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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 4 Migration and Urbanisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Migration and Urbanisation

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. People move from ……………. to ……………. mainly in search of better jobs.
a) Rural to Urban
b) Urban to Rural
c) Hills to plains
d) Plains to hills
Answer:
a) Rural to Urban

2. A person moves from his own country to another country is known as ……………. .
a) Immigrant
b) Refugee
c) Emigrant
d) Asylum seeker
Answer:
c) Emigrant

3. The migration in search of fertile agricultural land is ……………. migration.
a) Rural to Rural
b) Rural to Urban
c) Urban to Rural
d) Urban to Urban
Answer:
a) Rural to Rural

4. War is one of the causes of human migration.
a) Demographic
b) Socio-cultural
c) Political
d) Economic
Answer:
c) Political

5. The main reason for the development of urbanisation in the pre-historic period was
a) Production of food grains
b) Domestication of cattle
c) Fishing
d) hunting
Answer:
b) Domestication of cattle

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Urbanisation is determined by ……………. the number of factors.
Answer:
three

2. ……………. is the major push factor operating in rural areas.
Answer:
Migration

3. ……………. Metropolitan city in India has the second-highest urban population in the world.
Answer:
Delhi

4. The movement of a person based on his free will and desire to live in a better place is called ………… migration.
Answer:
Voluntary

5. In modem time urban growth was accelerated by the development of …………….
Answer:
New trade route

III. Match the following:

1. Emigration	a) In-migration
2. Immigration	b) Outmigration
3. Pull factor	c) Unemployment
4. Push factor	d) Socio-cultural migration
5. Marriage	e) Employment opportunity

Answer:

1. Emigration	b) Outmigration
2. Immigration	a) In-migration
3. Pull factor	e) Employment opportunity
4. Push factor	c) Unemployment
5. Marriage	d) Socio-cultural migration

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Slums are generally found in cities.
Answer:
True

2. Mass migration is absent in the modem period.
Answer:
True

3. The process of urbanisation has a short history.
Answer:
False

4. Cities and towns are the major polluters of the environment.
Answer:
True

5. Transhumance is also referred to as seasonal migration.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given ones.
1. Statement (A): Urbanisation is mainly due to the movement of people from rural to cities.
Reason (R): Rural to urban migration is not a predominant one.
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

VI. Answer the following questions in brief:
1. Define “Migration”.
Answer:
Migration has been defined differently by different experts. In general, migration is defined as the permanent or semi permanent change of residence of an individual or group of people over a significant distance. So, the term migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another.

2. What are the causes of rural to urban migration?
Answer:
The main causes are

• Searching for jobs
• Education
• Recreation facilities.

3. State the causes of ecological or natural migration.
Answer:

1. Natural causes include volcanic eruption, mankind changed considerably.
2. At this stage, people continued to move from one region to another in search of fertile land for cultivation.

4. Name any two pull factors of migration.
Answer:

• Employment opportunities
• Education.

5. What is Urbanisation?
Answer:
Urbanization refers to the process in which there is an increase in the proportion of the population living in towns and cities.

6. List out any four most populous cities in the world.
Answer:
Tokyo, Delhi, Mexico City, Sao Paulo.

VII. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. What are the different types of migration? Explain.
Answer:
Migration can be classified in several ways. They are:
1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.

(a) Internal Migration
(b) International Migration

2. Based on the willingness of the migrants for migration.

(a) Voluntary Migration
(b) Involuntary Migration

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination.

(a) Short term Migration
(b) Long term Migration
(c) Seasonal Migration

1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.
(a) Internal Migration:

1. The movement of people within a country is known as internal migration.
2. Further internal migration is classified into four types. They are,
   • Rural to Urban migration
   • Urban to Urban migration
   • Rural to Rural migration and
   • Urban to Rural migration

(b) International Migration:
Migration that occurs across the national boundaries is known as international migration.

2. Based on the Willingness of the migrants for migration:
(a) Voluntary migration:

1. If the migration takes place on perspus free will, initiative, and desire to live in a better place.

(b) Involuntary migration:

1. If the migration takes place against the will of migrants is known as involuntary migration.

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination:
(a) Short term migration:

1. The migrants stay outside only for a short duration before returning to the place of origin.

(b) Long term migration:

1. The migrants stay outside at least for a few years.

(c) Seasonal migration:

1. Usually, a group of people migrates from their native places during a particular season and return after end of that season.
2. Transhumance is another example of seasonal migration.

2. Explain in detail the various causes of migration?
Answer:

• The favourable factors which attract people towards a location are called pull factors.
• The unfavourable factors which make the people move out from a location are called push factors.
• Human migration can be categorized under five groups are
  • Ecological or natural causes of migration
  • Economic causes of migration
  • Socio-cultural causes of migration
  • Demographic causes of migration
  • Political causes of migration.

3. Discuss the problems of urbanisation.
Answer:

1. Housing and Slums:

• There is a lack of space for housing and a marked reduction in the quality of housing in the urban areas due to increase in population.

2. Over Crowding:

• Over – crowding leads to unhealthy environment in the urban areas.
• It also the cause of many diseases and riots.

3. Water Supply, Drainage and Sanitation:

• No city has round a clock water supply in the world.
• The drainage situation is equally bad.
• The removal of garbage is a Himalayan task for urban local bodies.

4. Transportation and Traffic:

• The absence of planned and adequate arrangements for traffic and transport is another problem in urban centers.
• The increasing number of two-wheeler and cars make the traffic problem worse.

5. Pollution:

• Towns and cities are the major polluters of the environment.
• Several cities discharge their entire sewage and industrial effluents untreated into the nearby rivers. Industries in and around the urban centers pollute the atmosphere with smoke and toxic gases.

IX. Activities
1. List out and analyze the reason for the migration of people in your locality.
Answer:
People migrate for a number of reasons. The reasons and causes for migration would normally fall under these areas:

1. Environmental – Better climate, calamities, and natural disasters are examples of environmental causes or reasons.
2. Economic – Moving to find work or moving to follow a particular career path is an example of economic cause or reason.
3. Cultural – Religious freedom and education is an example of cultural cause or reason.
4. Political – Civil war or escaping from political persecution is an example of a political cause.
5. Social – Moving for a better quality of life or moving closer to a family member or friend is an example of a social cause or reason.

2. Collect the pictures and information regarding the effects of urbanization and make an album.
Answer:

• Slums and Housing
• Overcrowding
• Transportation and traffic
• Pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The movement of an individual or group to the new country is termed as ………………..
a) Destination
b) Migration
c) Emigrant
d) Immigrant
Answer:
a) Destination

2. Migration is more in ………………. region of the world population.
a) Japan
b) Asia
c) Australia
d) Africa
Answer:
b) Asia

3. In 2017, ………………. was the largest country of origin of international migrants.
a) India
b) America
c) Delhi
d) Asia
Answer:
a) India

4. In ………………., the global urban population exceeded the global rural population.
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 200
d) 2008
Answer:
c) 2007

5. During the beginning of the ………………. itself many cities were found near the Aegean sea.
a) 6th century
b) 7th century
c) 8th century
d) 5th century
Answer:
b) 7th century

6. In the ancient period the migration was mainly for ………………..
a) Environment
b) Health
c) Food
d) Place
Answer:
c) Food

7. The industrial revolution in the century accelerated the growth of towns and cities.
a) 17^th
b) 18^th
c) 19^th
d) 20^th
Answer:
c) 19^th

8. In 1950, ………………. of the world’s population was urban.
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Answer:
b) 30%

9. ………………. is the world’s Highest Population city.
a) Masco (Russia)
b) Shangai (China)
c) Delhi (India)
d) Tokyo (Japan)
Answer:
d) Tokyo (Japan)

10. Migration that occurs the national boundaries are known as
a) Internal migration
b) Voluntary migration
c) International migration
d) Involuntary migration
Answer:
c) international migration

II. Fill in the blank:
1. ………………. is a form of geographical mobility of population between a geographical unit to another.
Answer:
Migration

2. Climatic disasters are ………………. factors.
Answer:
push

3. The movement of people within a country is known as ………………..
Answer:
Internal migration

4. If the migration takes place against the will of migrants is known as ………………..
Answer:
Involuntary migration

5. The migration of agricultural workers during Saving sources is known as ………………..
Answer:
Seasonal migration

6. ………………. is another example of Seasonal migration.
Answer:
Transhumance

7. The number of international migrants in 2017 was ………………..
Answer:
258 million

8. Skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed Countries called ………………..
Answer:
Backwash effect

9. ………………. is the process in which there is an increase in the proportion of population living in towns and cities.
Answer:
Urbanisation

10. The excess production of ………………. was the major reason for urbanisation.
Answer:
foodgrains

11. The ………………. revolution in the 19th century accelerated the growth of towns and cities.
Answer:
industrial

12. Rapid rate of urbanisation results in the development of ………………..
Answer:
Slums

13. In ………………., ………………. regions migrants are predominantly men.
Answer:
Asia, Africa

14. The ………………. factors which attract people towards a location.
Answer:
favourable

15. ………………. is a natural cause of migration.
Answer:
Ecology

III. Match the following:

1. Natural cause	a) War
2. Economic cause	b) Social Discrimination
3. Socio-cultural Cause	c) Unemployment
4. Political Cause	d) Scarcity of food

Answer:

1. Natural cause	d) Scarcity of food
2. Economic cause	c) Unemployment
3. Socio-cultural Cause	b) Social Discrimination
4. Political Cause	a) War

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. The number of vehicles increase is not the cause of air pollution.
Answer:
False

2. The favourable factors which attract people towards a location.
Answer:
True

3. The movement of people within a country is known as internal migration.
Answer:
True

4. Migration develops both the areas of origin of migration and the areas of destination.
Answer:
False

5. After the 11th century, the European Countries, increased their overseas trade.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given ones.
1. Statement: Migration may influence the occupational Structure of the Population of an area through this it will certainly affect the economy of the regions also.
Reason: Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities,
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

2. Assertion: At the end of the 13th century, Paris London, Geneva, Milan, and Venice were the important cities found in Europe.
Reason: The European countries increased their overseas trade.
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

3. i) Migration that occurs across the national boundaries are known as Internal migration.
ii) If the migration takes place of a person’s free will is known as voluntary migration.
iii) The migration of agricultural workers during Sowing Seasons is known as Seasonal migration.
iv) The migration from rural areas to growing towns and cities mainly in search of employment, education, and recreation facilities.
a) i, iv correct
b) ii correct,
c) ii and iv correct
d) all are correct
Answer:
c) ii and iv correct

VI. Answer the following questions in brief.
1. What are the two factors of migration?
Answer:

• The favourable factors which attract people towards a location are called pull factors.
• The unfavourable factors which make the people to move out from a location are called push factors.

2. What is Backwash Effect?
Answer:

• Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities.
• Eventually, this leads to backwardness in source regions. This is called a “backwash effect”.

3. What are the Environmental Consequences that occured during Migration?
Answer:
The overpopulation in urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water, and soil. Scarcity of drinking water, lack of space for housing, traffic congestions, and poor drainage are the common environmental problems that prevail in urban areas.

4. What are the causes of urbanisation?
Answer:

• Urbanisation is driven by three factors: natural population growth, rural to urban migration, and the reclassification of rural areas into urban areas.
• Present-day urbanisation includes changes in demographics, land cover, economic processes, and characteristics of geographic area.

5. What are the noted Prehistoric cities of the world?
Answer:

• Ur and Babylon in Mesopotamia
• Thebes and Alexandria in Egypt
• Athens in Greece
• Harappa and Mohenjodaro in India were noted prehistoric cities of the world.

6. What are the major cities in Africa?
Answer:
Major cities in Africa are Cairo, Nairobi, Mombasa, Bulawayo, Duala, Abidian, Logos, Accra, Addis Abba, Leopoldville, Luanda, Cape Town, Natal, Pretoria.

VII. Distinguish.
1. Short term migration and Long term migration.

Short term migration	Long term migration
1. In this kind of migration, the migrants stay outside only for a short duration before returning to the place of origin.	It is a kind of migration in which the migrants stay outside at least for a few years.
2. The duration may be from a few days to a few months.	The migrants stayed a long time.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. Explain Pull factors and Push factors of migration.

Pull factors	Push factors
1. Least hazard-prone zones.	Hazard prone zones.
2. Favourable climate.	Climate change (including extreme weather events).
3. Abundance of natural resources and minerals (e. g. water, oil, uranium).	Crop failure and scarcity of food.
4. Social Unification.	Social Discrimination.
5. Under population.	Overpopulation.
6. Political security.	War, civil, unrest.

