Category: Class 11

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Identify the correct sequence regarding lytic cycle of viruses.
(i) Penetration
(ii) Adsorption
(iii) Assembly
(iv) Synthesis
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(b) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Question 2.
Zygote meiosis is characterisitic of ………………………
(a) Marchantia
(b) Fucus
(c) Funaria
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(d) Chlamydomonas

Question 3.
Pinus roots are in symbiotic relationship with ……………………
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Mycorrhiza

Question 4.
Climbers are also called as ……………………
(a) Herbs
(b) Trees
(c) Vines
(d) Shrubs
Answer:
(c) Vines

Question 5.
Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower bud is called ………………………
(a) Adhesion
(b) Aestivation
(c) Placentation
(d) Cohesion
Answer:
(b) Aestivation

Question 6.
Cell cycle was discovered by ………………………
(a) Singer & Nicholson
(b) Prevost & Dumans
(c) Schleider & Schwann
(d) Boveri
Answer:
(b) Prevost & Dumans

Question 7.
Parenchyma storing calcium carbonate crystals are called ……………………
(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Elaioplasts
(c) Idioblasts
(d) Chromoplasts
Answer:
(c) Idioblasts

Question 8.
Which of the following is a free – living bacterium?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Escherichia
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(b) Clostridium

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Distinguish between deoxyviruses and riboviruses?
Answer:

Deoxyviruses	Riboviruses
1. Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV	1. Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g: Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV)

Question 10.
What is plant morphology?
Answer:
Plant morphology also known as external morphology deals with the study of shape, size and structure of plants and their parts like (roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds).

Question 11.
Differentiate Regional Flora from continental flora?
Answer:

Regional Flora	Continental Flora
1. Flora covering a large geographical area or a botanical region Eg: flora of Madras Presidency.	1. Flora covering the entire continent. Eg: flora of Europaea.

Question 12.
Define C – Value?
Answer:
C-Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

Question 13.
Expand and Define TP?
Answer:
TP stands for Turgor pressure. When a plant cell is placed in pure water (hypotonie solution) the diffusion of water into the cell takes place by endosmosis. It creates a positive hydrostatic pressure on the rigid cell wall by the cell membrane.

Hence forth the pressure exerted by the ccli membrane towards the cell wall is Turgor Pressure (TP).

Question 14.
Mention the events of Photochernical phase of light reaction?
Answer:
Photocheinical Phase:

1. Photolysis of water and oxygen evolution
2. Electron transport and synthesis of assimilatory power.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fossil sites of India?
Answer:

Question 16.
What is a liana? Mention its importance?
Answer:
Liana is a vine that is perennial and woody. Lianas are major components in the tree canopy layer of some tropical forests. e.g., Ventilago.

Question 17.
Enumerate the steps ino1ed in herbarium preparation?
Answer:
Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps.

1. Plant Collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Mounting herbarium specimen
5. Herbarium labels
6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects

Question 18.
Draw and label the open vascular bundle?
Answer:

Question 19.
When does an essential mineral is considered as a “toxic”?
Answer:
Increase of mineral nutrients more than the normal concentration causes toxicity. A concentration, at which 10 % of the dry weight of tissue is reduced, is considered as toxic.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Tabulate the economic importance of algae?
Answer:

[OR]

Explain Datura metal in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram?
Answer:
1. Habit:
Large, erect and stout herb.

2. Root:
Branched tap root system.

3. Stem:
Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.

4. Leaf:
Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation.

5. Inflorescence:
Solitary and axillary cyme.

6. Flower:
Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogyncas.

7. Calyx:
Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistant, odd sepal is posterior in position.

8. Corolla:
Petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.

9. Androecium:
Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, altemipefalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.

10. Gynoecium:
Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically biloculear but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.

11. Fruit:
Spinescent capsule opening by four special valves with persistent calyx.

12. Seed:
Endospermous

13. Floral Formula:

Question 21.
Describe the types of transpiration in plants?
Answer:
Types of Transpiration: Transpiration is of following three types:

1. Stomatal transpiration:
Stomata are microscopic structures present in high number on the lower epidermis of leaves. This is the most dominant form of transpiration and being responsible for most of the water loss (90 – 95%) in plants.

2. Lenticular transpiration:
In stems of woody plants and trees, the epidermis is replaced by periderm because of secondary growth. In order to provide gaseous exchange between the living cells and outer atmosphere, some pores which looks like lens – shaped raised spots are present on the surface of the stem called Lenticels. The loss of water from lenticels is very insignificant as it amounts to only 0.1% of the total.

3. Cuticular transpiration:
The cuticle is a waxy or resinous layer of cutin, a fatty substance covering the epidermis of leaves and other plant parts. Loss of water through cuticle is relatively small and it is only about 5 to 10 % of the total transpiration. The thickness of cuticle increases in xerophytes and transpiration is very much reduced or totally absent.

[OR]

Describe the concept of Phytochrome?
Answer:
Phytochrome is a bluish biliprotein pigment responsible for the perception of light in photo physiological process. But at (1959) named this pigment and it exists in two interconvertible forms:

(I) Red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_r and

(II) Far red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs red light in 660 nm and changes to P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs far red light in 730 nm and changes to P_r.

The P_r form is biologically inactive and it is stable whereas Pfr form is biologically active and it is very unstable. In short day plants, P_r promotes flowering and P_fr inhibits the flowering whereas in long day plants flowering is promoted by P_fr and inhibited by P_r form.

P_fr is always associated with hydrophobic area of membrane systems while P_r is found in diffused state in the cytoplasm. The interconversion of the two forms of phytochrome is mainly involved in flower induction and also additionally plays a role in seed germination and changes in membrane conformation.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Entomology is concerned with the study of ……………………..
(a) Formation and properties of soil
(b) Agricultural practices
(c) Various aspects of human life
(d) Various aspects of insect
Answer:
(d) Various aspects of insect

Question 2.
Which is the site of production of blood cells?
(a) Cartilage
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Blood
(d) Plasma
Answer:
(b) Bone marrow

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

List – I	List – II
1. Lipase	(i) Protein
2. Pepsin	(ii) Lipid
3. Renin	(iii) Starch
4. Ptyalin	(iv) Cassein

(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
ESV stands for ……………………..
(a) Endocard Systolic Volume
(b) End Systolic Volume
(c) Endocard Sound Volume
(d) Endocard Sinoatrial Volume
Answer:
(b) End Systolic Volume

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(b) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes
Answer:
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste
(b) Basal epithelial cells are stem cells which divide and differentiate into new gustatory cells
(c) Gustatory hairs project form the tip of the gustatory cells
(d) Gustatory cells are sensory portion of the taste
Answer:
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste

Question 7.
Serum Calcium level is regulated by …………………….
(a) Thyroxine
(b) FSH
(c) Pancreas Assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid
Answer:
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid

Question 8.
Ca⁺ metabolism is regulated by …………………..
(a) ACTH
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Parathormone
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(a) ACTH

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Phylogenetic tree?
Answer:
A phylogenetic tree or evolutionary tree is a branching diagram or “tree”, showing the inferred evolutionary relationships upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.

Question 10.
Write about Marbled cone snail?
Answer:
Marbled Cone Snail (Conus marmoreus):
This cone – shaped snail can deliver dangerous venom which may result in vision loss, respiratory failure, muscle paralysis and eventually death. There is no anti – venom available.

Question 11.
Differences between male and female cockroach?
Answer:

Question 12.
Define Floating ribs?
Answer:
The last 11^th and 12^th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally. Therefore, they are called as ‘floating ribs’ or vertebral ribs.

Question 13.
Write a note on Tetany?
Answer:
Tetany is caused due to the hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Due to hyposecretion of PTH serum calcium level decreases (Hypocalcemia), as a result serum phosphate level increases.

Calcium and phosphate excretion level decreses. Generalized convulsion, locking of jaws increased heart beat rate, increases body temperature, muscular spasm are the major symptoms of tetany.

Question 14.
Draw the diagram of large intestine?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is the need for classification?
Answer:
The basic need for classification are:

1. To identify and differentiate closely related species.
2. To know the variation among the species.
3. To understand the evolution of the species.
4. To create a phylogenetic tree among the different groups.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Diploblastic and Triploblastic animals?
Answer:

S.No	Diploblastic animals	Triploblastic animals
1.	The animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the ectoderm and endoderm are called diploblastic animals.	The animals in which the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers, the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic animals.
2.	These are lower organisms, eg. Cnidaria, Ctenophora	These are higher organisms, eg. Platyhelminthes to mammalia.

Question 17.
Write a short note on connective tissue?
Answer:

1. Connective tissue develops from the mesoderm.
2. Connective tissue proper, Cartilage, bones and blood are the four main classes of connective tissues.
3. Binding, support, protection, insulation and transportation of substances are the major functions of connective tissue.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of Lamnito mauritii?
Answer:

Question 19.
Define cross breedin?
Answer:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed is known as cross breeding.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Who proposed the five kingdom classification? Represent the Five kingdom Classification in a tabular format?
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the Five kingdom Classification, the Kingdoms defined by him were Monera, Prgtista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia based on the cell structure, mode of nutrition, mode of reproduction and phylogenetic relationships. The table below gives a, comparative account of different characteristics of the five kingdoms.

[OR]

Explain the mechanism of breathing?
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as ventilation or breathing. Inspiration and expiration are the two phases of breathing. Inspiration is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs and expiration is the movement of alveolar air that diffuse out of the lungs.

Lungs do not contain muscle fibres but expands and contracts by the movement of the ribs and diaphragm. The diaphragm is a sheet of tissue which separates the thorax from the abdomen. In a relaxed state, the diaphragm is domed shaped.

Ribs are moved by the intercostal muscles. External and internal intercostal muscles found between the ribs and the diaphragm helps in creating pressure gradients.

Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs (intrapulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric pressure likewise expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiraton is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and outwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso – ventral axis, forcing the lungs to expand the pulmonary volume.

The increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in the intrapulmonary pressure forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure. This process is called inspiration.

Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the diaphragm and sternum to return to its dome shape and the internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume.

This results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs. This process is called expiration.

Question 21.
What are the benefits of regular exercise?
Answer:
Regular exercises can produce the following beneficial physiological changes:

1. The muscles used in exercise grow larger and strongcr
2. More enzymes are synthesized in the muscle fibre
3. Ligaments and tendons become stronger
4. Influences hormonal &tivity
5. Prcvcnts Obesity
6. Aesthetically bettcr with good physique
7. Over all well-bcing with good quality of life
8. Prevents depression, stress and anxiety
9. The resting heart rate goes down
10. Joints become more flexible
11. Protection from hcart attack
12. Improves cognitive functions
13. Promotes confidence, esteem

During muscular exercise, there is an increase in metabolism. The O₂ need of the muscles is increased. This requirement is met with more oxygen rich RBCs available to the active sites. There is an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. Along with balanced diet, physical activity plays a significant role in strengthening the muscles and bones.

[OR]

What are the types of chicken breeds in Poultry Farming?
Answer:
There are more than 100 breeds. The commonly farmed chicken breeds are categorized into five based on the purpose for which it is farmed. They are egg layers, broiler type, dual type, games and ornamental types.

1. Egg layers: These are farmed mainly for the production of egg.

Leghorn:
This is the most popular commercial breed in India and originated from Italy. They are small, compact with a single comb and wattles with white, brown or black colour.

They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months. Hence these are preferred in commercial farms. They can also thrive well in dry areas.

Chittagong:
It is the breed chiefly found in West Bengal. They are golden or light yellow coloured. The beak is long and yellow in colour. Ear lobes and wattles are small and red in colour. They are good egg layers and are delicious.

2. Broiler type: These are well known for fast growth and soft quality meat.

White Plymouth rock:
They have white plumage throughout the body. It is commonly used in broiler production. This is an American breed. It is a fast growing breed and well suitable for growing intensively in confined farms.

3. Dual purpose breeds: These are for both meat and egg production purpose.

Brahma:
It is a breed popularly known for its massive body having heavy bones, well feathered and proportionate body. Pea comb is one of the important breed characters. It has two common varieties namely, Light Brahma and Dark Brahma.

4. Game breeds: Since ancient times, special breed of roosters have been used for the sport of cockfighting.

Aseel:
This breed is white or black in colour. The hens are not good egg layers but are good in incubation of eggs. It is found in all states of India. Aseel is noted for its pugnacity, high stamina, and majestic gait and dogged fighting qualities. Although poor in productivity, this breed is well-known for their meat qualities.

5. Ornamental breeds: Ornamental chicken are reared as pets in addition to their use for egg production and meat.

Silkie:
It is a breed of chicken has a typical fluffy plumage, which is said to feel like silk and satin. The breed has numerous additional special characters, such as black skin and bones, blue earlobes, and five toes on each foot, while the majority chickens only have four.

They are exhibited in poultry shows, and come out in various colours. Silkies are well recognized for their calm, friendly temperament. Silkie chicken is especially simple to maintain as pets.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
(a) Central bank
(b) Commercial bank
(c) Co – operative banks
(d) Foreign banks
Answer:
(a) Central bank

Question 2.
Which one is not land transport?
(a) Pack animals
(b) Bullock cart
(c) Tramways
(d) Liner
Answer:
(d) Liner

Question 3.
Occupation of a Doctor is called …………………..
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
(c) Profession

Question 4.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I	List – II
(i) Wholesaler	1. Mercantile agent
(ii) Retailer	2. Particular line of products
(iii) Single line stores	3. Small qunatities
(iv) Broker	4. First middlemen

Answer:
Codes:

Question 5.
Primary industries may be divided as follows:
(I) Extractive industries
(II) Manufacturing industries
(III) Genetic industries
(IV) Construction industries
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)

Question 6.
Centralised control in MNCs implies control exercised by ………………………
(a) Branches
(b) Subsidiaries
(c) Headquarters
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Headquarters

Question 7.
Large scale fixed retailers include ………………………..
(a) Super markets
(b) Speciality stores
(c) General stores
(d) Second shops
Answer:
(a) Super markets

Question 8.
Exim Bank was set up in the year ……………………..
(a) 1949
(b) 1972
(c) 1935
(d) 1982
Answer:
(d) 1982

Question 9.
Social responsibility towards employees represents the following except ………………………
(a) Reasonable remuneration
(b) Proper facilities
(c) Social security
(d) Exploitation
Answer:
(d) Exploitation

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Imperial bank – Mumbai
(b) RBI – 2013
(c) RTGS – Commercial bank
(d) Development banks – SBI
Answer:
(d) Development banks – SBI

Question 11.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………………
(a) Government company
(b) Multinational company
(c) Private company
(d) Joint venture
Answer:
(b) Multinational company

Question 12.
The money can be withdrawn from the PPF, after …………………….. years.
(a) 14
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 13.
The exporters appoint a ……………………. to fulfill the customs formalities.
(a) Clearing agent
(b) Forwarding agent
(c) Commission agent
(d) Factor
Answer:
(b) Forwarding agent

Question 14.
The compensation given for breach of contract is ………………………..
(a) Damage
(b) Remuneration
(c) Money
(d) Cheque
Answer:
(a) Damage

Question 15.
Ethics is important for ………………………
(a) Top management
(b) Middle level managers
(c) Non – managerial employees
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 16.
World Bank is located at ……………………..
(a) Washington DC
(b) Newyork
(c) Tokyo
(d) Hongkong
Answer:
(a) Washington DC

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a function of a central bank?
(a) Guiding and regulating the banking system of country
(b) Deal with the general public
(c) Acts as government banker
(d) Maintains deposit accounts of all other bank
Answer:
(b) Deal with the general public

Question 18.
Dispersal of decision making power to branches/affiliates/subsidiaries is by the head officer represents ………………………..
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Power
(d) Integration
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation

Question 19.
The document which authorises to deliver the goods either in part or full is called ………………………….
(a) Warehouse warrant
(b) Dock receipt
(c) Dock warrant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Dock warrant

Question 20.
Which of the following holder is given voting rights?
(a) Debentures
(b) Preference shares
(c) Equity shares
(d) Bonds
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Warehouses mean the places to store the goods for future purpose. It renders invaluable services to the society by performing the various functions. Give any three functions of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 22.
Murugan is the famous auditor in Madurai. Identify the type of economic activity highlighted in the case. Write the meaning of it?
Answer:
The economic activity highlighted in this case is profession. Profession means something which is more than a job. For the profession a special qualification is necessary. The income from the profession is professional fee. It may be different from one profession to another profession.

