41.
The hormone that cannot be isolated
a) IAA
b) ABA
c) NAA
d) Florigen
Answer:
d) Florigen

Question 42.
The term Photoperiodism was coined by
a) Went
b) Butler
c) Gamer
d) Skoog
Answer:
c) Garner

Question 43.
ABA acts as antagonistic to
a) Ethylene
b) Cytokinin
c) Gibberellic acid
d) IAA
Answer:
c) Gibberellic acid

Question 44.
If a short-day plant, flowering is induced by
a) Long nights
b) Photo periods less than 12 hrs
c) Photoperiods shorter than critical value and uninterrupted long night
d) Short photoperiods and interrupted long nights
Answer:
c) Photoperiods shorter than critical value and uninterrupted long night.

Question 45.
Phytochrome is
a) Reddish phytohormone
b) Bluish biliprotein pigment
c) Photoreceptor of apical bud
d) Unstable pigment molecule
Answer:
b) Bluish biliprotein pigment

Question 46.
The growth & ripening is induced by Ethylene in
a) Tropical fruits
b) Temperate fruits
c) Climacteric fruits
d) Nonclimacteric fruits
Answer:
c) Climacteric fruits

Question 47.
The bioassay of ABA was done with
a) Rice
b) Wheat
c) Maize
d) Barley
Answer:
a) Rice

Question 48.
Four types of senescence were recognized by
a) Leopold
b) Gamer
c) Addicott
d) Cocken et al
Answer:
a) Leopold

Question 49.
The final stage of senescence is
a) PCD
b) Scarification
c) Yellowing
d) Abscission
Answer:
d) Abscission

Question 50.
Match & Find out the Correct Answer

Column I	Column II
1.  Yabuta&Sumiki	a) Identified Ethylene
2.  Lethan & Miller	b) Isolated Auxin from Human urine
3.  Cockenetal	c) Isolated and identified Zeatin
4.  Kogi & Haugen Smith	d) Isolated Gibberellin in Crystal form

Answer:
b) D C A B

Question 51.
Match the following and Find the Correct Answer

I. Auxin	a) Bolting
II. ABA	b) Induces Respiration
III. Gibberellin	c) Cell division
IV. Ethylene	d) Weedicide
V. Cytokinin	e) Closure of stomata

Answer:
b) D E A B C

II. Assertion (A) & Reason (R)

Question 52.
a. Both A & R are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A & R are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is False
d. Both A and ‘R’ are False
Assertion (A): The shoot Apical meristems are the only source of Auxin synthesis
Reason (R): Dormancy of lateral buds over Apical buds is due to Auxin
Answer:
C. A is true but R is False

Question 53.
Assertion (A): Hormones are also called Growth regulator
Reason (R): Hormones promote or inhibit plant growth
Answer:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 54.
Assertion (A): In many land Mammoth flowering occurred at different times at different latitude
Reason (R): Many land Mammoth is a tobacco variety
Answer:
b. Both Assertion (A) and, Reason (R) are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

III. 2 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Define closed form of growth in plants.
Answer:
Leaves, flowers, and fruits are limited in growth or of determinate or closed-form growth.

Question 2.
Compare between Absolute and Relative growth rates
Answer:

Absolute growth	Relative growth
An increase in the total growth of two organs measured and compared per unit time is called Absolute growth rate	The growth of the given system per unit time expressed per unit initial parameter is called relative growth rate

Question 3.
Name the phases of growth in ‘S’ shaped growth curve.
Answer:

• Lag phase
• Log phase
• Decelerating phase
• Maturation phase

Question 4.
Mention the phase of growth in plants
Answer:
I. Formative phase
II. Elongation phase
III. Maturation phase

Question 5.
Distinguish between absolute growth rate and relative growth, rate.
Answer:
Absolute growth rate:
An increase in total growth of two organs measured and compared per unit time is called absolute growth rate.

Relative growth rate:
The growth of the given system per unit time expressed per unit initial parameter is called relative growth rate.