2. What are the Consequences of Migration?
a) Demographic consequences:

• It changes the age and sex composition of the population.
• Migration of females after their marriage leads to a decline in sex ratio in the source regions and increases in the sex ratio in the regions of destinations.
• The migration of male workers in search of jobs decreases the independent population of the source regions which increases the dependency ratio.

b) Social consequences:

• The migration of people from different regions towards an urban area leads to the formation of a plural society.
• It helps the people to come out of narrow mindedness and people become generous.

c) Economic consequences:

• The migration of more people from overpopulated to underpopulated regions results in the imbalance of the resource-population ratio.
• In some cases, the regions of over and under population may become the regions of optimum population.
• Migration may influence the occupational structure of the population of an area.
• Through this, it will certainly affect the economy of the regions also.
• Brain drain is a consequence of migration.
• Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities
• Eventually, this leads to backwardness in source regions. This is called a “backwash effect”.

d) Environmental consequences:

• Large scale movement of people from rural to urban areas causes overcrowding in cities and puts heavy pressure on resources.
• It leads to the rapid growth of cities.
• The overpopulation in urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water, and soil.
• Scarcity of drinking water, lack of space for housing, traffic congestion, and poor drainage are the common environmental problems that prevail in urban areas.
• The lack of space for housing and the rising land cost lead to the formation of slums.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 3 Hydrologic Cycle Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Hydrologic Cycle

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hydrologic Cycle Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. The process in which the water moves between the oceans, atmosphere and land is called
a) River Cycle
b) Hydrologic Cycle
c) Rock Cycle
d) Life Cycle
Answer:
b) Hydrologic Cycle

2. The percentage of fresh water on the earth is
a) 71
b) 97
c) 2.8
d) 0.6
Answer:
c) 2.8

3. The process of changing of water from gaseous to liquid form is known as
a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Sublimation
d) Rainfall –
Answer:
a) Condensation

4. Water that flows in the sub-soil or through the ground into the streams, rivers, lakes and oceans is termed as
a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Transpiration
d) Runoff
Answer:
d) Runoff

5. The evaporation of water from the leaves of plants is called
a) Transpiration
b) Condensation
c) Water vapour
d) Precipitation
Answer:
a) Transpiration

6. Water that is good enough to drink is called
a) Groundwater
b) Surface water
c) Potable water
d) Artesian water
Answer:
c) Potable water

II. Fill in blank:
1. The degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as …………………
Answer:
weather

2. There are ………………… phases in the water cycle.
Answer:
Three

3. The falling of water towards the earth surface from the atmosphere in any form is known as …………………
Precipitation

4. The precipitation with a rain drop size of <0.5mm in diameter is known as ………………….
Answer:
drizzle

5. Mist is denser than ………………….
Answer:
Clouds

III. Match the following:

1. Vegetation	a) Clouds
2. Condensations	b) Sleet
3. Snow and raindrops	c) At the surface
4. Infiltration	d) Transpiration

Answer:

1. Vegetation	d) Transpiration
2. Condensations	a) Clouds
3. Snow and raindrops	b) Sleet
4. Infiltration	c) At the surface

IV. Choose the correct statement:
1. Evaporation refers to
I. The process in which the gaseous form of water changes into liquid form.
II. It refers to the process in which the liquid form of water changes into a gaseous form.
III. Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°C.
IV. It is responsible for the formation of clouds.
a) I, IV, and V are correct
b) II only correct
c) II and III are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
c) II and III are correct

V. State whether thefollowing^statements are True or False:
1. Water boils at 212°F temperature but, it begins to evaporate at 32°F.
Answer:
True

2. Mist is not the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
Answer:
False

3. The sub-surface runoff is usually referred to as interflow.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:
1. Write a short note on the aquifer.
Answer:
An aquifer is an underground layer of water-bearing rock.

2. Define “ hydrological cycle”.
Answer:
The hydrological cycle is a global sun-driven process where water is transported from oceans to the atmosphere, from the atmosphere to land, and from land back to oceans

3. How is the dew formation takes place?
Answer:
Dew is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.

4. Write a short note on surface run-off.
Answer:
Surface Runoff is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs when the rainfall is longer, heavier, and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition, the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

VII. Give reasons:
1. Infiltration of water is low in the region of non-porous soil.
Answer:
Because percolation moves the infiltrated water through the soil profile and rock layers to form groundwater.

2. Freshwater is less on the earth.
Answer:
Most of the water on the earth is saline and is found in seas and oceans, which constitutes about 97.2%.

3. Snowfall is common in the polar region and mountainous regions.
Answer:
Often water vapour in a cloud is converted directly into snow pieces due to lowering of temperature and so it is common in the polar and mountainous regions.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. Explain the different stages involved in the hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three important phases of the hydrologic cycle are:

• Evapotranspiration,
• Precipitation and
• Runoff.

1. Evapotranspiration:
It is defined as the total loss of water from the earth through evaporation from the surface water bodies and the transpiration from vegetation. In cropped areas, it is difficult to determine the evaporation and transpiration separately. Therefore it is collectively called evapotranspiration.

2. Precipitation:
It refers to all forms of water that fall from clouds and reaches the earth’s surface. For the occurrence of precipitation, cloud droplets or ice crystals must grow heavy enough to fall through the air. When the droplets grow large in size, they tend to all. While moving down, by collecting some small droplets, they become heavy enough to fall out of the cloud as raindrops.

3. Runoff:
Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across the land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water-bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream, or watershed. It comes from unabsorbed water from rain, snowmelt, irrigation or other sources, comprising a significant element in the water cycle as well as the water supply when it drains into a watershed. Runoff is also a major contributor to erosion which carves out canyons, gorges, and related landforms.

2. Distinguish between evaporation and transpiration.

Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°c. Much of the water taken up by the plants is released through transpiration.

Evaporation	Transpiration
1. The process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.	The process by which the water content in the plant are released into the atmosphere in the form of water vapour.
3. The amount of water gets evaporated is about the same as the amount of water delivered to earth as precipitaion.	The soil water content and the ability of the soil to conduct water the roots and the nature of the plant parts also determine the transpiration rate.
4. The rate of evaporation is low during the periods of calm winds than during windy times.	The rate of transpiration is affected by the temperature, wind and humidity.

3. Give a detailed explanation on different forms of precipitation.
The form of precipitation in a region depends on the kind of weather or the climate of the region. The Precipitation in the warmer parts of the world is always in the form of rain or drizzle.
In colder region, precipitation may fall as snow or ice.
Common types of precipitation include rain, sleet, freezing rain, hail & snow.

Rain:

• The most common kind of precipitation is rain.
• The precipitation in the form of water droplet is rain.
• Below 0.5 mm in diameter is known as drizzle and above 0.5 mm in diameter is known as rain.

Sleet:
The precipitation which takes place in the form of a mixture of water droplets and tiny particles of ice is known as sleet.

Freezing Rain:

• Raindrops falling through cold air near the ground do not freeze in the air.
• Instead, the raindrops freeze when they touch a cold surface.
• This is called freezing rain.

Hail:
The precipitation which consists of round pellets of ice which are larger than 5mm in diameter is called as hail or hailstones.
Snow:
The precipitation in form of a powdery mass of ice is known as snowfall which is common in the polar and high mountainous regions.

4. Explain the run-off and its types.

Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across the land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water-bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream, or watershed.

Types of Runoff:
Based on the time interval between the instance of rainfall and generation of runoff, the runoff may be classified into the following three types

1. Surface Runoff:
It is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs when the rainfall is longer, heavier, and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition, the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following a land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels, or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

2. Sub – Surface Runoff:
The water that has entered the subsoil and moves laterally without joining the water-table to the streams, rivers or oceans is known as sub-surface runoff. The subsurface runoff is usually referred as interflow.

3. Base Flow:
It is a flow of underground water from a saturated groundwater zone to a water channel. It usually appears at a downstream location where the channel elevation is lower than the groundwater table. Groundwater provides the streamflow during dry periods of small or no precipitation.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hydrologic Cycle Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The process of change of water into gaseous form is called ………………….
a) Evaporation
b) Evapotranspiration
c) Precipitation
d) Condensation
Answer:
a) Evaporation

2. …………… is the prime element which affects the rate of evaporation.
a) Temperature
b) Rain
c) Air
d) Mist
Answer:
c) Air

3. The quantity of water present on the earth is about ………………. million cubic miles.
a) 236
b) 263
c) 326
d) 362
Answer:
c) 326

4. …………………. Saturation occurs when the temperature drops down.
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) Soil
Answer:
a) Air

5. ……………… of the moisture form plants through transpiration.
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 90%
Answer:
a) 10%

6. The evaporation is more than precipitation in the …………………..
a) Oceans
b) Land side
c) Desert land
d) Water Source
Answer:
a) Oceans

7. The process of change of gaseous form of water into liquid form is called as ______________
a) Vapourisation
b) Transpiration
c) Condensation
d) Infiltration
Answer:
c) Condensation

8. An air layer next to the earth’s Surface to 1000 m or lower is called as _____________
a) Dew
b) Frost
c) Fog
d) Mist
Answer:
c) Fog

9. Water entering the soil at the Surface of the ground is termed as _____________
a) Infiltration
b) Percolation
c) Condensation
d) Vaporisation
Answer:
a) Infiltration

10. The flow of water from the unsaturated zone to the Saturated zone is termed as
a) Infiltration
b) Percolation
c) Condensation
d) Vaporisation
Answer:
b) Percolation

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Water in India is available in Sources.
Answer:
Three

2. Hydrology is the science which deals with the various aspects of water such as ………………, ……………… and ……………….
Answer:
Occurrence, distribution, movement

3. Hydrologic cycle is a global …………….. process.
Answer:
Sun-driven

4. ………………… refers to all forms of water that fall from clouds and reaches the earth’s Surface.
Answer:
Precipitation

5. The three important phases of the hydrologic cycle are …………….., ………………., and ……………..
Answer:
Evapotranspiration, Precipitation, Run off

6. The Sleet falls, the raindrops freeze into solid particles of ………………….
Answer:
ice

7. Most of the water on the earth is …………… in the surface water.
Answer:
Saline

8. ……………….. is available in the form of glaciers.
Answer:
2.15%

9. ……………….. is a continuous process and takes place naturally.
Answer:
Hydrologic cycle

10. Water boils at
Answer:
100PC

11. The water content in salt water oceans is
Answer:
97.2%

12. The amount of Icecaps and glaciers in Fresh water is
Answer:
68.7%

13. The Ground water content in Fresh water is
Answer:
30.1%

14. The boiling point of water is
Answer:
2129F

15. There is a relationship between temperature and evaporation.
Answer:
positive

III. Match the follpwing:

1. Runoff	a) Rain
2. Precipitation	b) Snow
3. Polar region	c) Water springs
4. Infiltration	d) less than 0.5mm
5. Drizzle	e) river

Answer:

1. Runoff	e) river
2. Precipitation	a) Rain
3. Polar region	b) Snow
4. Infiltration	c) Water springs
5. Drizzle	d) less than 0.5mm

IV. Choose the correct statement:
1. a) Water entering the soil at the surface of the ground is termed as infiltration
b) Rain water Soaks into the ground, through the soil and underlying rock layers.
c) Some of the water remains underground and is called ground water.
d) The terms infiltration and percolation are other used inter changeably.
a) I, IV, and V are correct
b) II only correct
c) II and III are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
d) AH are correct

V. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. Water in India is available in three sources.
Answer:
True

2. Rain is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
Answer:
False

3. Saturation occurs when the temperature increases.
Answer:
False

4. Evaporation is the process in which the liquid form of water changes into a gaseous form.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:
1. What are the Sources of water available in India.
Answer:

• Water in India is available in three sources.
• They are precipitation, surface water, and groundwater.

2. What is hydrology?
Answer:
Hydrology is the science which deals with the various aspects of water such as its occurrence, distribution, movement and properties on the planet earth.

3. What are the factors that increase the rate of evaporation?
Answer:

• Increase in wind speed
• Increase in temperature
• Decrease in humidity and
• Increase in the areal extent of surface water bodies.

VII.Give reasons:
1. Availability of water on the earth is not uniform. Why?
Answer:
The availability of water on the earth is not uniform because Some places are very rich and some places are poor in water resources.

2. Distinguish between Frost and Mist.
Answer:

Frost	Mist
1. The ice crystals formed by the deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object are known as frost.	Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
2. Density increased	Mist is less dense than fog.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

1. Water on the Earth – Explain.
Answer:

• About 71 % of the earth’s surface is covered by water.
• The quantity of water present on the earth is about 326 million cubic miles.
• It is hard to visualise this massive quantity of water.
• Most of the water on the earth is saline and is found in seas and oceans.
• The salt water constitutes about 97.2% and the fresh water is only about 2.8%.
• Out of this 2.8%, about 2.2% is available as surface water and the remaining 0.6% is groundwater. From this 2.2% of surface water, 2.15% is available in the form of glaciers and icecaps, 0.01% in lakes and streams and the remaining 0.04% is in other forms.
• Only about 0.25% of the total ground water of 0.6% can be economically extracted with the present drilling technology.