Question 23.
Define commerce?
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”.

Question 24.
Insurance covers different types of risks. It can be broadly classified into

1. Life insurance
2. Non – life insurance. What is the other name for Non – life insurance? How it is classified?

Answer:
The other name for Non – life insurance is called as General insurance. It can be further classified into:

1. Fire insurance
2. Marine insurance
3. Health insurance
4. Miscellaneous insurance

Question 25.
Write any two differences between warehouse warrant and warehouse receipt?
Answer:

Warehouse Warrant	Warehouse Receipt
1. It is a document of title of goods.	1. It is not a document of title of goods.
2. It is not only an acknowledgement for the receipt of goods but also gives an authority to get delivery of goods by the owner or by third party.	2. It is only an acknowledgement for the receipt of goods.

Question 26.
Briefly explain the need for Debit card?
Answer:
ATM card is also called debit card. This card is more useful in purchase of goods and services anywhere in India if the shop maintains a swiping machine facility.

Question 27.
What is a Statutory Company?
Answer:
Companies are established by a Special Act passed in Parliament or State Assembly. Rules relating to day – to – day management of statutory companies are specified in the Articles of Association (AOA). Examples: LIC, RBI, Railways, etc.

Question 28.
Write any two advantages of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low cost countries and produce goods/services at lower cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at least possible cost.

Question 29.
How the RBI is acting as banker to the government?
Answer:
RBI is acting as a banker to the government. It is one of the traditional functions of RBI. It accepts money into central and state government’s accounts and make payments on their behalf. It manages the governments debts. It advises the government and the terms of new loans.

Question 30.
Write short note on debentures?
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
At first the co – operative movement was started by Robert Owen in the year 1844. Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s cooperative society in England with 28 workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

Question 32.
List the steps in factoring process?
Answer:
Factoring is derived from a Latin term “facere” which means ‘to make or do’. Factoring is an arrangement wherein the trade debts of a company are sold to a financial institution at a discount.

Factoring Process:

1. The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution.
2. Whenever goods are sold on credit basis, an invoice is prepared and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.
3. The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through assignment.
4. On the due date, the amount is collected by the factor from the customer.
5. After retaining the service fees, the remaining amount is sent to the firm by the factor.

Question 33.
List out the products produced by MSME in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, MSMEs sector produces a wide variety of products in almost all fields. The prominent among them are the textile, electronic products, engineering products, auto ancillaries, leather products, chemicals, plastics, garments, jewellery etc.

Question 34.
What do you understand by Burglary Insurance?
Answer:
Burglary Insurance: This policy comes under the category of insurance of property. Any loss of damage due to theft, larceny, burglary, house breaking and acts of nature are covered by this policy. Compensation of actual loss is done.

Question 35.
It is the oldest form of organisation. It is administrated by a separate department. What is the form of organisation? Describe any three features of this organisation?
Answer:
1. Formation:
A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.

2. No Separate Entity:
A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

3. Accounting and Audit:
The departmental undertaking is subject to the normal budgeting, accounting and audit procedures, which are applicable to all Government departments.

Question 36.
Mention any three rights of partners?
Answer:
Rights of Partners;

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.
2. Right to consult: Every partner has the right to consult in all the matters concerning the firm.
3. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no ratio is specified in the deed, the profit must be shared equally.

Question 37.
Explain the features of general stores?
Answer:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day – to – day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities. They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers.

Question 38.
It is a policy taken as a safeguard against the medical costs. It is a contract between an insurer and an individual or a group. What is the name of the policy? Mention a few points about this?
Answer:
In mid 80’s, most of the hospitals in India were government owned and treatment was free of cost. With the advent of Private Medical Care, the need for Health Insurance was felt and various Insurance Companies introduced Health Insurance as a Product. Presently the health insurance exists primarily in the form of ‘Mediclaim policy’.

Question 39.
Without money customers can purchase costly articles with this method. It is useful to Middle – class people. There are two methods- hire purchase and installment system. Mention any three differences between hire purchase and installment system?
Answer:

Question 40.
What is meant by government company?
Answer:
A “Government company” is defined under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 as “any company in which not less than 51% of the paid – up share capital, is held by the Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company”.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Compare business with profession and employment?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the different types of warehouses on the basis of ownership?
Answer:

• Private Warehouses: Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.
• Government Warehouses: They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.
• Public Warehouse: It is open for public at large. Most of the business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.
• Co-operative Warehouses: There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co-operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are setup to provide warehousing facilities to their members.
• Bonded Warehouses: Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed
  by the government to accept storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non-payment of customs duty by the importer.

Question 42 (a).
Discuss the advantages of transport?
Answer:
(A) Advantages of railway transport:

1. Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It can provide long distance travel throughout the day and night with unbroken services.

(B) Advantages of inland waterways:

1. It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

(C) Advantages of air transport:

1. It provides a regular, convenient, efficient and quick service.
2. Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, egg, meat, etc., can be transported quickly.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of insurance?
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details’regarding insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest qause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 43 (a).
Business owned by a single person is known as sole trading business. He contributes the required capital. Explain the characteristics of sole trading business?
Answer:

1. Ownership by one man: This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions: Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
3. Unlimited Liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.
4. Enjoying Entire Profit: He strives tirelessly for the improvement and expansion of his business and enjoys all the benefits of his hard work.
5. Absence of Government Regulation: A sole proprietor concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation, management or in its closure.
6. No Separate Entity: The sole trading concern comes to an end with death, disability, insanity and insolvency of the individual.
7. Maintenance of Secrecy: Since he/she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

[OR]

(b) What are the rights of a partner?
Answer:

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.
2. Right to be consultant: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all the matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.
3. Right of access to books, record and document: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.
4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit – sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.
5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 44 (a).
Briefly explain the auxiliaries to trade?
Answer:
1. Commerce includes not only trade but also services such as transport, warehousing, packaging, insurance, banking and sales promotion which are incidental or auxiliaries to trade.

2. Trade: The term trade is used to denote buying and selling. Therefore who buys and sells is a trader. A trader is a middleman between the producer and the consumer.

3. Transportation: Goods produced are to be sent to different places where they are demanded. It is done by transporting.

4. Banking: To start the business or to run it smoothly, we need money. Banks supply money in the form of loan. Business activities cannot be undertaken unless funds are available. The funds can be obtained from the bank.

5. Insurance: Business involves many types of risks. Factory building, machinery, furniture must be protected against fire, theft and other risks. Employees are also protected against the risk of accident. Insurance provides protection in all such cases.

6. Warehousing: Usually goods are not sold or consumed immediately after the production. They are to be kept in stock to make them available as and when required. Warehousing helps the firms to overcome the problem of storage and stores the goods for future usage.

[OR]

(b) A Joint stock company is a distinct form of business organisation. It is useful to overcome the limitations of sole trader and partnership. There are so many features of company. What are the characteristics of Joint stock company?
Answer:
Characteristics of a Joint stock Company:
1. Separate legal entity:
Under Incorporation a company becomes a separate legal entity as compared to its members. The company is distinct and different from its members.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of the members of the company is limited to contribution to the assets of the company upto the face value of shares held by him. A member is liable, to pay only the uncalled money due on shares held by him.

3. Transferability of shares:
Shares in a company can be freely transferable. When a member transfers his shares to another person, the transferee becomes the shareholder of the company.

4. Common Seal:
A company is an artificial person and does not have a physical presence. So the common seal is necessary because the company cannot sign the documents. It is the official signature of the company.

5. One Share – One Vote:
The principle of voting in a company is one share – one vote. If a person has 10 shares, he has 10 votes in the company. So in a company, money is given more importance than a man.

Question 45 (a).
List out the advantages of international trade?
Answer:

1. Geographical Specialization: Countries across the world differ significantly in terms of natural resources, capital equipment, manpower, technology and land and so on.
2. Optimum use of Natural Resources: International business operates on a simple principle that a country which can produce more efficiently and trade the surplus production with other countries has to procure what it cannot produce more efficiently.
3. Economic Development: International business helps the developing countries greatly in achieving rapid economic development by importing machinery, equipment, technology, talent, and so on.
4. Generation of Employment: International business generates employment opportunities by assisting the expansion and growth of agricultural and industrial activities.
5. Higher Standard of Living: On account of international business, the citizens of the country can buy more varieties of goods and services which cannot be produced cost effectively within the home country.
6. Price Equilisation: International business helps to stabilize the prices of various commodities which are fluctuating on a daily basis in the world market.
7. Prospects for Higher Profit: International business helps the firms which produce goods in excess to sell them at relatively higher price to various countries in the international market.
8. Capacity Utilisation: International business enables the firms across the country to sell their goods and services on a large scale in the international market.
9. International Peace: International business makes countries across the world become inter-dependent while these countries are independent in their functioning.

[OR]

(b) Write down the structure of capital account?
Answer:
Capital account consists of three components:

1. Private Capital
2. Banking Capital
3. Official Capital

1. Private Capital:
Private capital consists of foreign investments, long term loan and foreign currency deposits.

2. Banking Capital:
Banking capital includes movement into external financial asset and liabilities commercial and co-operative banks authorized to dealing in foreign exchange.

3. Official Capital:
It includes RBI’s holdings of foreign currency and special drawing rights (SDR) held by the Government.

Question 46 (a).
What are the advantages of sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Easy Formation:
No legal formalities are required to initiate a sole trading concern. Any person capable of entering into a contract can start it, provided he has the necessary resources for it.

2. Incentive to Work hard:
There is a direct relationship between effort and reward. The fact that the entire profit can be taken by himself without sharing with anybody else induces him to work ceaselessly.

3. Small Capital:
Small capital is an important as well as specific advantage of sole proprietorship. Sole proprietor can start business with small capital.

4. Credit Standing:
Since his private properties are held liable for satisfying business debts, he can get more financial assistance from others.

5. Personal Contact with the Customers:
Since sole proprietor knows each and every customer individually he can supply goods according to their taste and preferences. Thus he can cultivate personal relationship with the customers.

6. Flexibility:
The sole trader can easily adjust himself to the changing requirements of his business.

[OR]

(b) What are the factors influencing a channel of distribution? Explain any five?
Answer:
The factors affecting a channel of distribution are as follows:

1. Product Characteristics:
Seasonal products are distributed through less layer of middlemen. Non standardized products that are made according to customer specifications may be delivered directly.

2. Market Characteristics:
The size of the market for the goods is a major factor while selecting the route for distribution of products.

3. Number of Consumers:
Large purchases made by few consumers require centralised distribution.

4. Middlemen factor:
Middlemen who are experienced and have produced more sales are wanted by all producers. Long channel naturally increases the cost and price of the product.

5. Capacity of the Manufacturer:
A financially strong producer may select a high technology oriented channel which will reduce cost in the long run.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the features of a government company?
Answer:
The features of a government company:

1. Registration Under the Companies Act:
A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company.

However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications. .

2. Executive Decision of Government:
A Government company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

3. Separate Legal Entity:
A Government company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

4. Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government; but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

5. Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has authority to appoint majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of co-operatives? Explain any five?
Answer:
Advantages of co – operatives:

1. Voluntary organisation:
The membership of a cooperative society is open to all. Any person with common interest can become a member. The membership fee is kept low so that everyone would be able to join and benefit from cooperative societies.

2. Easy formation:
Cooperatives can be formed much easily when compared to a company. Any 10 members who have attained majority can join together for forming a cooperative society by observing simple legal formalities.

3. Democracy:
A co – operative society is run on the principle of ‘one man one vote’. It implies that all members have equal rights in managing the affairs of the enterprises.

4. Equal distribution of surplus:
The surplus generated by the cooperative societies is distributed in an equitable manner among members. Therefore all the members of the cooperative society are benefited.

5. Limited liability:
The liability of the members in a cooperative society is limited to the extent of their capital contribution. They cannot be personally held liable for the debts of the society.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Syphilis is caused by …………………..
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycobacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 2.
Who is called as the Father of Indian Phycology?
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy
(b) Y. Bharadwaja
(c) V.S. Sundaralingam
(d) V. Desikachary
Answer:
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy

Question 3.
Which of the following plant possess sessile leaves?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Mangifera
(c) Psidium
(d) Gloriosa
Answer:
(d) Gloriosa

Question 4.
Histone proteins are seen in the DNA of …………………..
(a) Pseudokaryotes
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Mesokaryotes
(d) Eukaryotes
Answer:
(d) Eukaryotes

Question 5.
Number of fatty acids in triglyceride is ……………………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
Principle behind the desalination of sea water is ……………………
(a) Endosmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Reverse osmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis
Answer:
(c) Reverse osmosis

Question 7.
In Emerson’s first effect, the photosynthetic yield was dropped in the region above ……………………
(a) 720 nm
(b) 620 nm
(c) 680 nm
(d) 600 nm
Answer:
(d) 600 nm

Question 8.
Which of the following plant hormone functions against auxin?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscissic acid

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 10.
Mention various types of stem seen in angiosperms?
Answer:
Majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are

1. Excurrent
2. Decurrent
3. Caudex and
4. Culm.

Question 11.
How will you define inflorescence?
Answer:
An inflorescence is a group of flowers arising from a branched or unbranched axis with a definite pattern.

Question 12.
List out the disadvantages of Amitosis?
Answer:

1. Causes unequal distribution of chromosomes.
2. Can lead to abnormalities in metabolism and reproduction.

Question 13.
State Relay Pump theory?
Relay pump theory of Godlewski (1884)
Answer:
Periodic changes in osmotic pressure of living cells of the xylem parenchyma and medullary ray act as a pump for the movement of water.

Question 14.
Define anaerobic photosynthesis?
Answer:
In some bacteria, oxygen is not evolved and is called as non-oxygenic and anaerobic photosynthesis. Examples: Green sulphur, Purple sulphur and green filamentous bacteria.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modem bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 16.
List down the key difference between roots and shoots?
Answer:

Roots	Shoots
1. Positively geotropic	1. Negatively geotropic
2. Negatively phototropic	2. Positively phototropic
3. Non-green in colour	3. Green in colour
4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are absent.	4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are present

Question 17.
Differentiate between Taxonomy & Systematics?
Answer:

Taxonomy	Systematics
1. Discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.	1. Broad field of biology that studies the diversification of species.
2. Governs the practices of naming, describing, identifying and specimen preservation.	2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy
3. Classification + Nomenclature = Taxonomy	3. Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics

Question 18.
What do you mean by Phloem loading?
Answer:
The movement of photosynthates (products of photosynthesis) from mesophyll cells to phloem sieve elements of mature leaves is known as phloem loading.