Question 6.
What is the Grand period of growth
Answer:
The total period from initial to the final stage of growth is called Grand period of growth.
When plotted against time the growth curve is ‘S’ shaped, (sigma curve) it is also known as Grand Period curie consists of 4 phases

1. Lag,
2. Log,
3. Decelerating,
4. Maturation.

Question 7.
What is meant by the dedifferentiation of plant cells?
Answer:
Differentiated cells, after multiplication again lose the ability to divide and mature to perform specific functions. This is called redifferentiation, eg: Secondary xylem and Secondary phloem.

Question 8.
Define Phytohormone.
Answer:
The chemical substances synthesized by plants and thus naturally occuring are known as Phytohormones. Eg. Auxin, Gibberellins.
Recently 2 groups – Brassinosteroids, Polyamines were also known to behave like hormones.

Question 9.
Mention any two synthetic auxins.
Answer:

• 2, 4 – Dichloro Phenoxy Acetic Acid (2, 4 – D)
• 2, 4, 5 – Trichloro Phenoxy Acetic Acid (2, 4, 5 – T)

Question 10.
State 3 characteristic features of phytohormones.
Answer:

1. They are produced in root tips and stem tips and leaves (do not have specialized cells or organs for secretion)
2. The transfer of hormones takes place through the conducting system (xylem and phloem)
3. They are required in trace quantities
4. They either promote, inhibit or modify growth.

Question 11.
Name the natural auxins present in plants.
Answer:

• Indole Acetic Acid (IAA)
• Indole Propionic Acid (IPA)
• Indole Butyric Acid (IBA)
• Phenyl Acetic Acid (PAA)

Question 12.
Give the historial significance of Agent Orange
Answer:

• Mixture of two phenoxy herbicides – 2.4. D and 2.4.5 T together known as Agent orange.
• This Agent orange, was used by USA in Vietnam war as chemical warfare weapon to defoliate forests in Vietnam.

Question 13.
Does the trimming of plants in gardens have any scientific explanation?
Answer:

• Yes, trimming of plants removes apical buds and hence apical dominance is prevented the lateral buds sprout and give a beautiful bushy appearance and aesthetic value.
• Also in tea estates, this trimming develops more lateral branches and more tea leaves thus it has commercial significance.

Question 14.
Where do you find cytokinin hormone in plants?
Answer:
The distribution of cytokinin in plants is not as wide as those of auxin and gibberellins but found mostly in roots. Cytokinins appear to be translocated through xylem.

Question 15.
What is bolting?
Answer:

• When treated with Gibberellins the rose the plants (genetic dwarf) exhibit excessive internodal growth.
• This sudden elongation of a stem followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 16.
What is Richmond Lang effect?
Answer:
Application of Cytokinin delays the process of aging by nuitrient mobilization.

Question 17.
Why do you call Abscisic acid (ABA) as stress hormone?
Answer:
It inhibits the shoot growth and promotes growth of root system. This character protect the plants from water stress. Hence, ABA is called as stress hormone.

Question 18.
Define photoperiodism & Critical day length.
Answer:

• The physiological change on flowering due to relative length of light and darkness (Photoperiod) is called
  Photoperiodism.
• The photoperiod required to induce flowering is called critical day length Eg.
  • Mary land mammoth (tobacco variety) requires 12 hours of light.
  • Cocklebur required 15.05 hours of light.

Question 19.
Write down the importance of photoperiodism in plants.
Answer:

• The knowledge of photoperiodism plays an important role in hybridisation experiments.
• Photoperiodism is an excellent example of physiological pre-conditioning that is using an external factor to induce physiological changes in the plant.

Question 20.
What is the importance of photoperiodism?
Answer:

• The knowledge of photoperiodism an important role in hybridization experiments.
• It is an excellent example of physiological preconditioning that is using an external factor to induce physiological changes in the plant.

Question 21.
What is meant by Epigeal germination?
Answer:
During epigeal germination, cotyledons are pushed out of the soil. This happens due to the elongation of the hypocotyl.
Eg: Castor and Bean.

Question 22.
Define Vernalization.
Answer:

• It is a process by which many annuals and biennials are induced to flower when subjected to low-temperature exposure.
• T.d. Lysenko first used the term.

Question 23.
Define the term phytogerontology.
Answer:
The branch of botany which deals with ageing, abscission and senescence is called Phytogerontology.

Question 24.
Distinguish between Epigeal and Hypogeal germination.
Answer:

Epigeal	Hypogeal
Cotyledons pussed out of the soil	Cotyledons remain below the soil due to rapid elongation of epicotyls.
Happens due to the elongation of the hypocotyl Eg. Castor & Bean	Eg. Maize

Question 25.
Define seed dormancy and what are its types.
Answer:
The condition of a seed when it fails to germinate even in suitable environmental condition is called seed dormancy.
There are two types
(I) Innate dormancy (II) Imposed dormancy.

Question 26.
What is Scarification?
Answer:

• By mechanical and chemical treatments like cutting or chipping of hard tough sed coat and use of organic solvents to remove waxy or fatty compounds are called scarification.
• It is a method of breaking dormancy of the seeds.

Question 27.
Distinguish between Re differentiation and Devernalization.
Answer:

Redifferentiation	Devernalization
Differentiated cells after multiplication again lose the ability to divide and mature to perform specific functions, is called Re differentiation. Eg. Sec.Xylem & Sec.	Phloem The reversal of the effect of vernalization is called Devemalization.

Question 28.
Define Senescence.
Answer:

• Ageing or getting old is called senescence.
• It refers to all collective, progressive and deteriorative processes which ultimately lead to complete loss of organization and function (Eg. leaves turn yellow and fall off from plant).

Question 29.
What is impaction in seed dormancy.
Answer:

• In some seeds water and oxygen are unable to penetrate micropyle due to blockage by cork cells.
• These seeds are shaken vigorously to remove the plug
• The process of removing the plug or block is called impactation.

Question 30.
What is called stratification in seed dormancy?
Answer:

• The break dormancy, some plant seeds have to be exposed to well aerated, moist conditions under low temperature (0°c to 10°c) for weeks to months.
• This kind of seed dormancy breaking treatment is known as stratification.
• The stratified soil layers should be given a low-temperature treatment for a certain period so as to induce germination.
• Eg. the Seeds of Rosaceae plants Apple, Plum, Peach, etc.

Question 31.
What are the 4 types of Senescence?
Answer:
Leopold (1961) explained 4 types they are

1. Overall senescence
2. Top senescence
3. Deciduous senescence
4. Progressive senescence.

Question 32.
What is the Abscission layer or Abscission Zone?
Answer:
Abscission is marked internally at the place of petiole by a distance zone of few layers of thin-walled cells arranged transversely. This zone is called Abscission Zone, which leads to Abscission of the leaf.

Question 33.
The photoperiodic response will not be possible in a defoliated plant. Give scientific reasons.
Answer:
Yes, a defoliated plant will not respond to photoperiodic change because the hormonal substance responsible for flowering is present in the leaves of the plant.

Question 34.
What is gas chromatography?
Answer:

• It is a bioassay technique by which Ethylene can be measured.
• It helps in the detection of the exact amount of ethylene from different plant tissues like lemon and orange.

Question 35.
Give the occurrence and precursors of Gibberellins and Cytokinins.
Answer:

Character	Gibberellins	Cytokinin
Occurrence	Produced by plant parts like an embryo, roots, and young leaves near the tip. Immature seeds are rich in Gibberellins.	Formed in root apex shoot apex like Auxin. Also formed in buds & young fruits.
Precursor	Formed by 5C precursor, Iso prenoidunit called Iso Pentenyl Pyrophosphate (IPP) through a number of intermediates primary precursor – Acetate.	Derived from purine-Adenine.

IV. 3 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain Arithmetic growth rate and Geometric growth rate by diagrams.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain stages in growth by drawing the sigmoid curve.
Answer:

• The total period from the initial to the final stage of growth is called the Grand period of growth.
• The graph that is drawn by taking time and rate of growth is ‘S’ shaped. It is known as a sigmoid curve.

It has 4 stages:

1. Lag phase
2. Log phase
3. Decelerating phase
4. Maturation phase

Question 3.
Mention the internal factors, that affect the growth of plants.
Answer:

• Genes are intracellular factors for growth.
• Phytohormones are intracellular factors for growth, eg: auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin.
• C/N ratio.

Question 4.
Mention the Agricultural role of Auxin.
Answer:

• Eradicate weeds: Eg. 2.4 D and 2.4.5.7
• Formation of seedless fruits: (Parthenocarpic fruits) Eg. Synthetic Auxin.
• Break dormancy.
• Induction of flowering: In pineapple NAA induce flowering
• Increase the number of female flowers: Eg. Cucurbita.

Question 5.
List out the agricultural applications of auxins.
Answer:

• It is used to eradicate weeds, eg: 2,4 – D and 2,4,5 – T.
• Synthetic auxins are used in the formation of seedless fruits (Parthenocarpic fruit).
• It is used to break the dormancy in seeds.
• Induce flowering in Pineapple by NAA & 2,4 – D.
• Increase the number of female flowers and fruits in cucurbits.

Question 6.
What are the Precursors of Gibberellins?
Answer:

• Gibberellins are chemically related to terpenoids (natural rubber, Carotenoids, and steroids) formed by 5-C precursors and an Isoprenoid unit called Iso Pentenyl Pyrophosphate (IPP) through a number of intermediates.
• The primary precursors are Acetate.

Question 7.
What are the uses of ethylene in agriculture?
Answer:

• Ethylene normally reduces flowering in plants except in Pineapple and Mango.
• It increases the number of female flowers and decreases the number of male flowers.
• Ethylene spray in the cucumber crop produces female flowers and increases the yield.

Question 8.
Explain the mechanism of Vernalization by Hypothesis of hormonal involvement.
Answer:
I. Vernalization: According to Purvis

 

 

 

 

II. Devernalization

 

 

Question 9.
What are the practical applications of Vernalization?
Answer:

• It shortens the vegetative period and induces the plant to flower earlier.
• It increases the cold resistance of the plants.
• It increases the resistance of plants to fungal disease.
• Plant breeding can be accelerated.

Question 10.
What is meant by the viability of seeds?
Answer:

• Viable means the living condition of the seed
• The shelf life of the seed after which it cannot germinate is known as the viable period
• It varies from plant to plant

Name of the plant	Viability
1. Oxalis seeds	Few days
2.  Lotus seeds	More than 1000 years
3.  Judean Dale palm (Methuselah)	More than 2000 years

Question 11.
Differentiate between climacteric and Non-climacteric fruits.
Answer:

Climacteric fruits	Non-Climacteric fruits
1.There is a sharp rise in respiration rate near the end of the development of fruit. 2. The ripening on demand can be induced in these fruits by exposing them to normal air conditioning. 3. Epthan secrete Ethylene continuously about 1 ppm of ethylene Eg. Lemon, Apples, Banana, Mango	These fruits cannot be ripened by exposure to ethylene so-known as non-climacteric fruits. Eg. Grapes, Watermelon orange.

Question 12.
Differentiate between scarification & Stratification in breaking seed dormacy
Answer:

Scarification	Stratification
Mechanical and chemical treatment either by cutting, chipping or use of organic solvents to remove waxy or fatty compounds is called scarification.	Rosaceous plants (Apple, Plum Peach, and Cherry) will not germinate until they have been exposed to well derated, moist conditions under low temperature (1°c to 10°c) for weeks to months and this treatment is known as stratification.

Question 13.
Mention the factors causing dormancy of seeds.
Answer:

• Hard, tough seed coat causes barrier effect as impermeability of water, gas and restriction of the expansion of embryo prevents seed germination.
• Many species of seeds produce imperfectly developed embryos called rudimentary embryos which promotes dormancy.
• Lack of specific light requirement leads to seed dormancy.
• A range of temperatures either higher or lower cause dormancy.
• The presence of inhibitors like phenolic compounds which inhibits seed germination cause dormancy.

Question 14.
What are the factors that affect senescence?
Answer:

Name of the factor	Effect of senescence
ABA & Ethylene	Accelerates
Auxin & Cytokinin Nitrogen deficiency	reduces increases
Nitrogen supply	retards
High temperature in vernalized seeds	Accelerates
Low temperature	Retards
Water stress	Accumulation of ABA leading to senescence

Question 15.
What are the morphological and Anatomical changes due to Abscission?
Answer:

• Abscission Zone: formed at the base of petiole
• Greenish grey in colour by rows of 2 to 15 cells thick primary wall and middle lamella
• The dissolution of by pectinase & Cellulase
• Formation tyloses – that block conduction of vessels
• Degradation of chlorophyll – Colour of leaves changes and leaves fall off.
• After Abscission – Suberization of outer layer of cells by the development of periderm.

Question 16.
Write down the significance of Abscission.
Answer:
1. Abscission separates dead parts of the plant like old leaves and ripe fruits.
2. Helps in dispersal of fruits and continuing the life cycle.
3. Abscission of leaves (in deciduous plants) helps in water conservation during summer.
4. Helps in vegetative propagation (Shedding of gemmae or plantlets) Eg. Bryophyta.

V. 5 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to measure the growth of a plant or By lever Auxanometer measure the rate of growth in stem tip.
Answer:
Experiment:
1. Arc auxanometer:
The increase in the length of the stem tip can easily by measured by an arc auxanometer. If consists of a small pulley to the axis of which is attached a long pointer sliding over a graduated arc. A thread one end of which is tied to the stem tip and another and to a weight passes over the pulley tightly. As soon as the stem tip increases in length, the pulley moves and the pointer slide over the graduated arc (Refer Figure) The reading is taken. The acutal increase in the lengthwm stem is then calculated by knowing the length of the pointer and the radius of the pulley. If the radius of the pulley is 4 inches and the length of pointer 20 inches the actual growth is measured as follows:

Actual growth in length\(=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by the pointer radius of the }}{\text { Length of the pointer }}\)
For example, actual growth in length \(=\frac{10 \times 4 \text { inches }}{20 \text { inches }}\) = 2 inches

Question 2.
Explain the physiological effect of Auxin? Add a note on its agricultural applications.
Answer:
Cell elongation:
Promotes cell elongation in stem & Coleoptile

Root growth:
At extremely low concentration – promote root growth, at high concentrations it inhibits elongation of roots, but induce more lateral roots

Apical dominance:
Suppression of growth of lateral buds – by apical bud is known as Apical dominance
Prevents Abscission

Secondary growth:
Promotion of cell division in the cambium, responsible for secondary growth this property is exploited in tissue culture. (Callus foundation)

Respiration Stimulates respiration Induces Vascular differentiation.

Question 3.
Give the Agricultural application of Auxin.
Answer:
Weedicide
2.4.D & 2.4.5. T – Weedicides to remove weeds

Induce parthenocarpy
Synthetic auxins used to induce parthenocarpy (formation of seedless fruits).

Break dormancy
Used to break seed dormancy.

Induce flowering in Pineapple Eg. NAA & 2.4.D

Induce female flowers (numbers)
Eg. Cucumber.

Question 4.
Explain physiological effects of Gibberellins
Answer:

• Induction of cell division & cell elongation – Extraordinary stem elongation.
• Reversal of dwarfism & Bolting – Rosette (genetic dwarfism) plants when treated with Gibberellins exhibit excessive enter nodal growth – This sudden elongation of a stem followed by flowering is called Bolting.
• Breaks dormancy – in Potato tubers.
• Biennials flower in the 1 st year – Instead of cold exposure, if biennials treated with Gibberellins flower in the 1st year itself.

Question 5.
Write an essay on the role of ethylene on plant physiology and agriculture.
Answer:
Almost all plant tissues produce ethylene gas in minute quantities.
1. Discovery:
In 1924, Denny found that ethylene stimulates the ripening of lemons. In 1934, R. Gane found that ripe bananas contain abundant ethylene. In 1935, Cocken et al., identified ethylene as a natural plant hormone.

2. Occurrence:
Maximum synthesis occurs during climacteric ripening of fruits and tissues undergoing senescence. It is formed in almost all plant parts like roots, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds.

3. Transport in plants:
Ethylene can easily diffuse inside the plant through intercellular spaces.

4. Precursor:
It is a derivative of amino acid methionine, linolenic acid and fumaric acid.

5. Bioassay (Gas Chromatography):
Ethylene can be measured by gas chromatography. This technique helps in the detection of exact amount of ethylene from different plant tissues like lemon and orange.

6. Physiological Effects:

• Ethylene stimulates respiration and ripening in fruits.
• It stimulates radial growth in sterft and roof and inhibits linear growth.
• It breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.
• It stimulates the formation of an abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This makes the leaves to shed prematurely.
• Inhibition of stem elongation (shortening the internode).
• In low concentration, ethylene helps in root initiation.
• Growth of lateral roots and root hairs. This increases the absorption surface of the plant roots.
• The growth of fruits is stimulated by ethylene in some plants. It is more marked in climacteric fruits.
• Ethylene causes epinasty.

7. Agricultural role:

• Ethylene normally reduces flowering in plants except in Pineapple and Mango.
• It increases the number of female flowers and decreases the number of male flowers.
• Ethylene spray in cucumber crops produces female flowers and increases the yield.

Question 6.
Explain the physiological Effects of Cytokinins.
Answer:

• With IAA – Promotes cell division With IAA & GA – Induces cell enlargement
• Breaks dormancy of light-sensitive seeds (tobacco) induces seed germination.
• Promotes growth of lateral
• buds even in the presence of apical bud.
• Delays the process of aging by nutrient mobilization known as Richmond Lang effect.
• Induces rate of protein synthesis.
• Induces the formation of interfascicular cambium Overcomes apical dominance
• Induces the formation of new leaves chloroplast and lateral shoots.
• Induces Accumulation of solutes.

Question 7.
Write down the physiological effects of Ethylene
Answer:

• Stimulates respiration and thereby ripening of fruits
• Stimulates radial growth in stem and root and inhibits linear growth.
• breaks dormancy of
  1. buds
  2. Seeds
  3. Storage Organs
• Stimulates abscission 2 one formation in
  1. leaves
  2. flowers
  3. fruits (so leaves shed prematurely)
• Prevents stem elongation by preventing internodal growth
• Root growth in low concentration
• Stimulates growth of lateral roots and root hairs and increase the absorptive surface
• Ripening of fruits – Increases ripening in climacteric fruits (Mango, banana) etc.
• It causes epinasty

Question 8.
Describe the methods of breaking the dormancy of seeds in plants.
Answer:
The dormancy of seeds can be broken by different methods. These are:
1. Scarification:
Mechanical and chemical treatments like cutting or chipping of hard tough seed coat and use of organic solvents to remove waxy or fatty compounds are called Scarification.

2. impaction:
in some seeds, water and oxygen are unable to penetrate micropyle due to blockage by cork cells. These seeds are shaken vigorously to remove the plug which is called Impaction.

3. Stratification:
Seeds of rosaceous plants (Apple, Plum, Peach, and Cherry) will not germinate until they have been exposed to well aerated, moist conditions under low temperature (0°C to 10°C) for weeks to months. Such treatment is called Stratification.

4. Alternating temperatures: Germination of some seeds is strongly promoted by alternating daily temperatures. An alternation of low and high temperature improves the germination of seeds.

5. Light:
The dormancy of photoelastic seeds can be broken by exposing them to red light.

Question 9.
Define photoperiodism – Classify plants based on photoperiodism
Answer:
a. The physiological change on flowering due to the relative length of light and darkness is called photoperiodism.

• Gamer and Allard (1920) coined the term
• They studied photoperiodism in Biloxi variety of soybean (Glycine max) and Many land mammoth varieties of tobacco.

b. Depending on photoperiodic responses plants are classified into several types.
1. L.D. Plants (Long Day) The photoperiod required to induce flowering is called critical day length depending on critical day length if it is long (more than 12 hours) and with short nights. Eg. Pea Barley and Oats
Short LD Plants: These are Long day plants but need short day length during the early period of growth for flowering Eg. Wheat, Rye

2. SD Plants: Plants requiring short critical day length for flowering or a long night.
Eg. Tobacco, Cocklebur, Soya, Rice, and Chrysanthemum.
Long SD Plants: Actually SD plants but need long days during the early period of growth for flowering Eg. Some SPS of Bryophyllum & Night Jasmine.

3. Intermediate day plants:
These require a photoperiod between a long day and a short day for flowering Eg. Sugarcane and coleus.

4. Day Neutral plants:
There are a number of plants which can flower in all possible photoperiods, known as photo neutral or hiterterminate plants. Eg. Potato, Rhododendron, Tomato & Cotton.

Question 10.
Describe the role of phytochrome in inducing Flowering
Answer:
Definition:
It is a bluish biliprotein responsible for the perception of light in the photophysiological process, existing in two different forms is mainly involved in flower induction, (i.e) Pr and PFr.

• Butler et al(1959) named the pigment.
• It exists in two interconvertible forms

Pr	PFr
1. red light absorbing form 2. Absorbs red lgiht of wavelength 660 nm 3. Biologically inactive form & stable found in the diffused state in cytoplasm 4. Promotes flowering in SD plants and inhibits flowering LD plants.	1. Far-red light absorbing form 2. Absorbs far-red light of wavelength 730 nm 3. Biologically active and it is unstable Associated with a hydrophobic area of the membrane system 4. Promotes flowering in LD plants and inhibit flowering in SD plants.

Mechanism:

Other functions:
Play a role in seed germination and changes in membrane conformation.

Question 11.
Write an Essay on Vernalization
Answer:
Definition:

• Many biennials and perennials are induced to flower by low-temperature exposure (O°c to 5°c) This process is called Vernalization.
• T.D. Lysenko – Coined the term.

Mechanism of Vernalization:
2 theories explain the mechanism of vernalization.

1. Hypothesis of Phasic development (T.D. Lysenko),
The development of the annual plant has 2 phases.

1. Thermostate-Vegetatine stage requiring low temperature and suitable moisture.
2. Photo stage -high temperature needs to synthesize florigen.

2. Hypothesis of hormonal involvement (Purvis 1961)

Vernalization has several steps

The technique of Vernalization:

• Seeds soaked in water
• Allowed to germinate at 10°C to 12°C
• Transferred to low temperature for few days to 30 days (3°C to 5°C).
• Germinated seeds after the low temp, treatment are allowed to dry & then sown.
• Quickened flowering than untreated (control seedling)

Devernalization:
The reversal of the effect of vernalization is called Devemalization.

• Practical Applications:
• Vernalization shortens the vegetative period and induces the plant to flower earlier
• It increases cold resistance
• It increases fungal resistance
• It accelerates Plant Breeding.

Question 12.
Define Senescence and give its types
Answer:
Definition:
Getting old or Ageing is call d senescence in plants.
It refers to all collective, progressive, and deteriorative processes which ultimately lead to complete loss of organization and function.
Types – 4 types (Leopold -1961)

1. Overall senescence: When the entire plant gets affected and dies – Eg. Annuals – Wheat & Soybeans, Perennials – Agave & Bamboo
2. Top senescence: Occur in aerial parts only Eg. Parrennials – Banana and Gladiolus
3. Deciduous senescence: Occur only in leaves Eg. Decidual plants – Elm and Maple
4. Progressive Senescence: Occur in Annuals occur in old leaves first followed by new leaves than stem and finally root system.

Question 13.
Explain the physiology of senescence and Factors affecting senescence Physiology of Senescence :
Answer:

• Change in the structure of cells
• Vacuoles act like lysosome-secrete hydrolytic enzymes.
• Reducation in photosynthetic rate (due to loss of chlorophyll & accumulation of anthocyanin)
• The decrease in Starch content,  Protein content
• Decrease in …………. r RNA level due to increased activity of enzyme RNA ase
• Degeneration of DNA – by increased activity of enzyme DNA ase

Factors affecting senescence :

Name of the factor	Effect of senescence
ABA & Ethylene	Accelerates
Auxin & Cytokinin Nitrogen deficiency	reduces increases
Nitrogen supply	retards
High temperature in vernalized seeds	Accelerates
Low temperature	Retards
Water stress	Accumulation of ABA leading to senescence