2. Explain the forms of condensation.
Answer:
Dew, fog, and Clouds are the three major forms of condensation.

• Dew: It is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object.
• Frost: The ice crystals formed by the deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object is known as frost.
• Fog: Fog is the suspended tiny water droplets or ice crystals in an air layer next to the earth’s surface.
• Mist: Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
• Clouds: Clouds consist of tiny water droplets/ice particles which are so small and light in weight.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 5 Educational Development in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Educational Development in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The word ‘Veda’ is derived from …………… .
a) Sanskrit
b) Latin
c) Prakrit
d) Pali
Answer:
a) Sanskrit

2. Which of the following was an important centre for the learning in the ancient period?
a) Gurukula
b) Viharas
c) Pali
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

3. Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located in …………… .
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Bihar
d) Punjab
Answer:
c) Bihar

4. When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as world heritage site?
a) 1970
b) 1975
c) 1980
d) 1985
Answer:
c) 1980

5. Which European country were the first to start Modern System of Education in India?
a) British
b) Danish
c) French
d) Portuguese
Answer:
d) Portuguese

6. Which of the following Charter Act made a provision for an annual grant one lakhs Rupees for the promotion of Education in India?
a) Charter Act of 1813
b) Charter Act of 1833
c) Charter Act of 1853
d) Charter Act of 1858
Answer:
a) Charter Act of 1813

7. Which of the following Commission recommended to constitute the University Grants Commission?
a) Sergeant Report, 1944
b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
c) Kothari Commission, 1964
d) National Education Policy, 1968
Answer:
b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948

8. In which year the New Education Policy was introduced in India?
a) 1992
b) 2009
c) 1986
d) 1968
Answer:
c) 1986

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The word ‘Veda’ means …………… .
Answer:
Knowledge

2. Taxila ruins were discovered by …………… .
Answer:
Alexander Cunningham

3. …………… was the first ruler to establish a madrasa at Delhi.
Answer:
lltutmish

4. The New Education Policy was revised in …………… .
Answer:
1992

5. …………… is the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right to Education Act of (RTE) 2009.
Ans: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

6. Mid-day meal program was introduced in schools in
Answer:
1956

III. Match the following.

1. I – Tsing	a. Saraswathi mahal
2. Francis Xavier	b. Magna carta of Indian Education
3. Wood’s Despatch	c. Western Education in Madras
4. Sarafoji II	d. University at Kochin
5. Sir Thomas Munro	e. Chinese scholar

Answer:

1. I – Tsing	e. Chinese scholar
2. Francis Xavier	d. University at Kochin
3. Wood’s Despatch	b. Magna carta of Indian Education
4. Sarafoji II	a. Saraswathi mahal
5. Sir Thomas Munro	c. Western Education in Madras

IV. State True or False.
1. The writings of Charaka and Sushrutha were the sources of learning of medicine.
Answer:
True

2. Temples were the centers of learning and played an active role in the promotion of knowledge.
Answer:
True

3. The Jataka tales tell us that the kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.
Answer:
True

4. Women education in India was not prevalent during the medieval period.
Answer:
False

5. The RMS A scheme was implemented during tenth Five Year Plan.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.
1. i) The Nalanda University was founded in fifth century C.E
ii) In ancient India teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi
iii) In ancient times the teacher was called Kanakkayar. iv) The famous college during the Chola period was Kandhalur salai.
a) i and ii are correct
b) ii and iv are correct
c) iii and iv are correct
d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii and iii are correct

2. Find out the Correct Pair
a) Maktabs – Secondary School
b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education
c) Operation Blackboard – Secondary Education Commission
d) Salabogam – Lands were given to temples
Answer:
b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Write about the importance of Gurukulas.
Answer:

1. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru/Acharya.
2. Many of these Gurukulas were named after the sages. Situated in forests, in service and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
3. This was known as the ‘Gurukula System’ of education.

2. Name the most notable universities that evolved in ancient India?
Answer:
The most notable universities are Taxila and Nalanda.

3. Write a short note on Taxila?
Answer:

1. Taxila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north-western Pakistan.
2. It is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1980.
3. Its fame rested on the university where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra.

4. Mention the education centres flourished in the Cholas period?
Answer:
Rajaraja Chaturvedi Mangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic college Tirubuvanai Vedic college Tiruvidaikkalai Library and Thiruvaduthurai a medical school

5. Expand SSA and RMSA.
Answer:

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

6. What do you know about RTE.
Answer:
RTE (Right To Education) provides for free and compulsory education to all children from the age of 6 to 14 years.

VII. Answer the following.
1. What were the sources of education in ancient India?
Answer:
Education in Ancient India:

1. The historical Sources provide the information that from very early times, the tradition of teaching and learning had been in vogue in India.
2. The concept of Education might have originated from the Vedas.
3. The literal meaning of the Sanskrit word ‘Veda’ is knowledge and the word derived from the word Vid, which means ‘to know’.

Gurukula system in ancient India:

1. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
2. There were people in homes, villages, and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life.
3. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.

2. Write a paragraph about education under British rule?
Answer:
Education in British rule can be divided into four periods:

1. Before 1813: Charter of Act of 1813 grant a sum of 1 lakh rupees for the promotion of Indian education.
2. 1813 to 1853: Macaulay’s minutes of 1835. Higher education was de-orientalized encouraging English education for the upper classes.
3. 1854 to 1920: The Third phase of British influenced education may be called the period of an All India Educational Policy. It commenced with Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
4. 1921 to 1947: The fourth phase may be called the period of provincial autonomy.

3. Describe the National Policy on Education.
Answer:
1. The First National Educational Policy of 1968, marked a significant step in the history of education in post-independent India.

2. It aimed to promote national progress, culture, and to strengthen national integration.

3. In 1986, the Government of India introduced a New Education Policy.

4. The aim of New Education Policy (NEP) was to transfer a static society into a vibrant one with a commitment to development and change. It emphasized equal opportunities for marginalized – sections of the country and the removal of disparity through scholarships, adult education, and open universities, especially for rural India.

5. The New Education Policy called for a child-centered approach in primary education.

6. This policy launched the operation of Blackboard to improve primary schools nationwide.

7. The New Education Policy has revised again in 1992.

8. It envisaged the formulation of the National Curriculum Framework, emphasis on in-service education, improvement of facilities, and streamlining of the evaluation system at the secondary stage.

4. Give a detailed account of education under Cholas. Education under Cholas:
Answer:

• The Chola period was the most brilliant and creative period in Tamil literature.
• Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple.
• Inscription denotes the salary of a teacher, method of teaching, food provided to the students, and land given to the schools.
• Rajaraja Chaturvedi Mangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic college.
• Tiruvaduthurai inscription of Virarajendra refers to a medical school of this period.

VIII. HOTS
1. How does the flagship programme of SSA achieve Universal Elementary Education?
Answer:
The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is the Government of India’s flagship programme that was launched in 2000 – 01 to achieve Universal Elementary Education (UEE). SSA is now the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009) (RTE). Right To Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all children from the age of 6 to 14 years. The SSA initiates a variety of innovations and activities related to schools.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The arrival of the English East India company in the year ……………….
a. 1600
b. 1610
c. 1620
d. 1630
Answer:
a) 1600

2 Elphinstone college located in ……………….
a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Goa
d. Kolkatta
Answer:
b) Mumbai

3. Wardha scheme of Education evolved by ……………… in 1937
a. Gandhiji
b. Nehru
c. Ambedkar
d. Dr.Radha Krishnan.
Answer:
a) Gandhiji

4. Dr.Middleton, started a missionary college at ……………….
a. Calcutta
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Mumbai
Answer:
a) Calcutta

5. In schools all subjects were taught in Tamil from ……………….
a. 1937
b. 1938
c. 1939
d. 1940
Answer:
b) 1938

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The system of Students at an advanced stage of learning guided younger studied younger students known as ……………….
Answer:
Peer learning

2. The family of Guru acts as the ……………… or ……………….
Answer:
School, Ashram

3. Nalanda university located in ………………
Answer:
Rajgir

4. The Muslim Primary schools were called as ……………….
Answer:
Maktabs

5. Secondary schools, under Muslim rule were called as ……………….
Answer:
Madrasas

6. Iltutmish was the fist ruler to establish a madrasa at ……………….
Answer:
Delhi

7. Shahjahanabad Madrasa started by ………………
Answer:
Maulana

8. An education commission under the chairmanship of ……………… was appointed by the Government of India.
Answer:
Dr.S. Kothari

9. Francis Xavier, a ……………… started a university at Cochin.
Ans: Jesuit

10. The educational institution in Kanchi called……………….
Answer:
Ghatika

11. The Vedic College of the Chola period located at ……………….
Answer:
Ennayiram

12. …………… was established during the Nayak rule.
Answer:
Thinnappalli koodam

13. ……………. Chola inscription mentions a library.
Answer:
Tiruvidaikkalai

14. Tiruvidaikkalai inscription belongs to ……………… period.
Answer:
Virarajendra Chola

15. ……………… established the primary schools in Madurai during in Veerappa Nayak period.
Answer:
Fernandez

III. Match the following.

1. The wood’s Despatch	a. 1968
2. Education Commission	b.1975
3. First National Education policy	c.1854
4. Gandhi gram,Rural college	d.1956
5. Midday Meal Programme	e.1948

Answer:

1. The wood’s Despatch	a. 1854
2. Education Commission	b.1948
3. First National Education policy	c.1968
4. Gandhi gram Rural college	d.1975
5. Midday Meal Programme	e.1956

IV. State True or False.
1. Equable learning Programme is Samaria Siksha.
Answer:
True

2. Sir. Thomas Munro had a printing press with Devanagari Type
Answer:
False

3. The new Nalanda University is not envisaged as a centre of the inter-civilizational dialogue.
Answer:
False

4. In Gurukula system, the home of Guru used as the school.
Answer:
True

5. The Madras university was founded in 1854.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.
1. Choose the correct statement:
1. History of education in British rule can be divided into 4 periods.
a. From the early days of the British rule upto 1813
b. Period from 1813-1853
c. Period from 1854-1920
d. Period from 1921-1947
a. i and iii correct
b. ii and iv correct
c. ii incorrect
d. All are correct
Answer:
d) AH are correct

2. Choose the correct pair:
1. 1834 – Western type education
2. 1855 – Woods Despatch
3. 1856 – Chennai university
4. 1882 – Local Boards Act
Answer:
4.1882 – Wood’s despatch

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Write short notes at Nalanda University.
Answer:

• The ancient Naianda University was a centre of learning from the 5th century AD (CE) to 12th century AD (CE). Located in present-day Rajgir, Bihar.
• Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the runis of Nalanda Mahavihara a world heritage site.

2. Explain education development in the medieval period.
Answer:

• The medieval period saw the founding of many religious mutt or monasteries which also took up the cause of education.
• The Ahobila mutt in Srirangam was one among them where is Sri Ramanuja has made distinctive
  contribution to the cause of education.
• Besides mutts, Jain pallis and Buddhist vihars played a vital role in educating people where ever the existed. They had large libraries of books in all branches of learning.

3. Write the short notes an Wardha scheme of Education.
Answer:

• In 1937,Gandhiji evolved a scheme popularly known as the Wardha Scheme of Basic National Education.
• His system of Education wanted to root out exploitation and centralization in society and create a non-violent social order.

4. Explain the significant development of education in Pallava.
Answer:

• A significant development took place in the field of education during the Pallava period.
• Ghatika was an educational institution.
• The Pallava kings supported those educational institutions through endowments.
• The Vaishnava ans Saiva mutts provided boarding and lodging facilities to all students and teachers.
• Kanchi was considered as the main centre of learning.

5. Explain the service of Sir Thomas Munro in education.
Answer:

• Sir Thomas Munro the Governor of Madras presidency (1820-27) was highly responsible for the introduction of Western education in Madras presidency.
• He appointed a committee to conduct a statistical survey of the condition of education.

VII. Answer the following.
1. Explain about Gurukula system?
Answer:

• In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed. Indigenous education was imparted at home, in temples, patashalas, and gurukulas.
• There were people in homes, villages, and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life. Temples played a vital role in imparting education and served the centres of learning.
• Students went to viharas and universities for higher studies. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas. Many of these Gurukulas were named after die sages.
• Situated in forests, in serene and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
• During the early period education was imparted by the teacher (Guru/Acharya) to the pupils who gathered around him and came to live in his house as members of his family. This was known as the Gurukula system of education.

2. Explain the education in Tamil Nadu since independence.
Answer:

• Free education at the secondary school level was introduced in 1964-65. The Gandhigram Rural College was established in 1975. Since 1971, Distance education has also been introduced in Tamilnadu to educate those who could not go to colleges.
• In 1956, Midday Meal Programme was introduced in schools. Later, it was extended as a Nutrition Meal Scheme in 1982 to avoid drop-outs in schools.
• Since 1986 several changes have taken place in the society, in keeping with the National Policy of Education.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 4 People’s Revolt Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 People’s Revolt

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The Palayakkarar system was instituted in
a) 1519
b) 1520
c) 1529
d) 1530
Answer:
c) 1529

2. Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English rule
a) Pulithevar
b) Yusuf Khan
c) Kattabomman
d) Marudhu brothers
Answer:
a) Pulithevar

3. Colin Jackson was the collector of
a) Madurai
b) Tirunelveli
c) Ramanathapuram
d) Tuticorin
Answer:
c) Ramanathapuram

4. Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at
a) Panchalamkurichi
b) Sivagangai
c) Tiruppathur
d) Kayathar
Answer:
d) Kayathar

5. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of
a) Nagalapuram
b) Sivagiri
c) Sivagangai
d) Virupachi
Answer:
c) Sivagangai

6. Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by
a) Marudhu Pandiyars
b) Krishnappa Nayak
c) Velu Nachiyar
d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
Answer:
a) Marudhu Pandiyars

7. Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran Chinnamalai?
a) Dindigul
b) Nagalapuram
c) Pudukottai
d) Odanilai
Answer:
d) Odanilai

8. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at
a) Central India
b) Kanpur
c) Delhi
d) Bareilly
Answer:
a) Central India

II. Fill in the Black.
1. The Eastern Palayams were ruled under the control of ………………
Answer:
Kattabomman

2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his minister ………………
Answer:
Ariyanatha Mudaliyar

3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to ………………
Answer:
Andhra

4. ……………… was known by Tamils as Veeramangai and Jhansi Rani of south India.
Answer:
Velu Nachiyar

5. ……………… was called as ‘Lion of Sivagangai’.
Answer:
Periya Maruthu

6. ……………… was described the revolt of 1857 as the First War of India Independence.
Answer:
V.D. Savarkar

III. Match the following.

1. Delhi	a) Kunwar Singh
2. Kanpur	b) Khan Bahadur Khan
3. Jhansi	c) Nana Saheb
4. Bareilly	d) Lakshmi Bai
5. Bihar	e) Bahadur Shah II

Answer:

1. Delhi	e) Bahadur Shah II
2. Kanpur	c) Nana Saheb
3. Jhansi	d) Lakshmi Bai
4. Bareilly	b) Khan Bahadur Khan
5. Bihar	a) Kunwar Singh

IV. State true or false.
1. The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.
Answer:
True

2. Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudhu Pandiyas.
Answer:
False

3. Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799.
Answer:
True

4. Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick(✓) the appropriate answer.
i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
ii) The family members of Tipu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
iii) At the time of the Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Gentinck.
iv) The victory of the revolt of Vellore against the British was one of the significant events in the history of India.
a) i & ii are Correct b) ii & iv are Correct
c) ii &iii are correct ‘ d) i, ii & iv are correct
Answer:
c) ii & iii are correct

a) Find out the wrong pair
1. Marudu Pandiyar – a. Ettayapuram
2. Gopala Nayak – b. Dindigul
3. Kerala Varma – c. Malabar
4. Dhoondaji – d. Mysore
Answer:
1. Marudu Pandiyar-a. Ettayapuram

b) Find out the odd one
Kattabomman, Oomaithurai, Sevathaiah, Tipusultan

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What you know about the Palayakarars? Name some of them.
Answer:
1. Palayakkarar was the holder of a territory or a Palayam. These Palayams were held in military tenure and extended their full cooperation to be need of the Nayaks. The Palayakkarars collected taxes, of which one-third was given to the Nayak of Madurai another one-third for the expenditure of the army, and the rest was kept for themselves.