Question 19.
Define Dark Reaction?
Answer:
Fixation and reduction of CO₂ into carbohydrates with the help of assimilatory power produced during light reaction. This reaction does not require light and is not directly light driven. Hence, it is called as Dark reaction or Calvin-Benson cycle.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes?
Answer:

• Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
• The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
• The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
• Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
• Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
• Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and – dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
• The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

[OR]

List out the general characters of Pteridophytes?
Answer:
General characteristic features of Pteridophytes:

1. Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
2. Roots are adventitious.
3. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.
5. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea)
6. Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
7. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The sporophylls gets organized to form cone or strobilus. e.g., Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores – Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores -Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.
9. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate (development of sporangium from group of initials) or leptosporangiate (development of sporangium from single initial).
10. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n).
11. Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus.
12. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.
13. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus.
14. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids.
15. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells.
16. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo.
17. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.

Question 21.
Draw a flow chart of Kreb’s cycle?
Answer:

[OR]

Give a detailed account on geometric growth rate?
Answer:
This growth occurs in many higher plants and plant organs and is measured in size or weight. In plant growth, geometric cell division results if all cells of an organism or tissue are active mitotically. Example: Round three in the given figure 15.5, produces 8 cells as 23 58 and after round 20 there are 220 5 1,048,576 cells.

The large plant or animal parts are produced this way. In fact, it is common in animals but rare in plants except when they are young and small. Exponential growth curve can be expressed as,

W₁ = W₀e^rt
W₁ = Final size at the beginning of the period
W₀ = Initial size at the beginning of the period
r = Growth rate
t = Time of growth
e = Base of the natural logarithms

Here ‘r’ is the relative rate and also a measure of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, reffered to as efficiency index. Hence, the final size of W₁ depends on the initial size W₀.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic …………………….
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Medusa is the Reproductive organs of ……………………..
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Obelia
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II.

List I	List II
1. Ball and socket	(i) Knee
2. Hinge	(ii) Humerous and pectoral of girdle
3. Pivot	(iii) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
4. Saddle	(iv) Atlas and axis

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), (4) – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
LH – stands for ………………………
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Langerhans hormome
(c) Low secretion hormone
(d) Luteotrophic hormone
Answer:
(a) Luteinising hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones.
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in stomach.
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones.
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regard to species …………………….
(a) They have similar morphological
(b) They are reproductively isolated
(c) They produce viable young ones
(d) They have similar anatomical features
Answer:
(b) They are reproductively isolated

Question 7.
The kidney of adult mammals is ……………………
(a) Opisthonephron
(b) Pronephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Answer:
(d) Metanephros

Question 8.
Deficiency of calciferol causes ………………………
(a) Scurvy
(b) Leucopenia
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Rickets
Answer:
(d) Rickets

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why mule is sterile in nature?
Answer:
Mule gets one set of chromosomes (32) from male parent, horse and one set of chromosomes (31) from female parent, donkey. These two sets of chromosomes do not match with each other and cannot produce gametes by meiosis. Hence mule is sterile in nature.

Question 10.
Define macrophages?
Answer:
Macrophages are Immune cells derived from monocytes; engaged in phagocytosis of microbes and debris.

Question 11.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworm?
Answer:

Peristomium	Prostomium
1. The first segment of the body of earthworm is called peristomium.	1. A small flap overhanging the mouth is called prostomium or upper lip.

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of structure of alveoil?
Answer:

Question 13.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 14.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Thick wrinkled skin
6. Bloated face
7. Protruded enlarged tongue
8. Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature and elevated blood cholesterol levels

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Canal system?
Answer:
The water transport system in sponges through which water enters through minute pores and goes out through the large opening called osculum. It helps is nutrition, circulation, respiration and excretion.

Question 16.
Draw the diagram of structure of the heart?
Answer:

Question 17.
What are spinal nerves?
Answer:
The 31 pairs of nerves which emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intevertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae are the spinal nerves.

Question 18.
Classify organisms on the basis of seven kingdom system?
Answer:

Question 19.
Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands?
Answer:

Exocrine glands	Endocrine glands
1. These glands release their products through ducts.	1. These are ductless gland and their secretions are released directly into the blood,
2. These secrete mucous, saliva, ear wax, oil, milk, digestive enzyme etc. e.g. Salivary glands.	2. These secrete hormones, e.g. Pituitary gland.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the conditions which creates problems in oxygen transport?
Answer:
When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft, where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)- headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

When the person moves on a long – term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments. To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.

When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.

This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood forming bubbles.

Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish black.

[OR]

What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia?
Answer:
Simple epithelium is a simple layered sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Squamous epithelium: It is made of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels.
2. Cuboidal epithelium: It is made of cube like cells. It is found in kidney tubules, ducts and glands. It is important for secretion and absorption.
3. Columnar epithelium: It is made of column like cells. It lines the digestive tract. It is important for secretion and absorption.
4. Ciliated epithelium: It has cilia at the free end. It is found in bronchi, uterine tubes. It is helpful in propelling materials.
5. Glandular epithelium: Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for secretion is called glandular epithelium. E.g., goblet cells and salivary gland.

Compound epithelium:

1. Compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
2. These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
3. These cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.

Classification of Compound epithelium:

Question 21.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro – intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.

It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Answer:
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”.

This can be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations.

Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

(I) Out crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

(II) Cross breeding:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis.)

(III) Interspecific hybridization:
In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Mule was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – 1

Answer all the Questions: [15 × 1 = 15]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is …………………….
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
Solution:

n = 1 + 2(1) = 3
Answer:
(c)

Question 2.
Time independent Schnodinger wave equation is ………………….
(a) \(\widehat{\mathrm{H}} \psi=\mathrm{E} \psi\)
(b) \(\nabla^{2} \psi+\frac{8 \pi^{2} m}{h^{2}}(E+V) \psi=0\)
(c) \(\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial y^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial z^{2}}+\frac{2 m}{h^{2}}(E-V) \psi=0\)
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) \(\widehat{\mathrm{H}} \psi=\mathrm{E} \psi\)

Question 3.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(а) The chemical symbol of nickel is Ni.
(b) An element is a material made up of different kind of atoms.
(c) The physical state of bromine is liquid.
(d) The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
Answer:
(b) An element is a material made up of different kind of atoms.

Question 4.
Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
Reason: Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Solution:
Ca²⁺ + Na₂CO₃ → CaCO₃↓+ 2Na⁺
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 6.
Compressibility factor for CO₂ at 400 K and 71.0 bar is 0.8697. The molar volume of CO₂under these conditions is …………………………
(a) 22.04 dm³
(b) 2.24 dm³
(c) 0.41 dm³
(d) 19.5 dm³
Solution:
Compressibility factor (z) = \(\frac{PV}{nRT}\)
V = \(\frac{z × nRT}{p}\) = \(\frac{0.8697 \times 1 \times 8.314 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{bar} \mathrm{dm}^{3} \mathrm{K}^{-1} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \times 400 \mathrm{K}}{71 \mathrm{bar}}\)
V = 0.41 dm³
Answer:
(c) 0.41 dm³

Question 7.
Thermodynamics is applicable to …………………….
(a) Macroscopic system only
(b) Microscopic system only
(c) Homogenous system only
(d) Heterogeneous system only
Answer:
(a) Macroscopic system only

Question 8.
In the reaction, Fe(OH)₃ (s) ⇄ Fe³⁺ (aq) + 3OH^–(aq), if the concentration of OH^– ions is decreased by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times, then the equilibrium concentration of Fe³⁺ will …………………….
(a) Not changed
(b) Also decreased by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times
(c) Increase by 4 times
(d) Increase by 64 times
Solution:

When concentration of OH^– ions declared by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times, then

To maintain K_C as constant, concentration of Fe³⁺ will increase by 64 times.
Answer:
(d) Increase by 64 times

Question 9.
The degree of dissociation a is equal to ……………………
(a) \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\)
(b) \(\frac{(1-i)n}{n-1}\)
(c) \(\frac{i+1}{n+1}\)
(d) \(\frac{(1+i)n}{n+1}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\)

Question 10.
The molecules having same hybridisation, shape and number of lone pair of electrons are ………………………..
(a) SeF₄, XeO₂F₂
(b) SF₄, XeF₂
(c) XeOF₄, TeF₄
(d) SeCl₄, XeF₄
Solution:
SeF₄, XeO₂F₂ – sp³d hybridisation
T-shaped, one lone pair on central atom.
Answer:
(a) SeF₄, XeO₂F₂

Question 11.
Connect pair of compounds which give blue colouration/precipitate and white precipitate respectively, when their Lassaigne’s test is separately done.
(a) NH₂NH₂HCl and ClCH₂ – CHO
(b) NH₂CS NH₂ and CH₃ – CH₂Cl
(c) NH₂CH₂ COOH and NH₂ CONH₂
(d) C₆H₅NH₂ and ClCH₂ – CHO
Answer:
(d) C₆H₅NH₂ and ClCH₂ – CHO

Question 12.
4-hydroxy phenol oxidised in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇?H⁺ to give, …………………….
(a) Quinol
(b) Quinone
(c) Diol
(d) Alkane
Answer:
(b) Quinone

Question 13.
Methane gas is also called as ……………………
(a) Marsh gas
(b) Mass gas
(c) Molecular gas
(d) Model gas
Answer:
(a) Marsh gas

Question 14.
The catalyst used in Darzen halogenation of alcohol is ……………………..
(a) CCl₄
(b) Acetone
(c) Pyridine
(d) Ethene
Answer:
(c) Pyridine

Question 15.
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(a) The clean water would have a BOD value of more than 5 ppm
(b) Greenhouse effect is also called as Global warming
(c) Minute solid particles in air is known as particulate pollutants
(d) Biosphere is the protective blanket of gases surrounding the earth
Answer:
(a) The clean water would have a BOD value of more than 5 ppm

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which question No. 20 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
First ionization potential of C-atom is greater than that of B-atom, where as the reverse is true for second ionization potential?
Answer:
G (Z = 6) 1s² 2s² 2p_x‘ 2p_y‘. The electron removal from p orbital is very difficult. So carbon has highest first ionization potential.
B (Z = 5) 1s² 2s² 2p¹. In boron nuclear charge is less than that of carbon, so boron has lowest first ionization potential.
I.E₁ C > I.E₁B

But it is reverse in the case of second ionization energy. Because in case of B⁺ the electronic configuration is 1s² 2s², which is completely filled and it has high ionization energy. But in C⁺ the electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p¹, one electron removal is easy so it has low ionization energy.

Question 17.
Why H₂O₂ is used as mild antiseptic?
Answer:
The oxidising property of hydrogen peroxide and harmless nature of its products such as water and oxygen, leads to oxidation of pollutants in water and act as a mild antiseptic.

Question 18.
An alkali metal (x) forms a hydrated sulphate, X₂SO₄.10H₂O. Is the metal more likely to be sodium (or) potassium?
Answer:
X forms X₂SO₄. 10H₂O. The metal is more likely be sodium. So X is Na₂SO₄. 10H₂O. It is otherwise called as Glauber’s salt.

Question 19.
Define Zeroth law of thermodynamics (or) Law of thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that ‘If two systems at different temperatures are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they tend to be in thermal equilibrium with themselves’.

Question 20.
2.82 g of glucose is dissolved in 30 g of water. Calculate the mole fraction of glucose and water?
Solution:
Mass of glucose = 2.82 g
No. of moles of glucose = \(\frac{2.82}{180}\) = 0.016
Mass of water = 30g = \(\frac{20}{18}\) = 1.67
x_H2O = \(\frac{1.67}{1.67+0.016}\) = \(\frac{1.67}{1.686}\) = 0.99
∴x_H2O + xx_glucose = 1
0.99 + x_glucose = 1
x_glucose = 1 – 0.99 = 0.01

Question 21.
Considering x-axis as molecular axis, which out of the following will form a sigma bond.

1. 1s and 2p_y
2. 2p_x and 2p_x
3. 2p_x and 2p_y
4. 1s and 2p_z

Answer:
Along X-axis as molecular axis, only 2p_x and 2p_y can form a sigma bond

2p_x + 2p_y and 1s and 2p₂ also cannot form σ bond.

Question 22.
What happen when nitrile undergoes acid hydrolysis?
Answer:
When alkyl nitrile undergoes acid hydrolysis to give amide, which on further hydrolysis to give carboxylic acid.

Question 23.
How ozone reacts with 2-methyl propene?
Answer:

Question 24.
What are Freons? Discuss their uses and environmental effects?
Answer:
Freons are the chlorofluoro derivatives of methane and ethane.
Freon is represented as Freon – cba
Where, c – number of carbon atoms, b = number of hydrogen atoms,
a = total number of fluorine atoms.

Uses of Freons:

1. Freons are used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
2. It is used as a propellant for aerosols and foams.
3. It is used as propellant for foams, to spray out deodorants, shaving creams and insecticides.

Environmental effects of Freons:

1. Freon gas is a very powerful greenhouse gas which means that it traps the heat normally radiated from the earth out into the space. This causes the earth’s temperature to increase, resulting in rising sea levels, droughts, stronger storms, flash floods and a host of other very unpleasant effect. ,

2. As freon moves throughout the air, its chemical ingredients causes depletion of ozone layer. Depletion of ozone increases the amount of ultraviolet radiations that reaches the earths surface, resulting in serious risk to human health. High levels of ozone, in turn, causes respiratory problems and can also kill plants.

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 26 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
The first ionisation energy (IE₁) and second ionisation energy (IE₂) of elements X, Y and Z are given below.

Which one of the above elements is the most reactive metal, the least reactive metal and a noble gas?
Answer:
Noble gases: Ioniation energy ranging from 2372 KJ mol^-1 to 1037 kJ mol^-1.
For element X, the IE₁, value is in the range of noble gas, moreover for this element both IE₁ and IE₂ are higher and hence X is the noble gas.

For Y, the first ionisation energy is low and second ionisation energy is very high and hence Y is most reactive metal.
For Z, both IE₁ and IE₂ are higher and hence it is least reactive.

Question 26.
An isotope of hydrogen (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element which occupies group number 16 and period number 2 to give compound (B) is used as a modulator in nuclear reaction. (A) adds on to a compound (C), which has the molecular formula C₃H₆ to give (D). Identify A, B, C and D?
Answer:
(I) An isotope of hydrogen Deuterium (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element belongs to group number 16 and period number 2 oxygen O₂ to give a compound (B) which is heavy water D₂O. D₂O is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction:

(II) Deuterium reacts with C₃H₆ propane (C) to give Deutero propane C₂D₆ (D).

Question 27.
Give the uses of gypsum?
Answer:

1. The Alabaster variety qf gypsum was used by the sculptors.
2. Gypsum is used in making drywalls or plaster boards.
3. Gypsum is used in the production of Plaster of Paris, which is used as a sculpting material.
4. Gypsum is used in making surgical and orthopedic casts.
5. It plays an important role in agriculture as a soil additive, conditioner and fertilizer.
6. Gypsum is used in toothpaste, shampoo and hair products.
7. Calcium sulphate acts as a coagulator in making tofu.
8. It is also used in baking as a dough conditioner.
9. Gypsum is a component of Portland cement, where it acts as a hardening retarder to control the speed at which concrete sets.
10. Gypsum is used to give colour to cosmetics and drugs.
11. Gypsum plays a very important role in wine making.

Question 28.
Define inversion temperature?
Answer:
The temperature below which a gas obey Joule-Thomson effect is called inversion temperature (T_i).
T_i = \(\frac{2a}{2Rb}\)

Question 29.
The vapour pressure of pure benzene (C₆H₆) at a given temperature is 640 mm Hg. 2.2g , of non-volatile solute is added to 40 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of the solute?
Answer:

Question 30.
In CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O, the central atom undergoes sp³ hybridisation-yet their bond angles are different, why?
Answer:

1. In CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O the central atom undergoes sp³ hybridisation. But their bond angles are different due to .the presence of lone pair of electrons.
2. It can be explained by VSEPR theory. According to this theory, even though the hybridisation is same, the repulsive force between the bond pairs and lone pairs are not same.
3. Bond pair – Bond pair < Bond pair – Lone pair < Lone pair -Lone pair
   So due to the varying repulsive force the bond pairs and lone pairs are distorted from regular geometry and organise themselves in such a way that repulsion will be minimum and stability will be maximum.
4. In case of CH₄, there are 4 bond pairs and no lone pair of electrons. So it remains in its regular geometry, i.e., tetrahedral with bond angle = 109° 28’.
5. H₂O has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs. There is large repulsion between lp – lp. Again repulsion between lp – bp is more than that of 2 bond pairs. So 2 bonds are more restricted to form inverted V shape (eg;) bent shape molecule with a bond angle of 104° 35.
6. NH₃ has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair. There is repulsion between lp – bp. So 3 bonds are. more restricted to form pyramidal shape with bond angle equal to 107° 18’.

Question 31.
How does hyper conjugation effect explain the stability of alkenes?
Answer:

1. The relative stability of various classes of carbonium ions may be explained by the number of no bond resonance structures that can be written for them.
2. Such structures are arrived by shifting the bonding electrons from an adjacent C – H bond to the electron deficient carbon.
3. In this way, the positive charge originally on carbon is dispersed to the hydrogen. This manner of electron release by assuming no bond character in the adjacent C – H bond is called hyper conjugation or Baker – Nathan effect.
4. The greater the hyper conjugation, the greater will be the stability of the compound.
   The increasing order of stability can be shown as:

5. Alkyl group increases in the C = C double bond carbon, hyper conjugation increases and stability of that organic compound also increases.

Question 32.
What is BHC? How will you prepare BHC? Mention its uses?
Answer:

1. BHC is Benzene hexachloride.

2. Benzene reacts with three molecule of Cl₂ in the presence of sunlight or UV light to yield BHC. This is also called as gammaxane or Lindane.

3. BHC is a powerful insecticide.

Question 33.
Write a chemical reaction useful to prepare the following:

1. Freon-12 from carbon tetrachloride.
2. Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide.

Answer:
1. Freon – 12 from carbon tetrachloride:
Freon – 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride. This reaction is called “Swarts reaction.”

2. Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide:
Carbon disulphide reacts with chlorine gas in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ as catalyst to give carbon tetrachloride.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
(I) What is the difference between molecular mass and molar mass? Calculate the molecular mass and molar mass for carbon monoxide.
(II) What are competitive electron transfer reaction? Give example.

[OR]

(b) (I) State the trends in the variation of electronegativity in period and group.
(II) The electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is 348 kJ mol^-1. How much energy in kJ is released when 17.5 g of chlorine is completely converted into Cl^– ions in the gaseous state?
Answer:
(a) (I) Molecular mass:

1. Relative molecular mass is defined as the ratio of the mass of the molecule to the unified atomic mass unit.
2. It can be calculated by adding the relative atomic masses of its constituent atoms.
3. For carbon monoxide (CO)

Molecular mass = Atomic mass of carbon + Atomic mass of oxygen 12 + 16 = 28 u.

Molar mass:

1. It is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance.
2. The molar mass of a compound is equal to the sum of the relative atomic masses of its constituent expressed in g mol^-1.
3. For carbon monoxide (CO)

12 + 16 = 28 g mol^-1.

Both molecular mass and molar mass are numerically same but the units are different.

(II) These are the reactions in which redox reactions take place in different vessels and it is an indirect redox reaction. There is a competition for the release of electrons among different metals.

Example:
Zn releases electrons to Cu and Cu releases electrons to Silver and so on.
Zn_(s) + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺_(aq) + Cu_(s) (Here Zn – oxidised; Cu²⁺ – reduced)
Cu_(s) + 2Ag⁺ → Cu²⁺_(aq) + 2Ag_(s) (Here Cu – oxidised; Ag⁺ – reduced)

[OR]

(b)
(I) Variation of electronegativity in a period:
The electronegativity increases across a period from left to right. Since the atomic radius decreases in a period, the attraction between the valence electron and the nucleus increases. Hence the tendency to attract shared pair of electrons increases, ‘therefore, electronegativity increases in a period.

(II) Water is amphoteric in nature and it behaves both as an acid as well as base. With acids stronger than itself (e.g., H₂S) it behaves as a base and with bases stronger than itself (e.g., NH, ) it acts as an acid.

Question 35 (a).
(I) Discuss the three types of Covalent hydrides?
(II) Write the chemical reactions to show the amphoteric nature of water?

[OR]

(b)
(I) Lithium forms monoxide with oxygen whereas sodium forms peroxide with oxygen. Why?
(II) Write about the uses of strontium?
Answer:
(a) (I)

1. They are the compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing of electrons.
2. The most common examples of covalent hydrides are methane, ammonia, waterand hydrogen chloride.
3. Molecular hydrides of hydrogen are further classified into three categories as,
   • Electron precise (CH₄, C₂H₆, SiH₄, GeH₄)
   • Electron-deficient (B₂H₆) and
   • Electron-rich hydrides (NH₃, H₂O)
4. Since most of the covalent hydrides consist of discrete, small molecules that have relatively weak intermolecular forces, they are generally gases or volatile liquids.

(II) Water is amphotenc in nature and it behaves both as an acid as well as base. With acids stronger than itself (e.g., H₂S) it behaves as a base and with bases stronger than itself
(e.g., NH₃) it acts as an acid.

1. As a base: H₂O_(l) + H₂S_(aq) → H₃O_(aq) – HS^–_(aq)
2. As a acid: H₂O_(l) + NH_3(aq) → OH^–_(aq) + NH⁺_(aq)

[OR]

(b) (I)

1. The fact that a small cation can stabilize a small anion and a large cation can stabilize a large anion explains the formation and stability of the oxides.
2. The size of Li⁺ ion is very small and it has a strong positive field around it. It can combine . with only small anion, O^2- ion, resulting in the formation of monoxide Li₂O.
3. The Na⁺ ion is a larger cation and has a weak positive field around it and can stabilize a bigger peroxide ion, \(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{2-} \text { or }[-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{O}-]^{2-}\) resulting in the formation of peroxide Na₂O₂.

(II)

1. 90Sr is used in cancer therapy.
2. \(^{87} \mathrm{Sr} /^{86} \mathrm{Sr}\) ratio is used in marine investigators as well as in teeth, tracking animal migrations or in criminal forensics.
3. Dating of rocks.
4. Strontium is used as a radioactive tracer in determining the ‘source of archaeological materials ’ such as timbers and coins.

Question 36 (a).
(I) When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car but a helium balloon is pushed toward back of the car. Upon forward acceleration the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car. Why?
(II) Critical temperature of H₂O, NH₃ and CO₂ are 647.4, 405.5 and 304.2 K, respectively. When we start cooling from a temperature of 700 K which will liquefy first and which will liquefy finally?

[OR]

(b)
(I) The following water gas shift reaction is an important industrial process for the production of hydrogen gas.
C0(g) + H₂O(g) ⇄ CO₂(g) + H₂(g)
At a given temperature K_p = 2.7. If 0.13 mol of CO, 0.56 mol of water, 0.78 mol of CO₂ and 0.28 mol of H₂ are introduced into a 2L flask, find out in which direction must the reaction proceed to reach equilibrium.

(II)
2H₂O(g) ⇄ 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) K_C = 4.1 × 10^-48 At 599 K
N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇄ 2NO(g) K_C = 1 × 10^-30 at 1000 K
Predict the extent of the above two reactions.
Answer:
(a) (I)
1. When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car due to inertia of the body, but a helium balloon pushed toward back of the car. Helium balloon responds to the air around it. Helium molecules are lighter than air of our atmosphere, and so they move toward back by gravity as a result of the accelerating frame.

2. Upon forward acceleration, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car,because the body in motion tends to stay in motion until acted upon by an outside force. Helium balloon is going to move opposite to this pseudo gravitational force.

(II) Critical temperature of a gas is defined as the temperature above which it cannot be liquefied even at high pressures.
∴ When cooling starts from 700 K, H₂O will liquefied first, then followed by ammonia and finally carbon dioxide will liquefied.

[OR]

(b) (I)
CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇄ CO₂(g) + H₂(g)
Give K_P = 2.7
[CO] = 0.13 mol, [H₂O] = 0.56 mol
[CO₂] = 0.78 mol; [H₂] = 0.28 mol
V = 2L
K_P = K_C (RT)^∆ng
2.7 = K_C (RT)⁰
K_C = 2.7
_QC = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]}\) = \(\frac{\left(\frac{0.78}{2}\right)\left(\frac{0.28}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{0.13}{2}\right)\left(\frac{0.56}{2}\right)}\)
Q = 3
Q > K_C, Hence the reaction proceed in the reverse direction.

(II) In the reactions, decomposition of water at 500 K and oxidation of nitrogen at 1000 K, the value of K_C is very less K_C < 10^-3. So reverse reaction is favoured.
∴ Products << reactants

Question 37 (a).
(I) CuCl is more covalent than NaCl. Give reason?
(II) Draw and explain the molecular orbital diagram of Boron molecule?

[OR]

(b)
(I) 0.30 g of a substance gives 0.88 g of carbon dioxide and 0.54 g of water.
Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen in it.

(II) Draw the fisher projection formula for tartaric acid.
Answer:
(a) (I)
1. Cations having ns² np⁶ nd¹⁰ configuration show greater polarising power than the cations with ns² np⁶ configuration. Hence they show greater covalent character.
2. CuCl is more covalent than NaCl. As compared to Na⁺ (1.13\(\overset { \circ }{ A } \)), Cu⁺ (0.6\(\overset { \circ }{ A } \)) is small and has 3s23p63d10 configuration.
3. Electronic configuration of Cu⁺: [Ar] 3s²3p⁶3d¹⁰
Electronic configuration of Na+: [He] 2s²2p⁶
So CuCl is more covalent than NaCl.

(II)

1. Electronic configuration of B = 1s² 2s² 2p³
2. Electronic configuration of B₂ = \(\sigma 1 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 1 s^{2} \sigma 2 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 2 s^{2} \pi 2 p_{x}^{1} \pi 2 p_{z}^{1}\)
3. Bond order = \(\frac { N_{ b }-N_{ a } }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{6-4}{2}\) = 1
4. B₂ molecule has two unpaired electrons hence it is paramagnetic.

[OR]

(b) (I) Weight of organic compound = 0.30 g
Weight of carbon-dioxide = 0.88 g
Weight of water = 0.54 g

Percentage of hydrogen:
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
∴ 0.54 g of water contain = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × 0.54g of hydrogen
∴% of hydrogen = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × \(\frac{0.54}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × \(\frac{54}{0.3}\)
% of H = 0.111 × 180 = 19.888 ~ 20%

Percentage of carbon:
44 g of water contains 12 g of hydrogen
0.88 g of water contain CO₂ contains = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 0.88g of hydrogen
∴ % of carbon = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × \(\frac{0.88}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × \(\frac{88}{0.3}\) = \(\frac{24}{0.3}\)
% of carbon = 80%

(II)

Question 38 (a).
An organic compound (A) of a molecular formula C₆H₆ which is a simple aromatic hydrocarbon. A undergoes hydrogenation to give a cyclic compound (B). A reacts with chlorine in the presence of UV – light to give C which is used as insecticide. Identify A, B and C. Explain the reactions with equation.

[OR]

(b) An organic compound (A) of molecular formula CH₂ reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to give (B) of molecular formula C₂H₆O. (B) on reaction with PCl gives (C).(C) on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives (D) an alkene as the product. Identify (A), (B), (C), (D) and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

1. Simple aromatic hydrocarbon, C₆H₆ is benzene.
2. Benzene (A) reacts with H₂ in the presence of Pt to give cyclohexane (B).

3. Benzene (A) reacts with Cl₂ in presence of UV-light to give benzene hexachloride (C).

[OR]

(b) (I)
1. (A) Of molecular formula CH₂O is identified as HCHO, formaldehyde.
2. Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis to give ethanol, CH₃-CH₂OH B as the product.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
She yanked at the zip of the bag.
(a) jerked
(b) yearned
(c) yelled
(d) jumped
Answer:
(a) jerked

Question 2.
The felicitation programme was highly commendable.
(a) falcon
(b) congratulatory
(c) felling
(d) calliper
Answer:
(b) congratulatory

Question 3.
I dare not answer my mother when she is hysterical.
(a) avoid
(b) dauntless
(c) desire
(d) aggravate
Answer:
(b) dauntless

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I had to ponder on the situation.
(a) consider
(b) contemplate
(c) ignore
(d) reflect
Answer:
(c) ignore

Question 5.
I relished the fruit and its taste.
(a) savoured
(b) enjoyed
(c) disliked
(d) candies
Answer:
(c) disliked

Question 6.
The students protested against child abuse.
(a) dissent
(b) proclaimed
(c) accepted
(d) averted
Answer:
(c) accepted

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “picture and element”.
(a) pixel
(b) picel
(c) piclem
(d) picment
Answer:
(a) pixel

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “cartography”.
(a) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
(b) The ethical theory that pleasure is the highest good and proper aim of human life
(c) Prejudice, stereotyping, or discrimination on the basis of a person’s sex or gender
(d) The science of drawing maps
Answer:
(d) The science of drawing maps

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Back to the drawing board’.
{a) The person you are talking about arrives
(b) Do something to save money
(c) Do or say something exactly right
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over
Answer:
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Mithwin really likes singing karaoke, even though he doesn’t have an amazing voice,
(a) songs with karate steps
(b) baila
(c) country songs
(d) sing along
Answer:
(d) sing along

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “land”.
(a) owner
(b) lord
(c) rent
(d) estate
Answer:
(b) lord

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “charge”.
(a) sur
(b) pre
(c) un
(d) out
Answer:
(a) sur

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “DARE”.
(a) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Equipment
(b) Documents Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
(c) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Experience
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education
Answer:
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He shows kindness to his patients.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOIO
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOIO

Question 15.
One who is concerned with usefulness is called as …………
(a) Psychiatrist
(b) Technologist
(c) Pragmatist
(d) Editorialist
Answer:
(c) Pragmatist

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ram was a thin, tall and handsome bachelor ………. a Roman nose.
(a) far
(b) with
(c) of
(d) on
Answer:
(b) with

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Nobody could do it, ……….. ?
(a) could they
(b) should they
(c) have they
(d) ain’t they
Answer:
(a) could they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The press release said the band split up because of problems among artists.
(a) problems
(b) creative indifference
(c) creative differences
(d) fights
Answer:
(c) creative differences

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Dravid was so far away, we really couldn’t make out what he was trying to say.
(a) understand
(b) deliver
(c) hear
(d) record
Answer:
(a) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
What is the name of the prison ……… Nelson Mandela stayed?
(a) which
(b) when
(c) where
(d) whose
Answer:
(c) where

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“To unlearn all these muting things
Most of all, I want to relearn”
(a) What does the poet want to relearn?
(b) Explain ‘muting things’.
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) Muting things are; superficial and unnatural behaviours like portrait smiles and heartless handshake.