2. Kattabomman, Pulithevan, Marudu Brothers, Dheeran Chinnamalai.

2. What was the part of Velu Nachiyar in the Palayakkarar revolt?
Answer:

• Velu Nachiyar organised an army and employed her intelligent agents to find where the British stored their ammunition.
• She recaptured Sivagangai and was again crowned as a queen with the help of the Marudu brothers.

3. Who were the leaders of the Palayakkarar confederacy in the south Indian rebellion?
Answer:
Marudu Pandiar of Sivaganga, Gopala Nayak of Dindugal, Kerala Varma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak, and Dhoondaji of Mysore.

4. What was the importance of Tiruchirappalli proclamation?
Answer:

• The marudu Pandyas issued a proclamation of Independence called Tiruchirappalli Proclamation in June 1801,
• It was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.

5. Bring out the effects of the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Effects of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The new methods and uniform regulations were withdrawn.
2. The family of Tippu as a precautionary measure was sent to Calcutta.
3. William Cavendish Bentinck was removed from his service.

6. What was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The immediate cause was the introduction of new Enfield Riffles in the army. For loading it, we want to use our mouth to remove the cartridge of the rifle.The cartridges were greased by the fat of cow and the pig.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. What do you know about the Pulithevar?
Answer:
1. Pulithevar was the pioneer in Tamil Nadu, to protest against the English rule in India. He was the Palayakkarar of the Nerkattumseval, near Tirunelveli.

2. During his tenure he refused to pay the tribute neither to Mohammed Ali, the Nawab of Arcot nor to the English. Further, he started opposing them. Hence, the forces of the Nawab of Arcot and the English attacked Pulithevar. But the combined forces were defeated by Pulithevar at Tirunelveli.

3. Pulithevar was the first Indian king to have fought and defeated the British in India. After this victory, Pulithevan attempted to form a league of the Palayakkars to oppose the British and the Nawab.

4. In 1759, Nerkattumseval was attacked by the forces of Nawab of Arcot under the leadership of Yusuf Khan.

5. Pulithevar was defeated at Anthanallur and the Nawabs forces captured Nerkattumsevval in 1761.

6. Pulithevar who lived in exile recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764. Later, he was defeated by Captain Campell in 1767. Pulitzer escaped and died in exile without fulfilling his purpose, although his courageous trail of a struggle for independence in the history of South India.

2. Explain the events that led to conflict between Dheeran Chinnamalai and the british.

• Dheeran Chinamalai was trained by French militray in modem welfare.
• He was along the side Tipu Sultan to fight against the British East India Company and got victories against the British.
• After Tipu Sulthan’s death, Chinnamalai settled down at Odanilai and constructed a fort there to continue his struggle against the British.
• He sought the help of Marathas and Maruthu Pandiyar to attack the British at Coimbatore in 1800.
• Chinnamalai was forced to attack Coimbatore on his own.
• His army was defeated the British in battles at Cauvery, Odanilai, and Arachalur.
• During the final battle, Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook Nallapan and was hanged in Sankagiri Fort in 1805.

3. What were the causes of the Great revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The most important cause of revolt in 1857 was a popular discontent of the British policy of economically exploiting India. This hurt all sections of society. The peasants suffered due to high revenue demands and the strict revenue collection policy.

2. Policies of the doctrine of lapse, subsidiary alliance, and policy of Effective Control created discontentment among people. The annexation of Oudh proved that even the groveling loyalty can’t satisfy British greed for territories.

3. The conversion activities of Christian missionaries were looked upon with suspicion and fear. The priests and the maulavis showed their discontent against the British rule.

4. Abolition of practices like sati, female infanticide, support to widow remarriage, and female education was seen by many as interference in their Indian culture by the Europeans.

5. The Indian sepoys were looked upon as inferior beings and treated with contempt by their British officers. They were paid much less than the British soldiers. All avenues of the promotion were closed to them as all the higher army posts were reserved for the British.

4. What were the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857?
Causes for the failure of the Revolt of 1857:
Various causes were responsible for the failure of the revolt.

• Lack of organisation, discipline common plan of action, centralised leadership, modem weapons, and techniques.
• The rebel leaders were no match to the British Generals. Rani Lakshmi Bai, Tantia Tope, and Nana Saheb were courageous but not good generals.
• Non-participation of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Western Punjab, and Rajputana.
• The modem educated Indians did not support the revolts because the English rule could reform the Indian society and modernize it.
• The British managed to get the loyalty of the Sikhs, Afghans, and Gurkha regiments who helped in the suppression of the revolt.
• The British had better weapons, better generals, and good organisation.

VIII. HOTS
1. Prove that there was no common purpose among the leaders of the Great revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. The revolt did not have a clear leader. Bahadur Shah II was old and exhausted. He lacked military leadership.
2. At Kanpur, Nana Sahib was proclaimed a Peshwa, who was the adopted son of the exited Peshwa Baji Rao II.
3. He believed that he was entitled to a pension from the British.
4. When he was refused to be given, he was compelled to revolt against them. Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope fought for Jhansi and Gwalior.
5. Begun of Awadh wanted to safeguard her territory.
6. Khan Bahadur Khan fought against the British when they subjugated his government in Bareilly.
7. As such, they lacked unity and gave way for the easy victory of the British.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. The Governor ordered Kattabomman to surrender
a) Canning
b) Robert Clive
c) Edward Clive
d) Correnwalis
Answer:
c) Edward Clive

2. Dheeran Chinnamalai was trained by the military is the modern welfare
a) Netherland
b) British
c) Germany
d) French
Anwer:
French

3. Puli Thevar was defeated by ……………. in 1767
a) Yusuf Khan
b) Jackson
c) Arcot Newab
d) Captain Campbell
Answer:
d) Captain Campbell

4. After the 1857 Revolt, the Governor-General was called as ……………..
a) Viceroy
b) Major
c) Carnal
d) Sir
Answer:
a) Viceroy

5. In 1858, the proclamation released by Queen ……………..
a) Elizabeth
b) Victoria
c) Mary Ann
d) Isabellah

Answer:
b) Victoria

6. Delhi was recaptured by ………………… in 1857 Revalt
a) Nicholson
b) Gilesphey
c) Camphell
d) Canning
Answer:
a) Nicholson

7. The Mughal emperor ………………… as the symbol of the Revolt 1857
a) Akbar
b) Shajahan
c) Aurangazeb
d) Bahadur shah II
Answer:
d) Bahadur shah II

8. Vellore Revolt held in the year ………………….
a) 1806
b) 1805
c) 1801
d) 1800
Answer:
a) 1806

9. The ………………… rulers appointed Nayak in their Provinces.
a) Chola
b) Pallava
c) Pandya
d) Vijayanagara
Answer:
d) Vijayanagara

10. Dheeran Chinnamalai fought against the ………………… East India company
a) French
b) British
c) Dutch
d) Denish
Answer:
b) British

II. Fill in the Blanks.
1. ………………… was the pioneer for protest against the English role of India.
Answer:
Puli Thevar

2. The whole country was divided into ………………… palayams under the Palayakkarar system.
Answer:
72

3. ………………… asked Kattabomman to pay the tribute arrears.
Answer:
Coiin Jackson

4. The minister of Kattabomman was ………………….
Answer:
Siva subramanian

5. The Tiruchirappali proclamation released in the year ………………….
Answer:
1801

6. ………………… also known as Jansi Rani of South India.
Answer:
Velunatchiyar

7. ………………… died in 1772 Sivaganga battle.
Answer:
Muthu Vaduga Nathar

8. The Thiruchirappalli Proclamation was placed on the walls of the ………………… temple.
Answer:
Srirangam vaishnava Temple

9. ………………… System was abolished by the Treaty of kamataka in 1801
Answer:
Palayakkarar

10. Military General Agnew introduced a new turban known as ………………….
Answer:
‘Agnew’s turban

11. The immediate cause of sepoy revolt was the introduction of ………………….
Answer:
Enfield Riffles

12. Due to the terrorist activities of Chinna maruthu against British called as ………………….
Answer:
Lion of Sivaganga

13. The Revolt of 1857 headed by ………………… in Kanpur.
Answer:
Nana Saheb

14. The Revolt in Delhi controlled by the British General ………………….
Answer:
John Nicholson

15. The sepoy Revolt was led by ………………… in Gwalior.
Answer:
Tantia Tope

III. Match the following.

1. Canning	a) Commander
2. Kuyili	b) Governor
3. Edword Clive	c) Colonel
4. Colin Jackson	d) Govemer General
5. Agnew	e) Collector

Answer:

1. Canning	d) Gevemor General
2. Kuyili	a) Commander
3. Edword Clive	b) Gevemor
4. Colin Jackson	e) Collector
5. Agnew	c) Colonel

IV. State True or False.
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom at Melapalayam in Chennimalai near Erode
Answer:
True

2. The Maratha brothers were executed in the port of Tirupatur in Ramanathapuram District on 10th October 1801.
Answer:
False

3. The Palayakkarar of Sivagiri was not a tributory to the company.
Answer:
False

4. The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of’divide and counterpoise’
Answer:
True

V. Considder the following statements and tick (✓) the appropriate answer.
1. Choose the correct statement
1) Velu Nachiyar was a queen of Sivagangai.
2) At the age of 16, She was married to Muthu Vaduganathar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
3) In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot and the British troops invaded Sivagangai
4) They killed Muthu Vaduganathar in the battle of Kalayarkoil.
a) 3 is correct
b) 2 is correct
c) All are correct
d) All are incorrect
Answer:
c) All are correct

a) Find out the wrong pair:
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai – Nallapan
2. 1800-1801 – Second Palayakkarar war
3. Velu Nachiyar – Kuyili
4. Kattabomman – John Cradock
Answer:
4. Kattabomman – John Cradock

b) Find out the odd one
1. a) Kattabomman
b) Siva Subramanian
c) Vijaya Ragunatha Thondaiman
d) Oomathurai
Answer:
c) Vijaya Ragunatha Thondaiman

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What were the two blocs of Palayakkarars? who ruled those blocs?.
Answer:

• There were two blocs of Palayams Eastern Palayam and western Palayam.
• The Palayams were ruled by Poligars.

2. What was the immediate cause of the 1806 Vellore Revolt?.
Answer:

• In June 1806, military General Agnew introduced a new turban, resembling a European hat with a badge of the cross on it.
• It was popularly known as ‘Agnew’s turban’. Both the Hindu and Muslim soldiers opposed it
• So the soldiers were severely punished by the English.
  This was the immediate cause of the 1806 Vellore revolt.

3. Name the places of the 1857 Revolt.
Answer:
Delhi, Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi & Gwalior, Bareilly, Bihar.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Explain the consequences of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• The Revolt of 1857 marked a turning point in the history of India. It led to changes in the system of administration and the policy of the Government.
• The administration of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown through the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ in 1858. The governor-general was given the title of viceroy.
• The Board of Directors and the Board of Control were replaced by the Council of 15 members headed by the Secretary of State to supervise Indian affairs.
• The Indian Army was thoroughly reorganized. More Britishers were employed in the army.
• The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of divide and counterpoise’. In fact, the Revolt of 1857 played an important role in bringing the Indian people together and imparting them the consciousness of belonging to one country.
• The Revolt paved the way for the rise of the modem national movement century that the 1857 Revolt came to be interpreted as a “planned war of national independence by the Historian V.D. Savarkar in his book, ‘First War of Indian Independence.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 8 Map Reading Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 8 Map Reading

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Map Reading Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.
1. The subject which deals with map making process is ……………….. .
a) Demography
b) Cartography
c) Physiography
d) Topography
Answer:
b) Cartography

2. A map that shows the physical features of an area is called ………………. .
a) Cadastral map
b) Relief map
c) Climatic map
d) Resource map
Answer:
a) Cadastral map

3. Shallow water bodies are represented by ……………. colour
a) Yellow
b) Brown
c) Light blue
d) Dark blue
Answer:
c) Light blue

4. The maps which are known as plans are
a) Cadastral maps
b) Topographical maps
c) Isoline maps
d) Transport maps
Answer:
a) Cadastral maps

5. Actual distribution of population can be represented by …………….. .
a) lines
b) Shades
c) Dots
d) Contours
Answer:
b) Shades

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The globe is the true representation of the ……………… .
Answer:
Earth

2. A way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface is …………….. .
Answer:
Map

3. A line that joins the points of equal elevation is ……………. .
Answer:
Isolines

4. Cadastral maps are usually maintained by…………….. .
Answer:
Thematic map

5. …………… map is focused on a specific theme.
Answer:
Local administrator

III. Choose the option which matches the following correctly.
1. Legend – 45°
2. North East – brown colour
3. Contour Line – thematic map
4. Cadastral map – key of a map
5. Choropleth – taxation
a) 3,5,1,4,2
b) 4,1,2,5,3
c) 2,5,1,3,4
d) 5,2,4,1,3
Answer:
c) 2,5,1,3,4

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer.
1. Statement : Small scale maps can show only major features.
Reason : Due to lack of space ,it shows large areas like Continents and countries,
a) Statement is true but reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct,
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

2. Statement : The conventional signs and symbols are the keys of map reading.
Reason : These symbols give a lots of information in a limited area.
a) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct.
c) Statement is true but reason is wrong.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
a) Both the statement and reasons are correct

V. Answer the following in a sentence or two.
1. Define “Map scale”.
Answer:

1. Map scale refers to the relationship (or ratio) between distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground.
2. The map scale is stated in words i.e., 1 cm to 1 km.