Question 22.
“The birds around me hopp’d and play’d
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
But the least motion which they made
It seem’d a thrill of pleasure”
(а) What is the rhyme scheme?
(b) Name the poem and poet.
Answer:
(a) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’.
(b) The poem is ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ written by William Wordsworth.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) What kind of a life, does the poet talk about?
(b) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
(a) The poet speaks about a life where there is no necessity to stoop before others for any ‘gain’. This makes people live with self-dignity which makes them feel proud.
(b) A life that knows no kneeling and bending.

Question 24.
“I live with bread like you, feel want,
Taste grief, need friends – subjected thus,
How can you say to me, I am a king?”
(а) Mention the figure of speech employed in the last line.
(b) What is surprising about the king’s words to his loyal friends?
Answer:
(а) Interrogation
(b) The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress. This surprises his loyal friends.

Question 25.
“His coat is dusty from neglect, his whiskers are uncombed.”
(а) How does Macavity differ from domestic/tamed cat?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s coat is dusty. His whiskers are uncombed.
(b) Personification.

Question 26.
“With all my heart I do admire Athletes who sweat for fun or hire,”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words.
(b) What does the second line mean?
Answer:
(a) Admire and hire are the rhyming words.
(b) The second line means there are two categories of athletes. The first play just for pleasure. The second category is players who are hired by corporate to play the big leagues or tournaments.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite into Direct speech:
Anitha : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my brother’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is it?
Answer:
Anne told a confectioner that she wanted to order a big birthday cake for her brother. The confectioner asked when his birthday was.

Question 28.
Change into passive/active voice of the following sentence.
The Baboon tasted the sour grapes.
Answer:
The sour grapes was tasted by the Baboon.

Question 29.
Put the milk in the fridge. It will go sour. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If you don’t put the milk in the fridge, it will go sour.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of his illness he came for practice.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
………. and feel
At home, once, twice
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while describing people’s attitude if someone visits their house.

Explanation: The semblance of cordiality will disappear if one visits for the third time. When they say “feel at home”, it applies only once or twice. In fact, they would shut the door on his face. One should not believe those words and visit their houses frequently. Familiarity breeds contempt.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet says these words while enjoying the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation : The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
(I might mention Mungojerrie, I might mention Griddlebone)
Are nothing more than agents for the Cat who all the time.
Just controls their operations: the Napoleon of Crime.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet compares the leadership skills of Macavity to his own fictional characters.

Explanation: Those functional characters Mungojerrie and Griddlebone portrayed in T.S. Eliot’s “Old Possom’s book of Practical Cats” are not to be compared with Macavity. He is a commander in chief of criminals or Napolean of criminals. He directs all thefts and crimes in London very cleverly.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did the grandma chant the morning prayer in a sing song voice?
Answer:
Grandma started the mornings with a sing-song prayer because she wanted the author to learn the prayers by heart.

Question 35.
What should the youngsters aim in life after their graduation?
Answer:
The youngsters should aim in life after graduation for an aristocracy of achievements arising out of a democracy of opportunities. As youngsters they should aim at toning up the society, bringing light into dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, hope into the despondent and a new life into every one.

Question 36.
When does human memory work with less than its usual capacity?
Answer:
Human memory works with less than its usual capacity in matters like taking medicine. The author explains that human memory represents the willingness to remember certain things. It forgets what it does not wish to remember. Humans are blessed with “selective amnesia”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. the/Indian/English/exploited/the farmers.
2. on/camel/has/hump/its/a/big/back.
3. elephant/land animal/present/largest/is/day/the/of/the.

Answer:

1. The English exploited the Indian farmers.
2. Camel has a big hump on its back.
3. Elephant is the largest land animal of the present day.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a waiter and a customer.
Answer:
Kavya : Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter : Yes Ma’am. We have hot idlies.
Kavya : Do you have Podi Dosa?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, we do have Podi Dosa.
Kavya : Can you give two sets of Podi Dosa with a vada please?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, it will be served in ten minutes.

Question 39.
Describe the process of polishing your shoes.
Answer:

1. Shoes are cleaned of dust with a brush.
2. A layer of polish is coated over the shoes.
3. One should wait a little till the polish soaks the leather.
4. Then shoes are brushed to shine.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Every cloud has a ……… lining, (golden, silver, white)
(b) Fortune favors the ……….. (brave, courageous, poor)
(c) Get out while the going is ………… (good, high, best)
Answer:
(a) silver
(b) brave
(c) good

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates. The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

What are the observations of Lynd on the capacity of humans to remember and forget things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed at the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks wittily that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have extraordinary memory power. In some matters, the memory is less than perfect, causes could be psychological. We tend to forget things we don’t wish to remember.

For example, many people forget to take medicines. Medicine needs to be taken before / after meals. Robert Lynd remarks that chemists make a lot of money because people tend to forget to take medicines. It aggravates the disease and people are forced to buy more and more medicines. Most people forget to post.letters. The author himself would not trust his letters to be posted by others. The author himself never remembered to post letters entrusted to him. He had to apologise for the unposted letters kept with him for long. Likewise, the author forgets his walking sticks often.

Question 42.
“Face is the index of the mind.” Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
Unlike the people of the past, people in modem times “laugh only with their teeth” while their ice-block cold eyes search for something. Now, people shake hands without hearts. There is no human warmth in social relations. While they shake hands, they look for evidences to judge the financial status of a person. People say ‘feel at home’ and ‘come again’. But if a person visits a third time he is not welcomed. They all have cocktail faces ready for all occasions. Their conforming smiles are like fixed portrait smiles. They wear standard, deceitful, artificial smile for all occasions. They have faces like masks.

The poet has learnt from them how to use faces like dresses, home face, office face, street face, host face etc. Their faces, like the teeth of the elephant, show only what is accepted. The ugly side of their personality is cleverly hidden behind their deceitful smiles and polite words. So, the poet’s views do not concur with the adage “Face is the index of the mind”.

[OR]

Write a short summary of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily-Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos.

The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Miss Meadows, a music teacher – gets a letter – feels upset – Fiance not interested – reflects her gloom on students – changes the happy song to a sad one – Headmistress calls – delivers a telegram – Fiance agrees to wedding – Meadows happy – changes the song again to a cheerful one.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle.

After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush. She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Moral courage is of the mind, while physical courage is of the body; but mind and body are so closely connected that I think it is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. In many instances of human daring, moral courage combined with physical to a resolute endurance of physical suffering becomes added to a consciousness of duty. But while physical courage in a human being implies at the least, the moral courage implies much more.

This moral courage is the courage which braces us always to do our duty. This is the noblest form of courage and yet it is the courage most commonly required. It is the courage which everyday, almost every hour demands of us all.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 123
No. of words to be written in the summary: 123/3 = 41 ± 5

Rough Draft
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. It is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

Fair Draft
Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

No. of words in the summary: 38

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage Courage
Answer:
Courage
Mind – Moral courage
Body – Physical coinage
Human daring involves
both moral and physical courage and consciousness of duty Moral courage
inspires us to do our duty – needed all the time.

Question 45.
You are Neena. The wedding of your elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. Write an informal invitation to your friend Sherrin requesting her to attend the function.
Answer:

20th April, 2020

From
Neena
2, Gandhi street
Ooty

To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road,
Raj Nagar,
Ooty.
Dear Sherrin,

You will be pleased to know that the wedding of my elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. The whole family will move there in the morning. I invite you to join us at lunch in the hotel on the 15th. The wedding ceremony will take place at 8 in the evening.
I do hope you will join us on the auspicious occasion.

Yours sincerely,
Neena
Address on the Envelope
To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road
Raj Nagar
Ooty

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Self medication is an unhealthy practice’.
Answer:
Self-medication is defined as the selection and use of medicines by individuals to treat self- diagnosed symptoms. Self-medication is thought to reduce the load on the medical services, decrease the time spent in waiting to see the physician, and save cost especially among economically deprived people. Since it is instant, there is no expense of the doctor but when they ultimately suffer from severe health issues, their medical expense increases two-fold.

Self-medication as a habit can damage one’s health irrevocably, causing disabilities and even premature death. Self-medication is okay to many of us. It’s just a crocin or some ‘safe’ antibiotic we believe we are taking as going to the doctor can be time consuming and expensive. But there are side-effects to this and very harmful ones at that. The idea of self¬medication even for small health issues can lead to complications. People tend to pop pills as they are popping candies. Medicines such as pain relief drugs, cough syrups, laxatives, antibiotics, anti-allergy medicines, vitamins and even antacids. Since these are drugs that can be bought over the counter meds, these are easier to acquire.

Popping pills may get us instant relief but what we don’t realize is that it is. not free of side-effects. This is because one drug may react differently when consumed with another drug. This can even lead to death. Hence, consulting a doctor is a must and self-medication is an unhealthy practice.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) Children are fond to coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had came to an end.
(c) As he looking on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furnitures in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the student has participated in the competition.
Answer:
(a) Children are fond of coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had come to an end.
(c) As he looked on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furniture in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the students has participated in the competition.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) When teaching my daughter how to drive, I told her if she didn’t hit the ………. in time she would ……….. the car’s side mirror, (break/ brake)
(b) ………. you like a cup of tea? (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) Take my umbrella ………… rain. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) brake, break
(b) Would
(c) need to
(d) in case of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) General Elections take place after every five years in India.
(b) The Reserve Bank revised the interest rate.
(c) One thousand interest connections were given in Pollachi.
(d) The new serial will begin on Monday.
(e) Athletics rarely gets coverage in the Media.
(Commerce, Politics, Sports, Maths, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Politics
(b) Commerce
(c) Computer
(d) Media
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity…. In London men are as lonely as Oysters, each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country. I should probably know all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victim pines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.
Questions.

1. What keeps people in London remote from each other?
2. How are men described? Why?
3. Why do we seek country life?
4. What is the disadvantage of village life?
5. What can you say in this context about our interaction with our neighbours the life style in our country?

Answer:

1. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity.
2. Men are described as oyster shells. The being inside the oyster shell never wishes to know who lives outside.
3. We seek country life to find neighbours.
4. Village life is not idyllic. Neighbours tend to poison village life.
5. India has not deteriorated to the level of London city. We still care for the neighbours as neighbours care for us.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Marginal revenue is the addition made to the …………………….
(a) Total sales
(b) Total revenue
(c) Total production
(d) Total cost
Answer:
(b) Total revenue

Question 2.
Function with single independent variable is known as ………………………
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polynomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 3.
There is no opportunity cost in ……………………..
(a) Floating cost
(b) Prime cost
(c) Sunk cost
(d) social cost
Answer:
(c) Sunk cost

Question 4.
Density of population is rural areas are ……………………..
(a) Very high
(b) Very low
(c) Moderate
(d) Constant
Answer:
(b) Very low

Question 5.
Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel prize in Economics in the year ……………………..
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
Answer:
(a) 1998

Question 6.
The transfer of ownership from public sector to private sector is known as ……………………..
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
Answer:
(c) Privatization

Question 7.
The gateway of privatization ………………………..
(a) Denationalization
(b) Disinvestment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is …………………….
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = price
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 9.
The reward given for the use of capital ………………………..
(a) Rent
(b) Wage
(c) Interest
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Interest

Question 10.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 11.
The advocate of democratic socialism was ……………………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis
(c) Dr. Rajendra prasad
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 12.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 13.
The objective of the Industrial policy 1956 was ……………………
(a) Develop heavy Industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage Industries only
Answer:
(a) Develop heavy Industries

Question 14.
The long – run production function is explained by ………………………
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of supply
(c) Return to scale
(d) Law of variable proportions
Answer:
(c) Return to scale

Question 15.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 16.
Expansion of FDI ……………………
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 17.
Thiruvalluvar Economic ideas mainly dealt with ………………………..
(a) Wealth
(b) Poverty is the curse in the society
(c) Agriculture
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
State of rest is a point termed as ………………………….
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 19.
An incremental change independent variable with respect to change independent variable is known as ………………………….
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 20.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………..
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Micro industry?
Answer:

1. Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
2. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.

Question 22.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + 10x + 15x²
Answer:

1. Formula = \(\frac{TC}{x}\)
2. Average cost function = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + \(\frac{10x}{x}\) + \(\frac { 15x^{ 2 } }{ x } \)
3. Average cost = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + 10 + 15x

Question 23.
What is the formula for elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Answer:
Elasticity of supply = \(\frac{dq}{dp}\)

Question 24.
Define Marginal product of a factor?
Answer:
It is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed . In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
Where, MP = ∆TP/∆N
Where, MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input
It is also expressed as
MP = TP[n] – TP [n – 1]
MP = Marginal product
TP [n] = Total product of employing nth unit of a factor.
TP [n – 1] = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, [n – 1]^th unit of a factor.

Question 25.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural Economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.
2. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
3. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 26.
What are goods?
Answer:
Goods are also called:

1. Products
2. Commodities
3. Things
4. In Economics, the term ‘goods’ implies the term ‘services’.

Question 27.
Mention the types of distribution?
Answer:
Personal Distribution:
Personal Distribution is the distribution of national income among the individuals.

Functional Distribution:
Functional Distribution means the distribution of income among the four factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization for their services in production process.

Question 28.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from other system?
Answer:
(I) Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.

(II) The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land;
• Who cultivate the land;
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

(III) Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence.

Question 29.
What is meant by Sunk cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future is called as Sunk Cost. This is historical but irrelevant for future business decisions. It is called as sunk because; they are unalterable, unrecoverable and if once invested it should be treated as drowned or disappeared.

Question 30.
Point out the essential features of pure competition?
Answer:

1. Large number of Buyers and sellers.
2. Homogeneous Product and Uniform price.
3. Free Entry and exit.
4. Absence of Transport cost.
5. Perfect mobility of factors of production.
6. Perfect knowledge of the market.
7. No Government Intervention.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non – food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

Question 32.
How do you justify the merits of privatization?
Answer:

1. Privatisation is transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply/Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Q_{ S } } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac{P}{Qs}\)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P presents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:
1. Initiation:
An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.

2. Innovation:
A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.

3. Co – ordination:
An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production, to start and run the business or production.

4. Control, Direction and Supervision:
An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supeiVises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.

5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing:
There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 35.
List out the kinds of wages?
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages:
Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.

2. Real Wages:
Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.

3. Piece Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.

4. Time Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

Question 36.
Give short note on Cold Storage?

1. India is the largest producer of fruits and second largest producer of vegetables in the world.
2. Inspite of that per capita availability of fruits and vegetables is quite low because of post – harvest losses which account for about 25% to 30% of production.
3. Besides, quality of a sizable quantity of produce also deteriorates by the time it reaches the consumer.
4. Most of the problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables can be traced to their perishability.
5. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations and other similar problems.
6. In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the Ministry of Agriculture promulgated an order known as “cold storage order, 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act., 1955.

Question 37.
Compare positive economics and normative economics?
Answer:

Positive Economics	Normative Economics
1. An increase in money supply implies a price – rise is an economy.	1. Inflation is better than deflation.
2. As the irrigation facilities and application of chemical fertilizers expand, the production of food grains increases.	2. More production of luxury goods is not good for a less developed country.
3. An increase in the birth rate and a decrease in the death rate reflect the rate of growth of population.	Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.

Question 38.
Describe the development of textile Industry in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people, and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
9. Tirupur known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready – mades.

Question 39.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:
The important features of utility are:

1. Utility is psychological. It depends on the consumer’s mental attitude. For example, a vegetarian derives no utility from mutton.
2. Utility is not equivalent to usefulness. For example, a smoker derives utility from a cigarette; but, his health gets affected.
3. Utility is not the same a pleasure. A sick person derives utility from taking a medicine, but definitely it is not providing pleasure.
4. Utility is personal and relative. An individual obtains varied utility from one and the same good in different situations and places.
5. Utility is the function of the intensity of human want. An individual consumer faces a tendency of diminishing utility.
6. Utility cannot be measured objectively. It is a subjective concept and it cannot be measured numerically.
7. Utility has no ethical or moral significance. For example, a cook derives utility from a knife using which he cuts some vegetables, and a killer wants to stab his enemy by that knife. In economics, a commodity has utility if it satisfies a human want.

Question 40.
Mention the features of SHGs?
Answer:
Major features of SHGs [Self Help Groups]

1. SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self – selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well – defined rules and by – laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

PART- IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is
C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average Cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 50

[OR]

(b) What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel sheet?
Answer:

1. MS – excel is used in data analysis bý using formula.
2. A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports upto I million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

1. Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
2. Double click the MS Excel Icon from thè Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data and formula.

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the concept of producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Optimum Combination of Factors implies either:
There is output maximisation for given inputs or there is cost minimisation for the given output.

Conditions for Producer Equilibrium:
The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are:
The iso – cost line must be tangent to iso – quant curve. At point of tangency, the iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining.

[OR]

(b) State the relationship between AC and MC?
Answer:
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves as shown in diagram.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 43 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at ‘ higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson

Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs. A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right.

It is known as exceptional demand curve. In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 44 (a).
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Answer:
Perfect Competition: Firm’s Equilibrium in the Short Run

In the short run, at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under Perfect Competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced. For example Q_d = 100 – 5P and Q_s = 5P.

At equilibrium Q_d = Q_s
Therefore 100 – 5P = 5P
100 = 10P; 100/10 = P; Qd = demand
P = 10; P = Price
Qd = 100 – 5(10); Q_s = Supply
100 – 50 = 50
Q_s = 5 (10) = 50
Therefore 50 = 50

This diagram consists of three panels. The equilibrium of an industry is explained in the first panel. The demand and supply forces of all the firms interact and the price is fixed as 10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

In the second part of the diagram, AC curve is lower than the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved where MC = MR. Its equilibrium quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, ₹ 10 it experiences super normal profit. AC = ₹ 8, AR = ₹ 10.

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 8 = 400. Therefore, its total profit is 500 – 400 = 100.

In the third part of the diagram, firm’s cost curve is above the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved at point where MR = MC. Its quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, it experiences loss. (AC > AR). Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 12 = 600. Therefore, its total loss is 600 – 500 = 100.

As profit prevails in the market, new firms will enter the industry, thus increasing the supply of the product. This means a decline in the price of the product and increase the cost of production. Thus, the abnormal profit will be wiped out; loss will be incurved. When loss prevails in the market, the existing loss making firms will exit the industry, thus decreasing the supply of the product.

This means a rise in the price of the product and reduction in the cost of production. So the loss will vanish; Profit will emerge. Consequent upon the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run as shown in diagram.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the Loanable funds Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin, Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of ‘ loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

• The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
• Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

• The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
• The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

• Savings planned by individuals are called “ex-ante-savings ”.
• The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment: [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 45 (a).
The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable.

The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

Dualism:
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas. Inequality: The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table. Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.

Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given here.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.,

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the table here:
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as pne of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 46 (a).
What are the methods of measuring Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are three methods of measuring price elasticity of demand.

1. The Percentage method:
e_p = \(\frac { \Delta Q }{ \Delta P } \), \(\frac{P}{Q}\)
It is also known as ratio method, when we measure the ratio as:
e_p = \(\frac { %\Delta Q }{ %\Delta P } \) where,
% ∆Q = Percentage change in demand
% ∆P = Percentage change in price

2. Total Outlay Method:
Marshall suggested that the simplest way to decide whether demand is elastic or inelastic is to examine the change in total outlay of the consumer or total revenue of the firm Total Revenue = (Price × Quantity Sold)
TR = ( P × Q)

Where there is inverse relation between Price and Total Outlay, demand is elastic. Direct relation means inelastic. Elasticity is unity when Total Outlay is constant.

3. Point or Geometrical Elasticity:
When the demand curve is a straight line, it is said to be linear. Graphically, the point elasticity of a linear demand curve is shown by the ratio of the segments of the line to the right and to the left of the particular point.
Lower segment of the demand curve
Point Elasticity =

e_p = \(\frac{L}{U}\)
Where ‘e_p’ stands for point elasticity, ‘L’ stands for the lower segment and ‘U’ for the upper segment.

[OR]

(b) Explain the VKRV Rao’s National Income Methodology and Industrialization?
Answer:
(a) Rao’s National Income Methodology:

1. Rao’s name is remembered for his pioneering work on the enumeration of national income of India.
2. He attempted
   • To develop the national income concepts suited to India and developing countries.
   • To analyze the concepts of investment, saving and the multipliers is an underdeveloped economy.
   • To study the compatibility of the national incomes of Industrialized and underdeveloped countries.
3. Rao’s paper on “Full Employment and Economic Development” was one of the earliest contributions in the field of development towards employment.

(b) Rao’s views on Industrialization:
Rao gave the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India.

1. Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
2. Low levels of water availability for crops.
3. Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
4. Absence of capital.
5. Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.

Question 47 (a).
Compare and contrast various definitions of economics?
Answer:
1. Adam Smith’s wealth definition:

• Adam Smith [1723 – 1790] in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of Nations” [1776] defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
• He explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
• He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
• Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
• Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
• Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall welfare definition: .

• Alfred Marshall [1842-1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
• It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
• Thus , it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

• Economics does not treat wealth as’the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
• Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth.
• The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
• Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants, human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice. •

4. Samuelson’s – growth definition:

• Paul Samuelson defines economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various. commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.
  The major implications of this definition are as follows:
• Samuelson’s makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of Equi – marginal utility?
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

1. The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
2. The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
3. Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
4. This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
5. Law of Equi-Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
6. “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
7. “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as, “If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

1. The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
3. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
4. The income of the consumer is given. ‘
5. There is perfect competition in the market.
6. The prices of the commodities are given.
7. The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹ 11. He wants to spend this entire income [i.e. ₹ 11] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹ 1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities.

Diagrammatic Illustration:
In the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.

If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

1. In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
2. This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A peaceful pallor spread on his face.
(a) paleness
(b) rosiness
(c) ruddy
(d) rejuvenation
Answer:
(a) paleness

Question 2.
It was indeed a sensational bid.
(a) astounded
(b) ordinary
(c) sensitive
(d) exciting
Answer:
(a) astounded

Question 3.
I had a sumptuous meal to sate my hunger.
(a) sadden
(b) suppress
(c) satisfy
(d) struggle
Answer:
(c) satisfy

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The vessels dropped and scattered all over.
(a) speckled
(b) sprinkled
(c) gathered
(d) grew
Answer:
(c) gathered

Question 5.
There a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) suppressed
(b) expressed
(c) smoothened
(d) suffocated
Answer:
(b) expressed

Question 6.
Her face was wrinkled and weird.
(a) smooth
(b) creased
(c) lined
(d) crippled
Answer:
(a) smooth

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “percolate”.
(a) perk
(b) per
(c) perc
(d) colate
Answer:
(a) perk

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “plagiarist”.
(a) A student of bees
(b) One who accumulates; one who collects
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief
(d) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
Answer:
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Beat around the bush’.
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I’d like to learn taekwondo though it might not be the best option for me.
(a) Japanese language
(b) Chinese preparation
(c) Floor dancing
(d) Kick fist martial art
Answer:
(d) Kick fist martial art

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “goat”.
(a) male
(b) female
(c) scape
(d) major
Answer:
(c) scape

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “hero”?
(a) ity
(b) ism
(c) ness
(d) ish
Answer:
(b) ism

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “NSC”.
(a) National Savings Certificate
(b) National Service Certificate
(c) National Savings Career
(d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “psychology” is…………..
(a) psych-ol-ogy
(b) psy-chol-ogy
(c) ps-ycho-logy
(d) psy-chol-o-gy
Answer:
(d) psy-chol-o-gy

Question 15.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………..
(a) Etymology
(b) Stampomania
(c) Eulogomania
(d) bancomania
Answer:
(d) bancomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ramesh went……….. Tom’s place to settle the bills.
(a) to
(b) on
(c) in
(d) from
Answer:
(a) to

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
He never fails in his duty,………..?
(a) isn’t he
(b) won’t-he
(c) will he
(d) does he
Answer:
(d) does he

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
However hard she tried, she could not figure out the meaning of the proverb.
(a) appreciate
(b) condemn
(c) understand
(d) faint
Answer:
(c) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The children ……… shouted in the street are not from our school.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces like dresses”
(а) State the figure of speech in the above line.
(b) Who does the term ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) Simile
(b) 1 refers to the poet, Gabriel Okara.

Question 22.
“ When swollen eye meets gnarled fist
When snaps the knee, and cracks the wrist”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the second line.
(b) Why are the eyes swollen?
Answer:
(a) Onomatopoeia
(b) The eyes are swollen as they were injured by the opponent.

Question 23.
“Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!”
(a) What is a greenhouse and a trellis?
(b) What is a wonder after the greenhouse glass is broken?
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse is a glass building in which plants that need protection from cold weather are grown. Trellis is a framework of light wooden or metal bars used as a support for fruit trees or creeper.
(b) Macavity is to be found nowhere when one finds out that the greenhouse glass is broken.

Question 24.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) What do you understand by rainy eyes?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
(a) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.
(b) Metaphor

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the j oy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“The height you reach is not that we care;”
(a) How different is the poet’s perception of success?
(b) How does the poet use the word ‘height’?
Answer:
(a) Those who reach great heights in terms of scholarship, wealth and positions are not deemed great. Those who have competence and merit alone are respected.
(b) In terms of mountain climbing, climbing Everest is said to be the highest achievement.
But even scaling a small hillock is an achievement. Every human effort to succeed needs to be appreciated.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Kiran : Will you exchange the defective torch I had bought from you yesterday?
Shopkeeper : Do you have the receipt with you?
Answer:
Kiran asked the shopkeeper if he would exchange the defective torch he had bought from him the day before. The shopkeeper enquired if Kiran had the receipt with him.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
She had already cooked the food.
Answer:
The food had already been cooked by her.

Question 29.
Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence.
I called for Arjun who came at once.
Answer:
I called for Aijun and he came at once.

Question 30.
Hurry up. You will miss the flight. (Combine using ‘Unless’)
Answer:
Unless you hurry up, you will miss the flight.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Have I not reason to lament What Man has made of Man?”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: Amidst happy nature, William Wordsworth couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The mixed feelings of happiness and sadness is well brought out in these lines. He was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars.

Question 32.
“I am just glad as glad can he
That I am not them, that they are not me. ”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words.

Explanation: The poet was a bom spectator. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

Question 33.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes.

Explanation: The unsung heroes adhere to their ethical principles in life. Even if they have not reached great heights. They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why was the author left with his grandmother in the village?
Answer:
The author was left with his grandmother in the village because his parents had to go to the city for work.

Question 35.
What difficulty did Mary Kom experience while eating Chinese preparation?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

Question 36.
What were the contents of Bryson’s bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were frequent flyer card, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipe, magazines, passport, English money and film.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. pillars/there/human life/man/of/woman/and/are/two
2. uppermost/soil layer/is/earth/the/of/the
3. it/palnts/which/supports/food/provide/all/living things/to/planet/on/this

Answer:

1. There are two pillars of human life – man and woman.
2. Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth.
3. It supports plants which provide food to all living things on this planet.

Question 38.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

1. Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your camp site. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
2. Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
3. Lay out the poles and assemble them.
4. Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
5. Pull the tent upright.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Scientists Develop Synthetic Cornea.
2. World Leaders Meet at Geneva.
3. ATMs Without Security Guards to Close.

Answer:

1. A newly developed implant made of plastic may soon offer patients the chance to see again as Scientists from Germany have developed synthetic corneas.
2. German Chancellor Angela Merkel and US President Donald Trump will converge upon the snowy Swiss town of Davos this week for the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting.
3. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has requested all ATM’S without proper security to be closed down.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. A stitch in ………. saves nine, (tear, time, line)
2. A thing begun is ……….. done, (half, full, not)
3. Beauty is in the ………… of the beholder, (imagination, mind, eye)

Answer:

1. time
2. half
3. eye

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals.

She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

[OR]

Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioneer banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun- bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction.

As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings, the auctioneers wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

Question 42.
According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

[OR]

Explain how ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ stresses the fact that Nature is meant for Man’s joy and pleasure to be preserved by Man.
Answer:
Nature’s holy plan is to offer joy and peace to all forms of life on earth. He firmly believes that man is meant to spend his days blissfully taking part in the vitality and joy surrounding him. The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property.

The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans. Man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature and has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. The poet stands to reason that nature functions on God’s plan but the man changes the holy plan wrecking the natural joy of human life.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily- Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a’few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened.

The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would’be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins, to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong.

What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Goa is a vibrant, living entity and more than just a geographical sunspot on the western coast of India. Famous for its silver sands and mesmeric sunsets, its recorded history datesback to the 3rd century B.C. It is blessed with marvelous weather, fabulous beaches, picturesque hill-top forts, gracious people and awe inspiring cathedrals. Arombol, 50 km north of Panaji, is a unique beach, which is both rocky and sandy.

It was a sweet water pond right near the seashore that’s very pleasant to bask in. Goa not only has almost 120 km long silver beaches but also offers long, wide and picturesque rivers and scenic lakes. Aqua sports hold great attraction for tourists to Goa. Some of the most popular aqua sports are swift rides on water scooters and speedboats at the Bay of Doha Paula. The best time to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the relatively cool winter months between late September and mid-March.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 160
No. of words to be written in the summary: 160/3 = 51 ± 5
Rough Draft
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and eathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

Fair Draft
Goa
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

No. of words in the summary: 67

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Goa
Answer:
Location:
western coast of India

Tourist attraction:
silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals Arombol beach – sweet water pond Aqua sports held at at the Bay of Dona Paula

Best time to visit:
between late September and mid-March

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted:
Applications are invited for the post of a Typist in a reputed school of Madurai. The . candidate must have at least 5 years of experience. The applicant must have a pleasant personality. He/she should be good in English. Attractive salary. Interested candidates should apply to The Principal, AKS International, Indirapuram, Madurai within 10 days with detailed resume.

14th January, 2020

From
Savitha
2, Gandhi street
Madurai
To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Typist
With reference to your advertisement dated 8th January 2019,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a typist. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality. If given an opportunity, I will satisfy my superiors to the best of my ability.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal.

Yours sincerely,
Savitha
Address on the Envelope To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai

Resume:
Name : Savitha Rajeev
Date Of Birth : 8th May, 1991
Marital Status : Married
Husband’s Name : Mr. Rajeev
Address For Communication : Yyy
Contact Number – Mobile: 9988776655
Residence : 22445566
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : English and Tamil
Educational Background:

Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Photograph, Gardening, Reading, Travelling.
Expected Salary : 27,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 23,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Mr. Ravi (Manager -no. 9998887777
2. Mrs. Rani (Manager-Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station: YYY
Date. 14.01.2020

Savitha
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Convincing the public not to discriminate against those with AIDS’.
Answer:
Abolish discrimination against those with AIDS
People living with HIV infection and AIDS should have the same basic rights and responsibilities as those which apply to all citizens of the country. They have the same rights to liberty and autonomy, security of the person and to freedom of movement as the rest of the population. No restrictions should be placed on the free movement of HIV-infected people, and they may not be segregated, isolated or quarantined in prisons, schools, hospitals or elsewhere merely because of their HIV-positive status.