2. What is a physical map?
Answer:
Map which shows the physical feature of an area is called a physical map.

3. Write a short note on map projection.
Answer:A map projection is a way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface of a map. The curved surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map. So, cartographers use map projections while mapping the earth surface which would help them to reduce distortions.

4. Name the Intermediate directions.
Answer:
The intermediate directions are northeast, north west, south east, and south west.

5. What are the uses of a cadastral map?
Answer:
Cadastral maps are useful for local administration such as the city survey, taxation, management of estates and to define property in legal documents.

VI. Differentiate.
1. Relief map and thematic map.

Relief Map	Thematic Map
Map that shows the physical features of an area is Usually called Relief map.	Map that focuses on a specific them or subject area.
It shows landforms like rivers, mountains.	It shows phenomena like temperature variation, rainfall distribution and population density.

2. Large scale map and small scale map.

Large scale Map	Small Scale Map
Large scale maps portray the information in detail than the small scale maps.	Small scale maps shows only major feature omitting the minor ones due to lack of space. Large areas like continents or countries small scale maps are used.

3. Globe and Map.

Globe	Map
Globe gives a three-dimensional representation of the entire world and it is a miniature form of the earth.	Map gives a two-dimensional representation of certain regions or the entire world.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. Explain the different types of scales in detail.
Answer:
Scales on maps can be represented in three different ways. They are:

1. Statement or Verbal scale
2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Ratio Scale
3. Graphical or Bar Scale

1. Statement or Verbal scale:

• In this method, the map scale is stated in words i.e., 1 cm to 1 km.
• It means 1 cm distance on the map corresponds to 1 km distance on the ground.
• Thus it is written on the map like 1 cm to 1 km.

2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Numerical Fraction or Ratio Scale:

• It shows the relationship between the map distance and the corresponding ground distance in the same units of length.
• R.F. is generally shown as a fraction.

3. Graphical or Bar Scale or Linear Scale:

• A graphic scale looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
• This line is divided and sub-divided into lengths each of which represents a certain distance on the ground.
• This scale has an added advantage for taking copies of maps as the measurement does not change.

2. Describe the Cadastral map and its importance.
Answer:

• The Cadastral map refers to a map which shows the boundaries and ownership of land within a specified area.
• They are sometimes called plans.
• They show full details of boundaries and buildings.
• They are useful for local administration such as city survey, taxation to define property in legal documents.
• It is maintained by the government as a public record.

Importance:

• It surveys documents boundaries of land ownership, diagrams, sketches plan, and maps.
• They are originally used to ensure reliable facts for land valuation and taxation.

3. Write a paragraph about the conventional signs and symbols.
Answer:
The conventional signs and symbols:

1. Conventional signs are symbols used in maps to represent different features.
2. The symbols are explained in the key of the map.
3. These symbols give a lot of information in a limited space.
4. With the use of these symbols, maps can be drawn easily and the concept of the map can be understood well. There is an international agreement regarding the use of certain symbols.
5. The symbols that fall under this category are Called Conventional Symbols. Another category is called contextual symbols which are decided by the cartographers.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Map Reading Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. A choropleth map is a ………………… Map.
a) Physical
b) Thematic
c) Cadastral
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Thematic

2. Each dot on a dot – density map represents some amount of …………………
a) data
b) water
c) equal
d) All of these
Answer:
a) data

3. Cadastral is derived from ………………… word.
a) french
b) Latin
c) greek
d) English
Answer:
a) french

4. The ………………… surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map.
a) flat
b) curved
c) spherical
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) curved

5. Latitudes and longitudes marked on the map give the ………………… information of the area.
a) Locational
b) Physical
c) Thematical
d) Directional
Answer:
a) Location

6. The ………………… cannot draw maps the same size as the land.
a) Demography
b) Cartography
c) Physiography
d) Topography
Answer:
b) Cartography

7. A ………………… looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
b) Bar scale

8. A ………………… is included in a map to unlock it.
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
c) Legend

9. ………………… is of done by means of an arrow pointing to the north
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
d) Direction

10. The ………………… should normally be given outside the frame of the map.
a) Source
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
a) Source

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Each map has its own ………………… which is indicated on the map.
Answer:
Scale

2. ………………… tells about the content of the map.
Answer:
Title

3. ………………… shows the relationship between the map distance and the corresponding ground distance.
Answer:
Representative fraction

4. A ………………… looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
Answer:
graphic scale

5. Directions on a map are often given with a symbol called ………………….
Answer:
a Compass rose

6. Maps and globe an important tools for …………………
Answer:
Geographers

7. ………………… is an act of interpreting or understanding the geographic information portrayed on a map.
Answer:
Map reading

8. Globe gives a dimensional Representation of the entire world.
Ans: three

9. ………………… and ………………… marked on maps give the locational information of the area covered in the respective maps.
Answer:
Latitudes, Longitudes

10. ………………… give a lot of information in a limited space.
Answer:
Conventional signs

11. The meaning cadastral, is ………………….
Answer:
Register of Territorial Property

12. ………………… are classified into qualitative and quantitative thematic maps.
Answer:
Thematic maps

13. ………………… is an act of interpreting the geographic information Portuguese on a map
Answer:
Map Reading

14. In the represents ………………… distance
Answer:
1 km

15. In the map Legend symbol denotes …………………
Answer:
camp

III. Choose the option which matches the following correctly.

1. Map	a) Lines connect the same value
2. Cartography	b) Register of Territorial property
3. Map scale	c) Mapmaking
4. Cadastre	d) two-dimensional representation
5. Isoline	e) relationship between distance

Answer:

1. Map	a) Lines connect the same value
2. Cartography	b) Register of Territorial property
3. Map scale	c) Mapmaking
4. Cadastre	d) two-dimensional representation
5. Isoline	e) relationship between distance

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer.
1. Statement: A map projection is a way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface of a map.
Reason: The curved surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map.
a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct,
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

2. Statement: map key or legend is included in a map to unlock it.
Reason: It gives you the information needed for the map to make sense.
a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct.
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

V. Answer the following in a sentence or two.
1. Why Is cadastral important?
Answer:
Codastral map survey documents the boundaries of land ownership, by the production of document diagram, sketches, plans, charts, and maps.

2. What are two kinds of Thematic maps?
Answer:
A thematic map is classified into qualitative and quantitative thematic maps.

3. What is a Qualitative map?
Answer:
A qualitative map is in the form of quality and expresses the presence or absence of the subject on a map like the kind of vegetation.

4. What are Isobars?
Answer:
Isobars shows the distribution of atmospheric pressure and isotherms showing the distribution of temperature.

5. State any two uses of maps.

• To find the location of objects and places.
• Display weather conditions.

VI. Differentiate.
1. Conventional signs and Symbols.

Conventional signs	Symbols
Conventional signs are symbols used in maps to represent different features.	The symbols are explained in the key of the map. These symbols give a lot of information in a limited space.

2. Cadastral Map and Thematic Map.

Cadastral Map	Thematic Map
A cadastral map refers to a map that shows the boundaries and ownership of land within a specified area. These maps are sometimes known as plans.	A thematic map is a map that focuses on a specific theme or subject area such as physical phenomena like temperature variation, rainfall distribution and population density in an area.
As they are on large scale, they show full details of the boundaries and buildings.	Thematic maps emphasize spatial variation of human issues like population density or prevalence of diseases.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. What are the uses of maps?
Answer:

• To find location of objects and places.
• To find the transportation routes.
• Maps show strategic location is useful for the military.
• Serve as a tourist guide.
• To find the spatial distribution of different phenomena.
• Display weather conditions.
• Highly helpful in learning geography.
• Represent the real world on small scale.

2. What are the basic components of a map? Explain any two.
Answer:
The basic components of a map are

• Title
• Scale
• Legend or key
• Direction
• Source
• Map projection and locational information and
• Conventional signs and symbols.

Title:
The title tells about the content of the map and is placed mostly at the top comer or at the bottom comer of the map.

Legend or key:

• A map key or Legend is included to unlock the map.
• It gives us the needed information.
• Maps often use symbols or colours to represent things and the key explains what they mean.
• Symbols are the key might be pictures or icons that represent different things on the map.
• Some examples are map legend.
• Campground.
• Emergency Telephone.
• Gravel Road.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 7 Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The southernmost tip of Africa is.
a) Cape Blanca
b) Cape Agulhas
c) Cape of Good Hope
d) Cape Town
Answer:
c) Cape of Good Hope

2. The manmade canal through an isthmus between Egypt and Sinai Peninsula is
a) Panama Canal
b) Aswan Canal
c) Suez Canal
d) Albert Canel
Answer:
c) Suez Canal

3. In respect of the Mediterranean climate, consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer.
(1) The average rainfall is 15cm
(2) The summers are hot and dry, winters are rainy.
(3) Winters are cool and dry, Summers are hot and wet
(4) Citrus fruits are grown
a) 1 is correct
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
b) 2 and 4 are correct

4. The range which separates the west and east flowing rivers in Australia is
a) Great Dividing Range
b) Himalayan Range
c) Flinders range
d) Mac Donnell Range
Answer:
a) Great Dividing Range

5. Kalgoorile is famous for ………. mining.
a) Diamond
b) Platinum
c) Silver
d) Gold
Answer:
d) Gold

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Atlas Mountain is located in ………………. continent
Answer:
African

2. ………………. is the highest peak of Africa.
Answer:
Mt. Kilimanjaro

3. ………………. is the most common tree in Australia.
Answer:
Eucalyptus

4. A temperate grass land of Australia is called ………………. .
Answer:
Downs

5. ………………. is the first Indian research station in Antarctica.
Answer:
Dakshi Gangotri

III. Match the following.

1. Pinnacle	a) Equatorial forest.
2. Krill	b) salt lake
3. Ostrich	c) small red fish
4. Lake Eyre	d) flightless bird
5. Jewel of the Earth	e) Pointed limestone pillar

Answer:

1. Pinnacle	e) Pointed limestone pillar
2. Krill	c) small red fish ‘
3. Ostrich	d) flightless bird
4. Lake Eyre	b) salt lake
5. Jewel of the Earth	a) Equatorial forest

IV. Let us learn.
1. Assertion (A) : Aurora is a curtain of colour lights appear in the sky.
Reason (R) : They are caused by magnetic storms in the upper atmosphere.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion (A) : A geological feature of Africa is the Great Rift Valley.
Reason (R) : A Rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by tectonic activity.
a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but, A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer in brief.
1. Why Africa is called a “Mother Continent”?
Answer:
Africa is nicknamed the ‘Mother Continent’ as it was the oldest inhabited continent on Earth.

2. What are the important rivers of Africa?
Answer:
The most important rivers in Africa

• River Nile – father of African rivers.
• River Congo or Zaire – the second largest river.
• River Niger – Major river.
• River Zambezi – fourth largest river and River of life.

3. Name the physical division of Australia.
Answer:
The Physical divisions of Australia are –

1. The Great Western Plateau
2. The Central Low lands
3. The Eastern High lands

4. Write about the nature of the Antarctic continent.
Answer:

• Antarctica is the southernmost and fifth-largest continent in the world.
• As it is located in polar regions it is the coldest continent with a permanent cover of ice.
• Its landform consists of mountains, peaks, valleys, glaciers, and plateau.

5. Mention any four economic activities of Australia.
Answer:
Agriculture, forestry, fishing mining, manufacturing, trade, and services are the major economic activities of Australia.

VI. Distinguish between.
1. Sahel and Sahara

Sahel	Sahara
Sahel means border or margin	Largest hot desert in the world.
It is largely a semi – acid belt of barren, sandy and rocky land.	It covers the area of 11 countries.
This region marks the physical and cultural transition.	Mt. Koussi, an extinct volcano in chad is the highest point in Sahara.

2. Western Antarctica and Eastern Antarctica.

Western Antarctica	Eastern Antarctica
Faces the Pacific Ocean.	Faces the Atlantic and Indian Ocean.
Antarctica Penninsula which points towards South America shows that it is the continuation of the Andes mountain range.	Mt. Erebus is an active volcano. Located in Ross Island. Onlycontinent called white continent because of the ice cap in 4,000 meters deep.

3. Great Barrier Reef and the Artesian Basin.

Barrier Reef	Artesian Basin
1. It is located in the northeast of Australia along the east coast of Queensland in the Pacific Ocean.	The Artesian Basin is a region on the earth’s surface where water gushes out like a fountain.
2. It is formed by the tiny coral polyps.	Largest and deepest basin in the world.
3. It is about 2300 km long.	Located in the west of the Great Dividing range.
4. One of the natural wonders of the world.	Found in arid and Semi-arid parts of Queensland.

VII. Give reasons.
1. Egypt is called the gift of the Nile.
Answer:

• The Nile is the lifeline of Egypt
• Without the Nile, Egypt would have been a desert
• So Egypt in the gift of the Nile.

2. Deserts are found in the western margins of the continents.
Answer:

• Most deserts are found in the Western margins of the subtropics.
• Because the prevailing winds in the tropics are tropical easterly winds.
• The tropical easterly winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins.

3. Antarctica is called the continent of scientists.
Answer:

• Scientists of any country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica.
• Hence it is called the ‘continent of Science’.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph each.
1. Give an account of the mineral wealth of Australia.
Answer:

• Minerals are the largest export item in Australia.
• It contributes about 10 % of the country’s GDP.
• Australia is the world’s leading producer of bauxite, limonite, the second-largest producer of gold. lead, lithium, manganese ore, and zinc.
• The third-largest producer of iron ore and uranium and the fourth-largest producer of black coal.
• The Coal belts of the country stretch from New castle to Sydney.
• Iron ores are found mainly in southern and Western Australia.
• Bauxite is mined around the Gulf of Carpentaria.
• Uranium is mined in northern territory.
• Gold is mined in the Western desert at Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

2. Describe the flora and fauna of Antarctica.
Answer:
Flaora and Fauna:

1. Since the temperature is below freezing point almost throughout the year, no major vegetation is found in this continent.
2. Simple plants like algae, mosses, liverworts, lichens, and microscopic fungi can survive and grow in Antarctica.
3. Some algae live in the snow, while other plants grow on the coastal rocky land that is ice-free.
4. A few species of plants, such as plankton, algae, and mosses are seen in and around, Antarctica’s fresh and saltwater lakes.
5. Small redfish called krill are found in large shoals. It is food for many warm-blooded sea animals.
6. The blue whale is the largest animal that feeds on plankton. All these animals and birds have a thick layer of fat called blubber which helps them to withstand the cold condition.
7. Penguin birds in Antarctica cannot fly. They have webbed feet and flippers instead of wings. Small invertebrates are the only land animals which live in the continent.

3. Name the physical divisions of Africa and explain anyone.
Answer:
The physical divisions of Africa are

1. Sahara
2. Sahel
3. Savanna
4. The Great Rift Valley and the Great Lakes of Africa
5. East Africa Highlands
6. Swahili Coast
7. The Congo Basin or Zaire Basin
8. Southern Africa.

Sahel:

• Sahel means border or margin. Sahel is a semi-arid tropical Savannah region that lies between Sahara.
• Desert in the north and grassland into the south.
• It Stretches east-west for a distance of 4000 km and covers an area of 30 million sq Km.
• It is largely a semi-arid belt of barren, sandy, and rocky land.
• This region marks the physical and cultural transition between the more fertile tropical regions in the south and desert in the north.

X. Activity.
1. Find out the hemisphere and season during December for the following countries

Country	Hemisphere	Season
South Africa	Southern	Summer
Morocco	Northern	Winter
Australia	Southern	Summer
Niger	Northern	Winter
Egypt’	Northern	Winter
Tasmania	Southern	Summer
India	Northern	Winter

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Jasmania is also known as
a) Apple Island
b) Bourke
c) Artesion Basin
d) Sydney
Answer:
a) Apple Island

2. …………….. was discovered by Captian James Cook in 1770
a) Canberra
b) Australia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer:
b) Australia

3. Tropical rain forest is called the
a) Tropical deserts
b) Jewel of the earth
c) Mother continent
d) Rift Valley
Answer:
b) Jewel of the earth

4. Lake is the largest freshwater body in Africa.
a) Supervisor
b) Victoria
c) Albert
d) Kiva
Answer:
b) Victoria

5. Mount an extinct volcano in chad is the highest point in the Sahara
a) Koussi
b) Kilimanjaro
c) Everest
d) Atlas
Answer:
a) Koussi

6. …………………. is nicknamed the ”mother continent”.
a) Africa
b) Australia
c) South Africa
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Africa

7. the Maghreb means west in language.
a) greek
b) Sanskrit
c) Arabic
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Arabic

8. …………….. is one of the largest hot deserts in the world.
a) Sahara
b) Sahel
c) Savanna
d) Great Rift Valley
Answer:
a) Sahara

9. …………….. flows through West-Central Africa and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.
a) River Nile
b) River Congo
c) River Niger
d) River
Answer:
b) River Congo

10. The Tropic of Capricorn cuts the continent almost into equal halves.
a) three
b) three
c) four
d) two
Answer:
d) two

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. …………… is the largest research station on Antarctica.
Answer:
Mcmurdo

2. Vinson. …………….. is the highest peak in Antarctica.
Answer:
Massif

3. Wool is described as ……………. of Australia.
Answer:
Cash Crop

4. …………… is the longest river in Australia.
Answer:
River Murray

5. Great Barrier Reef is formed by …………………
Answer:
Coral Polyps

6. Sahel means ………………..
Answer:
border or margin

7. …………… is the capital of ghana.
Answer:
Acera

8. …………… was the first to use the term “Dark Continent”.
Answer:
Henry M. Stanly

9. ………….. is the deepest point in Sahara.
Answer:
The Qattara Depression

10. …………… is the highest point in Atlas Mountain.
Answer:
Mount Jaubbakal

11. ………….. is one of the largest plains in Savanna.
Answer:
The Serengeti Plain

12. People of Swahili culture is called ……………….
Answer:
Swahili

13. ………………… Mountain is found in the eastern portion of the escarpment.
Answer:
Drakensberg

14. Nile river is also called ………………
Answer:
Father of African river

15. The country Egypt is called ………………….
Answer:
gift of the Nile

III. Match the following.

1. Bamboo tree	a) Veld
2. Karoo	b) Libya
3. Open air Zoo	c) Africa
4. A1 – ziza	d) Sheep rearing
5. Grassland	e) Savanna

Answer:

1. Bamboo tree	c) Africa
2. Karoo	d) Sheep rearing
3. Open air Zoo	e) Savanna
4. A1 – ziza	b) Libya
5. Grassland	a) Veld

IV. Let us learn.
1. Assertion (A): Antarctica is a unique continent but it does not have a native population. There is no country in Antarctica.
Reason (R): It is located in the polar region, it is the coldest continent with a permanent cover of ice.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.

2. Assertion (A): A rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by the shifting of tectonic plates.
Reason (R): It runs through eastern Africa and contains many lakes.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.

V. Answer in brief.
1. Write a short note on Xerophytes.
Answer:
The Plants and trees in Australia are adapted to dry conditions and can survive for long period without water called Xerophytes.

2. What is the Political division of Australia?
Answer:

• The political division of Australia are six states and two union territories.
• They are New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Jasmania, Victoria, Western Australia, Northern Territory, and Capital Territory.

3. What do you know about the “Continent of Science”?
Answer:
Scientists of any Country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica and so it is called the continent of science.

4. Great Barrier Reef – Explain
Answer:

• Great Barrier Reef is located in the northeast of Australia along the east coast of Queen’s land in the Pacific Ocean.
• It is formed by the tiny coral polyps.

5. State a few minerals found in Antarctica.
Answer:
Few minerals found in Antarctica are gold, Platinium, Nickel, Copper, and petroleum.

VI. Distinguish between.
1. The Great Western Plateau and The eastern highlands.

The Great Western Plateau (Australia)	The eastern highlands
1. It is Australia’s largest physical division. Its area is about 2,700,000 square kilometers.	It extends for about 3860 km along the eastern edge of Australia.
2. It is 863 meters high above sea level. It is one of the natural wonders of Australia.	Australian Alps mountain range is the highest mountain range in Australia. It is covered with ice.
3. The Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Australia located in Western, Australia, and South Australia.	The highest peak of this range is Mt. Kosciuszko (2230 m) and is located in New South Wales.

2. River Nile and River Congo or Zaire.

River Nile	River Congo or Zaire
The Nile is the longest river in the world. The Nile is known as the “Father of African Rivers”.	Congo is the second largest river in Africa after the Nile.
Its length is about 6650 km.	Its length is about 4700km.
It flows northward and drains into the Mediterranean-sea.	It flows through West-Central Africa and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.

VII. Give reasons.
1. The Zambezi River is a Southern African “River of Life.
Answer:

• The fourth-largest river system in Africa.
  It drains seven countries and supports millions of people, who make use of its rich fisheries, forests, water, and rich floodplain soils.

2. the Nile is known as the “Father of African Rivers”.

• Nile River the longest river in the world, called the father of African rivers.
• It rises south of the Equator and flows northward through northeastern Africa to drain into the Mediterranean Sea.
• It has a length of about 6,650 kilometers and drains an area estimated at 3,349,000 square kilometers.

1. How is the climatic condition of Africa divided?
Answer:
It is divided into six major climatic zones. They are.
Arid and semi-arid climate:

• Northern & Southern Africa
• Rainfall – scanty Tropical Savanna Climate:
• 100-200 latitude or either side of the equator
• The tropical wet and dry climate
• Equatorial climate
• The equatorial region near the congo basin and east African highlands.
• Temperature and rainfall are high.

Temperature Climate:

• The southern tip of southern Africa.
• Climate Equable
• Mediterranean Climate
• NorthWestern and Southwestern tip of Africa.
• Gets rainfall in winter while in summer it is hot and dry.

Tropical Monsoon Climate:

• Eastern shore of Africa.
• Summer is hot with monsoon winds bringing good rainfall winter is cool and dry.

2. What’s the role of agriculture in Africa?
Answer:

• Agriculture is a major economic activity.
• Wheat is grown in temperate grasslands.
• Rice is cultivated on the Guinea coast.
• Maize and Millets are grown all over the plateau.
• Cotton is the chief cash crop of Africa.
• Coffee is grown in Ethiopia
• Ghana is the chief producer of cocoa.
• Oil palm in west African countries.
• Sugarcane, rubber, tobacco are the major crops of East African countries.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 1 Rocks and Soil Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Rocks and Soil

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rocks and Soil Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. Which of the following is known as sphere of rocks
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Lithosphere
d) Hydrosphere
Answer:
(c) Lithosphere

2. World soil day is observed on
a) 15th August
b) 12th January
c) 15th October
d) 5th December
Answer:
(d) 5th Decembe

3. Fossils are found in
a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Igneous rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Plutonic rocks
Answer:
(a) Sedimentary rocks

4. The top layer of soil is called as
a) organic layer or humas
b) topsoil
c) subsoil
d) bedrock
Answer:
(b) topsoil

5. Ideal soil for growing cotton is
a) Red soil
b) Black soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(b) Black soil

6. The major components of soil is
a) Rocks
b) Minerals
c) Water
d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Minerals

7. Which one of the following is the most widespread most and productive category of soil
a) Alluvial soil
b) Black soil
c) Red soil
d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(a) Alluvial Soil

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Scientific study of rocks is called …………….
Answer:
Petrology

2. ……………. soil is highly suitable for millets cultivation.
Answer:
Black

3. The “Skin of earth” is
Answer:
Soil

4. ……………. is the kind of metamorphic rock using which Taj Mahal was built.
Answer:
White marble

5. ……………. is known as the primary rocks.
Answer:
Igneous rock

True or False:

1. Igneous rocks are called primary rocks.
Answer:
True

2. Slate is formed from shale.
Answer:
True

3. Red soil is formed by the process of leaching.
Answer:
False

4. M-sand is used as alternative for natural sand in construction.
Answer:
True

5. Volcanic mountains are covered with sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:
1.

Answer:
A) 2 14 3

2.

Ans: D) 3, 1, 4, 2

V. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

1. a) Igneous rocks are called the primary rocks.
b) Soil is the product of weathering of rocks.
c) Sedimentary rocks are the hardest ones.
d) Deccan plateau is the region of Igneous rocks.
Answer:
d) Deccan plateau is the region of Igneous rocks.

2. a) Soil erosion decreases its fertility.
b) Dynamic metamorphism is caused by high temperature.
c) Soil is a renewable source.
d) Humus is a part of the top layer of soil.
Answer:
c) Soil is a renewable source.

VI. Consider the. following statements and choose the right option from the given ones:
Statement (1): Sedimentary rocks consist of many layers.
Statement (2) : Sedimentary rocks are formed by the sediments deposited at different points of time.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1
(b) 1 and 2 are correct but, 2 does not explain 1
(c) 1 is correct but, 2 is incorrect
(d) 2 is correct but, 1 is incorrect.
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1

VII. Give reasons for the following:

1. Chemical sedimentary rocks are found in the beds of reservoirs.
Answer:
Chemical Sedimentary rocks are formed by the precipitating minerals from water. It is formed usually through the evaporation of chemical-rich solutions.

2. Igneous rocks are found in the regions of volcanoes
Answer:
The formation of igneous rocks takes place when there is an outflow of molten magma.

VIII. Distinguish the following:
1. Metamorphic rock and sedimentary rock.

	Metamorphic rocks	Sedimentary rocks
i)	A rock formed by the alteration of igneous and sedimentary rocks subject to the high temperature and pressure is called metamorphic rocks.	Due to high temperature and pressure, the undisturbed sediments of long period is cemented to form sedimentary rocks.
ii)	Metamorphism is of two types: a) Thermal Metamorphism and b) Dynamic Metamorphism.	Sedimentary rocks are of three types: a) Organic Sedimentary rocks, b) Mechanical Sedimentary rocks and c) Chemical Sedimentary rocks.

2. Soil conservation and Soil erosion.

	Soil conservation	Soil erosion
i)	The process of protecting the soil from erosion to maintain its fertility.	The removal or destructive of the top layer of soil by natural forces and human activities.
ii)	Practised for the conservation of afforestation, controlled grazing, construction of dams, crop rotation, wind break, etc.	Reduces the fertility of soil which leads to the reduction in the agricultural productivity.

IX. Give short answers
1. How are igneous rocks formed?
Answer:
The igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of molten magma.

2. Describe about the composition of soil.
Answer:

• The basic components of soil are mineral, organic matter, water and air.
• It consists of about 45% mineral, 5% organic matter, 25% of water, and 25% air.
• The composition of soil varies from place to place and from time to time.

3. Define ‘rock’.
Answer:

1. The rocks are the solid mineral materials forming a part of the surface of the earth and other similar planets.
2. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. Rock is an important natural resource and is found in solid-state.
3. It may be hard or soft in nature.

4. State the types of soils.
Answer:

• Alluvial soil
• Black soil
• Red soil
• Laterites soil
• Mountain soil
• Desert soil

5. What is soil conservation?
Answer:
Soil conservation is the process of protecting the soil from erosion to maintain its fertility.

X. Give a detailed answer for the following:
1. Explain the process of soil formation.
Answer:
Soil and its Formation:

Igneous:
(i) The igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of molten magma. Also called Primary or Parent Rocks.
(ii) Types:

• Extrusive Igneous Rocks.
• Intrusive Igneous Rocks

1. Extrusive Igneous Rocks:
Molten magma which comes out from the interior of the earth’s surface gets solidified and forms such rocks. Fine-grained and glassy in nature. Eg., Basalt, found in northwestern peninsular India.

2. Intrusive Igneous rocks:
Molten magma cools down deep inside the earth’s crust, becomes solid and forms such rocks. Form large grains. Deep seated rocks are plutonic rock and ones at shallow depths – Hypabysal rocks. Example Granite, Diorite.

Sedimentary:
(i) Formed by the sediments derived and deposited by various agents. Also called stratified rocks.
(ii) Types:

• Organic sedimentary rocks
• Mechanical sedimentary rocks,
• Chemical sedimentary rocks

1. Organic sedimentary rocks:
Formed due to decomposition of dead Plants and Animals. Contains fossils. Example Chalk, Talc

2. Mechanical sedimentary rocks:
Formed from the disintegration of Igneous and metamorphic rocks. Get deposited due to erosion by natural agents. Get cemented after a long time to form rocks. Example Sandstone, Shale.

3. Chemical sedimentary rocks: Formed by precipitating of minerals from water. Formed due to evaporation of chemical rich solution. Example Rock Salt.

Metamorphic:
(i) Formed when Igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to high temperature and pressure.
(ii) Types:

• Thermal
• Dynamic

1. Thermal Metamorphic:
If the change in rocks is caused by high temperature.

2. Dynamic Metamorphic:
If the change in rock is caused by high pressure. Formed from Igneous rocks. Eg., Granite into gneiss
Formed from Sedimentary rocks. Eg., Shale into Slate

3. Give an account of different layers of soil.
Layers of soil:
O – Horizon or humus:
This layer is dominated by organic material eg: leaves
A – Horizon or Topsoil:
It is a part of topsoil composed of organic matter mixed with mineral matter.
E – Horizon or Elevated layer:
E – stands for the elevated layer. This layer is significantly leached of clay, iron and aluminium oxides, which leaves a concentration of ore.
B – Horizontal or subsoil:
This layer reflects the chemical or physical alternation or parent material. Thus iron, clay, aluminium and organic compounds are found accumulated in the Horizon.
C – Horizon or Parent Rock:
Partially weathered parent material accumulates in this layer.
R – Horizon or Parent Rock:
This layer consists of an unweathered part of the bedrock.

4. Classify and explain the soil?
Answer:
Definition: Soil is a mixture of Organic matter, minerals, gases, liquids, and organisms that together support life.

Classification of soils:
Soils are classified on the basis of their formation, colour, physical and chemical properties. Based on these, soil is classified into six major types. They are Alluvial soil, Black soil, Red soil, Laterite soil, Mountain soil, Desert soil.

Alluvial soil:

• Found in the regions of river valleys, flood plains, and coastal regions.
• Formed by the deposition of silt by the running water.
• Most productive of all soils.
• Suitable for the cultivation of sugarcane, jute, rice, wheat.

Black soils:

• Formed by weathering of igneous rocks.
• Clayey in nature.
• Retains moisture.
• Ideal for growing cotton.

Red Soils:

• Formed by weathering of metamorphic rocks and crystalline rocks.
• Found in semi-arid regions.
• Not a fertile.
• Is soil brown-red in colour due to the presence of iron oxide
• Suitable for millet cultivation.

Laterite soils:

• Formed by the process of leaching.
• Found in trophical regions, which experienced the alternate wet and dry conditions.
• Infertile soil.
• Suitable for plantation of tea and coffee.

Mountain soils:

• Found in slopes of mountains.
• Thin and acidic in nature.
• The nature of soil differs based on the altitude.

Desert soils:

• Found in the hot desert region.
• Porous and saline in nature.
• Infertile in nature.
• Agriculture is not successful.

XI. Activity Corner.

1. Complete the following table with the help of an internet source.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rocks and Soil Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. Petrology is derived from the ………….. word.
a) English
b) Latin
c) Greek
d) French
Answer:
(c) Greek

2. The soils found in the desert regions are …………..
a) Mountain Soils
b) Desert Soils
c) Black Soil
d) Red Soil
Answer:
(b) Desert Soils

3. Which Soils are formed by the weathering of metamorphic rocks?
a) Red Soils
b) Rock Soils
c) Laterite Soils
d) Mountain Soils
Answer:
(a) Red Soils

4. …………….. is a part composed of organic matter mixed with mineral matter.
a) Humus
b) Top Soil
c) Elevated layer
d) Sub-soil
Answer:
(b) Top Soil

5. The time to form one cm of soil is
a) 100 years
b) 200 years
c) 500 years
d) 1000 years
Answer:
(b) 200 years

6. …………….is known as the zone of accumulation.
a) Humus
b) Top Soil
c) Elevated layer
d) Sub-soil
Answer:
(d) Sub-soil

7. In the soil composition ………….. are minerals.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 45%
Answer:
(d) 45%

8. In the soil composition is air.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 40%.
Answer:
(c) 25%

9. ……………. soils are formed by the deposition of silt by the running water.
a) Black
b) Red
c) Alluvial
d) Desert
Answer:
(c) Alluvial

10. the Soil composition is organic matter.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 45%
Answer:
(a) 5%

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. A rock is an aggregate of ………….. or more minerals.
Answer:
one

2. There are ………….. different types of minerals found on the earth Surface.
Answer:
2000

3. Rocks are classified in to ………….. types.
Answer:
three

4. The two types of Intrusive Igneous rocks are ………….., …………..
Answer:
Plutonic rocks, Hypabysal rocks

5. Igneous Rocks are ………….. rocks
Answer:
Primary

6. ……………. into slate caused by thermal metamorphism.
Answer:
Basalt

7. Soil is a basic requirement for the growth of ………….. and …………..
Answer:
Plants, animals

8. To become a well-matured soil, it takes about ………….. years.
Answer:
3000

9. Parent Rock is converted to loose Rock by ……………
Answer:
soil

10. Laterite soil is suitable for plantation crops like ………….., …………..
Answer:
tea, coffee

III. State whether the following statements are true or false:

1. To become a well-matured soil, it taken about 2000 years.
Answer:
False

2. Lava comes out from a volcano.
Answer:
True

3. The word Ignis means rock.
Answer:
False

4. Oldest Sedimentary rocks of the world has been identified in Green land.
Answer:
True

5. Soil supports ecosystem and play an important role in land management.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:
1.

Answer:
D) 3 1 4 2

V. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
1. a) Basalt into slate caused by thermal metamorphism.
b) Chemical Sedimentary rocks are also called evaporates.
c) Taj Mahal in India was built with white marbles of Sedimentary rocks.
d) Rocks have been used by mankind throughout history.
Answer:
c) Taj Mahal in India was built with white marbles of Sedimentary rocks.

VI. Consider the following statements and choose the right option from the given ones:
1. Statement (1): Petrology is a branch of geology.
Statement (2): It deals with the Study of water researches.
a) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1
b) 1 and 2 are correct but, 2 does not explain 1
c) 1 is correct but, 2 is incorrect
d) 2 is correct but, 1 is incorrect.
Answer:
c) 1 is correct but, 2 is incorrect

VII. Give reasons for the following:
1. Why soil is known as ‘Skin of the earth’?

• Soil minerals form the basis of soil.
• It forms on the surface of the earth.
• so It is known as the ‘Skin of the earth’:

VIII. Distinguish the following:
1. Black Soil and Red Soil.

	Black Soil	Red Soil
1.	These Soils are formed by the weathering of igneous rocks.	These soils are formed by the weathering of metamorphic rocks and crystalline rocks.
2.	It is retentive of moisture.	Iron Oxide is present.
3.	It is ideal for growing cotton.	It is Suitable for millet cultivation.

IX. Give short answers:
1. Explain about Petrology.

• Petrology is a branch of geology which deals with the study of rocks.
• ‘Petrology’ is derived from the Greek word “Petrus” refers to rock and “Logos” refers to study

2. Name the layer in the Earth.
The layer found in the Earth are namely

• Lithosphere
• Hydrosphere
• Atmosphere
• Biosphere.

3. Explain the type of Igneous Rocks.

• Extrusive Igneous Rocks
• Intrusive Igneous Rocks.

X. Give a detailed answer for the following:
1. What are the uses of soil?
Answer:
Soil is one of the important natural resources. It is a basic requirement for plant growth and supports various life forms on the earth.

• The minerals present in the soil enhance and nourishes the crops and plants.
• It is used in the making of ceramics or pottery.
• It is a source of material for construction and handicraft works.
• It acts as a natural filter of water and purifies it.
• Soil supports the ecosystem and plays an important role in land management.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 2 The Red-Headed League Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 2 The Red-Headed League

7th English Guide The Red-Headed League Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 133)

A. Say whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’.

1. Photography was Vincent Spaulding’s hobby.
Answer:
False

2. Mr. Ross did not want to hire Mr. Wilson.
Answer:
False

3. Mr. Wilson worked for Mr. Ross for six weeks.
Answer:
False

4. Mr. Jones was a lawyer.
Answer:
False

5. Spaulding dug a tunnel from the cellar of the shop to the jewellery shop.
Answer:
False

B. Complete the table based on the information from the text.

Answer:

S.No	Holme’s Findings	Clues
1.	Mr. Holmes found the tunnel.	Cellar was behind the shop.
2.	Mr. Spaulding dug the tunnel.	Mr. Spaulding’s trousers were dirty.
3.	The tunnel was made to get into the bank’s strong room.	The Bank is at the back of the shop.
4.	Spaulding could be the thief.	Happy to work for half wages.

C. Answer the following questions.

1. Why did Jabez Wilson meet Mr. Holmes?
Answer:
Jabez Wilson was disturbed very much as someone had been playing a practical joke on him. He met Holmes to find a solution to his problem.

2. Describe Vincent Spaulding.
Answer:
Vincent Spaulding is the assistant of Wilson. He is also known as John Clay. He works in Wilson’s pawnshop for half-wage in order to rob the bank by making a tunnel from the pawnshop to the stoned floor of the Bank. Finally, he is caught by Mr. Holmes.

3. Why did Spaulding spend a lot of time in the cellar?
Answer:
Spaulding spent a lot of time in the cellar to make a tunnel connecting the pawnshop of Mr. Wilson and the bank.

4. Why was Mr. Wilson hired to copy the Encyclopaedia?
Answer:
Wilson was hired to copy the Encyclopaedia because the men with red hair could apply to that job.

5. How did Holmes’ team catch the thieves?
Answer:
Holmes suspected that there was a cellar at the back of the pawn shop connecting to the Bank room. He along with Jones waited at the Bank room to catch the thief red-handed when they came through the stoned floor.

D. Based on your reading of the text complete the pyramid by arranging the sequence in the correct order.

• Holmes found the tunnel from the cellar to the bank’s strong room.
• Wilson was assigned to copy the encyclopedia.
• Wilson asked Sherlock Holmes for help.
• Wilson got the job in The Red-Headed League.
• Spaulding and Ross were caught by the famous detective.
• One day he found the notice that ‘The Red-Headed League’ was dissolved.
• Holmes recognised Spaulding who was actually John Clay, a notorious criminal.

PROJECT

E. Here is the sample of an advertisement of a circus.
Imagine you have visited a Mystery Theme Park you have come across. Make an eye-catching advertisement with the help of the given clues.
A mirror maze  Scary faces   A ghostly figure    A pitch dark room

Are you ready to discover the mysterical world? Face your fears @ The Mystery Theme Park Special features:

• A mirror maze
• Scary faces
• eerie sounds
• A ghostly figure
• A pitch dark room

Hurry up! Adventurous journey is awaiting for you! Don’t miss the chance! Enjoy your moments!

Connecting to Self

F. Observe the pictures carefully and write your answers.

I will immediately call my neighbours or ring to my parents if I feel very anxious.

I will never get chocolates from strange persons. I will simply ignore and move at once.

STEP TO SUCCESS

G. Just like the examples, use the key to fill in the blanks and break the codes.

Example:

Answer:

The Red-Headed League Summary in English

Sherlock Holmes knocks the door. Spaulding opens the door. His runs are dirty. Holmes finds out that Spaulding is a notorious thief named John Clay. He digs a tunnel to the strong room of the nearby bank. So, Holmes and other men wait in the strong an advertisement to his master Wilson. The ad promises a high salary for little work for the Redhair man Wilson joins duty of the Red-headed League. Suddenly the office of the Red-Headed league gets closed. Wilson is confused. He meets Holmes to look into this case and find out the solution. Holmes found the truth.

The Red-Headed League Summary in Tamil

‘ஷெர்லாக் ஹோம்ஸ் கதவை தட்டுகிறார். ஸ்பால்டிங் கதவை திறக்கிறார். அவனது கால்கள் மண்ணாய், அழுக்காய் உள்ளன. ஸ்பால்டிங் ஒரு பெரிய திருடன். அவன் பெயர் ஜான்க்ளே . அவன் பக்கத்தில் உள்ள வங்கியின் இரகசிய அறைக்கு சுரங்கம் தோண்டுகிறான் என்பதை ஹோம்ஸ் அறிந்து கொண்டார். எனவே ஹோம்ஸ் மற்றும் சில அதிகாரிகள் இரகசிய அறையில் ஒளிந்து கொள்கிறார்கள். சுரங்கம் வழியே வந்த திருடனை பிடித்து விட்டனர். ஸ்பால்டிங் தன் கடை எஜமானரிடம் ஒரு விளம்பரத்தை காட்டுகிறான். சிவப்பு தலைமயிர் உள்ள நபருக்கு நல்ல சம்பளத்தில் வேலை தரப்படும் என்று விளம்பரத்தில் இருக்கவே, தீடீர் என அந்த அலுவலகம் மூடப்படுகிறது. குழம்பிய வில்சன் ஷெர்லாக் ஹோம்ஸ் உதவியை நாடுகிறான். ஹோம்ஸ், ஸ்பால்டிங் சுரங்கம் தோண்டியதை கண்டறிந்து வங்கி கொள்ளையை தடுத்து விடுகிறான்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 3 Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Prose Chapter 3 Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist

8th English Guide Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 63)

In pairs, identify the great thinkers of the world and write the names from the box. (Text Book Page No. 63)

Section – I
Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 66)

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 66)

A. Fill in the blanks.

1. Isaac Newton was born at ……………
Answer:
Woolsthorpe

2. Grandmother was advised to apprentice him to a ……………
Answer:
clockmaker

3. Isaac made a clock, by the dropping of ……………
Answer:
water

4. The sun-dial made by Isaac is still in existence at ……………
Answer:
Woolsthorpe

5. Isaac constructed a model of the …………….
Answer:
windmill

B. Choose the correct synonyms for the italicized words.

1. Isaac was chiefly remarkable for his ingenuity.
a) common
b) notable
c) neglected
d) unknown
Answer:
b) notable

2. He will make a capital workman.
a) wealth
b) excellent
c) profitable
d) head
Answer:
d) head

3. Nobody could tell what the sunshine was composed of.
a) made
b) known
c) full
d) felt
Answer:
a) made

4. But he cared little for earthly fame and honors.
a) disrespect
b) attraction
c) proud
d) popularity
Answer:
a) disrespect

Section – II
Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 69)

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 69)

A. Choose the correct Synonyms for the italicized word.

1. His Grandmother was very kind to him.
a) affectionate
b) loving
c) disrespectful
d) cruel.
Answer:
d) cruel

2. The boy seemed to have a taste for mathematics.
a) delicious
b) sweet
c) dislike
d) against
Answer:
c) dislike

3. Isaac possessed a wonderful faculty of acquiring knowledge.
a) owned
b) controlled
c) lacks
d) have
Answer:
c) lacks

4. He was observed to be usually busy with his tools.
a) common
b) rarely
c) unwantedly
d) usually
Answer:
b) rarely

B. Answer the following questions in one or two. (Text Book Page No. 70)

1. Who was taking care of Newton after his father’s death?
Answer:
His grandmother was taking care of Newton after his father’s death.

2. What did Isaac manufacture at his young age?
Answer:
Issac manufactured many curious articles at a young age.

3. How did the young boy find the strength of the wind?
Answer:
The young boy found the strength of the wind by first jumping against the wind. According to the length of his jump, he could calculate the force of a gentle breeze, a brisk gale or a tempest.

4. Why were his friends attracted by the windmill?
Answer:
The playmates of Newton were attracted by the model of windmill. They thought it to be pretty and wonderful.

5. How was Newton honored by the king?
Answer:
Newton was made a Member of the Parliament and received the honour of knighthood from the king.

C. Answer the following in about 100 words.

1. Why did Newton’s friends advise his grandmother to apprentice him to a clockmaker?
Answer:
Issac seemed to have taste for mathematics besides his mechanical skills. His taste for Maths would be useful to him in clock making. Issac made a kind of clock which would work by the dropping of water. Besides the water clock, Issac made a sun-dial. The sundial is said to be in still in existence at Woolsthorpe, on the comer of the house where Issac dwelt.

2. How did Newton learn about the way a windmill operated?
Answer:
Newton frequently went to the windmill that operated on a new plan. He spent hours examining the various parts of the windmill. When the mill was not working, he examined its internal machinery. When the windmill’s broad sails were in motion by the wind, Newton examined the process by which the mill-stones revolved and crushed the grains, put into its hopper. Thus Newton gained a thorough knowledge of the construction and operation of the windmill.

3. Mention some of Newton’s inventions.
Answer:
Reflecting telescope, laws of motion, law of gravity are the famous inventions of Sir Issac Newton. He also discovered Calculus. He was the first one to find out the nature of light. He searched out the laws by which the planets are guided through the sky.

Vocabulary (Text Book Page No. 70)

Prefix and Suffix
a. Underline the prefix in each word in the boxes: (Text Book Page No. 71)

b. Pick a suitable Prefix and suffix from the given box and complete the following words:
able, ful, ly, sub, ion, un, tri, re, im, mis

Syllabification

Syllabify the words: (Text Book Page No. 73)

1. education – 4 Syllables
2. school – 1 Syllable
3. college – 2 Syllables
4. English – 2 Syllables
5. opportunity – 4 Syllables
6. friend – 1 Syllable
7. teacher – 2 Syllables
8. simultaneously – 6 Syllables
9. laboratory – 4 Syllables
10. beneficiary – 5 Syllables

Listening (Text Book Page No. 74)

Listen to the passage carefully and write the answer.

Note: The listening passage is given on page no. 227
Questions:
1. Name the scientist.
Answer:
The name of the scientist was Sir Alexander Fleming.

2. What did he discover?
Answer:
He discovered Penicillin.

3. Who approached the scientist?
Answer:
Two journalists approached the scientist.

4. What was the question by the journalist?
Answer:
The journalists wished to know what a great scientist would think before his breakfast.

5. When did they meet the scientist?
Answer:
They met the scientist when he was about to have his breakfast.

Speaking (Text Book Page No. 74)

Take a few minutes and make hints of the picture. Arrange your thoughts. Using the points you write, deliver a small speech focusing the issue picturised here. Give an interesting and informative speech. Your speech should include the cause and the solution.

Tips for effective speaking:

• Organise your points and ideas well.
• Don’t memorise the speech. If you forget a point, it will make you nervous.
• Avoid the things that are of no value or interest to the audience.
• Before you speak, take a deep breath, smile, greet the audience.
• Don’t be nervous about making a mistake.
• Interesting speech makes your mistakes nothing.

In this picture, we see a number of chimneys emitting smoke. These buildings may be factories or mills. There are green lawns and a few trees found in this picture. We also see a number of vehicles on the road. The smoke from the factories and vehicles create air pollution and noise pollution. There is a water source and dumping of garbage is found in the lower part of the picture. The garbage will make the water polluted. Water is already scarce in our towns. We must take serious remedial measures against air pollution, water pollution, and noise pollution to save our environment. We must promote eco-friendliness in the young minds.

Writing (Text Book Page No. 75)

H) Write a character sketch of any character from a fiction that has made an impact on you.
Headings:

1. Introduction of the person:
Answer:
Jane, an orphan, the heroine of the fiction, ’Jane Eyre’ written by Charles Bronte is my favorite character.

2. Character:
Answer:
Jane a poor orphan, who lost both her parents at an early stage suffer hell at the house of her uncle Mr. Reed. Mr. Reed died. He liked her very much. Even when he died he asked his wife to promise of taking care of her after his death. Still, Mrs. Reed never liked Jane. Jane was treated cruelly by the children of Mrs. Reed. Once, Mrs. Reed sent Jane to a charity school at Lowood.

3. Talk about what others say about the character :
Answer:
The servant-maid Bessie sympathised with Jane for her sufferings. Miss. Temple and Miss. Miller’s teachers of the charity school at Lowood took pity on her. They felt she was too young to be sent alone like that. They thought since she knew reading and writing she would do well in her studies.

4. Write if the character appealed to you, with reasons:
Answer:
Definitely, the character of Jane is impressive. She lost her parents. She was an orphan. She was tormented in her aunt’s house. The school she studied gave her semi-starvation and unbearable cold environment. In the bathroom, they had only frozen water. In spite of the ordeal, Jane got educated. She started working as a teacher in the same school. She got an appointment as a governess in the house of Rochester at Thornfield.

5. Support your views with evidence from the text.
Answer:
Jane treats her pupil Adela, the ward of Mr. Rochester in a way that is convincing for the child. Adela likes painting, drawing, singing, and dancing. Jane appreciates her skills and talents. Adela gets attracted to Jane. Jane skilfully befriends the pupil Adela and breaks the ice. Adela starts liking Jane.

Grammar (Text Book Page No. 75)

a) Fill in the blanks by using correct preposition.

1. We go to school ____ Mondays, but not on Sunday
Answer:
on

2. Christmas falls ____ 25th December.
Answer:
on

3. Buy me a present ____ my birthday.
Answer:
on

4. Families often argue ____ Christmas time.
Answer:
in

5. I work faster ____ night.
Answer:
at

6. Her shift finished ____ 7 p.m.
Answer:
at

Model Verbs (Text Book Page No. 76)

Circle the modal verbs in the list given in the box (Text Book Page No. 75)

I. Use polite request when we seek help from others. Page – 78)
a) Fill in the blanks using would you or could you.

1. ……………. please close the door?
Answer:
Could you

2. ……………. please open the window?
Answer:
Could you

3. ……………. mind going to the backbench?
Answer:
Would you

4. ……………. please bring some water for me?
Answer:
Could you

b) Use the phrases could you or would you in the following situations with your friend.

1. Ask the policeman for directions.
Answer:
Could you direct me to the temple?

2. You need to borrow your friend’s bike.
Answer:
Could yo lend me your bike?

3. You would need to exchange the book purchased.
Answer:
Would you mind my exchanging the book purchased?

4. You want to open your classroom window.
Answer:
Would you mind opening the classroom window?

Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist Summary in English

Issac Newton was born on the Christmas day, at Woolsthrope in England in 1642. His mother got remarried after his father’s death. Newton was with his grandmother. Newton created curious articles. He became an apprentice to a clockmaker. He observed the functioning of a windmill nearby. He then contacted a model of the windmill. Newton engaged himself in mathematics and philosophy. He found the nature of light, laws of motion, law of gravity, and also calculus. He was honoured with knighthood. He was a scientist, astronomer, and also a mechanical genius.

Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist Summary in Tamil

ஐசக் நியூட்டன் 1642ம் ஆண்டு கிறிஸ்துமஸ் தினத்தன்று உல்ஸ்த்தார்ப் என்ற இடத்தில் இங்கிலாந்தில் பிறந்தார். அவரது தந்தை இறந்த பிறகு அவரின் தாயார் மறுமணம் செய்து கொண்டார். நியூட்டன் தன் பாட்டியிடம் வளர்ந்தார். நியூட்டன் ஆச்சரியமான சிறியப் பொருட்களை உருவாக்கினார். கடிகாரம் செய்பவரிடம் தொழில் கற்கும் வேலைக்கு அமர்ந்தார். அருகில் உள்ள காற்றாலையின் செயல்பாட்டை உற்று நோக்கியவர் ஒரு சிறிய காற்றாலை மாதிரியை தானே உருவாக்கினார். நியூட்டன் கணிதம், தத்துவம் போன்ற புத்தகங்களைப் படிப்பதில் தன்னை ஈடுபடுத்திக் கொண்டார். அவர் ஒளியின் இயல்பு, இயக்க விதிகள், புவி ஈர்ப்பு விசை விதி போன்றவற்றைக் கண்டுபிடித்தார். அவர் வானியல், அறிவியல் மட்டுமல்ல, இயந்திரங்களை இயக்குவதிலும் வல்லுனராய் திகழ்ந்தார்.

Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist About the Author in English

The biography of Sir Isaac Newton was published in Nathaniel Hawthorne’s, True Stories from History and Biography (1851). As Newton observed after a life¬time of discoveries: “I seem to myself like a child,” he observed, “playing on the seashore, and picking up here and there a curious shell or a pretty pebble, while the boundless ocean of truth lies undiscovered before me”.

Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist About the Author in Tamil

சர் ஐசக் நியூட்டனின் – வாழ்க்கை சரிதம், நாதனியல் ஹாத்தார்ன் என்பவரால் 1851ஆம் ஆண்டு வெளியிடப்பட்டது. “சரித்திரம் மற்றும் வாழ்க்கை சரிதம்: இவற்றின் உண்மைக் கதைகள்” என்ற புத்தகம் அது நியூட்டன் தன் வாழ்நாள் கண்டுபிடிப்புகளுக்கு பிறகு சொன்னார், ‘நான் ஒரு குழந்தை போன்றவன். கடற்கரையில் சில சிப்பிகளையும் அழகிய கூழாங்கற்களையும் தான் கண்டெடுத்துள்ளேன். இன்னும் கண்டுபிடிக்க வேண்டிய விஷயங்கள் கரைகாணாத கடல் போல் என்முன்னே உள்ளன’.