Only a sexual relationship without proper precautions will be a risk factor. Therefore they should be accepted whole heartedly without any discrimination. People with HIV infection or AIDS are entitled to the right to make their own decisions about any matter that affects marriage and child-bearing – although counselling about the consequences of their decisions should be provided. Due to the fear of isolation, ignorance, denial, and discrimination, people will allow HIV to develop into AIDS, further decreasing life expectancy, since the body’s immune system function will have been significantly lowered.

Along with family bonds and intimate relationships, a spiritual relationship is also strained. Fear and vulnerability included fear of punishment from God, fear of being discovered as HIV/ AIDS-positive and fear of the future and death. They should be given the love, warmth, psycho-social and emotional support.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There is many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigating the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes is rising.
(e) The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracan stadium.
Answer:
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There are many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigate the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes are rising.
(e) The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracana stadium.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) They could ……….. untie the ………. (knot / not)
(.b) The world ………….. avoid war in the larger interest of human race. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) Every student …………. respect the national symbols, (use semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have the hall ticket you can enter the examination hall. (Use a suitable link word).
Answer:
(a) not, knot
(b) should
(c) must
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Weather
(b) Nutrition and Dietetics
(c) Sports
(d) Commerce
(e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live along its course and depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one of the most fertile lands on earth.

This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries some metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal every year and produce tons of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released, in the river.

This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and revive river Ganga. To achieve these objectives, Government of India has started a programme named “Namami Ganga Programme”. The main pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Gange Programme’ can be seen through the following lines; “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No India.”
Questions.

1. For whom is river Ganga a lifeline?
2. For what purpose is the Ganga river water used?
3. Most people in India consider the Gan^a as
4. What are the pollutants that make the river dirty?
5. Write any two pillars of the “Namami Gange”?

Answer:

1. River Ganga is a lifeline for millions of Indians.
2. The Ganga river water used for irrigation, transportation and fishing.
3. Goddess
4. Metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities makes the river dirty.
5. The pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Two or more business units forming a single entity is known as ……………………….
(a) Joint
(b) Merger
(c) Link
(d) Compound
Answer:
(b) Merger

Question 2.
……………………… is irrecoverable debts.
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Bad debts
(d) Loan
Answer:
(c) Bad debts

Question 3.
The word convention refers ………………………
(a) Traditions
(b) Trade
(c) Business
(d) Accounting
Answer:
(a) Traditions

Question 4.
Outsider’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………
(a) Capital
(b) Liabilities
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(b) Liabilities

Question 5.
Owner’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 6.
Net position of an account can be ascertained from ……………………….
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Ledger

Question 7.
Total of credit > total of debit = ……………………….
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(b) Credit balance

Question 8.
Which one of the following account would usually have a debit balance?
(a) Account payable
(b) Cash
(c) Owner equity
(d) Bank loan
Answer:
(b) Cash

Question 9.
Which of the following will be placed in the credit column of the trial balance?
(a) Purchases
(b) Accounts payable
(c) Salaries payable
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 10.
Suspense account in the trial balance is entered in the …………………….
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & loss A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Balance sheet

Question 11.
Goods are returned by customers are recorded in ……………………….
(a) Sales book
(b) Sales returns book
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchase book
Answer:
(b) Sales returns book

Question 12.
If a cheque sent for collection is dishonoured, the debit is given to ……………………….
(a) Suppliers A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Customers A/c
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Customers A/c

Question 13.
A bank pass book is a copy of ……………………….
(a) The cash column of a customer’s cash book
(b) The bank column of a customer’s cash book
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger
(d) None
Answer:
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger

Question 14.
Generally, one – sided errors are revealed by ………………………
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(c) Trial balance

Question 15.
When a transaction is incorrectly recorded, it is known as ……………………….
(a) Error of principle
(b) Error of commission
(c) Error of omission
(d) Compensating error
Answer:
(b) Error of commission

Question 16.
Straight line method otherwise called ………………………..
(a) Original cost method
(b) Written down value method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Depletion method
Answer:
(a) Original cost method

Question 17.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure
(b) Goods purchased – capital expenditure
(c) Issue of debentures – revenue receipts
(d) Rent received – Capital receipts
Answer:
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure

Question 18.
Which one is not matched correctly?
(a) Trading account – wages
(b) Profit and loss account salaries
(c) Capital – asset
(d) Creditors liabilities
Answer:
(c) Capital – asset

Question 19.
Interest on capital is to be debited in ………………………
(a) Profit and loss A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trading A/c
Answer:
(a) Profit and loss A/c

Question 20.
There are three components namely input unit, CPU and ……………………….
(a) Data
(b) Secondary storage
(c) Output unit
(d) Primary storage
Answer:
(c) Output unit

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List any two functions of accounting?
Answer:

1. Measurement and
2. Forecasting

Question 22.
Define book – keeping?
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. – J.R. Batli boi.

Question 23.
What is meant by journalising?
Answer:
Record of business transactions in the journal is known as Journal entry. The process of recording the transactions in journal is called as journalising.

Question 24.
Complete the accounting equation?

1. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ?
2. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹2,00,000 = ? + ₹40,000

Answer:
Assets = Capital + liabilities

1. ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ₹20,000
2. ₹2,00,000 = ₹1,60,000 + ₹40,000.

Question 25.
Prepare furniture account from the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 26.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a deduction given by the supplier to the buyer on the list price or catalogue price of the goods.

Question 27.
What is meant by rectification of errors?
Answer:
Depending on the stage at which errors are located, they are subsequently rectified at the respective stage itself.

Question 28.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =
= Cost of plant + erection charges
= ₹40,000 + 2,000
= ₹42,000
= \(\frac{42,000-0}{5 years}\)
= ₹8,400

Question 29.
What is Capital receipt?
Answer:
Receipt which is not revenue in nature is called capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature.

Question 30.
What are wasting assets?
Answer:
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation.
Example: mines and quarries.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the methods of codification?
Answer:

1. Sequential codes
2. Block codes
3. Mnemonic codes

Question 32.
The trial balance on March 31, 2016 shows the following:
Sundry debtors ₹30,000; Bad debts ₹1,200. It is found that 3% of sundry debtors is doubtful of recovery andis to be provided for Pass adjusting entry and show it how will be appeared in final accounts?
Answer:

Question 33.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:
Opening stock ₹30,000; Purchases less returns ₹2,00,000; Closing stock ₹20,000; Gross profit margin (oh sales) 30%?
Answer:
Cost of goods sold = opening stock + net purchases – closing stock
= 30,000 + 2,00,000 – 20,000 = 2,10,000

Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 30/70 × 100 = 42.85%.
Gross profit = ₹2,10,000 × 30/70
= ₹90,000.
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit = 2,10,000 + 90,000 = 3,00,000.

Question 34.
A company has purchased a machinery for ₹1,80,000 and spent ₹10,000 for its installation. The estimated life of the machinery is 5 years with a residual value of ₹15,000. Find out the amount of depreciation to be provided every year?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =  = \(\frac{1,90,00-15,000}{5}\)
= \(\frac{1,75,00}{5}\)
= ₹35,000 per year.

Question 35.
State the account/s affected in each of the following errors:

1. Goods sold to Vasu on credit for ₹1,000 was not recorded in the sales book.
2. The total of sales book ₹2,500 was posted twice.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹1,000.
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹2,500.

Question 36.
Classify the following into personal, real and nominal accounts,

1. Capital
2. Buildings
3. Carriage inwards
4. Cash
5. Commission received
6. Bank

Answer:

1. Capital – Personal account
2. Buildings – Real account
3. Carriage inwards – Nominal account
4. Cash – Real account
5. Commission received – Nominal account
6. Bank – Personal account

Question 37.
Prepare Machinery A/c from the following transactions:

Answer:

Question 38.
State which account should be debited and which account should be credited?

1. Carriage outwards
2. Carriage inwards
3. Sales
4. Purchases
5. Bad debts
6. Interest paid

Answer:

1. Carriage outwards – debited
2. Carriage inwards – debited
3. Sales – credited
4. Purchases – debited
5. Bad debts – debited
6. Interest paid – debited

Question 39.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded?

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Asset purchased on credit

Answer:

1. Sale of goods for cash – cash book
2. Sale of goods on credit – sales book
3. Asset purchased on credit – j oumal proper

Question 40.
From the following particulars of Veera traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017?

1. Credit balance as per bank statement ₹6,000.
2. Amount received by,bank through NEFT for ₹3,500 entered twice in the cash book.
3. Cheque dishonoured amounting to ₹2,500, not entered in cash book.

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write any five objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.
3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise.
4. To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirements.
5. To protect the properties of an enterprise.

[OR]
(b) What are the differences between Book-keeping and Accounting?
Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Ramesh who is dealing in computers:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions for Rani, who is dealing in automobiles.

1. Started business with cash ₹80,000.
2. Goods bought on credit from Ramesh ₹10,000.
3. Purchased furniture for cash ₹6,000.
4. Paid creditors by cash ₹8,000.
5. Paid rent by cash ₹500.

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Prepare direct ledgers from the following transactions?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial Balance of Murali as on 31.03.2017 from the following information?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following transactions write up the Sales Day Book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book of Kunal:

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
From the following information, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement to find out balance as per bank statement as on 31^st March, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales book is undercast by ₹100.
2. Sales book is overcast by ₹200.
3. Purchase book is undercast by ₹300.
4. Purchase book is overcast by ₹400.
5. Purchase return boojt is undercast by ₹100.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100,
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹200.
3. Purchase account should be debited with ₹300.
4. Purchase account should be credited with ₹400.
5. Purchase return account should be credited with ₹100.

Question 46 (a).
A firm purchased a machine for ₹1,00,000 on 01.07.2015. Depreciation is written off at 20% on reducing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31st December each year. Show the Machinery account upto 31.12.2017?
Workings:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31^st March, 2016 and the Balance Sheet as on that date from the following informations?

Adjustments:

1. Closing Stock on 31st March, 2016 ₹2,100.
2. Commission received in advance ₹400.
3. Advertisement paid in advance ₹150.
4. Wages outstanding ₹2,000.

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Chozhan?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Analytical Petty Cash Book from the following particulars under Imprest system?

Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is ……………………. cost.
(a) Variable
(b) Fixed
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 2.
Ordinal utility can be measured by ……………………
(a) Ranking
(b) Numbering
(c) Wording
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ranking

Question 3.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………..
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 4.
If average product is decreasing, then marginal product ……………………
(a) Must be greater than average product
(b) Must be less than average product
(c) Must be increasing
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(b) Must be less than average product

Question 5.
Price discrimination will always lead to ………………………
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (b) and (c)

Question 6.
Which of the following is a micro – economics statement?
(a) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year.
(b) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour force last year.
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand
(d) The general price level increased by 4 percent last year.
Answer:
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand

Question 7.
The marginal productivity theory was developed by ……………………
(a) Clark
(b) Wickseed
(c) Walras
(d) All
Answer:
(c) Walras

Question 8.
The chief exponent of the cardinal utility approach was …………………..
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) R.G. D. Allen
(c) Marshall
(d) Stigler
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 9.
Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as ……………………
(a) Abstinence theory
(b) Liquidity preference theory
(c) Loanable funds theory
(d) Agio theory
Answer:
(b) Liquidity preference theory

Question 10.
Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied by ………………….
(a) Price
(b) Total cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost
Answer:
(a) Price

Question 11.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 12.
The Father of Green Revolution in India was ……………………..
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
Answer:
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 13.
A Statement of equality between two quantities is called ……………………
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 14.
Product obtained from additional factors of production is terms as ………………….
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 15.
Rent is the reward for the use of ……………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is termed as …………………….. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 17.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ……………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
The New foreign trade policy was announced in the year ……………………….
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 19.
The PQLI was developed by ……………………..
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morrisd.Biswajeet
Answer:
(c) Morris

Question 20.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………….
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of privatization?
Answer:
Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:

1. A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.
2. The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Question 23.
Give a short note on Sen’s “choice of Technique”?
Answer:
Sen’s “Choice of Technique” was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy; generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 24.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothukudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
Define cost function?
Answer:
The function relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost Function’.
A Cost Function may be written as
C = f(Q)
Eg. TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 26.
What are the main menus of MS word?
Answer:

Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 27.
If 62 = 34 + 4 x what is x?
Answer:
62 – 34 = 4x ⇒ 28 = 4x
28 ÷ 5 – 4 = 1x
∴ x = 7

Question 28.
Define‘Rent’?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are conditions for producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:

1. Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
2. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
3. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 30.
Write three policy initiative introduced in 1991 – 92 to correct the fiscal imbalance?
Answer:
The important policy initiatives introduced in the budget for the year 1991 – 92 for correcting the fiscal imbalance were:

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy.
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three – tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and sub – centres.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub – divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub – centres and 313 community health centres.

Question 32.
Explain the difference between internal and external economies?
Answer:

Internal Economies of Scale	External Economies of Scale
1. Expansion of the firm itself.	1. Expansion of the industry.
2. Lower long run average cost.	2. Benefits most all firms.
3. Efficiencies from larger scale production.	3. Agglomeration economies are important.
4. Range of economies (e.g.,) Technical and Financial.	4. Helps to explain the rapid growth of many cities.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Qs } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac { P }{ Q_{ S } } \)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
Write a note on mineral resources in TamilNadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 35.
What are the motives of demand for money?
Answer:
Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preference. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive :

• The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions.
• The amount saved under this motive depends on the level of income. M_t = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of income. M_p – f(r)

3. The Speculative Motive:
The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. The amount saved for this motive depends on the rate of interest.

M_S = f(i). There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 36.
State Ambedkar’s Economic Ideas on agricultural economics?
Answer:
In the 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and Enlargement of Holdings”.

Question 37.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:

1. Initiation: An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.
2. Innovation: A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.
3. Co – ordination: An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production to start and run the business or production.
4. Control, Direction and Supervision: An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supervises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.
5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing: There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 38.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal term and GDP of UAE on PPP terms. Per capita GSDP would be better for intercountry or interstate comparisons.
4. Tamil Nadu GSDP = $207.8 billion in 2016 – 17.

Question 39.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve. T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC3 the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y i.e. P_x / P_y . Therefore MRS_x,y = P_x / P_y.

Question 40.
List out the kinds of wages:
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages: Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Real Wages: Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.
3. Piece Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.
4. Time Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

• India lives in villages.
• He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
• He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

• Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
• It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
• Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
• It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

• Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
• He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i. e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

• According to Gandhi, “ Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
• He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

• Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
• He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
• Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

• Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
• Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

• Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
• He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
• He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of Over population.

(X) On Prohibition:

• Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
• He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
• Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Question 42 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs.

A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. It is known as exceptional demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁,, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the degree of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges.

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

[OR]

(b) Write a short note on Total Revenue?
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

where, TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price and Q denotes Quantity sold.
For example, a cell – phone company sold 100 cell – phones at the price of ₹500 each.
TR is ₹50,000. (TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).

When price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5. When P = 5; TR = PQ

When price is declining with increase in quantity sold. (Eg. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the following table and diagram. TR can be obtained from Demand fuction: If Q = 11 – P,
When P = 1, Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 × 10 = 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24
When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

Question 44 (a).
Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

• Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
• Unavailability of inputs.
• Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

• Inability to adopt high cost technology
• High cost of inputs
• Under privileged rural industries.
• Low income
• Indebtedness
• Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are:

• Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
• Self – interest of leaders
• Biased political will
• Less bargaining power
• Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

• Political interference
• Lack of motivation and interest
• Low wages in villages
• Improper utilization of budget
• Absence of monitoring
• Implementation of rural development programme.

[OR]

(b) Mention the causes for Rural poverty?
Answer:
Causes for Rural Poverty:
1. Unequal distribution of Land:
The distribution of land is highly skewed in rural areas. Therefore, majority of rural people work as hired labour to support their families.

2. Lack of Non – Farm Employment:
Non – farm employment opportunities do not match the increasing labour force. The excess supply of labour in rural areas reduces the wages and increases the incidence of poverty.

3. Lack of public sector Investment:
The root cause of rural poverty in our country is lack of public sector investment on human resource development.

4. Inflation:
Steady increase in prices affects the purchasing power of the rural poor leading to rural poverty.

5. Low productivity:
Low productivity of rural labour and farm activities is a cause as well as the effect of poverty.

6. Unequal Benefit of Growth:
Major gains of economic development are enjoyed by the urban rich people leading to concentration of wealth. Due to defective economic structure and policies, gains of growth are not reaching the poor and the contributions of poor people are not accounted properly.

7. Low Rate of Economic Growth:
The rate of growth of India is always below the target and it has benefited the rich. The poor are always denied of the benefits of the achieved growth and development of the country.

8. More Emphasis on Large Industries:
Huge investment in large industries catering to the needs of middle and upper classes in urban areas are made in India. Such industries are capital-intensive and do not generate more employment opportunities. Therefore, poor are not in a position to get employed and to come out from the poverty in villages.

9. Social evils:
Social evils prevalent in the society like custom, beliefs, etc., increase unproductive expenditure.

Question 45 (a).
Bring out the relationship between TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
Relationship among TR, AR and MR Curves:
When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue rises, when MR is zero the total revenue becomes maximum. When marginal revenue becomes negative total revenue starts falling. When AR and MR both are falling, then MR falls at a faster rate than AR.

TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand:

1. The relationship among AR, MR and elasticity of demand (e) is stated as follows.
   MR = AR (e – 1/e)
2. The relationship between The AR curve and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of AR curve [AR = DD = Price]

• When price elasticity of demand is greater than one, MR is positive and TR is increasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is less than one, MR is negative and TR is decreasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is equal to one, MR is equal to Zero and TR is maximum and constant.

It is to be noted that, the output range of 1 to 5 units, the price elasticity of demand is greater than one according to total outlay method. Hence, TR is increasing and MR is positive.
TR, AR, MR & Elasticity

At the output range of 5 to 6 units, the price elasticity of demand is equal to one. Hence, TR is maximum and MR is equals to zero. At the output range of 6 units to 10 units, the price elasticity of demand is less than unity. Hence, TR is decreasing and MR is negative.

[OR]

(b) Explain the monetary and financial sector reforms?
Answer:
Monetary reforms aimed at doing away with interest rate distortions and rationalizing the structure of lending rates. The new policy tried in many ways to make the banking system more efficient. Some of the measures undertaken were:

(I) Reserve Requirements:

• Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio [SLR] and the cash reserve ratio [CRR] were the recommendations by the Narasimham Committee Report, 1991.
• It was proposed to cut down the SLR from 38.5 percent to 25 percent within a time span of three years.

(II) Interest Rate Liberalisation:
RBI controlled:

• The interest rates payable on deposits. The interest rate which could be charged for bank loans.
• Greater competition among public sector, private sector and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
• Liberalisation of bank branch licensing policy in order to rationalize the existing branch network.
• Banks were given freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
• Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
• New accounting norms regarding classification of. assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced in tune with the Narasimham Committee Report.

Question 46 (a).
Examine the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance^ be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. Marginal product will become negative at last.

According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments of product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”.

Assumptions:
The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.

• Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
• All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
• The product is measured in physical units.
• There is no change in the state of technology.
• There is no change in the price of the product.

Total Product (TP)
Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time.

Summation of marginal products, i.e.
TP = ΣMP
where, TP = Total Product,
MP = Marginal Product

Average Product (AP)
Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input.
Mathematically, AP = TP/N
Where, AP = Average Product
TP = Total Product
N = Total units of inputs employed

Marginal Product (MP)
Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
MP = ∆TP/∆N

where,
MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input It is also expressed as
MP = TP(n) – TP (n – 1)
Where, MP = Marginal Product
TP(n) = Total product of employing n^th unit of a factor.
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)^th unit of a factor.
The Law of Variable Proportions is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram:

In above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at first instant, constant at the maximum point and then diminishes, it is always positive forever.

While total product increases, marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. Total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative.

In diagram, the number of workers is measured on X axis while TP_L, AP_L and MP_L are denoted on Y axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table.

Stage I:
In the first stage MP_L increases up to third labourer and it is higher than the average product, so that total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total product to increase at an increasing rate stops at the point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’.

Stage II:
In the second stage, MP_L decreases up to sixth unit of labour where MP_L curve intersects the X – axis. At fourth unit of labor MP_L = AP_L. After this, MP_L curve is lower than the AP_L. TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage III:
Third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L, the AP_L continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TP_L declines with the employment of more units of variable factor, labour.

[OR]

(b) What are the types of elasticity of supply?
Answer:
There are five types of elasticity of supply

1. Relatively Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is greater than 1 [E_S > 1], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes more than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

2. Unitary Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is equal to 1 [E_g = 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an equal [one percent ] change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

3. Relatively Inelastic Supply:
The co-efficient of elasticity is less than one [ES < 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes and less than one percent change in the quantity supply supplied of the commodity.

4. Perfectly Inelastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity is equal to zero [E_S = 0], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes no change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

5. Perfectly Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity of supply is infinity [E_S = 3]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an infinite change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

Question 47 (a).
Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Transport:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State.

Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

1. There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
2. The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
3. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well – established suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
2. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
3. Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
4. It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
5. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
3. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
4. This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
5. It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
6. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
On the basis of ledger balances the …………………….. are prepared.
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Financial statement
(c) Profit and loss A/c
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Financial statement

Question 2.
Accounting is a basic necessity for all ……………………
(a) Human being
(b) Governments
(c) Enterprises
(d) Customers
Answer:
(c) Enterprises

Question 3.
What is GAAP?
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(b) Government Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accounting and Accountancy Principles
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

Question 4.
……………………… concept assumes that business enterprise and its owners are two separate independent entities.
(a) Business concern
(b) Business entity concepts
(c) Going Concern concept
(d) Matching concept
Answer:
(b) Business entity concepts

Question 5.
Which of the following is a personal account?
(a) Debtors
(b) Stationary
(c) Cash
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Debtors

Question 6.
Which of the following is a real account?
(a) Wages
(b) Salaries
(c) Bank account
(d) Shares and debentures of companies
Answer:
(d) Shares and debentures of companies\

Question 7.
Which of the following accounts is expected to have a debit balance?
(a) Assets
(b) Loss
(c) Expense
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8.
A collection or group of all accounts of a business enterprises is known as …………………………
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Trial balance
(c) Ledger
(d) Journal
Answer:
(c) Ledger

Question 9.
Which account usually has debit balance?
(a) Discount received
(b) Purchase returns
(c) Purchases
(d) Owner equity
Answer:
(c) Purchases

Question 10.
A trial balance is a …………………… ?
(a) Nominal account
(b) Personal account
(c) Real account
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 11.
Which of the following is not only a subsidiary books of account?
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchase return book
(d) Cash book
Answer:
(d) Cash book

Question 12.
If a cheque issued by us is dishonoured the credit is given to ……………………..
(a) Customer’s A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Supplier’s A/c
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Supplier’s A/c

Question 13.
Cheques issued but not presented to bank …………………….
(a) Cash book – Add
(b) Cash book (Cr) – Add
(c) Bank statement (Cr) – Add
(d) Bank statement (Dr) subtract
Answer:
(a) Cash book – Add

Question 14.
Generally, one – sided errors are revealed by ……………………..
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(d) Trial balance

Question 15.
Two – sided errors are not revealed by ……………………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Trial balance
(c) Credit balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Trial balance

Question 16.
The amount which is expected to be realised at the end of the estimated useful life of an asset is known as ………………………….
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Other factors
(d) Scrap value of an asset
Answer:
(d) Scrap value of an asset

Question 17.
There are various methods used for providing depreciation on …………………………
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Fixed asset
(d) Other factors
Answer:
(c) Fixed asset

Question 18.
Revenue receipts are ……………………. in the business.
(a) Non – recurring
(b) Recurring
(c) Neither of the above
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Recurring

Question 19.
Income statement is divided into …………………….. parts.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 20.
Components of CAS can be classified into ………………………. categories.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Six
(d) Three
Answer:
(c) Six

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Discuss briefly the branches of accounting?
Answer:
The various branches of accounting are:

1. Financial Accounting:
It involves recording of financial transactions and events.

2. Cost Accounting:
It involves the collection, recording, classification and appropriate allocation of expenditure for the determination of the costs of products or services and for the presentation of data for the purposes of cost control and managerial decision making.

3. Management Accounting:
It is concerned with the presentation of accounting information in such a way as to assist management in decision making and in the day-to-day operations of an enterprise.

4. Social Responsibility Accounting:
It is concerned with presentation of accounting information by business entities and other organizations from the view point of the society by showing the social costs incurred such as environmental pollution by the enterprise and social benefits such as infrastructure development and employment opportunities created by them.

5. Human Resources Accounting:
It is concerned with identification, qualification and reporting of investments made in human resources of an enterprise.

Question 22.
State the principles of double entry system of book – keeping?
Answer:

1. In every business transaction, there are two aspects.
2. The two aspects involved are the benefit or value receiving aspect and benefit or value giving aspect.
3. These two aspects involve minimum two accounts; atleast one debit and atleast one credit.
4. For every debit, there is a corresponding and equivalent credit. If one account is debited . the other account must be credited.

Question 23.
Journalise the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 24.
What are the objectives of preparing trial balance (any two)?
Answer:

1. Test of arithmetical accuracy: Trial balance is the means by which the arithmetical accuracy of the book-keeping work is checked.
2. Basis for preparing final accounts: Financial statements, namely, trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet are prepared on the basis of summary of ledger balances obtained from the trial balance.

Question 25.
What is Journal proper?
Answer:
Journal proper is a residuary book which contains records of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary »books such as cash book, purchases book, sales book, purchases returns book, sales returns book, bills receivable books and bills payable book.

Question 26.
What is Cash Book?
Answer:
Cash book is the book in which only cash transactions are recorded in the chronological order. The cash book is the book of original entry or prime entry as cash transactions are recorded for the first time in it. Cash transactions here may include bank transactions also.

Question 27.
Give any two expenses which may be paid by the banker as per standing instruction?
Answer:

1. Insurance premium paid by the bank as per the standing instruction.
2. Loan instalment, paid by the bank as per the instruction.

Question 28.
What is meant by error of partial omission?
Answer:
When the accountant has failed to record a part of the transaction, it is known as error of partial omission. This error usually occurs in posting. This error affects only one account.

Question 29.
What is Sinking Fund method?
Answer:
This method is adopted especially when it is desired not merely to write off an asset but also to provide enough funds to replace an asset at the end of its working life.

Question 30.
What is capital expenditure?
Answer:
It is an expenditure incurred during an accounting period, the benefits of which will be available for more than one accounting period.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three differences among the readymade software, customised software and tailor made software?
Answer:

Basis	Readymade Software	Customised Software	Tailor made Software
1. Nature of business	Small, conventional business	Large, medium business	Large
2. Cost of installation and maintenance	Low	Relatively high	High
3. Expected level of secrecy (software and data)	Low	Relatively high	Relatively high

Question 32.
Abstracts from the trial balance as on 31^st March, 2016?
Answer:

Adjustments:

1. Additional bad debts ₹2,000.
2. Create 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts. You are required to pass adjusting entries.

Answer:

Question 33.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method?
Answer:
Caluculation of amount of depreciation:

Question 34.
Complete the missing items:

Answer:

Question 35.
Give journal entries for the following transactions and post them to cash A/c and sales A/c?

Answer:

Question 36.
The following balances are extracted from the books of Murali, as on 31^st March, 2017. Prepare Trial balance?

Answer:

Question 37.
Enter the following transactions in the purchase book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods?

Answer:

Question 38.
Briefly explain about contra entry with examples?
Answer:
When the two accounts involved in a transactions are cash account and bank account, then both the aspects are entered in cash book itself. As both the debit and credit aspect of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, such entries are called contra entries.

Example: When cash is paid into bank, it is recorded in the bank column on the debit side and in the cash column on the credit side of the cash book.

Question 39.
Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales returns book is overcast by ₹1,000.
2. Purchases book is undercast by ₹2,000.
3. Purchase returns book is overcast by ₹500.

Answer:

1. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹1,000.
2. Purchases account should be debited with ₹2,000.
3. Purchase returns account should be debited with ₹500.

Question 40.
Classify the following receipts into capital and revenue:

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹75,000.
2. Loan borrowed from bank ₹2,50,000.
3. Sale of investment ₹1,20,000.

Answer:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Jayaseeli is a sole proprietor having a provisions store. Following are the transactions?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following:

1. Started business with cash ₹60,000
2. Purchased goods fof cash ₹20,000
3. Sold goods for cash (costing ₹10,000) for ₹15,000
4. Paid rent by cash ₹500
5. Cash withdrawn for personal use ₹5,000

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Pass journal entries and prepare ledger accounts in the books of Thamizhanban?

Answer:

`

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial balance from the following ledger abstract of Rathna Kumar?

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Record the following transactions in the purchases book of Shanthi furniture mart:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions of Fathima in the cash book with cash, bank and discount columns for the month of May, 2017?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales book is undercast by ₹100
2. Sales book is overcast by ₹200
3. Purchases book is undercast by ₹300
4. Purchases book is overcast by ₹400
5. Purchases returns book is undercast by ₹500

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹200
3. Purchases account should be debited with ₹300
4. Purchases account should be credited with ₹400
5. Purchases returns account should be credited with ₹500

Question 45 (a).
On 1^st April 2015, Kumar purchased a machine for ₹80,000 and spent ₹20,000 on its installation. The residual value at the end of its expected useful life of 8 years is estimated at ₹4,000. On 30^th September 2017, the machine is sold for v50,000. Depreciation is to be provided according to straight line method. Prepare machinery account. Accounts are closed on 31^st December every year?
Answer:

= Total  cost = Cost price of machine + installation
= 80,000 + 20,000
= 1,00,000
= \(\frac{12,000}{1,00,000}\) × 100
= 12%

[OR]

(b) State whether the following are capital, revenue or deferred revenue?

1. Legal fees paid to the lawyer after acquiring a land ₹20,000.
2. Heavy advertising cost of ₹12,00,000 spent on introducing a new product.
3. Renewal of factory licence ₹12,000.
4. A sum of ₹4,000 was spent on painting the factory.
5. Carriage paid on goods sold.

Answer:

1. Capital
2. Deferred revenue
3. Revenue
4. Revenue
5. Revenue

Question 46 (a).
The following is the extract of a trial balance as on 31^st December, 2017. Prepare Trading account:

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare profit and loss account for the year ended 31^st December, 2017?

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
From the following information, prepare final account of Mr. Jain for the year ended 31^st December, 2016?

Adjustments:

1. Salaries outstanding ₹600
2. Depreciation on furniture ₹1,000
3. Interest on capital₹1,000
4. Closing Stock ₹14,000

Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the differences among the three types of software? (Any five)
Answer: