Category: Class 12

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

12th Physics Guide Electromagnetic Waves Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I:

Text Book Evaluation:

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The dimension of \(\frac{1}{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}\)
(a) [LT^-1]
(b) [L² T^-2]
(c) [L^-1T]
(d) [L^-2 T²]
Answer:
(b) [L² T^-2]
Solution:
Dimension of µ₀ = MLT^-2A^-2
Dimension of ε₀ = M^-1L^-3 T⁴A²
∴ Dimension of = 1 µ₀ε₀

Question 2.
If the amplitude of the magnetic field is 3 × 10^-6 T, then amplitude of the electric field for a electromagnetic waves is
(a) 100 Vm^-1
(b) 300 Vm^-1
(c) 600 Vm^-1
(d) 900 Vm^-1
Ans:
(d) 900 Vm^-1
Solution:
Velocity of em wave C = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{0}}{\mathrm{~B}_{0}}\)
E₀ = C × B₀ = 3 × 10⁸ × 3 × 10^-6 = 900 Vm^-1

Question 3.
Which of the following electromagnetic radiation is used for viewing objects through fog
(a) Micro wave
(b) gamma rays
(c) x-rays
(d) infrared
Answer:
(d) infrared
Solution:
Infrared ray can pass through mist, fog, cloud etc.,

Question 4.
Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves
(a) transverse
(b) mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal
(d) produced by accelerating charges
Answer:
(c) longitudinal
Solution:
Electromagnetic wave does not need any medium for its propagation. So it is non-mechanical, transverse wave.

Question 5.
Consider an oscillator which has a charged particle oscillating about its mean position with a frequency of 300 MHz. The wavelength of electro magnetic waves produced by this oscillator is
(a) 1 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 100 m
(d) 1000 m
Answer:
(a) 1 m
Solution:
f = 300MHz = 3 × 10⁸ HZ
Velocity of electromagnetic wave

Question 6.
The electric and the magnetic fields, associated with an electromagnetic wave, propagating along negative x axis can be represented by
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E₀ î and B = B₀ k̂
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E₀ k̂ and B = B₀ ĵ
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E₀ î and B = B₀ ĵ
(d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E₀ ĵ and B = B₀ î
Answer:
(d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E₀ ĵ and B = B₀ î
Solution:

Question 7.
In an electromagnetic wave in free space the rms value of the electric field is 3 Vm^-1. The peak value of the magnetic field is
(a) 1.414 × 10^-8 T
(b) 1.0 × 10^-8 T
(c) 2.828 × 10^-8 T
(d) 2.0 × 10^-8 T
Answer:
(a) 1.414 × 10^-8 T
Solution:

Question 8.
An e.m. wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}\) = vî . The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this e.m. wave is along +y-axis, then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the e.m. wave will be along.
(a) – y direction
(b) – x direction
(c) + z direction
(d) – z direction
Answer:
(c) + z direction

Question 9.
If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be modified?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer:
(b)
Solution:
In this equation displacement current not taken into account. So it should be modified.

Question 10.
Fraunhofer lines are an example of ………… spectrum.
(a) line emission
(b) line absorption
(c) band emission
(d) band absorption
Answer:
(b) line absorption

Question 11.
Which of the following is an electromagnetic wave?
(a) α – rays
(b) β – rays
(c) γ – rays
(d) all of them
Answer:
(c) y – rays
Solution:
α – rays – Helium Nucleus (₂He⁴)
β – rays – Electron (e_-1)
γ – rays – Quantum of electromagnetic energy

Question 12.
Which one of them is used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
(a) an accelerating charge
(b) a charge moving with constant velocity
(c) a stationary charge
(d) an uncharged particle
Answer:
(a) an accelerating charge
Solution:
By changing the electric field at a point alone can produce a change in the magnetic field at that point. Hence, an electromagnetic wave can propagate.

(b) a charge moving at constant velocity has no acceleration. So, the electric field will not charge

Question 13.
Let E = E₀ sin [10⁶x – ωt] be the electric field of plane electromagnetic wave, the value of ω is
(a) 0.3 × 10^-4 rad s^-1
(b) 3 × 10^-14 rad s^-1
(c) 0.3 × 10¹⁴ rad s^-1
(d) 3 × 10¹⁴ rad s^-1
Answer:
(d) 3 × 10¹⁴ rad s^-1
Solution:

Question 14.
Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?
(a) it transports energy
(b) it transports momentum
(c) it transports angular momentum
(d) in a vacuum, it travels at different speeds which depend on its frequency
Answer:
(d) in a vacuum, it travels at different speeds which depend on its frequency
Solution:
Reason:
All electromagnetic waves with different frequencies travel with the same velocity 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1 in a vacuum. But in medium depending upon their wavelength the speed varies. C_m α \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)

Question 15.
The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are
(a) in phase and perpendicular to each other
(b) out of phase and not perpendicular to each other
(c) in phase and not perpendicular to each other
(d) out of phase and perpendicular to each other
Answer:
(a) in phase and perpendicular to each other
Solution:
In electromagnetic wave E_y = E₀ sin (ky – ωt) B_z = B₀ sin (kz – ωt) phase difference between electric and magnetic components in electromagnetic wave is zero ∆Φ = 0

II. Short Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What is displacement current?
Answer:
The displacement current can be defined as the current which comes into play in the region in which the electric field and the electric flux are changing with time.

Question 2.
What are electromagnetic waves?
Answer:
1. Electromagnetic waves are non-mechanical waves that move with speed equals to the speed of light (in a vacuum).
2. It is a transverse wave.

Question 3.
Write down the integral form of modified Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
This law relates the magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through that path.

Question 4.
Write notes an Gauss’ law in magnetism.
Answer:
The surface integral of magnetic field over a closed surface is zero mathematicaly,
\(\oint\)\(\vec{B}\).d\(\vec{A}\) = 0 where B is the magnetic field.

Question 5.
Give two uses for each of the following.
(i) IR radiation
(ii) Microwaves and
(iii) UV radiation.
Answer:
(i) IR radiation:

1. To produce dehydrated fruits
2. TV remote as a signal comer.

(ii) Microwaves:

1. In radar system for aircraft navigation
2. Microwave oven for cooking

(iii) UV radiation:

1. To destroy bacteria
2. To burglar alarm.

Question 6.
What are Fraunhofer lines? How are they useful in the identification elements present in the sun?
Answer:
When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it consists of a large number of dark lines (line absorption spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as Fraunhofer lines.

Question 7.
Write notes on Ampere – Maxwell law.
Answer:
Maxwell modified Ampere’s law as

where the total current enclosed by the surface becomes the sum of conduction current and displacement current. The equation (1) is known as Ampere – Maxwell law.

Question 8.
Why are e.m waves non-mechanical?
Answer:
Electromagnetic waves are produced by an accelerated charge and do not require any medium for propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-mechanical wave.

III. Long Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
White down Maxwell equations in integral form.
Answer:
1. Electrodynamics can be summarized into four basic equations, known as Maxwell’s Equations.
2. First equation is Gauss Law, it relates net electric flux and net charge

3. Second equation has no name but can be called Gauss Law in magnetism. It states that the surface integral of the magnetic field over a closed surface is zero.
\(\vec{B}\) . d\(\vec{A}\) = 0

4. Third equation is Faraday’s Laws of electromagnetic induction.
\(\oint\) \(\vec{E}\) . d\(\vec{l}\) = – \(\frac{d}{d t}\) Φ_B

5. The line integral of the electric field ground any closed path is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the closed path bounded by the surface.

6. Fourth Equation is modified Ampere’s Circuital Law known as Ampere – Maxwell’s Law

7. This law relates the magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through the path. These four equations are known as Maxwell’s Equation in electrodynamics.

Question 2.
Write short notes on
(a) Microwave
(b) X – Ray
(c) Radio Waves
(d) Visible Spectrum
Answer:
Microwaves:
It is produced by electromagnetic oscillators in electric circuits. The wavelength range is 1 x 10^-3 m to 3 x 10^-1 m and frequency range is 3 x 10¹¹ Hz to 1 x 10⁹ Hz. It obeys reflection and polarization. It is used in radar system for aircraft navigation, speed of the vehicle, microwave oven for cooking and very long-distance wireless communication through satellites.

X-rays:
It is produced when there is a sudden deceleration of high speed electrons at high- atomic number target, and also by electronic transitions among the innermost orbits of atoms. The wavelength range 10^-13 m to 10^-8 m and frequency range are 3 x 10²¹ Hz to 1 x 10¹⁶ Hz. X-rays have more penetrating power than ultraviolet radiation.

X-rays are used extensively in studying structures of inner atomic electron shells and crystal structures. It is used in detecting fractures, diseased organs, formation of bones and stones, observing the progress of healing bones. Further, in a finished metal product, it is used to detect faults, cracks, flaws and holes.

Radio waves:
It is produced by oscillators in electric circuits. The wavelength range is 1 x 10^-1 m to 1 x 10⁴ m and the frequency range is 3 x 10⁹ Hz to 3 x 10⁴ Hz. It obeys reflection and diffraction. It is used in radio and television communication systems and also in cellular phones to transmit voice communication in the ultrahigh-frequency band.

Visible light:
It is produced by incandescent bodies and also it is radiated by excited atoms in gases. The wavelength range is 4 x 10^-7 m to 7 x 10^-7 m and the frequency range is 7 x 10¹⁴ Hz to 4 x 10¹⁴Hz. It obeys the laws of reflection, refraction, interference, diffraction, polarization, photoelectric effect, and photographic action. It can be used to study the structure of molecules, the arrangement of electrons in external shells of atoms, and the sensation of our eyes.

Question 3.
Discuss the Hertz experiment.
Answer:

The existence of electromagnetic waves was experimentally confirmed by Hertz in 1888.

Construction:

1. It consists of two metal electrodes (S₁, S₂) which are made of small spherical metals.
2. These are connected to large spheres (A, B) and the ends of them are connected to an induction coil with a very large number of turns (H.T. Coil)

Working:

1. The induction coil produces a very high electromotive force (emf)
2. Since the coil is maintained at very high potential are between the electrodes (S₁, S₂) get ionized and spark is produced.
3. The gap between the ring type electrode kept at a distance also gets spark.
4. This implies that energy is transmitted from an electrode (S₁, S₂) to the receiver (x, y)
5. If the receiver (x, y) is rotated by 90° no spark is observed by the receiver.
6. This confirms that electromagnetic waves are transverse.
7. Hertz produced radio wave which also travels with the velocity of light (3 × 10⁸ ms^-1).

Question 4.
Explain the Maxwell’s modification Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
Ampere’s circuital law is \(\oint\)\(\vec{B}\).d\(\vec{s}\) = µ₀I
Modification by J.C. Maxwell on Ampere’s circuital law

1. Due to external source applied between the plates, the increasing current flowing through the capacitor produce an increasing electric field between the plates.

2. This change in the electric field between the capacitor plate produce a current between the plates.

3. The time varying electric flux between the plate of the capacitor produce a current known as displacement current.

I_d is the displacement current.

4. The displacement current is defined as the current which comes into play in the region in which the electric field and the electric flux are changing with time.

5. So, Maxwell modified Ampere’s Law

Total current I = conduction current I_c + displacement current I_d

Question 5.
Explain the importance of Maxwell’s correction.
Answer:
1. Ampere’s law says that only an electric current can produce a magnetic field. If Ampere’s law alone is true, there will not be anv radiation.

2. Maxwell’s correction term \(\left(\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{E}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)\)

3. In ampere’s law ensures that time varying electric field or displacement current can also produce magnetic field.

4. Though conduction current is zero in an empty space displacement current does exist. So Maxwell equation becomes

5. Faraday’s law this time-varying magnetic field produces again time-varying electric field and so on.

6. The coupled time varying electric and magnetic fields travel through empty space with the speed of light and is called electromagnetic wave.

7. Even though Maxwell initially started with a purely symmetry argument his correction term explains one of the important aspects of the universe namely the existence of electro magnetic waves.

Question 6.
Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
1. Electromagnetic waves are produced bv any accelerated charges.

2. Do not require any medium for propagation. They are non-mechanical wave.

3. Electric field vector, magnetic field vector and direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves are mutually perpendicular to each other. Hence they are transverse in nature.

4. They travel in free space or vacuum with a velocity C = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1 and it is given by the expression C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{o}}}\)

5. In medium electromagnetic wave travel with velocity less than speed in free space or vacuum.
velocity in medium V = \(\frac{C}{\mu}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}} \mu_{\mathrm{r}}}}\)

6. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

7. They can undergo interference, diffraction and polarisation.

8. The energy density of electromagnetic wave is
U = ε_oE² = \(\frac{1}{\mu_{\mathrm{o}}}\) B²

9. The average energy’ density’ of electromagnetic wave (U) = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{o}} \mathrm{E}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{\mathrm{\mu}_{\mathrm{O}}} \mathrm{B}^{2}\)

10. They carry’ energy’ and linear momentum which is equal to

11. If electromagnetic waves of energy’ U in completely absorbed by a surface, the momentum imparted on the surface is
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\mathrm{C}}\)

12. If an electromagnetic wave of energy U is completely reflected by the surface, momentum delivered to the surface is
Δp = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{U}}{\mathrm{C}}\)

13. Rate of flow of energy crossing per unit area is known as pointing vector for electromagnetic wave

14. Along with energy, linear momentum of the electromagnetic wave also has angular momentum.

Question 7.
Discuss the source of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
The source of electromagnetic wave is accelerating electric charges.

Explanation:
1. Stationary charges produce only electric field.
2. All oscillatory motions are accelerating motion.
3. If a charge is accelerated along x-axis, it produce a change in electric field along y-axis E_y = E₀ sin (kz – ωt)
4. A linked magnetic field produced mutually perpendicular to electric field direction, so it point along x-axis, B_x = B₀ sin (kz – ωt)
5. Now both the electric field vectors and magnetic field vectors have the property of a wave and propagate along z-axis with the velocity of light.
6. n free space or in vacuum, the ratio between E₀ and B₀ is equal to the speed of

Propagation of an Electromagnetic wave

Oscillating charges – sources of electromagnetic waves

electromagnetic wave C = \(\frac{E_{0}}{B_{0}}\)
But in medium velocity v = \(\frac{E_{0}}{B_{0}}\) < C
7. Energy of electromagnetic waves comes from the energy of oscillating charge.

Question 8.
Explain the types of emission spectrum.
Answer:
1. Emission spectra:
When the spectrum of self luminous source is taken, we get emission spectrum. Each source has its own characteristic emission spectrum.
Types:
1. Continuous Emission Spectra
2. Line emission spectra
3. Band emission spectra

1. Continuous Emission Spectra:
It consist of wavelength containing all the visible colours ranging from violet to red. Example: Spectrum from carbon arc, incandescent solids, liquids.

2. Line Emission Spectra:
1. Line spectra are sharp lines of definite wave length or frequencies.
2. Light from hot gas is allowed to pass through a prism, we get line spectrum (or) discontinuous spectrum.
3. Line spectra arises due to excited atoms of element.
4. They are the characteristics of the element. Example: Spectra of atomic hydrogen, helium etc.

3. Band Emission Spectra:
1. Band spectrum consists of several numbers of very closely spaced spectral lines which overlapped together forming specific bands which are separated by dark spaces known as band spectra.

2. This spectrum has a sharp edge at one end and fades out at the other end.

3. This spectrum arises when molecules are excited so, they are the characteristics of molecules. Used to study the structure of molecules.
Example: Spectra of hydrogen gas, ammonia gas in the discharge tube.

Question 9.
Explain the types of the absorption spectrum.
Answer:
Absorption Spectra: When light is allowed to pass through an absorbing substance then the spectrum obtained is known as absorption spectra. This spectrum is the characteristic of absorbing substances.

Types:

1. Continuous absorption spectrum
2. Line absorption spectrum
3. Band absorption spectrum

1. Continuous absorption spectrum:
When light is passed through a medium then if it is dispersed by a prism, we get continuous absorption spectrum.
Example: When white light passes through a blue glass plate, it absorbs everything except blue.

2. Line absorption spectrum:
When white light from the incandescent lamp is passed through cold gas, the spectrum obtained through the dispersion due to prism is line absorption spectrum.
Example:
When light from carbon arc made to pass through sodium vapour lamp; a continuous spectrum of carbon arc with two dark line in the yellow region is obtained.

3. Band absorption spectrum:
When white light is pass through iodine vapour or diluted solution of blood or chlorophyll or through certain solutions of organic and inorganic compounds dark bands as the continuous bright background is obtained.

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
Consider a parallel plate capacitor whose plates are closely spaced. Let R be the radius of the plates and the current in the wire connected to the plates is 5 A, calculate the displacement current through the surface passing between the plates by directly calculating the rate of change of flux of electric field through the surface.
Answer:
I_d = I_c = 5A
I_d = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
I_d = 5 A

Question 2.
A transmitter consists of an LC circuit with an inductance of 1 µH and capacitance of 1 µF. What is the wavelength of the electromagnetic waves it emits?
Answer:
18.84 × 10^-6m

= C × 2π × √LC
= 3 × 10⁸ × 6.28 × 10^-6 × 10^-6
= 3 × 10⁸ × 6.28 × 10^-6
= 18.86 × 10² m

Question 3.
A pulse of light of duration 10^-6 s is absorbed completely by a small object initially at rest. If the power of the pulse is 60 × 10^-3 W, calculate the final momentum of the object.
Answer:

Question 4.
Let an electromagnetic wave propagation along the x-direction, the magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 10¹⁰ Hz and has an amplitude of 10^-5 T, acting along the y-direction. Then, compute the wavelength of the wave. Also, write down the expression for the electric field in this case.
Answer:
Given Data:
f = 10¹⁰ Hz
B₀ = 10^-5T
1. Wavelength λ = ?
2. Expression for electric field Ex = ?
The velocity of Electromagnetic wave in free space
C = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{0}}{\mathrm{~B}_{0}}\)
∴ E₀ = C × B₀ = 3 × 10⁸ × 10^-5
E₀ = 3 × 10³ NC^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{C}{f}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{10^{10}}\) = 3 × 10^-2 m

(i) wavelength of electromagnetic wave λ = 3 × 10^-2 m

(ii) Expression for electric field:
E_z = E₀ sin (kz – ωt)
wave number k = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = 2π/3 × 10^-2 = 0.66π × 10² A
k = 66π m^-1 = 2.09 × 10²
Angular frequency ω = 2πf = 2π × 10¹⁰ rad s^-1
= 3 × 10³ sin (2.09 × 10²x – 6.28 × 10¹⁰t)

Question 5.
If the relative permeability and relative permittivity of a medium is 1.0 and 2.25, respectively. Find the speed of the electromagnetic wave in this medium.
Answer:
Given Data:
µ_r = 1.0, ε_r = 2.25
Velocity of electromagnetic wave in medium
v = ?
The velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a medium
V = \(\frac{C}{\mu}\)
Refractive index µ = \(\sqrt{\varepsilon r \mu r}\)

Part II:

12th Physics Guide Electromagnetic Waves Additional Questions and Answers

I. Matching Type Questions:

Question a.

(1) A → b, B → c, C → d, D → a
(2) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → c
(3) A → c, B → d, C → b, D → a
(4) A → c, B → a, C → d, D → b
Answer:
(3) A → c, B → d, C → b, D → a

Question b.

(1) A → d, B → C, C → a, D → b
(2) A → c, B → a, C → d, D → b
(3) A → b, B → C, C → d, D → a
(4) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → C
Answer:
(1) A → d, B → C, C → a, D → b

Question c.

(A)  Microwave	a. Night vision photography
(B) Ultraviolet radiation	b. Crystal structure
(C) X-rays	c. Molecular structure
(D) Infrared radiation	d. Aircraft navigation

(1) A → c, B → d, C → b, D → a
(2) A → b, B → c, C → d, D → a
(3) A → d, B →c, C → b, D → a
(4) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → c
Ans:
(3) A → d, B →c, C → b, D → a

Question d.

(1) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → c
(2) A → c, B → a, C → d, D → b
(3) A → d, B → c, C → a, D → b
(4) A → b, B → d, C → a, D → c
Answer:
(4) A → b, B → d, C → a, D → c

Question e.

(A) Carbon arc	a. Line emission spectrum
(B) Spectra of atomic helium	b. Band emission spectra
(C) Molecular structure	c. Line absorption spectra
(D) Spectrum obtained from sun	d. Continuous emission spectrum

(1) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → c
(2) A → c, B → a, C → d, D → b
(3) A → c, B → d, C → b, D → a
(4) A → b, B → d, C → a, D → c
Answer:
(1) A → d, B → a, C → b, D → c

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Electromagnetic wave are _________ in nature.
Answer:
Transverse

Question 2.
The phase difference between electric and magnetic field vectors in an electromagnetic wave _________.
Answer:
Zero

Question 3.
The angle between electric and magnetic component in an electromagnetic wave is _________.
Answer:
\(\pi / 2\) (or) 90°

Question 4.
Linear momentum of electromagnetic wave is _________.
Answer:

Question 5.
The rate of flow of energy crossing in unit area is known as _________.
Answer:
Pointing vector

Question 6.
The expression for intensity of electromagnetic wave is equal to _________.
Answer:

Question 7.
The electromagnetic wave from the sun which is absorbed by atmospheric ozone is _________.
Answer:
Ultraviolet rays

Question 8.
The electromagnetic wave produced by Hertz is _________.
Answer:
Radio waves

Question 9.
When white light passing through chlorophyll it gives _________.
Answer:
Band absorption spectrum

Question 10.
The wavelength range of visible light is _________ to _________.
Answer:
4 × 10^-7m to 7 × 10^-7 m

III. Choose the Odd One Out:

Question 1.
a) Velocity of light in vacuum
b) 3 × 108 ms^-1
c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0}} \varepsilon_{0}}\)
d) \(\sqrt{\mu_{\mathrm{r}} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}}}\)
Answer:
d) \(\sqrt{\mu_{\mathrm{r}} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}}}\)

Question 2.
a) Fraunhofer
b) J.C. Maxwell
c) Hertz
d) Michael
Answer:
a) Fraunhofer

Question 3.
a) x-ray
b) Gamma rays
c) Microwave
d) Ultraviolet ray
Answer:
c) Microwave

Question 4.
a) Ampere – Maxwell law

b) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)

c) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0}\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{d}}\right)\)

d) \(\oint \overrightarrow{B .} \overrightarrow{d l}\) = \(\mu_{0} \quad I_{0}+\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \frac{d}{d t} \int_{S} \vec{E} \cdot d \vec{A}\)
Answer:
b) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)

Question 5.
a) \(\varepsilon_{0}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
b) Displacement current
c) μ₀I₀
d) \(\varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}} \int_{\mathrm{S}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E} \cdot \mathrm{d}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)
Answer:
c) μ₀I₀

IV. Choose the Incorrect Pair:

Question 1.
a) Electromagnetic wave – Transverse
b) The ratio between the amplitude of the electric wave and magnetic components is an electromagnetic wave – Speed of electromagnetic wave
c) Hertz – Ultraviolet radiation
d) Momentum imparted by electromagnetic p = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\mathrm{C}}\)
Answer:
c) Hertz produced radio waves.

Question 2.
a) Atomic spectrum – pure line spectrum
b) Solar spectrum – line spectrum
c) Molecules – Band Spectrum
d) Carbon arc – Continuous emission spectrum
Answer:
b) Solar spectrum is the line absorption spectrum

Question 3.
a) Refractive index of a medium – μ = \(\sqrt{\varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{r}}}\)
b) Pointing vector – \(\vec{S}=C^{2} \varepsilon_{0}(\vec{B} \times \vec{E})\)
c) To detect faults, cracks, flaws, and holes – X-rays
d) Fraunhofer lines – Sun’s atmosphere
Answer:
b) Pointing vector – \(\vec{S}=C^{2} \varepsilon_{0}(\vec{B} \times \vec{E})\)

Question 4.
a) Net electric flux and net charge – Gauss law
b) Electric field and magnetic flux – Faraday’s law
c) Magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current – Maxwell’s law
d) Magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through that path – Ampere – Maxwell’s law
Answer:
c) Magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current

V. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.
a) Wavelength range of radio wave – 3 × 10⁹ m to 3 × 10⁴ m
b) Wavelength range of ultraviolet radiation – 5 × 10¹⁷ m to 7 × 10¹⁴ m
c) Wavelength range of Gamma radiation – 10^-14 m to 1 × 10^-10 m
d) Wavelength range of Infrared radiation – 4 × 10¹⁴ to 6 × 10¹⁰ m
Answer:
c) Wavelength range of Gamma radiation – 10^-14 cm to 1 × 10^-10 m

Question 2.
a) Incandescent solids – Band absorption spectra
b) Spectrum from carbon arc – Line spectrum
c) Spectra of atomic hydrogen – Line absorption spectrum
d) the characteristics of substance – Absorption spectrum
Answer:
d) the characteristics of substance – Absorption spectrum

Question 3.
a) Maxwell’s prediction on the electromagnetic wave was verified by – Ampere
b) Rate of change in the magnetic field produces electric field – Gauss
c) Total electric flux is equal to 1 ε/0 times net charge enclosed by the surface – Gauss law
d) An example of mechanical wave – Electromagnetic waves
Answer:
c) Total electric flux is equal to 1 ε/o times net charge enclosed by the surface – Gauss law

Question 4.
a) Velocity of x-ray in vacuum is – 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
b) Velocity of x-ray in medium – 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
c) Electromagnetic waves – Deflected by both electric and magnetic field
d) The electric component of electromagnetic wave – E_z = E₀ Sin (kz – ωt) ms^-1
Answer:
a) Velocity of x-ray in vacuum is – 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1

VI. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A):
The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium is always less than the velocity of electromagnetic wave in free space (or) vacuum
Reason (R):
The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave decreases when traveling into a denser medium but frequency does not change
a) A is correct R is wrong
b) A is wrong R is correct
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are wrong
Answer:
c) A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A):
Refractive index of air is \(\mu=\sqrt{\mu_{0}}\)
Reason (R):
Since the dielectric constant of air equal to one (ε_r = 1 for air). The Refractive index of air \(\mu=\sqrt{\mu_{r}}\)
a) A is correct R is wrong
b) A is wrong R is correct
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are wrong
Answer:
b) A is wrong R is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A):
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} A}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {enclosed }}}{\epsilon_{0}}\)
\(\oint_{\vec{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} A}\) (Gauss law in electrostatics)
Reason (R):
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} A}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {enclosed }}}{\epsilon_{0}}\)
\(\oint_{\vec{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} A}\) since isolated charges cannot exist since isolated magnetic monopole exist.
a) A is correct R is wrong
b) A is wrong R is correct
c) A and R are correct
d) Aand Rare wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct R is wrong

Question 4.
Assertion (A):
All medium other than air has relative permittivity less than one
Reason (R):
Electromagnetic wave travels faster in a medium than in air
a) A is correct R is wrong
b) A is wrong R is correct
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are wrong
Answer:
d) A and R are wrong

VII. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
a) Maxwell’s law of induction states that Time-varying electric field produces a magnetic field
b) Faraday’s law of induction states that Time-varying electric field produces a magnetic field
c) Hertz experimentally proved accelerated charges produce an only magnetic field
d) Ampere’s law states that total flux over any surface enclosing a charge q is always zero.
Answer:
a) Maxwell’s law of induction states that Time-varying electric field produces a magnetic field

Question 2.
a) Electromagnetic waves need a medium for its propagation
b) Electromagnetic waves are mostly transverse, it can also longitudinal wave
c) Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated charges
d) The ratio between electric energy and magnetic energy in an electromagnetic wave is 2:1
Answer:
c) Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated charges

Question 3.
a) Electromagnetic waves have only linear momentum no angular momentum.
b) The energy density of the electromagnetic wave is u = \(\frac{\beta^{2}}{2 \mu_{0}}\)
c) The average energy density of electromagnetic wave is u = \(\frac{\beta^{2}}{\mu_{0}}\)
d) If the electromagnetic wave incident on a surface, the momentum imparted as the surface is p = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{c}}\)
Answer:
d) If the electromagnetic wave incident on a surface, the momentum imparted as the surface is p = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{c}}\)

Question 4.
a) Cellular phones used infrared radiation.
b) Molecular spectrum is sharp at one end and fades out at the other end.
c) When light from the incandescent lamp passed through cold gas, the spectrum obtained is the Band absorption spectrum.
d) Fraunhofer lines help to identify the elements in the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
b) Molecular spectrum is sharp at one end and fades out at the other end.

VIII. Choose the Incorrect Statement:

Question 1.
a) According to Faraday change in the magnetic field at a point with respect to time produces an electric field at that point
b) Amperes law is the line integral of the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) around any closed loop is equal to iiü times the net current I threading through the area enclosed by the loop.
c) Total current enclosed by a surface is the sum of conduction current and displacement current
I = I_c + I_d
d) When a constant current is applied between the plates of capacitor I_c = 0 and hence I = I_d
Answer:
d) When a constant current is applied between the plates of capacitor I_c = 0 and hence I = I_d

Question 2.
a) Velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a medium of refractive index 1.5 is 2.25 × 108 ms^-1
b) If the velocity of the electromagnetic wave is 2 × 10⁸ ms^-1 the refractive index of the medium is 2
c) If the velocity of light is 2.25 x 10⁸ ms^-1 the medium must have a refractive index of 1.33
d) If the refractive index of a medium increases the velocity of electromagnetic wave decreases.
Answer:
c) If the velocity of light is 2.25 x 10⁸ ms^-1 the medium must have a refractive index of 1.33

Question 3.
a) Intensity of electromagnetic wave I = \(\frac{\text { Energy }(\mathrm{U})}{\text { Area }(\mathrm{A}) \times \text { Time }(\mathrm{T})}\)
b) Intensity of electromagnetic wave I = \(\frac{\text { Power }(\mathrm{P})}{\text { Surface Area }(\mathrm{A})}\)
c) Energy density in an electric field is \(\frac{1}{2}\) ε₀ E²
d) Energy density in a magnetic field is \(\frac{1}{2}\) µ₀ B²
Answer:
d) Energy density in a magnetic field is \(\frac{1}{2}\) µ₀ B²

Question 4.
a) Electromagnetic waves carry not only energy and momentum but also angular momentum in
b) The dark line in the solar spectrum are known as Fraunhofer lines
c) Solar spectrum is the best example for line absorption spectrum
d) The instantaneous magnitude of the electric and magnetic field vectors in an electromagnetic wave are related by
B = Ec
Answer:
d) The instantaneous magnitude of the electric and magnetic field vectors in an electromagnetic wave are related by
B = Ec

IX. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is given by
(a) μ₀ε₀
(b) \(\sqrt { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ \varepsilon }_{ 0 } } \)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ { \mu }_{ 0 }{ \varepsilon }_{ 0 } } \)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ \varepsilon }_{ 0 } } } \)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ \varepsilon }_{ 0 } } } \).

Question 2.
Electromagnetic waves are
a) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
b) Longitudinal
c) transverse
d) both longitudinal and transverse
Answer:
c) transverse

Question 3.
If E and B be the electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic wave, then the propagation of the wave is along the direction of
(a) E
(b) B
(c) E x B
(d) Bx E
Answer:
(c) E x B.

Question 4.
To produce a displacement of 8.854 mA between the parallel plate capacitor in 0.2 μs, the change in electric flux must be
a) 200 Wb
b) 20 Wb
c) 2 Wb
d) 0.2 Wb
Answer:
a) 200 Wb
Solution:

Question 5.
Maxwell’s modified Ampere’s Law is
a) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0}\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{d}}\right)\)

b) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}\)

c) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}\)

d) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0}\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{d}}\right)\)
Answer:
d) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=\mu_{0}\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{c}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{d}}\right)\)

Question 6.
Hertz produced an electromagnetic wave of frequency 5 × 10⁷ Hz means, the wavelength of
the wave is
a) 150 m
b) 15 m
c) 6 m
d) 60 m
Answer:
c) 6 m
Solution:
λ = \(\frac{C}{\gamma}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{7}}=\frac{30}{5}\) = 6 m

Question 7.
In Hertz experiment, the energy of the electromagnetic wave is
a) Kinetic energy of the oscillating charge
b) Potential energy of the charge
c) Electric energy between plates
d) Magnetic energy of the connecting wires
Answer:
a) Kinetic energy of the oscillating charge

Question 8.
A medium has a refractive index of 1.5 with relative permittivity of 2 has a relative magnetic permeability
a) 11.25
b) 112.5
c) 1.125
d) 2.125
Answer:
c) 1.125
Solution:

Question 9.
The electromagnetic radiation most prevalent in the atmosphere is
(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared
(c) UV
(d) Radio waves
Answer:
(b) Infrared.

Question 10.
An electromagnetic wave of energy U is completely transferred to a surface, the momentum imparted on the surface is
a) U
b) Uc
c) U/c
d) c/U
Answer:
c) U/c

Question 11.
The average energy density of an electromagnetic wave of magnetic field 4π × 10^-7 T is
a) 2π × 10^-7 Jm^-3
b) 4π × 10^-7 Jm^-3
c) 19.878 × 10^-6 Jm^-3
d) 6.626 × 10^-7 Jm^-3
Answer:
a) 2π × 10^-7 Jm^-3
Solution:

Question 12.
The greenhouse effect is caused by
(a) UV rays
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) IR rays
Answer:
(d) IR rays.

Question 13.
The velocity of electromagnetic wave in free space or vacuum is
a) 3 × 10^-8 ms^-1
b) \(\sqrt{\mu_{\mathrm{o}} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{o}}}\) ms^-1
c) \(\frac{1}{\mu_{r} \varepsilon_{r}}\) ms^-1
d) \(\left(\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}\right)^{-1 / 2}\) ms^-1
Answer:
d) \(\left(\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}\right)^{-1 / 2}\) ms^-1

Question 14.
The velocity of an electromagnetic wave through a medium which a permeability in free space 4π × 10^-7 Hm^-1 and permittivity in free space of 8.854 × 10^-12 C²N^-1m² is
a) 2 × 10⁸ ms^-1
b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
c) 2.25 × 10⁸ ms^-1
d) 1.5 × 10⁸ ms^-1
Answer:
b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
Solution:

Question 15.
The peak value of an electric field in an electromagnetic wave is 3√2 Vm^-1. The peak value of the magnetic field is
a) 1.414 × 10^-8 T
b) 1.0 × 10^-8 T
c) 2.828 × 10^-8 T
d) 2.0 × 10^-8 T
Answer:
a) 1.414 × 10^-8 T
Solution:

Question 16.
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave
a) x-ray
b) u-v ray
c) β-ray
d) γ-ray
Answer:
c) β-ray

Question 17.
The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to
(a) the speed of light in vacuum
(b) reciprocal of the speed of light in vacuum
(c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to electric susceptibility in vacuum
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) reciprocal of the speed of light in vacuum.

Question 18.
The current in the electric circuit which arises due to the flow of electrons in the connecting wires of the circuit in a defined closed path is called
a) alternating current
b) direct current
c) conduction current
d) displacement current
Answer:
c) conduction current

Question 19.
The conduction current is the same as the displacement current when the source is
a) ac only
b) dc only
c) either ac or dc
d) neither dc nor ac
Answer:
c) either ac or dc

Question 20.
If a variable frequency ac source connected to a capacitor then with a decrease in frequency, the displacement current will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains constant
d) first decrease then increase
Answer:
b) decrease
Solution:
Current through capacitor,
I = \(\frac{E}{X_{C}}\) = \(\begin{array}{c}
\mathrm{E} \\
\hline 1 \\
\hline \omega C
\end{array}\)
= ωCE
= 2πυ CE or I ∝ υ.
decrease in frequency υ of ac source decreases the conduction current. As displacement current is equal to conduction current, decrease in υ decreases displacement current in circuit.

Question 21.
An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of 10 cm. It is in the
(a) Visible region
(b) Radio region
(c) UV region
(d) X-ray region
Answer:
(b) Radio region.

Question 22.
The displacement current was first postulated by
a) Maxwell
b) Marconi
c) Ampere
d) Hertz
Answer:
a) Maxwell

Question 23.
Ampere’s circuital law holds good for
a) conduction current
b) displacement current
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both (a) and (b)
Solution:
In the steady-state \(\oint\) B.dl = μ₀(I) where I is conduction current.
(In non steady state \(\oint\) B di = (I + I_d) where I_d is displacement current.)

Question 24.
Which of the following has maximum frequency?
(a) X-rays
(b) IR rays
(c) UV rays
(d) Radio waves
Answer:
(a) X-rays.

Question 25.
Displacement current is due to
a) continuous when an electric field is changing in the circuit
b) continuous when the magnetic field is changing in the circuit
c) continuous in both types of fields
d) continuous through wires and resistance only
Answer:
a) continuous when an electric field is changing in the circuit
Solution:
The displacement current is set up in a region where the electric field is changing with time.

Question 26.
The displacement current is
a) ε_odΦ_E / dt
b) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{\mathrm{R}} \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
c) ε_oE / R
d) ε_oqC / R
Answer:
a) Id = ε_odΦ_E / dt

Question 27.
The frequency of a wave is 6 x 10¹⁵ Hz. The wave is
(a) Radio wave
(b) Microwave
(c) X-ray
(d) UV rays
Answer:
(d) UV rays.

Question 28.
If \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\) represent the electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic wave, then the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave, is along
a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\)
b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)
c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\)
d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)
Answer:
d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)

Question 29.
According to Maxwell’s by hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to
a) an e.m.f
b) electric displacement field
c) magnetic field
d) pressure gradient
Answer:
c) magnetic field
Solution:
According to Maxwell, a changing electric field is a source of the magnetic field.

Question 30.
An electromagnetic wave propagating along the north has its electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector point towards
a) north
b) east
c) west
d) downwards
Answer:
b) east

Question 31.
Vertical straight conduct carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a small distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is
a) Greater than that at Q
b) Same as at Q
c) Less than at Q
d) Greater or less than at Q depending upon the strength of the current.
Answer:
b) Same as at Q

Question 32.
Gamma rays are used in the treatment of
a) Cancer
b) Polio
c) AIDS
d) Tuberculosis
Answer:
a) Cancer

Question 33.
Which of the following types of radiations are radiated by an oscillating electric charge?
a) Electric
b) Magnetic
c) Thermoelectric
d) Electromagnetic
Answer:
d) Electromagnetic

Question 34.
If \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\) are the electric and magnetic field vectors of e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e.m. wave is along the direction of
a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\)
b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)
c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)
d) None of these
Answer:
c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\)
SoIution:
The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to the varia Lion of electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) as well as to the magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\).

Question 35.
According to Maxwell’s equation, the velocity of light in any medium is expressed as
a) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{o} \varepsilon_{o}}}\)
b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
c) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu}{\varepsilon}}\)
d) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu_{0}}{\varepsilon}}\)
Answer:
b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
Solution:
Velocity of light in a medium,
c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \mu_{r} \varepsilon_{r}}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)

Question 36.
The electromagnetic waves do not transport
a) energy
b) charge
c) momentum
d) information
Answer:
b) charge

Question 37.
The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields related to each other are
a) E₀ = B₀
b) E₀ = cB₀
c) E₀ = \(\frac{B_{0}}{c}\)
d) E₀ = \(\frac{c}{B_{0}}\)
Answer:
b) E₀ = cB₀

Question 38.
In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\) is
a) parallel to the electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)
b) perpendicular to the electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)
c) antiparallel to the pointing vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}\)
d) random
Answer:
b) perpendicular to the electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)

Question 39.
The speed of the electromagnetic wave is the same for
a) odd frequencies
b) even frequencies
c) all frequencies
d) all intensities
Answer:
d) all intensities
Solution:
The speed of the electromagnetic waves in a region is the same for all intensities but different for different frequencies.

Question 40.
A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, then
a) p = 0,E = 0
b) p ≠ 0,E ≠ 0
c) p ≠ 0,E = 0
d) p = 0,E ≠ 0
Answer:
b) p ≠ 0,E ≠ 0
Solution:
An electromagnetic wave has both energy and momentum.

Question 41.
We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region
b) The radiation is emitted only during the day
c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during winters
d) The radiation is emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
Answer:
a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region
Solution:
Everybody at all time, at all temperature, emit radiating (except at T = O), which fall in the infrared region.

Question 42.
The decreasing order of the wavelength of the infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, and gamma rays are
a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma ray s
b) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
c) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
d) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Answer:
a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

Question 43.
Name the Em waves used for studying the molecular structure and also in forensic investigations.
a) UV rays
b) Gamma rays
c) λ – rays
d) IR rays
Answer:
a) UV rays

Question 44.
Radio waves diffract around the building, although light waves do not, The reason is that radio waves
a) travel with a speed larger than c
b) have a much larger wavelength than light
c) are not electromagnetic waves
d) None of these
Answer:
b) have a much larger wavelength than light
Solution:
The wavelength of radio waves being much larger than light has a size comparable to those of buildings, hence diffract from them.

Question 45.
Microwaves are detected by
a) bolometer
b) point contact diodes
c) thermopiles
d) the eye
Answer:
b) point contact diodes

Question 46.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
a) UV-rays
b) visible light
c) radio waves
d) microwaves
Answer:
b) visible light

Question 47.
Which of the following is of the shortest wavelength?
a) X-rays
b) γ-rays
c) microwaves
d) radio waves
Answer:
b) γ-rays

Question 48.
The range of wavelength of visible light is
a) 10 \(\dot{A}\) to 100 \(\dot{A}\)
b) 4000 \(\dot{A}\) to 8000 \(\dot{A}\)
c) 8000 \(\dot{A}\) to 10,000 \(\dot{A}\)
d) 10,000 \(\dot{A}\) to 15,000 \(\dot{A}\)
Answer:
b) 4000 \(\dot{A}\) to 8000 \(\dot{A}\)

Question 49.
Which of the following rays has minimum frequency?
a) U.V. rays
b) X-rays
c) γ-rays
d) infrared rays
Answer:
c) γ-rays

Question 50.
An accelerated electron would produce
a) γ-rays
b) β-rays
c) α-rays
d) e.m. waves
Answer:
d) e.m. waves

Question 51.
Which of the following is the infrared wavelength?
a) 10^-4 cm
b) 10^-5cm
c) 10^-6 cm
d) 10^-7 cm
Answer:
a) 10^-4 cm
Solution:
The wavelength of the infrared region is 8 × 10^-5 cm to 3 × 10^-3 cm.
So maximum wavelength of infrared region = 8 × 10^-5 ≈ 10^-4 cm

Question 52.
The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of
a) 1 meter
b) 1 cm
c) 1 micron
d) 1 angstrom
Answer:
d) 1 angstrom

Question 53.
Maxwell’s modified form of Ampere’s circuital law is
a) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} s}=0\)

b) \(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_{0} I\)

c) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\frac{1}{\varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{d} q}{\mathrm{dt}}\)

d) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \varphi}{\mathrm{d} t}\)
Answer:
d) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \varphi}{\mathrm{d} t}\)

Question 54.
Radio waves do not penetrate the band of
a) ionosphere
b) mesosphere
c) troposphere
d) stratosphere
Answer:
a) ionosphere
Solution:
Radio waves are reflected by the ionosphere.

Question 55.
What is the cause of the “Greenhouse effect”?
a) infrared rays
b) ultraviolet rays
c) X-rays
d) radio waves
Answer:
a) infrared rays

X. Two Mark Questions:

Question 1.
Name the scientist who first predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
James Clerk Maxwell has first predicted the existence of EM waves.

Question 2.
Give the uses of IR?
Answer:

1. Provides electrical energy to satellites by means of solar cells.
2. To produce dehydrated fruits
3. In greenhouses to keep the plants warm
4. Heat therapy for muscular pain
5. TV remote as signal corner
6. In night vision photography

Question 3.
What oscillates in electromagnetic waves?
Answer;
In EM waves, electric and magnetic fields oscillate in mutually perpendicular directions. These waves are transverse in nature.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of the intensity of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
The energy crossing per unit area per unit time and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is called the intensity.
I = \(\frac{\text { Power }(\mathrm{P})}{\text { Surface area }(\mathrm{A})}\)

Question 5.
What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
Answer:
The orderly distribution of electromagnetic radiations of all types according to their wavelength or frequency into distinct groups having widely differing properties is called the electromagnetic spectrum.

Question 6.
What is the role of ozone in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun and prevents it from reaching the earth and causing damage to life.

Question 7.
Write down the uses of radio waves?
Answer:
It is used in radio and television communication systems and also in cellular phones to transmit voice communication in the ultra-high frequency band.

XI. Three Mark Questions:

Question 1.
Write short notes on (a) Infrared radiation (b) Ultraviolet radiation (c) Gamma radiation).
Answer:
(a) Infrared radiation:
It is produced from hot bodies (also known as heat waves) and also when the molecules undergo rotational and vibrational transitions. The wavelength range is 8 x 10^-7 m to 5 x 10³ m and the frequency range is 4 x 10¹⁴ Hz to 6 x 10¹⁰ Hz. It provides electrical energy to satellites by means of solar cells. It is used to produce dehydrated fruits, in greenhouses to keep the plants warm, heat therapy for muscular pain or sprain, TV remote as a signal carrier, to look through haze fog or mist, and used in night vision or infrared photography.

(b) Ultraviolet radiation:
It is produced by Sun, arc, and ionized gases. The wavelength range is 6 x 10^-10 m to 4 x 10^-7 m and the frequency range is 5 x 10¹⁷Hz to 7 x 10¹⁴ Hz. It has less penetrating power. It can be absorbed by atmospheric ozone and harmful to the human body. It is used to destroy bacteria, sterilizing surgical instruments, burglar alarms, detect invisible writing, fingerprints, and also in the study of molecular structure.

(c) Gamma rays:
It is produced by transitions of atomic nuclei and the decay of certain elementary particles. They produce chemical reactions on photographic plates, fluorescence, ionisation, diffraction. The wavelength range is 1 x 10^-14 m to 1 x 10^-10 m and the frequency range is 3 x 10²² Hz to 3 x 10¹⁸ Hz. Gamma rays have high penetrating power than X-rays and ultraviolet radiations; it has no charge but harmful to the human body. Gamma rays provide information about the structure of atomic nuclei. It is used in radiotherapy for the treatment of cancer and tumour, in the food industry to kill pathogenic microorganisms.

Question 2.
Give four basic properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
The basic properties of electromagnetic waves are:
(i) The e.m. waves are produced by accelerated charges and do not require any medium for
propagation.
(ii) The oscillations of \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) fields are perpendicular to each other as well as to the direction of propagation of the wave. So the e.m. waves are transverse in nature.
(iii) All e.m. waves travel in free space with the same speed,
C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{o}}}\) = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
(iv) The oscillations of \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are in same phase.
(v) The amplitude ratio of electric and magnetic fields is
\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{0}}{\mathrm{~B}_{0}}=C \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{\mathrm{o}} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{o}}}}\)

Question 3.
Radio waves and gamma rays both are transverse in nature and electromagnetic in character and have the same speed in vacuum. In what respects are they different?
Answer:

Radio waves	y-rays
1. These waves have an atomic origin	These waves have a nuclear origin
2. These have small penetrating power due to low frequency	These have large penetrating power due to high frequency

Question 4.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels, in a vacuum, along the y-direction. Write
(i) the ratio of the magnitudes, and
(ii) the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors.
Answer:
(i) \(\frac{E}{B}\) = c, speed of light
(ii) For an electromagnetic wave travelling along y-direction, its electric and magnetic field vectors are along z-axis and x-axis respectively. The direction of \(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\) is same as that of direction of wave propagation and k̂ × î= ĵ

Question 5.
How does a charge q oscillating at a certain frequency produce electromagnetic waves?
Answer:
1. Electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-direction.
2. A charge q oscillating at a frequency v produces an oscillating electric field, which produces an oscillating magnetic field, which in turn produces an oscillating electric field, and so on.
3. Hence an electromagnetic wave of frequency v originates from the charge q.
4. An electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-axis is shown below.
5. Directions of \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the e.m. wave.

Question 6.
Two students A and B prepare the following table about the electromagnetic waves. Rewrite this table in its corrected form:

Student	Direction of			Peak value of
	Electric field	Magnetic field	Propagation	Electric field	Magnetic field
A	Along x-axis	Along x-axis	Along y-axis	E	B = cE
B	Along y-axis	Along z-axis	Along x-axis	E = cB	B

Answer:
Correction for Student ‘A’

Electric field	Magnetic field	Peak value of
		Electric field	Magnetic field
Along the x-axis or Along the z-axis	Along the z-axis or Along the x-axis	E	B = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{\mathrm{C}}\)

No correction for student ‘B’

XII. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Why can light travel in a vacuum, whereas sound cannot do so?
Answer:

1. Light waves are electromagnetic in nature in which the electric and magnetic field variations do not require a medium for their propagation.
2. Sound waves are mechanical in nature which require an inertial medium, for their propagation.

Question 2.
State the reason why microwaves are best suited for long-distance transmission of signals.
Answer:

1. Microwaves have wavelengths of the order of a few millimeters. Due to their short wavelengths, these are not diffracted (bent) much by objects of normal dimensions.
2. So they can be used to transmit signals in a particular direction as required in a radar system.

Question 3.
Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their eyes from electromagnetic radiation. Name the radiations and write the range of their frequency.
Answer:
To protect their eyes from large amounts of harmful UV radiation produced by the welding arc. The wavelength of UV radiation is from 1 nm to 400 nm.

Question 4.
How do you convince yourself that electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum?
Answer:

1. When an electromagnetic wave interacts with matter, its electric and magnetic fields set in oscillation the charges present in the matter.
2. The charges thus acquire energy and momentum from the e.m. wave showing that it carries energy and momentum.
3. When the sun shines on our hands, the energy absorbed from the e.m. waves warms our hands.
4. An e.m. wave carries momentum. When it falls on a surface, it exerts pressure called radiation pressure.

Question 5.
State the condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently.
Answer:

1. In a microwave oven, the frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules so that energy from the waves is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of the molecules.
2. This increases the temperature of the food item sufficiently.

Question 6.
Long-distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands. Why?
Answer:
It is because the radio waves of short wave band are easily reflected back to the earth by the ionosphere

Question 7.
It is necessary to use satellites for long-distance TV transmission. Why?
Answer:

1. TV signals being of high frequency are not reflected by the ionosphere.
2. Also, ground wave transmission is possible only upto a limited range.
3. That is why satellites are used for long-distance TV transmission.

Question 8.
Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground but x-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why?
Answer:

1. The earth’s atmosphere is transparent to visible light and radio waves but it absorbs x- rays.
2. X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth.
3. These satellites orbit at a height of 36,000 km, where the atmosphere is very thin and x-rays are not absorbed.

Question 9.
The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
Answer:
The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun and prevents it from reaching the earth and causing damage to life.

Question 10.
If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower than what it is now?
Answer:

1. The earth radiates infrared waves which are reflected by the gases in the lower atmosphere. This phenomenon, called the Greenhouse effect, keeps the earth warm.
2. So if the earth did not have an atmosphere, its average temperature would be low due to the absence of the Greenhouse effect.

Question 11.
Some scientists have predicted that a global nuclear war on the earth would be followed by a severe nuclear winter’ with a devastating effect on life on earth. What might be the basis of this prediction?
Answer:
The clouds produced by a global nuclear war would perhaps cover substantial parts of the sky preventing solar light from reaching many parts of the globe. This would cause a ‘nuclear winter’.

XIII. Additional Problems (Two Marks):

Question 1.
A parallel plate capacitor has circular plates, each of radius 5.0 cm. It is being charged so that the electric field in the gap between its plates rises steadily at the rate of 10¹² V m^-1 s^-1. What is the displacement current?
Solution:
Radius, r = 5cm = 5 x 10^-2 m
The rate okf electric frield, \(\frac { dE }{ dt }\) = 10¹² V m^-1 s^-1
Displacement current, I_d = ε₀ \(\frac {{ dφ }_{E}}{ dt }\) =ε₀ \(\frac { d }{ dt }\) (EA) = ε₀ (πr²) \(\frac { dE }{ dt }\)
= 8.85 x 10^-12 x 3.14 x (5 x 10^-2)² x 10¹²
I_d= 0.069
I_d = 0.07 (or) 70 mA

Question 2.
The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by B_y = (8 × 10^-6) sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] T
(i) calculate the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
(ii) Write down the expression for the oscillating electric field.
Answer:
Given B_y = (8 × 10^-6) sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] T
Standard equation is B_y = B₀ sin (sin 2π \(\left(\frac{x}{\lambda}+\frac{t}{T}\right)\)]
on comparing, \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = 300π and B₀ = 8 × 10^-6 T

(i) wavelength, λ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{300 \pi}=\frac{1}{150}\) m = 0.67 cm.

(ii) E₀ = cB₀ = 3 × 10⁸ ×8 × 10^-6 = 2400 Vm^-1
The electric field is perpendicular to the direction of propagation (x-axis) and the direction of magnetic field (y-axis). Hence the expression for the oscillating electric field is
E_z = 2400 sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] Vm^-1

Question 3.
The oscillating electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:
E_y = 30 sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] Vm^-1
(a) Obtain the value of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
(b) Write down the expression for the oscillating magnetic field.
Answer:
Given data:
E_y = 30 sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] Vm^-1
Standard equation is E_y = E₀ sin [2π\(\left(\frac{x}{\lambda}+\frac{t}{T}\right)\)]
on comparing, \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = 300π and E₀ = 30 Vm^-1

(i) wavelength, \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = 300π = \(\frac{1}{150}\) m = 0.67 cm

(ii) B₀ = \(\frac{E_{0}}{c}=\frac{30}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 10^-7 T

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction of propagation (x-axis) and the direction of the electric field (y-axis). So the expression for the magnetic field is
B_z = 10^-7 sin [2 × 10¹¹t + 300πx] T

Question 4.
Radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. Find the momentum transferred to the surface.
Solution:
Momentum of radiation of energy E is P = \(\frac { E }{ C }\)
Since the radiation is completely reflected, its momentum changes by \(\frac { 2E }{ C }\)
Therefore, by the law of conservation of momentum the momentum transferred to the surface is \(\frac { 2E }{ C }\).

Question 5.
A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 10⁹ Hz. What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator?
Answer:
According to Maxwell, a charged particle oscillating with a frequency of 10⁹ Hz, produces electromagnetic waves of the same frequency 10⁹ Hz.

Question 6.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is B₀ = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
Answer:
Here B₀ = 510 nT = 510 × 10^-9 T
Amplitude of the electric field, E₀ = cB₀
= 3 × 10⁸ × 510 × 10^-9
= 153 NC^-1.

Question 7.
Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E₀ = 120 NC^-1 and that its frequency is v = 50.0 MHz.
(a) Determine, B₀, ω, k and λ,
(b) Find expressions for \(\overrightarrow{\vec{E}}\) and \(\vec{B}\)
Answer:
Here E₀ = 120 NC^-1
v = 50.0 MHz = 50 × 10⁶ Hz

a) B₀ = \(\frac{E_{0}}{c}=\frac{120 \mathrm{NC}^{-1}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}\) = 4 × 10⁷ T

ω = 2πv = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 10⁶ = 3014 × 10⁸ rad s^-1

\(\kappa=\frac{\omega}{c}=\frac{3.14 \times 10^{8}}{3 \times 10^{8}}=\) = 1.05 ms^-1

λ = \(\frac{c}{v}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{50 \times 10^{6}}\) = 6.00 m

(b) If the wave is propagating along x-axis, then field \(\overrightarrow{\vec{E}}\) will be along y-axis and field \(\vec{B}\) along z-axis.
E₀ = 120 sin (1.05x – 3.14 × 10⁸t) ĵ NC^-1
Where x is in metre and t in second.
B = B₀ sin (kx – ωt) k̂.
= 4 × 10^-7 sin (1.05x – 3.14 × 10⁸t) ĵ tesla.

Question 8.
About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What is the average intensity of visible radiation:
a) at a distance of 1 m from the bulb?
b) at a distance of 10 m
Answer:
The bulb, as a point source, radiates light in all directions. At a distance of r m, the surface area of the surrounding sphere,
A = 4πr²
∴ Average Intensity = \(\frac{\text { Energy / time }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{\text { Power }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{\text { Power }}{4 \pi \mathrm{r}^{2}}\)

(a) Average intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 1 m = \(\frac{5 \% \text { of } 100 \mathrm{~W}}{4 \pi(1 \mathrm{~m})^{2}}\) = 0.4 Wm^-2

(b) Average intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 10 m = \(\frac{5 \% \text { of } 100 \mathrm{~W}}{4 \pi(10 \mathrm{~m})^{2}}\) = 0.004 Wm^-2

XIV. Five Marks:

Question 1.
Considering the case of a parallel plate capacitor being charged, show how one is required to generalize Ampere’s circuital law to include the term due to displacement current.
Answer:
1. According to Amperes circuited law,

\(\oint_{\mathrm{C}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}\) ………..(1)
2. As the current I flows across the area bounded by loop C₁, so

\(\oint_{\mathrm{C}_{1}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}\) ………(2)
3. But the area bounded by C₂ lies in the region between the capacitor plates, so no current flows across it.

\(\oint_{\mathrm{C}_{2}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}=0\) ………..(3)
4. Imagine the loops C₁ and C₂ to he infinitesimally close to each othcr. Then we must have

\(\oint_{\mathrm{C}_{1}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\oint_{\mathrm{C}_{2}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}\) …………(4)

This result is inconsistent with the eqns. (2) and (3). To remove this inconsistency, Maxwell argued that a changing electric field (during charging) between the capacitor plates must induce a magnetic field which, in turn,
must be associated with a current. Maxwell called this current as the displacement current. It is given by
I_D = ε₀ \(\frac{d \phi_{E}}{d t}\)
The total current must be,
I = I_conduction + I_displacement = I_C ε₀ \(\frac{d \phi_{E}}{d t}\)
Hence, the generalised form of the Ampere’s circuit law is
\(\oint_{\mathrm{B}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}\left[I_{\mathrm{C}}+\varepsilon_{0} \frac{d \phi_{E}}{d t}\right]\)

Question 2.
Show that during the charging of a parallel plate capacitor, the rate of change of charge on each plate equals ε₀ times the rate of change of electric flux (φE) linked with it. what is the name given to the term ε₀ \(\frac{d \phi_{E}}{d t}\)?
Answer:
If A be the area of the capacitor plates and q be the charge on the plates at any instant t during the charging process, then the electric field in the gap will be

The term ε₀ \(\frac{d \phi_{E}}{d t}\) is called displacement vector.

Question 3.
Consider a plane em. a wave traveling with speed c in the positive z-direction.
(i) Use Faraday’s law to show the E = cB
(ii) Use modified Ampere’s circuital law to show that \(c=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\).
Answer:
Let \(\vec{E}\) be in the x-direction and B in the y-direction.
(i) consider a rectangular loop in the x-z plane with one side of length 1 parallel to E Suppose at any instant, the rectangle is partially on the left of the wavefront and partially on the right of the wavefront.

Question 4.
A capacitor, made of two parallel plates each of plate area A and separation d, is being charged by an external ac source. Show that the displacement current inside the capacitor is the same as the current charging the capacitor.
Answer:
Electric field between the capacitor plates is given by
E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0} A}\)

Where q is the charge accumulated on the positive plate. The electric flux through this plate is
\(\phi_{E}=E A=\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0} A} \cdot A \frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

Displacement current:
I_D = \(\varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}=\varepsilon_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{q}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\right]=\frac{\mathrm{dq}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
But \(\frac{\mathrm{dq}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = rate at which charge flows to positive plate through the conducting wire.
Hence I_D = I_C
i.e., Displacement current between capacitor plates = Conduction current in connecting wires.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Banking
Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Banking

12th Economics Guide Banking Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice questions

Question 1.
A Bank is a
a) Financial institutions
b) Corporate
c) An Industry
d) Service institutions
Answer:
a) Financial institutions

Question 2.
A commercial Bank is an institution that provides services
a) Accepting deposits
b) Providing loans
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Both a and b

Question 3.
The Functions of commercial banks are broadly classified into
a) Primary Functions
b) Secondary Functions
c) Other Functions
d) a, b, and c
Answer:
d) a, b, and c

Question 4.
Bank credit refers to
a) Bank loañs
b) Advances
c) Bank loans and advances
d) Borrowing
Answer:
c) Bank loans and advances

Question 5.
Credit creation means.
a) Multiplication of loans and advances
b) Revenue
c) Expenditure
d) Debt
Answer:
a) Multiplication of loans and advances

Question 6.
NBFI does not have.
a) Banking license
b) government approval
c) Money market approval
d) Finance ministry approval
Answer:
a) Banking license

Question 7.
Central bank is …………………… authority of any country.
a) Monétary
b) Fiscal
c) Wage
d) National Income
Answer:
a) Monétary

Question 8.
Who will act as the banker to the Government of India?
a) SBI
b) NABARD
c) ICICI
d) RBI
Answer:
d) RBI

Question 9.
Lender of the last resort is one of the functions of.
a) Central Bank
b) Commercial banks
c) Land Development Banks
d) Co – operative banks
Answer:
a) Central Bank

Question 10.
Bank Rate means.
a) Re – discounting the first class securities
b) Interest rate
c) Exchange rate
d) Growth rate Repo Rate means.
Answer:
a) Re – discounting the first class securities

Question 11.
Repo Ràte means.
a) Rate at which the Commercial Banks are willing to lend to RBI
b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks
c) Exchange rate of the foreign bank
d) Growth rate of the economy .
Answer:
b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks

Question 12.
Moral suasion refers.
a) Optimization
b) Maximization,
c) Persuasion
d) Miñimization
Answer:
c) Persuasion

Question 13.
ARDC started functioning from
a) June 3 1963
b) July 5, 1963
c)July 1,1963
d) July 1, 1963
Answer:
d) July 1, 1963

Question 14.
NABARD was set up in .
a) July 1962
b) July 1972
c) July 1982
d) July 1992
Answer:
c) July 1982

Question 15.
EXIM bank was established in ……………..
a) June 1982
b) April 1982
c) May 1982
d) March 1982
Answer:
d) March 1982

Question 16.
The State Financial Corporation Act was passed by .
a) Governnent of India
b) Government of Tamilnadu
c) Government of Union Territòries
d) Local Government
Answer:
a) Governnent of India

Question 17.
Monetary policy is formulated by.
a) Co – operative banks
b) Commercial banks
c) Central bank
d) Foreign banks
Answer:
c) Central bank

Question 18.
Online Banking is also known as
a) E Banking.
b) Internet Banking
c) RTGS
d) NEFT
Answer:
b) Internet Banking

Question 19.
Expansions of ATM.
a) Automated Teller Machine
b) Adjustment Teller Machine
c) Automatic Teller mechanism
d) Any Time Money
Answer:
a) Automated Teller Machine

Question 20.
2016 Demonetization of currency includes denominations of
a) ₹ 500 and ₹ 1000
b) ₹ 1000 and ₹ 2000
c) ₹ 200 and ₹ 500
d) All the above
Answer:
a) ₹ 500 and ₹ 1000

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define Commercial banks.
Answer:
Commercial bank refers to a bank, or a division of a large bank, which more specifically deals with deposit and loan services provided to corporations or large/middle-sized business – as opposed to individual members of the public/small business.

Question 22.
What is credit creation?
Answer:
Credit creation means the multiplication of loans and advances. Commercial banks receive deposits from the public and use these deposits to give loans.

Question 23.
Define central bank.
Answer:
A central bank is an institution that manages a state’s currency, money supply, and interest rates.

Question 24.
Distinguish between CRR and SLR.
CRR is the percentage of money, which a bank has to keep with RBI in the form of cash.
SLR is the proportion of liquid assets to time and demand liabilities.

Question 25.
Write the meaning of Open market operations
Answer:

1. In a narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in the money market.
2. In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.
3. When the banks and the private individuals purchase these securities they have to make payments for these securities to the Central Bank.

Question 26.
What is rationing of credit?
Answer:
Rationing of credit is an instrument of credit control. It aims to control and regulate the purposes for which credit is granted by commercial banks.

Question 27.
Mention the functions of the agriculture credit department.
Answer:
Functions of Agriculture Credit Department:

1. To maintain an expert staff to study all questions on agricultural credit;
2. To provide expert advice to Central and State Government, State Co-operative Banks, and other banking activities.
3. To finance the rural sector through eligible institutions engaged in the business of agricultural credit and to co-ordinate their activities.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Write the mechanism of crédit creation by commercial banks.
Answer:

• Bank credit refers to bank loans and advances. Money is said to be created when the banks, through their lending activities, make a net addition to the total supply of money in the economy.
• Likewise, money is said to be destroyed when the loans are repaid by the borrowers. Consequently the credit creáted are wiped out.
• Banks have the power to expand or contract demand deposits. This power of the commercial banks to create deposits through their loans and advances is known as credit creation.

Question 29.
Give a brief note on NBFI.
Answer:
Non – Banking Financial Institution (NBFI):
1. A non – banking financial institution (NBFI) or non-bank financial company (NBFC) is a financial institution that does not have a full banking license or is not supervised by the central bank.

2. The NBFIs do not carry on pure banking business, but they will carry on other financial transactions. They receive deposits and give loans. They mobilize people’s savings and use the funds to finance expenditure on investment activities. In short, they are institutions which undertake borrowing and lending. They operate in both the money and the capital markets.

3. NBFIs can be broadly classified into two categories. Viz.., (1) Stock Exchange; and (2) Other Financial institutions. Under the latter category comes Finance Companies, Finance Corporations, ChitFunds, Building Societies, Issue Houses, Investment Trusts and Unit Trusts and Insurance Companies.

Question 30.
Bring out the methods of credit control.
Answer:
Credit Control Measures

Question 31.
What are the functions of NABARD?
Answer:
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed
by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.

1. NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage, and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

2. NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of cooperative credit societies.

3. NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

4. NABARD has the responsibility of coordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

5. It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development.

Question 32.
Specify the function of IFCI.
Answer:
The functions of the Industrial Finance Corporation of India are

• Long term loans; both in rupees and foreign currencies.
• Underwriting of equity, preference and debenture issues.
• Subscribing to equity, preference and debenture issues. .
• Guaranteeing the deferred payments in respect of machinery imported from abroad or purchased in India.
• Guaranteeing of loans raised in foreign currency from foreign financial institutions.

Question 33.
Distinguish between money market and capital market.
Answer:

Money market	Capital market
1. Money market is the mechanism through which short term funds are loaned and borrowed.	The market where investment instruments like bonds, equities and mortgages are traded is known as the capital market.
2. It is a part of financial system It designates financial institutions which handle the purchase, sale and transfer of short term credit instruments.	It is a part of financial system which is concerned with raising and transfer of short term credit capital by dealing in shares, bonds instruments, and other long term investments.

Question 34.
Mention the Objectives of demonetizations.
Answer:
Objectives of Demonetisation:

1. Removing Black Money from the country.
2. Stopping of Corruption.
3. Stopping Terror Funds.
4. Curbing Fake Notes.

Demonetisation is the act of stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender. It occurs whenever there is a change of national currency. The current form or forms of money is pulled from circulation, often to be replaced with new coins or notes.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Explain the role of Commercial Banks in economic development.
Answer:
Role of Commercial Banks in Economic Development of a Country Role of Commercial Banks:

1. Capital Formation
2. Creation of Credit
3. Channelizing the funds
4. Encouraging Rights Type of Industries
5. Banks Monetize Debt
6. Finance to Government
7. Employment Generation
8. Bank Promote Entrepreneurship

1. Capital Formation:

• Banks play an important role in capital formation, which is essential for the economic development of a country.
• They mobilize the small savings of the people scattered over a wide area through their network of branches all over the country and make it available for productive purposes.

2. Creation of Credit:

• Banks create credit for the purpose of providing more funds for development projects.
• Credit creation leads to increased production, employment, sales and prices and thereby they bring about faster economic development.

3. Channelizing the Funds towards Productive Investment:

• Banks invest the savings mobilized by them for productive purposes.
• Capital formation is not the only function of commercial banks.

4. Encouraging Right Type of Industries:

• Many banks help in the development of the right type of industries by extending loan to right type of persons.
• In this way, they help not only for industrialization of the country but also for the economic development of the country.
• They grant loans and advances to manufacturers whose products are in great demand.

5. Banks Monetize Debt:

• Commercial banks transform the loan to be repaid after a certain period into cash, which can be immediately used for business activities.
• Manufacturers and wholesale traders cannot increase their sales without selling goods on credit basis.

6. Finance to Government:

• The government is acting as the promoter of industries in underdeveloped countries for which finance is needed for it.
• Banks provide long – term credit to Government by investing their funds in Government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills.

7. Employment Generation:

• After the nationalization of big banks, banking industry has grown to a great extent.
• Bank’s branches are opened frequently, which leads to the creation of new employment opportunities.

8. Banks Promote Entrepreneurship:

• In recent days, banks have assumed the role of developing entrepreneurship particularly in developing countries like India by inducing new entrepreneurs to take up well-formulated projects and provision of counseling services like technical and managerial guidance.

Question 36.
Elucidate the functions of commercial Banks.
Answer:
The functions of commercial Banks are classified as primary secondary and other functions.
(a) Primary Functions:

1. Accepting Deposits:
It implies that Commercial banks are mainly dependent on public deposits. There are two types of deposits, which are :

• Demand Deposits:
  It refers to deposits that can be with drawn by individuals without any prior notice to the bank
• Time Deposit:
  It refers to deposits that are made for certain committed period of time.

2. Advancing Loans:
It refers to granting loans to individuals and businesses. Commercial banks grant loans in the form of overdraft, cash credit and discounting bills of exchange.

b) Secondary Functions:

1. Agency Functions
It implies that commercial banks act as agents of customers by performing various functions. They are

• Collecting cheques
• Collecting Income
• Paying Expenses

2) General utility Function
It implies that commercial banks provide some utility to customers by performing various functions .

• Providing Locker Facilities
• Issuing Traveler’s cheques
• Dealing in Foreign Exchange

3) Transferring Funds :
It refers to transferring of funds from one bank to another. Funds are transferred by means of draft, telephonic transfer, and electronic transfer.

4) Letter of credit:
Commercial banks issue letters of credit to their customers to certify their creditworthiness.

• Underwriting securities
• Electronic Banking

(c) Other Functions:

1. Money supply
   It refers to one of the important functions of commercial banks that help in increasing money supply. With this function without printing additional money, the supply of money is increased.
2. Credit creation
   Credit creation means the multiplication of loans and advances.
3. Collection of statistics
   Banks collect and publish statistics relating to trade, commerce, and industry.

Question 37.
Describe the functions of Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
Functions of Central Bank (Reserve Bank of India):
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.

1. Monetary Authority:
It controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rate, maintain healthy balance of payment, attain financial stability, control inflation, strengthen banking system.

2. The issuer of currency:
The objective is to maintain the currency and credit system of the country. It is the sole authority to issue currency. It also takes action to control the circulation of fake currency.

3. The issuer of Banking License:
As per Sec 22 of Banking Regulation Act, every bank has to obtain a banking license from RBI to conduct banking business in India.

4. Banker to the Government:
It acts as banker both to the central and the state governments. It provides short-term credit. It manages all new issues of government loans, servicing the government debt outstanding and nurturing the market for government securities. It advises the government on banking and financial subjects.

5. Banker’s Bank:
RBI is the bank of all banks in India as it provides loan to banks, accept the deposit of banks, and rediscount the bills of banks.

6. Lender of last resort:
The banks can borrow from the RBI by keeping eligible securities as collateral at the time of need or crisis, when there is no other source.

7. Act as clearing house:
For settlement of banking transactions, RBI manages 14 clearing houses. It facilitates the exchange of instruments and processing of payment instructions.

8. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves:
It acts as a custodian of FOREX. It administers and enforces the provision of Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. RBI buys and sells foreign currency to maintain the exchange rate of Indian rupee v/s foreign currencies.

9. Regulator of Economy:
It controls the money supply in the system, monitors different key indicators like GDP, Inflation, etc.

10. Managing Government securities:
RBI administers investments in institutions when they invest specified minimum proportions of their total assets/liabilities in government securities.

11. Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems:
The Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 (PSS Act) gives RBI oversight authority for the payment and settlement systems in the country. RBI focuses on the development and functioning of safe, secure and efficient payment and settlement mechanisms.

12. Developmental Role:
This role includes the development of the quality banking system in India and ensuring that credit is available to the productive sectors of the economy. It provides a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.

It also includes establishing institutions designed to build the country’s financial infrastructure. It also helps in expanding access to affordable financial services and promoting financial education and literacy.

13. Publisher of monetary data and other data:
RBI maintains and provides all essential banking and other economic data, formulating and critically evaluating the economic policies in India. RBI collects, collates and publishes data regularly.

14. Exchange manager and controller:
RBI represents India as a member of the International Monetary Fund [IMF], Most of the commercial banks are authorized dealers of RBI.

15. Banking Ombudsman Scheme:
RBI introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in 1995. Under this scheme, the complainants can file their complaints in any form, including online and can also appeal to the Ombudsman against the awards and the other decisions of the Banks.

16. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India:
To measure the performance of banks against Codes and standards based on established global practices, the RBI has set up the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI).

Question 38.
What are the objectives of Monetary policy? Explain.
Answer:
1) Neutrality of money :
Neutralists hold the view that monetary authority should aim at neutrality of money in the economy. Monetary changes could be the root cause of all economic fluctuations.

2) Exchange Rate stability :
Exchange rate stability was the traditional objective of monetary authority. This was the main objective under Gold standard among different countries. Instability in the Exchange rates results in unfavourable balance of payments. Therefore, stable exchange rates are advocated.

3) Price stability:
Price stability is considered the most genuine objective of monetary policy Stable prices repose public confidence. It promotes business activity and ensures equitable distribution of income and wealth. As a result, there is general wave of prosperity and welfare in the community.
But, price stability does not mean “price rigidity or price stagnation”

4) Full employment:
Full employment was considered as the main goal of monetary policy. With the publication of keynes General Theory of Employment, Interest and money in 1936, the objective of full employment gained full support as the chief objective of monetary policy.

5) Economic Growth:
Monetary policy should promote sustained and continuous economic growth by maintaining equilibrium between the total demand for money and total production capacity and further creating favourable conditions for saving and investment.
For bringing equality between demand and supply, a flexible monetary policy is the best course.

6) Equilibrium in the Balance of Payments:
Equilibrium in the balance of payments is another objective of monetary policy which emerged significantly in the post-war years. Monetary authority makes efforts to maintain equilibrium in the balance of payments.

12th Economics Guide Banking Additional Important Questions and Answers

One Mark Questions.

Question 1.
Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in …………………………
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d)1950
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 2.
Under British rule the first bank of India was …………………….
a) Bank of Bengal
b) Bank of Hindustan
c) Bank of Bombay
d) Bank of Madras
Answer:
b) Bank of Hindustan

Question 3.
The ……………………… Bank of India was changed into SBI
a) Mumbai
b) Chennai
c) Imperial
d) Presidency
Answer:
c) Imperial

Question 4.
Primary functions of the commercial bank is …………………………
(a) Accepting deposits from the public
(b) Making loans and advances to public
(c) Discounting bills of exchange
(d) Inter bank borrowing
Answer:
(a) Accepting deposits from the public

Question 5.
RBI commenced its operations on …………………………..
a) April 1,1934
b) April 1,1935
c) January 1,1949
d) April 1,1937
Answer:
b) April 1,1935

Question 6.
The coins are issued by …………………………
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) RBI
(c) Central Bank
(d) State Bank
Answer:
(a) Ministry of Finance

Question 7.
The name Rupee was derived from the Sanskrit word …………….
a) Nomia
b) Rupay
c) Raupya
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Raupya

Question 8.
The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called …………….
a) Reverse Repo Rate
b) Repo rate
c) Cash Reserve Ratio
d) Bank rate
Answer:
a) Reverse Repo Rate

Question 9.
Open Market operations enable the ………………………… to reduce the money supply in the economy.
(o) Commercial bank
(b) SBI
(c) ICICI
(d) RBI
Answer:
(d) RBI

Question 10.
Each Indian bank note has its amount written in …………….. language.
a) 15
b) 20
c) 17
d) 14
Answer:
c) 17

Question 11.
Regional Rural Banks were set up on ……………………
a) 1950
b) 1967
c)1970
d) 1975
Answer :
d) 1975

Question 12.
Industrial credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was set up on ………………
a) January 5, 1955
b) January 5,1973
c) February 15, 1976
d) February 5,1955
Answer:
a) January 5,1955

Question 13.
“Monetary History of the United states, 1867 -1960” was written by ………………
a) Milton Friedman
b) Irving Fisher
c) Walker
d) Culbertson.
Answer:
a) Milton Friedman

Question 14.
The qualitative credit control methods are also called …………………………
(a) Selective cash control
(b) Selective expenditure control
(c) Selective credit control
(d) Selective money control
Answer:
(c) Selective credit control

Question 15.
…………………. is the act of stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender.
a) Fiscal policy
b) Demonitisation
c) Monetary policy
d) Money market.
Answer:
b) Demonetisation

II. Match the following:

Question 1.
A) Bank of Bengal – 1) 1843
B) Bank of Bombay – 2) 1809
C) Bank of Madras – 3) 1935
D) Reserve Bank of India – 4)1840

Answer:
a) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.
A) NEFT – 1) Automated Teller Machine
B) RTGS – 2) Payment Bank
C) ATM – 3) National Electronic Fund Transfer
D) Paytm – 4) Real Time Gross Settlement.

Answer:
c) 3 4 1 2

Question 3.
A) Expansionary monetary policy – 1) Milton Friedman
B) Contractionary monetary policy – 2) Cassel, Keynes
c) Monetary policy – 3) Cheap money policy
D) Price stability – 4) Dear money policy

Answer :
a) 3 4 1 2

III. Choose the correct pair

Question 1.
a) Nobel prize – J.M. Keynes
b) Monetary policy – Macro-Economic Policy
c) Money Market – Long term credit instruments
d) Capital Market – Short term credit instruments
Answer :
b) Monetary policy – Macro-Economic Policy

Question 2.
a) RBI – 1945
b) ARDC – 1968
c) RRB – 1975
d) NABARD – 1984
Answer:
c) RRB -1975

Question 3.
a) Neutrality of Money – Cassel, Keynes
b) Price stability – Wicksteed, Robertson
c) E-banking – Internet banking
d) Merger of banks – 2018
Answer:
c) E-banking – Internet banking

IV. Choose the incorrect pair
Question 1.
a)NABARD – Agricultural credit
b) All-India level Institutions – IFCI, ICICI, IDBI
c) State level Institutions – SFC, SIDC
d) RRB – Industrial Development Bank
Answer:
d) RRB – Industrial Development Bank

Question 2.
a) First Central Bank – The Ricks Bank
b) Commercial banks – Service motivated
c) Time Deposit – Recurring deposit
d) Primary Deposit -. Passive Deposits
Answer:
b) Commercial banks – Service motivated

Question 3.
a) Reserve Bank of India Act – 1935
b) Foreign Exchange Management Act – 1999
c) Banking Ombudsman Scheme -‘1995
d) Banking Regulation Act – 1949
Answer:
a) Reserve Bank of India Act -1935

V. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
a) Central Government is the sole authority to issue currency in India.
b)Variable cash Reserve Ratio as an objective of monetary policy was first suggested by J.M.Keynes.
c) SBI represents India as a member of the International Monetary Fund.
d )Variable cash Reserve Ratio was first followed by RBI.
Answer:
b) Variable cash Reserve Ratio as an objective of monetary policy was first suggested by J.M.Keynes.

Question 2.
a) RRBS provides credit and other facilities to urban Industries.
b)Contractionary Monetary policy decreases unemployment.
c) Expansionary Monetary policy is a cheap money policy.
d) Price stability means price rigidity or price stagnation.
Answer:
c) Expansionary Monetary policy is a cheap money policy.

Question 3.
a) The Minimum amount for NEFT transfer is 2 lakhs.
b) RTGS means National electronic fund transfer.
c) Capital market is concerned with raising capital by dealing in shares, bonds, and other long-term investments.
d) The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called Repo Rate.
Answer:
c) Capital market is concerned with raising capital by dealing in shares, bonds, and other long-term investments.

VI. Choose the incorrect statement

Question 1.
a) Variable cash Reserve Ratio was first introduced by J.M.Keynes.
b) Bank rate is otherwise called Discount Rate.
c) Commercial Banks are profit-motivated.
d) Public deposits are classified as Demand deposits, Time deposits, and Primary deposits.
Answer:
d) Public deposits are classified as Demand deposits, Time deposits, and Primary deposits.

Question 2.
a) Commercial banks provide long-term credit to maintain liquidity of assets.
b) Credit creation literally means the multiplication of loans and advances.
c) Rationing of credit is the oldest method of credit Control.
d) The modern banks create deposits in two ways such as primary deposit and derived deposit.
Answer:
a) Commercial banks provide long-term credit to maintain liquidity of assets.

Question 3.
a) The Agricultural Refinance Development Corporation was established on July 1, 1963.
b) Non – Banking Financial Institutions are supervised by the Central Bank.
c) If the Central Bank wants to control credit, it will raise the bank rate.
d) The share capital of NABARD was equally contributed by the RBI and the GOI.
Answer:
b) Non – Banking Financial Institutions are supervised by the Central Bank.

VII. Pick the odd one out:

Question 1.
a) State Financial Corporations.
b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India
c) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
d) Industrial Development Bank of India.
Answer:
a) State Financial Corporations.

Question 2.
a) Bank Rate Policy
b) Open Market Operations
c) Rationing of Credit
d) Variable Reserve Ratio
Answer:
c) Rationing of Credit

Analyse the reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Reserve Bank of India had set up a separate Agricultural Credit Department.
Reason (R): RBI’s responsibility in the field of agriculture had been creased due to the predominance of agriculture in the Indian economy and the inadequacy of the formal agencies to cater to the huge requirements of the sector.
Answer:
a) Assertion (A): and Reason (R) both are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A central bank is an institution that manages a state’s currency, money supply, and interest rates.
Reason (R): Central bank through monetary policy controls the supply of money.
Answer:
a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : RBI was given oversight authority for the payment and settlement systems in the country. .
Reason (R) : The payment and settlement systems Act came into force in 2007.
Answer:
a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Option:
a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

IX. 2 Mark Questions

Question 1.
When and where was the first central bank established?
Answer:

• The Ricks Banks of Sweden, which had sprung from a private bank established in 1656 is the oldest central bank in the world.
• The Bank of England (1864) is the first bank of issues.

Question 2.
What are the functions of primary deposits?
Answer:
Primary Deposits:

1. It is out of these primary deposits that the bank makes loans and advances to its customers.
2. The initiative is taken by the customers themselves. In this case, the role of the bank is passive.
3. So these deposits are also called “Passive deposits”.

Question 3.
Name the classification of NBFIs.
Answer:

• Stock Exchange
• Other financial institutions Under the latter category comes Finance companies, Finance corporations, Chit funds, Building societies, etc.

Question 4.
Name the institutions for industrial finance.
Answer:
All-India level Institution:

• Industrial Finance Corporation of India
• Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
• Industrial Development Bank of India.

State-level Institutions:

• State Financial Corporations
• State Industrial Development Corporation

Question 5.
Write RBI granting Regional Rural Banks concessions?
Answer:
The RBI has been granting many concessions to RRBs:

1. They are allowed to maintain the cash reserve ratio at 3 percent and statutory liquidity ratio at 25 percent; and
2. They also provide refinance facilities through NABARD.

Question 6.
State the specific objectives of monetary policy.
Answer:

• Neutrality of Money
• Stability of Exchange Rates
• Price stability
• Full employment
• Economic Growth
• Equilibrium in the Balance of Payments.

Question 7.
What is E-Banking?
Answer:
Online banking also known as internet banking, is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.

Question 8.
What do you know about Automated Teller Machine?
Answer:
ATMs were first introduced in 1967. Biometric authentication is already used in India, and its recognition is in place at Qatar National Bank ATMs.

Question 9.
Write a note on Paytm.
Answer:
Payments bank or Paytm is one of India’s e-commerce payment system and digital wallet company. It was established on August 2015, by the license of RBI.

Question 10.
Write a note on Debit Card.
Answer:
A Debit card is a card allowing the holder to transfer money electronically from their bank account when making a purchase.

Question 11.
What is demonetization?
Answer:
Demonetization is the act of stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender. The current form or forms of money is pulled from circulation, often to be replaced with new coins or notes.

X. 3 Mark Questions

Question 1.
What are the functions of RBI agricultural credit?
Answer:
Role of RBI in agricultural credit:

1. RBI has been playing a very vital role in the provision of agricultural finance in the country.
2. The Bank’s responsibility in this field had been increased due to the predominance of agriculture in the Indian economy and the inadequacy of the formal agencies to cater to the huge requirements of the sector.
3. In order to fulfill this important role effectively, the RBI set up a separate Agriculture Credit Department.
4. However, the volume of informal loans has not declined sufficiently.

Question 2.
Write a note on Regional Rural Banks.
Answer:

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) was setup by the Government of India in 1975.
• The main objective of the RRBs is to provide credit and other facilities particularly to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, artisans, and smalls entrepreneurs so as to develop agriculture, trade, commerce, industry, and other productive activities in the rural areas.
• RBI provides refinance facilities to RRBs through NABARD.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of ICICI.
Answer:
ICICI was set up on 5th January 1955. The principal purpose of this institution is to channelize the world bank funds to the industry in India and also to help build up a capital market.

Functions:

1. Assistance to industries
2. Provision of foreign currency loans
3. Merchant banking
4. Letter of credit
5. Project promotion
6. Housing loans
7. Leasing operations

Question 4.
What is E-Banking?
Answer:

1. Online banking, also known as internet banking, is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.
2. The online banking system typically connects to or be part of the core banking system operated by a bank and is in contrast to branch banking which was the traditional way customers accessed banking services.

Question 5.
Differentiate NEFT and RTGS.
Answer:

NEFT	RTGS
1. National Electronic Fund Transfer	1. Real Time Gross Settlement
2. Transactions happen in batches hence slow	2. Transactions happens in real-time hence fast.
3. No minimum limit	3. Minimum amount for RTGS transfer is Rs.2 Lakhs.

XI. 5 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate.
Answer:

Repo Rate RR	Reverse Repo Rate RRR
1. The rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks is called Repo Rate	1. The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called the reverse repo rate.
2. To central inflation, RBI increases the Repo Rate.	2. If the RBI increases the reverse repo rate, it means that the RBI wants the banks to park their money with the RBI.
3. Similarly RBI reduces the Repo rate to control deflation.	3. To control deflation RBI also reduces the Reverse Repo rate.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Industrial Development Bank of India.
Answer:

• The functions of IDBI fall into two groups.
  • Assistance to other financial institutions.
  • Direct assistance to industrial concerns either on its own or in participation with other institutions.
• The IDBI can provide refinance in respect of term loans to industrial concerns given by the IFC, the SFCs, other financial institutions notified by the government, scheduled banks, and state cooperative banks.
• A special feature of the IDBI is the provision for the creation of a special fund known as the Development assistance fund.
• The fund is intended to provide assistance to industries which require heavy investments with a low anticipated rate of return.

Question 3.
Explain the State level institutions of Industrial Finance.
Answer:
1. State Financial Corporation (SFCs):
The government of India passed 1951 the State Financial corporations Act and SFCs were set up in many states. The SFCs are mainly intended for the development of small and medium industrial units within their respective states. However, in some cases, they extend to neighbouring states as well.

SFCs depend upon the IDBI for refinancing in respect of the term loans granted by them. Apart from these, the SFCs can also make temporary borrowings from the RBI and borrowings from IDBI and by the sale of bonds.

2. State Industrial Development Corporations(SIDCOs):
The Industrial Development Corporations have been set up by the state governments and they are wholly owned by them. These institutions are not merely financing agencies, are entrusted with the responsibility of accelerating the industrialization of their states.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Function Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Function

12th Computer Science Guide Function Text Book Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer (I Marks)

Question 1.
The small sections of code that are used to perform a particular task is called
a) Subroutines
b) Files
c) Pseudo code
d) Modules
Answer:
a) Subroutines

Question 2.
Which of the following is a unit of code that is often defined within a greater code structure?
a) Subroutines
b) Function
c) Files
d) Modules
Answer:
b) Function

Question 3.
Which of the following is a distinct syntactic block?
a) Subroutines
b) Function
c) Definition
d) Modules
Answer:
c) Definition

Question 4.
The variables in a function definition are called as
a) Subroutines
b) Function
c) Definition
d) Parameters
Answer:
d) Parameters

Question 5.
The values which are passed to a function definition are called
a) Arguments
b) Subroutines
c) Function
d) Definition
Answer:
a) Arguments

Question 6.
Which of the following are mandatory to write the type annotations in the function definition
a) Curly braces
b) Parentheses
c) Square brackets
d) indentations
Answer:
b) Parentheses

Question 7.
Which of the following defines what an object can do?
a) Operating System
b) Compiler
c) Interface
d) Interpreter
Answer:
c) Interface

Question 8.
Which of the following carries out the instructions defined in the interface?
a) Operating System
b) Compiler
c) Implementation
d) Interpreter
Answer:
c) Implementation

Question 9.
The functions which will give exact result when same arguments are passed are called
a) Impure functions
b) Partial Functions
c) Dynamic Functions
d) Pure functions
Answer:
d) Pure functions

Question 10.
The functions which cause side effects to the arguments passed are called
a) Impure functions
b) Partial Functions
c) Dynamic Functions
d) Pure functions
Answer:
a) Impure functions

II. Answer the following questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is a subroutine?
Answer:
Subroutines are the basic building blocks of computer programs. Subroutines are small sections of code that are used to perform a particular task that can be used repeatedly. In Programming languages, these subroutines are called Functions.

Question 2.
Define Function with respect to the Programming language.
Answer:

• A function is a unit of code that is often defined within a greater code structure.
• A function works on many kinds of inputs like variants, expressions and produces a concrete output.

Question 3.
Write the inference you get from X:=(78).
Answer:
Value 78 is bound to the name X.

Question 4.
Differentiate Interface and Implementation
Answer:

Interface	Implementation
Interface defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it	Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface

Question 5.
Which of the following is a normal function definition and which is a recursive function definition?
Answer:
(I) Let Recursive sum x y:
return x + y

(II) let disp:
print ‘welcome’

(III) let Recursive sum num:
if (num! = 0) then return num + sum (num – 1) else
return num

1. Recursive function
2. Normal function
3. Recursive function

III. Answer the following questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Mention the characteristics of Interface.
Answer:

• The class template specifies the interfaces to enable an object to be created and operated properly.
• An object’s attributes and behaviour is controlled by sending functions to the object.

Question 2.
Why strlen() is called pure function?
Answer:
strlen (s) is called each time and strlen needs to iterate over the whole of ‘s’. If the compiler is smart enough to work out that strlen is a pure function and that ‘s’ is not updated in the lbop, then it can remove the redundant extra calls to strlen and make the loop to execute only one time. This function reads external memory but does not change it, and the value returned derives from the external memory accessed.

Question 3.
What is the side effect of impure function? Give example.
Answer:

• Impure function has side effects when it has observable interaction with the outside world.
• The variables used inside the function may cause side effects through the functions which are not passed with any arguments. In such cases the function is called impure function.
• When a function depends on variables or functions outside of its definition block, you can never be sure that the function will behave the same every time it’s called.
• For example, the mathematical function random () will give different outputs for the same function call
  let random number
  let a:= random()
  if a> 10 then
  return: a
  else
  return 10
• Here the function random is impure as it not sure what the will be the result when we call
  the function

Question 4.
Differentiate pure and impure functions.
Answer:

Pure Function		Impure Function
1	The return value of the pure functions solely depends on its arguments passed.	The return value of the impure functions does not solely depend on its arguments passed..
2	Pure functions with the same set of arguments always return same values.	Impure functions with the same set of arguments may return different values.
3	They do not have any side effects.	They have side effects.
4	They do not modify the arguments which are passed to them	They may modify the arguments which are passed to them
5	Example: strlen(),sqrt()	Example: random(),date()

Question 5.
What happens if you modify a variable outside the function? Give an example
Answer:
When a function depends on variables or functions outside of its definition block, you can never be sure that the function will behave the same every time it’s called.
For example let y: = 0
(int) inc (int) x
y: = y + x;
return (y)
In the above example the value of y get changed inside the function defintion due to which the result will change each time. The side effect of the inc ( ) function is it is changing the data ‘ of the external visible variable ‘y’.

IV. Answer the following questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
What are called Parameters and Write a note on
1. Parameter Without Type
2. Parameter With Type
Answer:
Parameter:
Parameter is the variables in a function definition
Arguments:
Arguments are the values which are passed to a function definition
Parameters passing are of two types namely

1. Parameter without Type
2. Parameter with Type

1. Parameter without Type:
Let us see an example of a function definition.
(requires: b > =0 )
(returns: a to the power of b)
let rec pow a b:=
if b=0 then 1
else a pow a*(b-l)

• In the above function definition variable ‘b’ is the parameter and the value which is passed to the variable ‘b’ is the argument.
• The precondition (requires) and postcondition (returns) of the function is given.
• Note we have not mentioned any types (data types).
• Some language computer solves this type (data type) inference problem algorithmically, but some require the type to be mentioned.

2. Parameter with Type:
Now let us write the same function definition with types for some reason:
(requires: b > 0 )
(returns: a to the power of b )
let rec pow (a: int) (b: int): int: =
if b=0 then 1 else a * pow b (a-1)

• When we write the type annotations for ‘a’ and ‘b’ the parentheses are mandatory.
• There are times we may want to explicitly write down types.
• This useful on times when you get a type error from the compiler that doesn’t make sense.
• Explicitly annotating the types can help with debugging such an error message.

Question 2.
Identify in the following program
Answer:
let rec gcd a b : =
if b < > 0 then gcd b (a mod b) else return a
(I) Name of the function
gcd

(II) Identify the statement which tells it is a recursive function
let rec

(III) Name of the argument variable
a, b

(IV) Statement which invokes the function recursively
gcd b(a mod b) [when b < > 0]

(V) Statement which terminates the recursion
return a (when b becomes 0).

Question 3.
Explain with example Pure and impure functions.
Answer:
Pure functions:

• Pure functions are functions which will give exact result when the same arguments are passed.
• For example, the mathematical function sin (0) always results 0.
  Let us see an example.
  let square x
  return: x * x
• The above function square is a pure function because it will not give different results for the same input.

Impure functions:

• The variables used inside the function may cause side effects through the functions which are not passed with any arguments. In such cases, the function is called the impure function.
• When a function depends on variables or functions outside of its definition block, we can never be sure that the function will behave the same every time it’s called.
• For example, the mathematical functions random () will give different outputs for the same function call.
  let Random number
  let a := random() if a > 10 then
  return: a else
  return: 10
• Here the function Random is impure as it is not sure what will be the result when we call the function.

Question 4.
Explain with an example interface and implementation
Answer:
Interface Vs Implementation:
An interface is a set of actions that an object can do. For example, when you press a light switch, the light goes on, you may not have cared how it splashed the light. In an Object-Oriented Programming language, an Interface is a description of all functions that a class must have in order to be a new interface.

In our example, anything that “ACTS LIKE” a light, should have to function definitions like turn on ( ) and a turn off ( ). The purpose of interfaces is to allow the computer to enforce the properties of the class of TYPE T (whatever the interface is) must have functions called X, Y, Z, etc.

A class declaration combines the external interface (its local state) with an implementation of that interface (the code that carries out the behaviour). An object is an instance created from the class. The interface defines an object’s visibility to the outside world.

Characteristics of interface

• The class template specifies the interfaces to enable an object to be created and operated properly.
• An object’s attributes and behavior is controlled by sending functions to the object.

Interface	Implementation
Interface defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it	Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface

Example:

• • The person who drives the car doesn’t care about the internal working.
• To increase the speed of the car he just presses the accelerator to get the desired behaviour.
• Here the accelerator is the interface between the driver (the calling / invoking object) and the engine (the called object).
• In this case, the function call would be Speed (70): This is the interface.
• Internally, the engine of the car is doing all the things.
• It’s where fuel, air, pressure, and electricity come together to create the power to move the vehicle.
  All of these actions are separated from the driver, who just wants to go faster. Thus we separate interface from implementation.

12th Computer Science Guide Function Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer (1 Mark)

Question 1.
……………………… are expressed using statements of a programming language.
(a) Algorithm
(b) Procedure
(c) Specification
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Algorithm

Question 2.
The recursive function is defined using the keyword
a) let
b) requires
c) name
d) let rec
Answer:
d) let rec

Question 3.
A function definition which calls itself is called
a) user-defined function
b) recursive function
c) built-in function
d) derived function
Answer:
b) recursive function

Question 4.
Find the correct statement from the following.
(a) a : = (24) has an expression
(b) (24) is an expression
Answer:
(a) a : = (24) has an expression

Question 5.
strlen() is an example of ………………. function.
a) pure
b) impure
c) user-defined
d) recursive
Answer:
a) pure

Question 6.
Evaluation of ………………. functions does not cause any side effects to its output?
a) Impure
b) built-in
c) Recursive
d) pure
Answer:
d) pure

Question 7.
The name of the function in let rec pow ab : = is …………………………
(a) Let
(b) Rec
(c) Pow
(d) a b
Answer:
(c) Pow

Question 8.
An …………….. is an instance created from the class.
a) Interface
b) object
c) member
d) function
Answer:
b) object

Question 9.
In object-oriented programs …………… are the interface.
a) classes
b) object
c) function
d) implementation
Answer:
a) classes

Question 10.
In b = 0, = is ……………………….. operator
(a) Assignment
(b) Equality
(c) Logical
(d) Not equal
Answer:
(b) Equality

II. Answer the following questions (2 and 3 Marks)

Question 1.
What are the two types of parameter passing?
Answer:

1. Parameter without type
2. Parameter with type

Question 2.
What is meant by Definition?
Answer:
Definitions are distinct syntactic blocks.

Question 3.
Write the syntax for the function definitions?
Answer:
let rec f_n a₁ a₂ … a_n : = k
f_n : Function name
a₁ … a_n – variable
rec: recursion

Question 4.
Define Argument.
Answer:
Arguments are the values which are passed to a function definition through the function definition

Question 5.
Write notes on Interface.
Answer:

• An interface is a set of actions that an object can do.
• Interface just defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it

Question 6.
Define Implementation.
Answer:
Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface

Question 7.
Write notes on Pure functions.
Answer:

• Pure functions are functions which will give exact result when the same arguments are passed.
• Example: strlen(),sqrt()

Question 8.
Write notes on the Impure function.
Answer:

• The functions which cause side effects to the arguments passed are called
  Impure function.
• Example: random(), date()

Question 9.
What is a Recursive function?
Answer:
A function definition which calls itself is called a Recursive function.

Question 10.
Differentiate parameters and arguments.
Answer:

Parameters	Arguments
Parameters are the variables in a function definition	Arguments are the values which are passed to a function definition.

Question 11.
Give function definition for the Chameleons of Chromeland problem?
Answer:
let rec monochromatize abc : =
if a > 0 then
a, b, c : = a – 1, b – 1, c + 2
else
a: = 0, b: = 0, c: = a + b + c
return c

Question 12.
Define Object:
Answer:
An object is an instance created from the class.

III. Answer the following questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain the syntax of function definitions
Answer:

• The syntax to define functions is close to the mathematical usage.
• The definition is introduced by the keyword let, followed by the name of the function and its arguments; then the formula that computes the image of the argument is written after an = sign.
• If you want to define a recursive function: use “let rec” instead of “let”.

The syntax for function definitions:

• let rec fn al a2 … an := k
• Here the ‘fn’ is a variable indicating an identifier being used as a
  function name.
• The names ‘al’ to ‘an’ are variables indicating the identifiers used as parameters.
• The keyword ‘rec’ is required if ‘fn’ is to be a recursive function; otherwise, it may be omitted.

Question 2.
Write a short note and syntax for function types?
Answer:

• The syntax for function types
  x→→y
  x1 →→ x2→→y
  x1 →→….. →→xn→→ y
• The ‘x’ and ‘y’ are variables indicating types
• The type x →→ ‘y’ is the type of a function that gets an input of type ‘x’ and returns an output of type ‘y’ whereas xl→→ x2 →→y is a type of a function that takes two inputs, the first input is of type and the second input of type ‘xl’, and returns an output of type <y’.
• Likewise x1→→……. →→ >xn→→y has type ‘x’ as the input of n arguments and ‘y’ type as output

Question 3.
On the island, there are different types of chameleons. Whenever two different color chameleons meet they both change their colors to the third color. Suppose two types of chameleons are equal in number.
Construct an algorithm that arranges meetings between these two types so that they change their color to the third type. In the end, all should display the same color.
Answer:
let ree monochromatic a b c:=
if a > 0 then
a, b, c:= a -1, b -1, c + 2
else
a:= 0 b:= 0 c:= a + b + c
return c

HANDS-ON PRACTICE

Question 1.
Write the algorithmic function definition to find the minimum among 3 numbers.
Answer:
let min 3abc:=
if a < b then
if a < c then a else c
else
if b < c then b else c

Question 2.
Write the algorithmic recursive function definition to find the sum of ‘n ‘ natural numbers. Answer:
let rec sum num:
lf(num!=0)
then return num+sum(num-l)
else return num

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Guide Pdf Chapter 2 National Income Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 2 National Income

12th Economics Guide National Income Text Book Back Questions and Answer

PART – A

Multiple Choice questions

Question 1.
Net National Product at factor cost is also known as
a) National Income
b) Domestic Income
c) Per capita Income
d) Salary
Answer:
a) National Income

Question 2.
Primary sector is
a) Industry
b) Trade
c) Agriculture
d) Construction
Answer:
c) Agriculture

Question 3.
National income is measured by using ………… methods.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Four
Answer:
b) Three

Question 4.
Income method is measured by summing up of all forms of
a) Revenue
b) Taxes
c) expenditure
d) Income
Answer:
d) Income

Question 5.
Which is the largest figure?
a) Disposable income
b) Personal Income
c) NNP
d) GNP
Answer:
d) GNP

Question 6.
Expenditure method is used to estimate national income in
a) Construction sector
b) Agriculture sector
c) Service sector
d) Banking sector
Answer:
a) Construction sector

Question 7.
Tertiary sector is also called as …………… sector
a) Service
b) Income
c) Industrial
d) Production
Answer:
c) Industrial

Question 8.
National income is a measure of the …………………. performance of an economy.
a) Industrial
b) Agricultural
c) Economic
d) Consumption
Answer:
c) Economic

Question 9.
Percapita income is obtained by dividing the National income by …………………..
a) Production
b) Population of a country
c) Expenditure
d) GNP
Answer:
b) Population of a country

Question 10.
GNP = ……………… + Net factor income from abroad.
a) NNP
b) NDP
c) GDP
d) Personal income
Answer:
c) GDP

Question 11.
NNP stands for ……………
a) Net National Product
b) National Net Product
c) National Net Provident
d) Net National Provident
Answer:
a) Net National Product

Question 12.
……………………. is deducted from gross value to get the net value.
a) Income
b) Depreciation
c) Expenditure
d) Value of final goods.
Answer:
b) Depreciation

Question 13.
The financial year in India is………………
a) April 1 to March 31
b) March 1 to April 30
c) March 1 to March 16
d) January 1 to December 31
Answer:
a) April 1 to March 31

Question 14.
When net factor income from abroad is deducted from NNP, the net value is ……………..
a) Gross National Product
b) Disposable Income
c) Net Domestic Product
d) Personal Income
Answer:
c) Net Domestic Product

Question 15
The value of NNP at the production point is called …………..
a) NNP at factor cost
b) NNP at market cost
c) GNP at factor cost
d) Per capita income
Answer:
a) NNP at factor cost

Question 16.
The average income of the country is …………….
a) Personal Income
b) Per capita Income
c) Inflation Rate
d) Disposal Income
Answer:
b) Per capita Income

Question 17.
The value of national income adjusted for inflation is called ………………..
a) Inflation Rate
b) Disposal income
c) GNP
d) Real national income
Answer:
d) Real national income

Question 18.
Which is a flow concept?
a) Number of shirts
b) Total wealth
c) Monthly income
d) Money supply
Answer:
c) Monthly income

Question 19.
PQLI is the indicator of
a) Economic growth
b) Economic welfare
c) Economic progress
d) Economic development
Answer:
b) Economic welfare

Question 20.
The largest proportion of national income comes from …………
a) Private sector
b) Local sector
c) Public sector
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Private sector

PART-B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income means the total money value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a particular period of time (one year).

Question 22.
Write the formula for calculating GNP.
Answer:
GNP at market prices = C + I + G + (X – M) + (R-P) .
C – consumption
I – Investment
G-Government
X – M – Net export
R-P – net factor income from abroad.

Question 23.
What is the difference between NNP and NDP?
Answer:
NNP:

1. NNP refers to the market value of output.
2. NNP at factor cost is the total income payment made to factors of production.

NDP:

1. NDP is the value of the net output of the economy during the year.
2. The country’s capital equipment wears out of becomes outdated each year during the production process.

Question 24.
Trace the relationship between GNP and NNP
Answer:

• GNP is the total measure of the flow of final goods and services at market value during a year.
• NNP is the value of the net output of the economy during the year.
• NNP = GNP – depreciation

Question 25.
What do you mean by the term Personal Income?
Answer:
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.

Question 26.
Define GDP deflator.
Answer:
The GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP.

Question 27.
Why is self-consumption difficult in measuring national income?
Answer:

1. Farmers keep a large portion of food and other goods produced on the farm for self-consumption.
2. The problem is whether that part of the product which is not sold in the market can be included in national income or not.

PART-C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Write a short note on per capita income
Answer:
The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called per capita income, per capita income is obtained by dividing national income by population.
Per capita income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\).

Question 29.
Differentiate between personal and disposable income.
Answer:
Personal income:
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.

Disposable income:
Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income. It is the individual’s income after the payment of income tax. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Question 30.
Explain briefly NNP at factor cost.
Answer:
NNP refers to the market value of output, whereas NNP at factor cost is the total income payment made to the factor of production.
NNP at factor cost = NNP at market prices – Indirect taxes + subsidies

Question 31.
Give a short note on the Expenditure method.
Answer:
The Expenditure Method (Outlay method):

1. The total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together.
2. To calculate the expenditure of a society, it includes personal consumption expenditure, net domestic investment, government expenditure on consumption as well as capital goods and net exports.

Question 32.
What is the solution to the problem of double counting in the estimation of national income?
Answer:

• Double counting is to be avoided under the value-added method. Any commodity
  which is either raw material or intermediate good for the final product should not be included. ‘
• For example, value of cotton enters value of yarn as cost, and value of yam in cloth and that of cloth in garments. At every stage value-added only should be calculated.

Question 33.
Write briefly about national income and welfare.
Answer:
National Income and Welfare:
National Income is considered as an indicator of the economic wellbeing of a country. The per capita income as an index of economic welfare suffers from limitations which are stated below:

1. Economic welfare depends upon the composition of goods and services provided. The greater the proportion of capital goods over consumer goods, the improvement in economic welfare will be lesser.
2. Higher GDP with greater environmental hazards such as air, water, and soil pollution will be little economic welfare.
3. The production of war goods will show an increase in national output but not welfare.
4. An increase in per capita income may be due to the employment of women and children or forcing workers to work for long hours. But it will not promote economic welfare.

Question 34.
List out the uses of national income.
Answer:

• To know the sectoral contribution.
• To formulate the national policies.
• To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress. !
• To build economic – models.
• To make international comparison.
• To know a country’s per capita income for various factors of production.
• To know the distribution of income for various factors of production.
• To arrive at many macroeconomic variables.

Question 35.
Explain the importance of national income.
Answer:
National income is of great importance for the economy of a country. Nowadays the national income is regarded as accounts of the economy, which are known as social accounts. It enables us:
1. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution towards national income; from the calculation of national income, we could find how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.

2. To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies; the proper measures can be adopted to bring the economy to the right path with the help of collecting national income data.

3. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress; it is essential that the data pertaining to a country’s gross income, output, saving, and consumption from different sources should be available for economic planning.

4. To build economic models both in the short-run and long-run.

5. To make an international comparison, inter-regional comparison, and intertemporal comparison of growth of the economy during different periods.

6. To know a country’s per capita income which reflects the economic welfare of the country (Provided income is equally distributed)

7. To know the distribution of income for various factors of production in the country.

8. To arrive at many macroeconomic variables namely, Tax – GDP ratio, Current Account Deficit – GDP ratio, Fiscal Deficit – GDP ratio, Debt – GDP ratio, etc.

Question 36.
Discuss the various methods of estimating the national income of a country.
Answer:
There are three methods that are used to measure national income.
Product Method:

• Product method measures the output of the country. It is also called inventory
  method. Under this method, the gross value of output from different sectors are obtained for the entire economy during a year. The value obtained is actually the GNP at market prices.
• In this method Double counting should be carefully avoided.

Income Method:
This method approaches national income from the distribution side. Under this method, national income is calculated by adding up all the incomes generated in the course of producing national product.
Y = W + r + i + π + (R-P)
W – wages  r – rent
i – interest  π – profit
R- P – net factor income from abroad.
The Expenditure Method:
In this method, the total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together. To calculate the expenditure of a society, it includes personal consumption expenditure (c) net domestic investment (I), government expenditure on consumption (G) as well as capital goods and net export (X-M)
GNP = C+I+G+(X-M)
If the above methods are done correctly, the following equation must hold
Output = Income = Expenditure

Question 37.
What are the difficulties involved in the measurement of national income?
Answer:
In India because of various problems posed, a valuation of output is very difficult.

Transfer payments:
The government expenditure like pensions, unemployment allowance, subsidies etc are not included in the national income, Because they are paid without adding anything to the production process. Interest on national debt is also considered as transfer payment

Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance :
It requires high degree of judgment to assess the depreciation allowance and other charges. Deduction of these from national income is not an easy task.

Unpaid services:
The service of housewife are not included in National income whereas the similar service performed by paid servants are included. Similarly there are number of goods and services which are difficult to be assessed in money terms are not included.

Income from illegal activities :
Income earned through illegal activities are not included in national income.

Production for self-consumption and changing price :
Farmers keep a large portion of their produce for self-consumption. The problem is whether they can be included in national income or not. National income by-product method is measured by the value of final goods and services at current market prices. But prices do not remain stable. To solve this constant price level is considered.

Capital Gains:
Capital gains arise when a capital asset is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase, capital gains are excluded from national income.

Statistical problems:
Statistical data may not be perfectly reliable, when they are compiled from numerous sources, skill and efficiency of the statistical staff and cooperation of people at large are also equally important in estimating national income.

Question 38.
Discuss the importance of social accounting in economic analysis.
Answer:
National Income and Social Accounting:

1. National income is also being measured by the social accounting method.
2. Under this method, the transactions among various sectors such as firms, households, government, etc., are recorded and their interrelationships traced.
3. The social accounting framework is useful for economists as well as policy makers, because it represents the major economic flows and statistical relationships among various sectors of the economic system.
4. It becomes possible to forecast the trends of economy more accurately.

Social Accounting and Sector:

1. Under this method, the economy is divided into several sectors.
2. A sector is a group of individuals or institutions having common interrelated economic transactions.
3. The economy is divided into the following sectors:
   1. Firms
   2. Households
   3. Government
   4. Rest of the world and
   5. Capital sector.
4. “Firms” undertake productive activities. Thus, they are all organizations which employ the factors of production to produce goods and services.
5. “Households” are consuming entities and represent the factors of production, who receive payment for services rendered by them to firms. Households consume the goods and services that are produced by the firms.
6. “The Government sector” refers to the economic transactions of public bodies at all levels, centre, state and local.
7. The main function of the government is to provide social goods like defence, public health, education, etc.
8. “Rest of the world sector” relates to international economic transactions of the country. It contains income, export and import transactions, external loan transaction, and allied overseas investment income and payments.
9. “Capital sector” refers to saving and investment activities. It includes the transactions of banks, insurance corporations, financial houses, and other agencies of the money market.

12th Economics Guide National Income Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Match the following

Question 1.
A) Noble laureate – 1. Banking
B) Primary sector – 2. Simon kuznet
C) Secondary sector – 3. Agriculture
D) Tertiary sector – 4. Industry

Answer:
d) 2 3 4 1

Question 2.
A) PQLI – 1. C + I + G + (X-M)
B) GNP_MP – 2. GNP- depreciation allowance
C) NNP – 3. Economic welfare
D) GNP – 4. C + I + G + (X – M) + (R – P)

Answer:
b) 3 4 2 1

Question 3.
A) Disposable Income – 1. \(\text { 1. } \frac{\text { Nominal GDP }}{\text { Real GDP }} \times 100\)
B) Per capita Income – 2. GDP – Depreciation
c) GDP deflator – 3. Personal income – Direct Tax
D) NDP –  \(\text { 4. } \frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)
Answer:
a) 3 4 1 2

II. Choose the correct pair

Question 1.
a) Disposable income – Consumption + saving
b) Per capita income – \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Disposable Income }}\)
c) Capital gains – Included in National Income
d) National income – Four methods
Answer:
a) Disposable income – Consumption + saving

Question 2.
a) Expenditure method – Value method
b) Income method – Output method
c) Product method – Factor Earning Method
d) Inputs – Factors of production
Answer :
d) Inputs – Factors of production

Question 3.
a)Transfer payment – Purchase of shares
b) Double counting – Value added method
c) National income – Y = w+r+i+(R-P)
d) Value of output – Cost x Quantity sold
Answer :
b) Double counting – Value added method

III. Choose the incorrect pair

Question 1.
a)Labour income – wages and salaries
b) Capital income – profit, dividend
c) National income – domestic factor income + gross factor income
d) Mixed income – farming, sole proprietorship
Answer:
c) National income – domestic factor income + gross factor income

Question 2.
a) w – wages
b) π – loss
c) r – rent
d) i – interest
Answer :
b) π – loss

Question 3.
a) C – Private consumption expenditure
b) I – Private Investment Expenditure
c) G – Government expenditure.
d) X-M – Net import
Answer:
d) X-M – Net import

Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Personal Income is
a) National Income – Direct taxes
b) National Income – Indirect taxes
c) National Income – (Social security “contribution and undistributed corporate profits) +Transfer payments
d) National Income – Net Income from abroad
Answer:
c) National Income – (Social security contribution and undistributed corporate profits) +Transfer payments

Question 2.
Real income is
a) National Income at current price + P1 /PO
b) National Income at the current price – P1/PO
c) National Income at current price x P1 /PO
d) National Income at current price ÷ P1/P0
Answer :
d) National Income at current price ÷ P1/P0

Question 3.
National income by income method is
a) Y = w + r + i + π + (R – P)
b) Y = w + r + i + π – (R – P)
c) Y = w + r + i + π + (R + P)
d) Y = w + r + π – i – (R – P)
Answer:
a)Y = w + r + i + π + (R-P)

Question 4.
………………………. is of great importance for the economy of a country?
(a) Personal Income
(b) National Income
(c) Industry Income
(d) Village Income
Answer:
(b) National Income

Question 5.
Transfer payments are
a) Pensions, unemployment allowance, and subsidies given by Government.
b) Pension, unemployment allowance, and subsidies given by private.
c) Pension, unemployment allowance, and subsidies given by N. G. O. S.
d) None of the above.
Answer:
a) Pensions, unemployment allowance, and subsidies given by Government.

Question 6.
Percapita income is
a) National income – Population
b) National income – Real income
c) National income – Population
d) National income – Disposable income .
Answer :
c) National income – Population

Question 7.
The Economy is divided into the ………………….. sectors?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(d) five

v

Question 8.
Which method of calculating National income is called as Factor Earning Method?
a) Product method
b) Expenditure method
c) Income method
d) Inventory method
Answer:
c) Income method

Question 9.
NDP is
a) GNP – Depreciation
b) GNP – Taxes
c) GDP – Depreciation
d)GDP -NNP
Answer:
c) GDP – Depreciation

Question 10.
While assessing sectoral contribution to GDP, the economy is Sectors?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

V. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
a) J.M.Keynes introduced the concept of national income.
b) GDP is the total market value of final goods and services produced within the country during a year.
c) NDPis the value of net exports of the economy during the year.
d) Net National product refers to the value of the net imports of the economy during the year.
Answer:
b) GDP is the total market value of final goods and services produced within the country during a year.

Question 2.
a) Disposable Income is the amount available for households for investment.
b) The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called National Income.
c) Real income is the buying power of nominal income.
d) Entire disposable income is spent on consumption.
Answer:
c) Real income is the buying power of nominal income.

Question 3.
a) There are three methods that are used to measure National Income.
b) Factor incomes are grouped as labour income, capital income, and national income.
c) Double counting is avoided under the Income method.
d) Capital sector relates to international economic transactions of the country.
Answer:
a) There are three methods that are used to measure National Income.

IV. Choose the incorrect statement

Question 1.
a) National income denotes the country’s purchasing power.
b) Product method measures the output of the country.
c) Double counting is avoided under the value-added method.
d) Income method is also called as inventory method.
Answer:
d) Income method is also called as inventory method.

Question 2.
a) Transfer payments are to be included in the estimation of national income.
b) Expenditure on intermediate goods is to be excluded from national income.
c) Interest on the national debt is considered as transfer payments.
d) PQLI includes standard of living, life expectancy at birth, and literacy.
Answer:
a) Transfer payments are to be included in the estimation of national income.

Question 3.
a) The Government sector refers to the economic transactions of public bodies at all levels.
b) Households undertake productive activities.
c) Rest of the world sector relates to the international economic transaction of the country.
d) Capital sector refers to saving and investment activities.
Answer:
b) Households undertake productive activities.

VII. Pick the odd one out:

Question 1.
a) Product method
b) Income method
c) Investment method
d) Expenditure method
Answer:
c) Investment method

Question 2.
a) Transfer payments
b) Social Accounting
c) Unpaid services
d) Capital gains
Answer:
a) Transfer payments

Question 3.
a) Factor income
b) Labour income
c) Capital income
d) Mixed income
Answer:
a) Factor income

VIII. Analyse the reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): National income estimates are not very accurate in our country.
Reason (R): Proper valuation of output is very difficult because of the existence of a largely unorganised and non-monetized subsistence sector.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) Both A and R are false.
d) A is true but R is false
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The income method approaches national income from the distribution side.
Reason(R): In this method, national income is calculated by adding up all the incomes generated in the course of producing the national products.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

IX. Answer the following questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Write the Factor Incomes group?
Answer:
Factor incomes are grouped under labour income, capital income, and mixed-income.

1. Labour income – Wages and salaries, fringe benefits, employer’s contribution to social security.
2. Capital income – Profit, interest, dividend, and royalty.
3. Mixed-income – Farming, sole proprietorship, and other professions.

Question 2.
Name some of the concepts used in measuring national income.
Answer:

1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
2. Gross National Product (GNP)
3. Net National Product (NNP)
4. Personal Income
5. Per Capita Income

Question 3.
Define “Capital Gains”?
Answer:
The problem also arises with regard to capital gains. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at a higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Question 4.
What is per capita Income?
Answer:
The average income of a person of a country is a particular year is called per capita income.
per capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 5.
Define “National Income & Erosion of National Wealth”?
Answer:
For achieving higher GDP, larger natural resources are being depleted or damaged. This means a reduction of potential for future growth. Hence, it is suggested that while assessing national income, loss of natural resources should be subtracted from national income.

Question 6.
What are transfer payments?
Answer:

• Transfer payments are payments of the Government that are paid without adding anything to the production processes.
• Eg: Unemployment allowances, subsidies

Question 7.
What is Market Price?
Answer:
The Market Price is the price that consumers will pay for the product when they purchase it from the sellers.
Market Price = Factor Cost – Subsidies

Question 8.
What is meant by income from illegal activities?
Answer:
Illegal activities like gambling, smuggling, etc have value and satisfy the wants of the people but they are not considered as productive.
Income from these illegal activities is not included in National income.

Question 9.
What are capital gains?
Answer:
Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase.

Question 10.
What is meant by PQLI?
Answer:
The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is considered a better indicator of economic welfare. It includes standard of living, life expectancy at birth, and literacy.

Answer the following questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
How is Gross National Product measured?
Answer:

• GNP is the total measure of the flow of final goods and services at market value resulting from current production in a country during a year, including net income from abroad.
• GNP = C + I+G + (X-M) + (R-P)
• C – Consumption
• I – Gross Investment G – Government expenditure
• X-M – Net export
• R-P – Net factor income from abroad

Question 2.
Explain the Expenditure Method (Outlay Method) precautions?
Answer:
Precautions:

1. Second-hand goods:
   The expenditure made on second-hand goods should not be included.
2. Purchase of shares and bonds:
   Expenditures on the purchase of old shares and bonds in the secondary market should not be included.
3. Transfer payments:
   Expenditures towards payment incurred by the government like old age pension should not be included.
4. Expenditure on intermediate goods:
   Expenditure on seeds and fertilizers by farmers, cotton, and yam by textile industries are not to be included to avoid double counting. That is only expenditure on final products are to be included.

Question 3.
Write a note National Income in terms of US $?
Answer:

• The national income of a country in money terms describes the economic performance of a country.
• When Indian national Income is expressed in terms of US $, the former looks very low.
• If purchasing power parity (PPP) method is adopted India looks better.

Question 4.
What is a sector? Name its divisions.
Answer:

• A sector is a group of individuals or institutions having common interrelated economic transactions. The economy is divided into the following sectors:
• Firms: The organizations which employ the factors of production to produce goods and services.
• Households: They are consuming entities and represent the factors of production.
• The government sector: It refers to the economic transactions of public bodies at all levels, centre, state and local.
• Rest of the world sector: It relates to international economic transactions of the country.
• Capital sector: It refers to saving and investment activities.

Question 5.
Explain the precautionary measures taken while calculating National income in the expenditure method.
Answer:
Second-hand goods:
The expenditure made on secondhand goods should not be included.

Purchase of shares and bonds:
Expenditures on the purchase of old shares and bonds in the secondary market should not be included.

Transfer payments:
Expenditures towards payment incurred by the government like old-age pensions should not be included.

Expenditure on intermediate goods:
Expenditure on seeds and fertilizers by farmers, cotton, and yarn by textile industries are not to be included to avoid double counting only expenditure on final products are to be included.

Question 6.
Explain the steps involved in the Income method.
Answer:
1. The enterprises are classified into various industrial groups.
2. Factor incomes are grouped under labour income, capital income, and mixed-income.

• Labour Income – Wages and salaries, fringe benefits, employer’s contribution to social security.
• Capital Income – Profit, internet, dividend, and royalty.
• Mixed-Income – Farming, sole proprietorship, and other professions.

3. National income is calculated as domestic factor income plus net factor income from abroad.
In short Y = w + r + i + n + (R-P)
W = Wages,
r – rent,
i = interest,
FI – Profits,
R = Export,
P=Import

XII. Answer the following questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
How is National income calculated under the product method?
Answer:
The product method measures the output of the country. It is also called the inventory method. Under this method, the gross value of output from different sectors like agriculture, industry, trade and commerce etc., is obtained for the entire economy during a year.

To avoid double-counting, either the value of the final output should be taken into the estimate of GNP or the sum of values added should be taken.
In India, the gross value of the farm output is obtained as follows.

• Total production of 64 agriculture commodities is estimated. The output of each crop is measured by multiplying the area shown by the average yield per hectare.
• The total output of each commodity is valued at market prices.
• The aggregate value of total output of these 64 commodities is taken to measure the gross value of agricultural output.
• The net value of the agricultural output is measured by making deductions for the cost of seed, manures and fertilizers, market charge, repairs and depreciation from the gross value.
• Similarly, the gross values of the output of animal husbandry, forestry, fishery, mining and factory establishments are obtained by multiplying their estimates of total production with market prices.

Net value of the output in these sectors is derived by making deductions for cost of materials used in the process of production and depreciation allowances, etc., from gross value of output.

Question 2.
Explain the basic concepts of measuring National income.
Answer:
The following are some of the concepts used in measuring national income.
1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
GDP is the total market value of final goods and services produced within the country during a year.
GDP = C + 1 + G + (X-M)

2. Net Domestic Product (NDP)
NDP is the value of net output of the economy during the year.
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

3. Gross National Product (GNP)
GNP is the total measure of the flow of final goods and services at market value resulting from current production in a country during a year, including net income from abroad.
GNP = C+I+G+(X-M)+(R-P)

4. Net National Product (NNP)
NNP refers to the value of the net output of the economy during the year.
NNP = GNP – depreciation allowance

5. Personal Income:
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.
Personal Income = National Income – (Social security contribution and undistributed corporate profits) + Transfer Payments

6. Per Capita Income :
The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called per capita income.
Per Capita income =\(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Questions 3.
Explain Gross Domestic Product by the sum of Expenditure, Factor Incomes, or Output.
Answer:

(Expenditure)	(Factor Incomes) GDP	(Value of Output)
1. Consumption	Income from people in jobs and in self-employment. (eg. Wages and salaries)	1. Value added from each of the main economic sectors
2. Government Spending	Profits of private-sector business	2. These sectors are Primary Secondary Manufacturing Quaternary
3. Investment Spending	3. Rent income from the ownership of land
4. Change in value of stocks
5. Exports
6. Imports
7. = GDP (Known as aggregate demand)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.2

Question 1.
Solve:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{dx}\) = ae^y
Solution:
\(\frac { dy }{dx}\) = ae^y
\(\frac { dy }{e^y}\) = adx ⇒ e^-y dy = adx
Integrating on both sides
∫e^-y dy = ∫adx
\(\frac { e^y }{(-1)}\) = ax + c
-e^-y = ax + c ⇒ e^-y + ax + c = 0

(ii) \(\frac { 1+x^2 }{1+y}\) = xy \(\frac { dy }{dx}\)
Solution:

Question 2.
y(1 – x) – x \(\frac { dy }{dx}\) = 0
Solution:

Question 3.
(i) ydx – xdy = 0 dy
Solution:
ydx – xdy = 0
ydx = xdy
\(\frac { 1 }{x}\) dx = \(\frac { 1 }{y}\) dy
Integrating on both sides
∫\(\frac { 1 }{x}\)dx = ∫\(\frac { 1 }{y}\)dy
log x = log y + log c
log x = log cy
⇒ x = cy

(ii) \(\frac { dy }{dx}\) + e^x + ye^x = 0
Solution:

Question 4.
Solve : cosx (1 + cosy) dx – siny (1 + sinx) dy = 0
Solution:
cos x (1 + cos y) dx – sin y (1 + sin x) dy = 0
cos x (1 + cos y) dx = sin y (1 + sin x) dy

Question 5.
Solve: (1 – x) dy – (1 + y) dx = 0
Solution:
(1 – x) dy – (1 + y) dx = 0
(1 – x) dy = (1 + y) dx
\(\frac { dy }{(1+y)}\) = \(\frac { dx }{(1-x)}\)
Integrating on both sides

Question 6.
Solve:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{dx}\) = y sin 2x
Solution:

(ii) log(\(\frac { dy }{dx}\)) = ax + by
Solution:

Question 7.
Find the curve whose gradient at any point P (x, y) on it is \(\frac { x-a }{y-b}\) and which passes through the origin.
Solution:
The gradient of the curve at P (x, y)
\(\frac { dy }{dx}\) = \(\frac { x-a }{y-b}\)
(y – b) dy = (x – a) dx
Integrating on both sides
∫(y – b)dy = ∫(x – a)dx
⇒ \(\frac { (y-b)^2 }{2}\) = \(\frac { (x-a)^2 }{2}\) + c
(Multiply each term by 2)
∴ (y – b)² = (x – a)² + 2c ……… (1)
Since the curve passes through the origin (0, 0)
eqn (1) (0 – b)² = (0 – a)² + 2c
b² = a² + 2c
b² – a² = 2c ………. (2)
Substitute eqn (2) in eqn (1)
(y – b)² = (x – a)² + b² – a²

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 26 Companies Act, 2013 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 26 Companies Act, 2013

12th Commerce Guide Companies Act, 2013 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
The Company will have to issue the notice of situation of Registered Office to the Registrar of Companies within …………… days from the date of incorporation.
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 Days
d) 60 Days
Answer:
c) 30 days

Question 2.
How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called?
a) Director
b) Company Secretary
c) Registrar
d) Promoter
Answer:
d) Promoter

Question 3.
For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
a) Subscribed Capital
b) Authorised Capital
c) Paid-up Capital
d) Issued Capital
Answer:
b) Authorised Capital

Question 4.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
a) Equity Shares
b) Rights Shares
c) Preference Shares
d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
b) Rights Shares

Question 5.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
a) Ordinary
b) Special
c) Either Ordinary or Special
d) Board
Answer:
d) Board

Question 6.
Who can issue stock?
a) Public
b) Private
c) One Person
d) Small
Answer:
a) Public

Question 7.
Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.
a) Share Certificate
b) Share
c) Share Warrant
d) Stock
Answer:
c) Share Warrant

Question 8.
The shares which are offered to the existing shareholder at free of cost is known as …………
a) Bonus Share
b) Equity Share
c) Right Share
d) Preference Share
Answer:
a) Bonus Share

Question 9.
The shares which are offered first to the existing shareholder at reduced price is known as ……………………..
a) Bonus Share
b) Equity Share
c) Right Share
d) Preference Share
Answer:
c) Right Share

Question 10.
The Companies Act 2013 Prohibits the issue of shares at to the public.
a) Premium
b) Par
c) Discount
d) Both at par and Premium
Answer:
c) Discount

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the four stages of the formation of a company?
Answer:

1. Promotion
2. Registration
3. Capital subscription
4. Commencement of business.

Question 2.
What is Share?
Answer:

• The term “Share” is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denominations.
• The total capital of the company is shared by many persons and each share is having equal value.

Question 3.
What are Bonus Shares?
Answer:
Bonus share means to utilize the company’s reserves and surpluses. Issue of shares to existing shareholders without taking any consideration is known as Bonus Shares.

Question 4.
What are Right Shares?
Answer:
If Article permits the “Right Share” can be issued to the existing shareholders [further issue] on the pro-data basis to raise the subscribed capital.

Question 5.
What is Debentures?
Answer:
When a company needs funds for extension and development purposes without increasing its share capital, it can borrow from the general public by issuing certificates for a fixed period of time and at a fixed rate of interest. Such a loan certificate is called a debenture.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:

• When Shares are issued at a price above the face or Nominal value, they are said to be issued at a “premium”.
• Face value ₹10 Issued at ₹12 here ₹2 is the premium.
• The premium can be utilized for:
• To write off preliminary expenses.
• To write off expenses of issue, commission, discount on issue of shares and debentures.

Question 2.
Explain different Kinds of Preference shares.
Answer:

• Cumulative
• Redeemable
• Convertible
• Participating

Cumulative Preference Shares: As the word indicates all dividends [Arrears] are carried forward until specified and paid out only at the end of the specified period.

Redeemable Preference Shares: Such preference shares can be claims [Redeemed] after a fixed period or after giving due notice.

Convertible Preference Shares: Preference shares can be converted into Equity shares after a time of period or as per the conditions laid down in the terms.

Participating Preference Shares: Such shares have the right to participate in any additional profits, after paying to the equity shareholders.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write the difference between Debentures and Shares:
Answer:

Basis of difference	Debentures	Shares
1. Constitute	Debentures constitute a Loan.	Shares are part of the capital of a company.
2. Assets – Charge	Debentures have a charge [security] on the Assets of the company	Shares do not carry such a charge.
3. Rate of Interest	Gets Fixed Rate of interest	Gets Variable rate of dividend.
4. Level	Lower and Middle level	Top-level
5. Interest paid	Interest is a business expenditure allowable deduction from profit.	The dividend is not an allowable deduction as business expenditure.
6. Voting	Not having voting right	Having voting rights.
7. Even out of Capital	Interest is to be payable if there is no profit.	[To be paid from capital] Dividend can be paid only out of profits and not otherwise.

Question 2.
Brief different stages in Formation of a Company.
Answer:
Section 3 (1) of the Act states that a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by-

• seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company;
• two or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a private company;
• one person, where the company to be formed is to be One Person Company.

The process of formation of company consists of different stages:
1. Promotion: The promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.

2. Registration: The second stage in the formation of the company is the incorporation or – registration. In this stage, the promoter has to fix name of the company, prepare the necessary documents (Memorandum and Articles of Association), fix the registered office, and name of the directors. After this, a certificate of incorporation is issued.

3. Capital Subscription: A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two stages. One of them is capital subscription. The steps for this is:

1. Formalities for raising capital
2. Issuing prospectus
3. Appointing official banker
4. Pass resolution to make allotment

4. Commencement of Business: As per section 11 of the Act, a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, declaration stating that

1. Every subscriber has paid the value of shares.
2. Paid up capital is not less than Rs.5 lakhs for a public limited company and Rs.1 lakh in case of a private limited company.
3. It has filed the Registrar, regarding the verification of registered office. After fulfilling these details, the Registrar will issue certificate of commencement of business.

Question 3.
What are the various kinds of Debentures?
Answer:
I. On the Basis of Registration:
a) Registered Debentures: It is issued in the name of a particular person, whose name appears on the Debenture certificate and in the Debenture holder register.

b) Bearer Debentures: It is issued to Bearer, whose name does not – appear in the certificate and Register and it is a negotiable instrument, transferable merely by delivery.

II. On the Basis of Security:
a) Secured Debentures [Mortgage]:
These instruments are secured by a charge [pledge] on the fixed assets of the issuer company.
If the issuer fails to pay the interest or principal amount, assets can be sold by the investors for collecting the debts.
b) Unsecured Debentures:
These instruments are unsecured, there is no security for the defaults of payment of interest or principal amount.

III. On the basis of Redemption:
a) Redeemable Debentures:
It refers to the Debentures which are issued with a condition that it will be redeemed at a fixed date or up on-demand or after notice or under a system of periodical drawings.
b) Irredeemable Debentures [Perpetual]:
A Debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money.

IV. On the basis of Convertibility:
a) Convertible Debenture: [fully] [FCD]

• These are fully convertible into Equity shares.
• The ratio of conversion is decided by the issuer.
• It may be partly convertible [PCD].
• The investor has the option [OCD] to convert the debentures.

b) Non-Convertible Debentures:
These are not convertible into Equity shares.

12th Commerce Guide Companies Act, 2013 Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
According to New Companies Act 2013, the maximum number of members for private companies is ……………..
a) 200
b) 300
c) 400
d) No limit
Answer:
a) 200

Question 2.
A minimum number of members for a public limited company is …………
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Answer:
d) 7

Question 3.
In accordance with whose advice, directions, or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act is a ………………
a) Director
b) Shareholder
c) Promoter
d) MD
Answer:
c) Promoter

Question 4.
A fraction or portion of the total capital of the company which has equal denomination is known as ………………..
a) stock
b) Share
c) Debenture
d) Warrant
Answer:
b) Share

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Redeemable Shares
b) Redeemable Debentures
c) Ir-redeemable Shares
d) Converting Shares
Answer:
b) Redeemable Debentures

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) NCD
b) PCD
c) QCD
d) BCD
Answer:
d) BCD

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) C.A. – Member of the Institute of Chartered Account
b) ICWA – Institute of Cost and works Accountant
c) CLB – Company Legislative Board
d) NCLT – National Company Law Tribunal.
Answer:
c) CLB – Company Legislative Board

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

List -I	List-II
i Bonus Shares	1. Subscribed to selected Group
ii Sweat Equity Shares	2. Existing Equity Shareholders
iii Right Shares	3. Issued to Employees
iv Private Placement	4. Capitalisation of profit

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
c) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Question 2.

List-I	List-II
i. Issued at par	1. Through Prospectus Issued
ii. Issued at Premium	2. Below the face value
iii. Issued at Discount	3. Above the face value
iv. Public Issue	4. Face value

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
b) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
c) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
d) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
Answer:
b) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Question 3.

List-I	List-II
i. Shares	1. Negotiable Instrument
ii. Debentures	2. Capital
iii. Stock	3. Loan
iv.  Warrant	4. No nominal value

a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
b) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
c) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
d) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Debentures constitutes a Loan
Reason (R) : Gets fixed rate of interest.
a) Both (A) and (R) are True
b) Both (A) and (R) are False,
c) (A) is True (R) is False.
d)(A) is False (R) is True
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Stock?
Answer:
If Articles Permits, bypassing an ordinary resolution, the fully paid-up shares can be converted in to “Stock” and vice versa.

Question 2.
What is Share Certificate?
Answer:

• A “Share Certificate” is an instrument in writing, that is legal proof of the ownership of the number of shares stated in it.
• It contains Name of the Company, Date of Issue, Details of the Shareholder, Shares held, Nominal value, Paid-up value, and – Definite number.

Question 3.
Mention the stages to form a Company.
Answer:

• Promotion
• Registration
• Capital Subscription
• Commencement of Business

Question 4.
What is a Memorandum of Association? [MOA]
Answer:

• It is the charter of a Company. [External Management]
• It defines the area within which the company can operate.
• It contains Name, Object, Situation, Capital, Liability and Subscription clauses.

Question 5.
What is Articles of Association? [AOA]
Answer:

• It is the second most important document. [Internal Management]
• It contains the Rules and Regulations for Internal Management.

Question 6.
What is issue of shares at Par or Face value?
Answer:

• When the shares are issued at its face value or Nominal value it is known as issue of shares at “Par”
• Face value ₹10, Issue at ₹10

Question 7.
What do you mean by Equity Share?
Answer:

• A share which do not have any preferential rights with regard to Dividend and Repayment of share capital at the time of Liquidation of a company is known as “Equity Share”.
• It is also called as “ordinary” Shares.

Question 8.
What do you understand by Preference Share?
Answer:
A share which has preferential rights with regard to Dividend [Fixed Rate] and Repayment of Share Capital at the time of Liquidation is known as “Preference Share”.

Question 9.
What is Sweat Equity Shares?
Answer:
“Sweat Equity share” means issue ot shares to Employees or Directors at a lower price [Discount] for i ash and other than cash, in lieu of providing know-how or making available rights in the nature of intellectual property rights or any value addition.

Question 10
What is Private placement?
Answer:
“Private Placement” means an offer of securities or invitation to subscribe securities to a selected – group of persons [Clients] through a private placement offer letter.

Question 11.
Define Share Warrant.
Answer:

• A “Share Warrant” is a Negotiable Instrument.
• It is issued by a public limited company only against fully paid-up share
• It is also termed as a “Document of Title” the holder of it is entitled to the number of shares

Question 12.
Who is called as Promoters?
Answer:

• The promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.
• The person who envisages the idea is called “Promoter”.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of Debentures?
Answer:

• Debenture certificate issued by the company under common seal.
• It is a movable property.
• Creditors of the company.
• Carry a fixed rate of interest.
• Unsecured or secured.
• Redeemed after a fixed period of time.

Question 2.
What is a Memorandum of Association? What are its contents?
Answer:

• MOA is the charter of a company.
• It is a document that defines the area within which the company can operate. [External Management]

Contents:

• Name clause
• Object clause
• Liability clause
• Association clause
• Capital clause
• Situation clause

Question 3.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Basis of difference	Shares	Stock
1. Paid up	Shares may be fully paid up or partly paid-up	Stock must be fully paid up.
2. Nominal Value	It has a nominal value.	It has no nominal value.
3. Number	It has definite numbers.	It has no definite numbers.

Question 4.
What is the issue of shares at discount? What conditions should be fulfilled?
Answer:

• When shares are issued at a price below the face or Nominal value, they are said to be issued at a Discount.
• Face value HO Issued at ₹9 here ₹1 is discount.
• The Companies Act 2013, prohibits the issue of shares at discount.

Conditions:

• Very first issue should not be at Discount.
• After one year it can issue at Discount.
• Discount should not exceed 10% on the nominal value.

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What formalities need to be fulfilled for companies having share capital to commence business?
Answer:

• As per section 11 of the Act a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, Declaration stating that:
  • Every subscriber to the MOA has paid the value of shares agreed to be taken by him.
  • Paid-up capital is not less than ₹ 5 lakhs in the case of a public limited company and ₹ 1 lakh in the case of a private limited company.
  • It has filed the Registrar the verification of the Registered office.
• These restrictions in section 11 are applicable to companies – having a share capital.
• It can commence the business only after fulfilling all the formalities mentioned above and exercise borrowing powers immediately after incorporation.

Question 2.
Write the difference between Share Certificate and Share Warrant [TAMIL]
Answer:

Basis of difference	Share Certificate	Share Warrant
1. Transfer	It can be transferred by executing a valid transfer deed.	It can be transferred by mere hand delivery.
2. Amount paid	Issued against fully or partly paid-up shares.	Issued only against fully paid up shares.
3. Meaning	A legal document which indicates the possession of the shareholders on the specified number of shares.	A legal document which indicates the bearer is entitled to the specified number of shares.
4. Issued by	Public company or private company.	Only public company.
5. Limit (Time)	Within 3 months after the allotment of shares.	No time limit prescribed.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 25 Government Schemes for Entrepreneurial Development Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 25 Government Schemes for Entrepreneurial Development

12th Commerce Guide Government Schemes for Entrepreneurial Development Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
The …………………… initiative was launched to modernize the Indian economy to make all governments services available electronically.
a) Standup India
b) Startup India
c) Digital India
d) Make in India
Answer:
c) Digital India

Question 2.
………………………………………. is designed to transform India to a global design and manufacturing hub.
a) Digital India
b) Make in India
c) Startup India
d) Design India
Answer:
b) Make in India

Question 3.
……………… is the Government of India’s endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. ‘
a) AIM
b) STEP
c) SEED
d) AIC
Answer:
a) AIM

Question 4.
………….. should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of labour and raw material, market potential and profitability.
a) Technical Report
b) Finance Report
c) Project Report
d) Progress Report
Answer:
c) Project Report

Question 5.
………………………………….. has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
a) Banker
b) Government
c) Lending Institutions
d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
d) Entrepreneur

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name any four Governmental Entrepreneurial schemes.
Answer:
Through the Startup India initiative, the Government of India promotes entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing, and facilitating startups throughout their life cycle. Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS), New Gen Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre (New Gen IEDC), Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme, and Single Point Registration Scheme (SPRS) are some of the Governmental Entrepreneurial schemes.

Question 2.
Give a note on ‘Digital India’.
Answer:
The Digital India initiative has been launched to modernize the Indian Economy to make all Government Services action) available Electronically. (Paperless transactions)

Question 3.
List down the two types of finance.
Answer:
Entrepreneurial development schemes of Government of Tamil Nadu:

1. Micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
2. New Entrepreneur-Cum-Enterprise Development Scheme (NEEDS)
3. Self-Help Group (SHG)

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is “Startup India?
Answer:
Through the Startup India initiative, the Government of India promotes entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups throughout their life cycle.

Question 2.
Expand the following: STEP, JAM, TREAD, M-SIPS, SEED and New Gen IEDC
Answer:

• STEP – Support to Training and Employment Programme (For women)
• JAM – Jandhan Aadhaar Mobile
• TREAD – Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development.
• M – SIPS – Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
• SEED – Science for Equity Empowerment and Development.
• New Gen IEDC – New Gen. Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the following
a) Dairy Entrepreneurship development scheme
b) Project report.
Answer:
(a) Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme: Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme aims at helping entrepreneurs in the field of Agriculture, pets, and animals.
(b) Project Report: Project reports need to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application form of term lending institutions.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain any five government entrepreneurial schemes.
Answer:
Startup India:

• Through the “start-up” India initiative, the Indian government promotes Entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing, and facilitating startups throughout their life cycle
• It was launched in January 2016, the initiative has successfully given a head start to numerous aspiring entrepreneurs
• A fund of funds has been created to help startups gain access to funding

Stand up India:

• It was launched in 2015, standup India seeks to leverage institutional credit for the benefit of India’s under privileged
• It aims at enabling economic participation of, women entrepreneurs, scheduled castes, and scheduled tribes and shares the benefit of Indian growth with the above-mentioned categories

Make in India:

• This scheme is designed to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub
• This initiative was launched in September 2014
• It came as a powerful call to Indian citizens and business leaders and an invitation to potential partners and investors around the world to centralize information about opportunities in India’s manufacturing sector.
• This has in turn helped procure investments, foster innovation, develop skills and build best in class manufacturing infrastructure.

Digital India:

• The digital India initiative has been launched to modernize the Indian economy to make all government services available electronically, [paper less transaction]
  Jandhan Aadhaar Mobile [JAM]
• JAM for the first time is a technological intervention that enables direct transfer of subsides to intended beneficiaries and eliminates all intermediaries and leakages in the system which has a potential impact on the lives of millions of Indian citizens.

Atal Innovation Mission:
AIM is the Indian government’s endeavour to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship, and it serves as a platform for the promotion of world-class innovation hubs,

Modified special incentive package scheme: [M-SIPS]
The M-SIPS provides capital subsidy of 20% in special economic zone [SEZ] and 25% subsidy in non SEZ for business units engaged in the fields of aeronautics aerospace Defence, green technology, nanotechnology and so on.

Question 2.
Describe the steps promoting an Entrepreneurial venture.
Answer:
Steps for promoting entrepreneurial venture:

1. Selection of the product: An entrepreneur may select a product according to his capacity and motivation after a thorough scrutiny of the micro and macro environment of business.
2. Selection of form of ownership: The entrepreneur has to choose the form of organization suitable and appropriate for his venture namely family ownership, partnership, and private company.
3. Selection of site: The entrepreneur has to choose a suitable plot for starting his venture. The plot may be an industrial site, land by the private people, or a housing board plot allotted.
4. Designing capital structure: The entrepreneurs have to determine the source of finance for funding the venture. It may be own savings, a loan from friends, relatives, or a loan from banks.
5. Acquisition of Manufacturing know-how: Entrepreneur can acquire manufacturing know-how from government research laboratories and industrial consultants.
6. Preparation of project report: Project reports need to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application forms.

12th Commerce Guide Government Schemes for Entrepreneurial Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
Atal Incubation centres were launched in the year ………………
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Answer:
c) 2016

Question 2.
NSDM was launched in …………….
a) April -2015
b) May – 2015
c) June – 2015
d) July – 2015
Answer:
d) July – 2015

Question 3.
Make in India initiative was launched in …………
a) September – 2014
b) September – 2015
c) September – 2016
d) September 2017
Answer:
a) September – 2014

Question 4.
Project Report prepared by ………..
a) Auditor
b) Consultants
c) Development Agencies
d) Any one of the above
Answer:
d) Any one of the above

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Make in India
b) Khelo India
c) Digital India
d) Stand – up India
Answer:
b) Khelo India

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) NKDM
b) SPRS
c) M – SIPS
d) PSU
Answer:
d) PSU

Question 7.
An entrepreneur has to apply for ………..
a) Power connection
b) Statutory License
c) Permanent Registration Certificate
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 8.
8. NEEDS initiative was launched by …………….. Government.
a) Central
b) State
c) Both
d) All of these
Answer:
b) State

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

List-I	List-II
i. Startup India	1. Global Design
ii. Stand-up India	2. Electronical India
iii. Make in India	3. Fund of funds
iv. Digital India	4. SC/ST women

a) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
b) i-4, ii-3 iii-2, iv-1
c) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2

Question 2.

List-I	List-II
i. STEP	1. Motivated Scientists
ii. SEED	2. Pathways for women
iii. JAM	3. Formal Skill Training
iv. TREAD	4. Direct transfer of subsidies

a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
c) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
b) i-4, ii-3 iii-2, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The entrepreneur has to apply for a provisional registration certificate.
Reason (R): It will be issued for a period of one year subject to renewal of two periods of six months duration.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect
d) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by SEED?
Answer:
SEED (Science for Empowerment and Development) aims to provide opportunities to motivated scientists and field-level workers to undertake action-oriented, location-specific projects for socio-economic gains, in rural areas. The benefits of technology reach a vast section of the population.

Question 2.
Mention the time period of the Provision Registration Certificate.
Answer:
It will be issued to entrepreneur after the fulfillment of certain conditions for a period of one year subject to renewal of two periods of one year subject to renewal of two periods of six months duration.

Question 3.
What is the procedure for getting a power connection for an Entrepreneurial venture?
Answer:
Entrepreneur has to make applications to Assistant Divisional Engineer of State EB for power connection after paying Security Deposit and Fulfilling the official formalities prescribed.

V. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Write Short notes on the following:
a) New Gen IEDC
b) PMKVY
c) AIC
d) SEED
e) TREAD
f) NSDM
g) STEP
h) SPRS
Answer:
a) New Gen. Innovation Entrepreneurship Development Centre :
It provides a limited one-time, non – recurring financial assistance to entrepreneurs upto ₹25 lakhs in the fields of chemicals – Health care – Aeronautics – Agriculture – communications – Nano Technology, etc.

b) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana:

• It is an initiative of MSDE
• This is a skill certification initiative.
• Its aim is to train youth and enhance employment opportunities.

c) Atal Incubation centers.

• It was set up in 2016 at NITIAAYOG with the overarching purpose of promoting a culture of innovation & entrepreneurship in the country.
• It provides high class incubation facilities in terms of capital equipment – monitoring startups – Transport – Health etc.

d) Science for Equity Empowerment and Development:
SEED aims to provide opportunities to motivated scientists and field-level workers to undertake action-oriented, location-specific projects for socio-economic gain, particularly in rural areas.

e) Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and development.

• This scheme envisages addressing the critical issues of access to credit among India’s unprivileged women, it enables credit availability to interested women through NGOs.

f) national Skill Development Mission:

• It was set up in July 2015
• With a vision to build “Skilled India”
• Its aim is to build synergies across the sectors in terms of skill training activities.

g) Support to Training and Employment Programme (for women)

• STEP was launched to train those who have access to formal skill training facilities, especially in Rural India.
• It imparts skills in several sectors such as Agriculture – Horticulture – Food processing – Tourism – Hospitality, etc.

h) Single point Registration Scheme:

• A great scheme for micro and Small Enterprises, which provides an exemption of EMD.
• Under this scheme, the tenders are issued free of cost.

Question 2.
Discuss the preparation of the project.
Answer:

• Project reports need to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application form of term lending institutions.
• It can get prepared either by technical consultancy or Auditors or consultants or by development agencies.
• It should cover aspects like sources of finance, Labour, raw materials, technical know-how, market potential, and profitability.

It includes the following:

Technical feasibility:

• Availability of water- power-transport- raw materials- communications
• Quality control measures and manufacturing process Economic Viability:
• It essentially involves compilation of demand for domestic and export market, installed capacity of machines, market share, revenue expected and suitable price structure.

Financial Viability:
Non- recurring cost – land & buildings, plants machinery

• Recurring expenses- Wages, salaries, overheads, etc.
• The probable cost of production and profit and expected sales.

Managerial competency:

• In small size ventures – The owner or partners may take care of managerial activities.
• Incorporate venture – A team of managerial personnel manage the managerial activity.

Provisional Registration Certificate:
It will be issued after the fulfillment of certain conditions for a period of one year subject to renewal of two periods of six months duration.

Permanent Registration Certificate:
Once the venture has commenced or ready to commence production it is eligible to get permanent registration certificate.

Statutory License:
He has to obtain a municipal license from the authority concerned.

Power connection:
He has to make an application to A.D.E of E.B for power connection.

Arrangement of Finance:

• Long Term Finance – Needed for acquiring Fixed Assets
• Short Term Finance – Meant for meeting working capital needs

LESSON IN A NUTSHELL
Various Schemes

• Startup India
• Stand up India
• Make in India
• Digital India
• Jandhan Aadhaar Mobile (JAM)
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
• New Gen. Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre (New Gen IEDC)
• PMKVY – Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
• AIC – Atal Incubation Centres
• SEED – Science for Equity Empowerment Development.
• TREAD – Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development.
• NSDM – National Skill Development Mission.
• STEP – Support to Training and Employment Programme (For women)
• SPRS – Single point Registration Scheme
• M – SIPS – Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
• DEDS – Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
A manufacture’s marginal revenue functional is given by MR = 275 – x – 0.3x². Find the increase in the manufactures total revenue if the production increased from 10 to 20 units.
Solution:
MR = 275 – x – 0.3x²
The increase in the manufactures total revenue 20
T.R = ∫MR dx = (275 – x – 0.3x²) dx

= [5500 – 200 – 0.1 (8000)] – [2750 – 50 – 0.1(1000)]
= [5500 – 200 – 800] – [2750 – 50 – 100]
= 4500 – 2600
= Rs 1900

Question 2.
A company has determined that marginal cost function for product of a particular commodity is given by MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { 8 }{3}\). Where C is the cost of producing x units of the commodity. If the fixed cost Rs 250 what is cost of producing 15 units.
Solution:
MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)
Fixed cos t K = Rs 250
C = ∫MC dx – ∫(125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)) dx
C = 125x + \(\frac { 10x^2 }{9}\) – \(\frac { x^3 }{9×3}\) + k
C = 125x + 5x² – \(\frac { x^3 }{27}\) + 250
when x = 15
C = 125(15) + 5(15)² – \(\frac { (15)^3 }{27}\) + 250
= 1875 + 1125 – 125 + 250
C = Rs 3,125

Question 3.
The marginal revenue function for a firm given by MR = \(\frac { 2 }{x+3}\) – \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5. Show that the demand function is P = \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5
Solution:

Question 4.
For the marginal revenue function MR = 6 – 3x² – x³, Find the revenue function and demand function
Solution:
MR = 6 – 3x² – x³
Revenue function R = ∫MR dx
R = ∫(6 – 3x² – x³)dx

Question 5.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\) the marginal revenue is given by R’(x) = 30 and the fixed cost is Rs 100. Find the profit function.
Solution:
C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\)
Fixed cost k₁ = Rs 100
C(x) = ∫C₁(x) dx + k₁

Question 6.
The demand equation for a product is P_d = 20 – 5x and the supply equation is P_s = 4x + 8. Determine the consumers surplus and producer’s surplus under market equilibrium.
Solution:
P_d = 20 – 5x and P_s = 4x + 8
At market equilibrium
P_d = P_d
20 – 5x = 4x + 8 ⇒ 20 – 8 = 4x + 5x
9x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{9}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { 4 }{3}\)

Question 7.
A company requires f(x) number of hours to produce 500 units. lt is represented by f(x) = 1800x^-0.4. Find out the number of hours required to produce additional 400 units. [(900)^0.6 = 59.22, (500)^0.6 = 41.63]
Solution:
f(x) number of hours to produce 500
f(x) = 1800 x^-0.4
The number of hours required to produce additions

Question 8.
The price elasticity of demand for a commodity is \(\frac { p }{x^3}\). Find the demand function if the quantity of demand is 3, When the price is Rs 2.
Solution:
Price elasticity of demand

Question 9.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve between the parabola y = 8x² – 4x + 6 the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
Solution:
Equation of the parabola
y = 8x² – 4x + 6

The required region is bounded by the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
∴ Required Area A = \(\int_{0}^{2}\)ydx

Question 10.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y² = 27x³ and the line x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2
Solution:
Equation of the curve is y² = 27x³
⇒ x³ = \(\frac { y^2 }{27}\) = \(\frac { y^3 }{3^3}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { (y)^{2/3} }{3}\)
Since the Area of the region bounded by the given curve and the lines x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Macro Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Macro Economics

12th Economics Guide Introduction to Macro Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice questions

Question 1.
The branches of the subject Economics is
a) Wealth and welfare
b) Production and consumption
c) Demand and supply
d) Micro and macro
Answer:
d) Micro and macro

Question 2.
Who coined the word ‘macro’?
a) Adam Smith
b) J M Keynes
c) Ragnar Frìsch
d) Karl Marx
Answer:
c) Ragnar Frìsch

Question 3.
Who is regarded as Father of Modern Macro Economics?
a) Adam smith
b) J M Keynes
c) Ragnar Frisch
d) Karl Marx
Answer:
b) J M Keynes

Question 4.
Identify the other name for macro Economics. .
a) Price Theory
b) Income Theory
c) Market Theory
d) Micro Theory
Answer:
b) Income Theory

Question 5.
Macro economics is a study of …………………
a) individuals
b) firms
c) a nation
d) aggregates
Answer:
d) aggregates

Question 6.
Indicate the contribution of J M Keynes to economics
a) Wealth of nations
b) General Theory
c) Capital
d) Public Finance
Answer:
b) General Theory

Question 7.
A steady increase in general price level is termed as ……………………
a) Wholesale price index
b) Business Cycle
c) Inflation
d) National Income
Answer:
c) Inflation

Question 8.
Identify the necessity of Economic policies.
a) to solve the basic problem
b) to overcome the obstacles
c) to achieve growth
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 9.
Indicate the fundamental economic activities of an economy.
a) Production and Distribution
b) Production and Exchange
c) Production and Consumption
d) Production and Marketing
Answer:
c) Production and Consumption

Question 10.
An economy consists of
a) Consumption sector
b) Production sector
c) Government sector
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

v

Question 11.
Identify the economic system where only private ownership of production exists.
a) Capitalistic Economy
b) Socialistic Economy
c) Globalistic Economy
d) Mixed Economy
Answer:
a) Capitalistic Economy

Question 12.
Economic system representing equality in distribution is
a) Capitalism
b) Globalism
c) Mixedism
d) Socialism
Answer:
d) Socialism

Question 13.
Who is referred as ‘Father of capitalism ?
a) Adam smith
b) Karl Marx
c) Thackeray
d) JM keynes
Answer:
a) Adam smith

Question 14.
The country following Capitalism is ……………
a) Russia
b) America
c) India
d) China
Answer:
b) America

Question 15.
Identity The Father of socialism
a) J M Keynes
b) Karl Marx
c) Adam smith
d) Samuelson
Answer:
b) Karl Marx

Question 16.
An economic system where the economic activities of a nation are done both by the private and public together is termed as ………….
a) Capitalistic Economy
b) Socialistic Economy
c) Globalistic Economy
d) Mixed Economy
Answer:
d) Mixed Economy

Question 17.
Quantity of a commodity accumulated at a point of time is termed as ………………
a) production
b) stock
c) variable
d) flow
Answer:
b) stock

Question 18.
Identity the flow variable
a) money supply
b) assets
c) income
d) foreign exchange reserves
Answer:
c) income

Question 19.
Identity the sectors of a Two sector Model.
a) Households and Firms
b) Private and Public ,
c) Internal and External
d) Firms and Government
Answer:
a) Households and Firms

Question 20.
The Circular Flow Model that represents an open Economy,
a) Two sector Model
b) Three sector Model
c) Four sector Model
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Four sector Model

Paart – B 

Two Mark Questions

Question 21.
Define Macro Economics
Answer:

1. Macro Economics is the study of the economy as a whole.
2. In other words, macroeconomics deals with aggregates such as national income, employment, and output.
3. Macro Economics is also known as ‘Income Theory’.

Question 22.
Define the term ‘Inflation.
Answer:
Inflation refers to a steady increase in the general price level.

Question 23.
What is meant by an Economy?
answer:

1. An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary.
2. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.

Question 24.
Classify the economies based on status of development.
Answer:
Developed, underdeveloped, undeveloped and developing economies.

Question 25.
What do you mean by Capitalism?
Answer:

1. Capitalism is total freedom and private ownership of means of production.
2. The capitalist economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez-faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and the market determines the economic activities.

Question 26.
Define ‘Economic Model’.
Answer:
A Model is a simplified representation of real situation. An Economic model is an explanation of how the economy or part of the economy, works.

Question 27.
‘Circular Flow Income’ – Define .
Answer:

1. The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.
2. It shows flows of income, goods and services, and factors of production between economic agents such as firms, households, government, and nations.
3. The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics.

PART – C

Answers the following questions in about a paragraph.

Question 28.
State the importance of Macro Economics.
Answer:
The importance and the need for introducing a macro outlook of an economy are given below:

1. There is a need to understand the functioning of the economy at the aggregate level to evolve suitable strategies and to solve the basic problems prevailing in an economy.
2. Understanding the future problems, needs, and challenges of an economy as a whole is important to evolve precautionary measures.
3. Macroeconomics provides ample opportunities to use scientific investigation to understand reality.
4. Macroeconomics helps to make meaningful comparisons and analyses of economic indicators.
5. Macroeconomics helps for a better prediction about future and to formulate suitable policies to avoid economic crises, for which Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded.

Question 29.
Describe the different types of economic systems.
Answer:
There are three major types of economic systems. They are:

1. Capitalistic Economy (Capitalism):

1. Capitalist economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez-faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.
2. The means of production in a capitalistic economy are privately owned.
3. Manufacturers produce goods and services with profit motive.
4. The private individual has the freedom to undertake any occupation and develop any skill.
5. The USA, West Germany, Australia and Japan are the best examples for capitalistic economies.
6.  However, they do undertake large social welfare measures to safeguard the downtrodden people from the market forces.

2. Socialistic Economy (Socialism):

1. The Father of Socialism is Karl Marx. Socialism refers to a system of total planning, public ownership and state control on economic activities.
2. Socialism is defined as a way of organizing a society in which major industries are owned and controlled by the government.
3. A Socialistic economy is also known as ‘Planned Economy’ or ‘Command Economy’.
4. In a socialistic economy, all the resources are owned and operated by the government.
5. Public welfare is the main motive behind all economic activities. It aims at equality in the distribution of income and wealth and equal opportunity for all.
6. Russia, China, Vietnam, Poland and Cuba are the examples of socialist economies. But, now there are no absolutely socialist economies.

3. Mixed Economy (Mixedism):

1. In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development.
2. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.
3. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government.
4. India, England, France and Brazil are examples of mixed economy.

Question 30.
Outline the major merits of Capitalism.
Answer:

1. Automatic Working:
   Without any government intervention, the economy works automatically.
2. Efficient Use of Resources:
   All resources are put into optimum use.
3. Incentives for Hard work:
   Hard work is encouraged and entrepreneurs get more profit for more efficiency.
4. Economic Progress:
   Production and productivity levels are very high in capitalistic economies.
5. Consumers Sovereignty:
   All production activities are aimed at satisfying the consumers.
6. Higher Rates of Capital Formation:
   An increase in saving and investment leads to higher rates of capital formation.
7. Development of New Technology:
   As profit is aimed at, producers invest in new technology and produce quality goods.

Question 31.
Indicate the demerits of socialism.
Answer:

• Red Tapism and Bureaucracy
• Absence of Incentive
• Limited Freedom of choice
• Concentration of power.

Question 32.
Enumerate the features of mixed economy.
Answer:

• Ownership of property and means of production
• Coexistence of public and private sectors.
• Solution to Economic problems. .
• Freedom and control.

Question 33.
Distinguish between Capitalism and Globalism.
Answer:

Capitalism	Globalism
1. It is a free market economy where the role of the government is minimum.	It is a ideology of globalisation that connects nations together through international trade.
2. The system is for national development	It aims at global development.
3. It is also called as command economy.	It is also termed as ‘Extended capitalism’.

Question 34.
Briefly explain the two-sector circular flow model.
Answer:

• There are only two sector namely households and firms. Here,Production and sales are equal and there will be a circular flow of income and goods.
• Real flow indicates the factor services flow from household sector to the business sector.
• Monetary flow indicates the good and services flow from business sector to the household.
  The basic identity are Y = C + I

PART-D

Answer the following questions in one page.

Question 35.
Discuss the scope of Macro Economics.
Answer:
The study of macroeconomics has a wide scope and it covers the major areas as follows:
1. National Income:
Measurement of national income and its composition by sectors are the basic aspects of macroeconomic analysis. The trends in National Income and its composition provide a long term understanding of the growth process of an economy.

2. Inflation:
It refers to a steady increase in the general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as Wholesale Price Index, Consumer Price Index, etc, are needed.

3. Business Cycle:
Almost all economies face the problem of business fluctuations and the business cycle. The cyclical movements (boom, recession, depression, and recovery) in the economy need to be carefully studied based on aggregate economic variables.

4. Poverty and Unemployment:
The major problems of most resource-rich nations are poverty and unemployment. This is one of the economic paradoxes. A clear understanding of the magnitude of poverty and unemployment facilitates the allocation of resources and initiating corrective measures.

5. Economic Growth:
The growth and development of an economy and the factors determining them could be understood only through macro analysis.

6. Economic Policies:
Macro Economics is significant for evolving suitable economic policies. Economic policies are necessary to solve the basic problems, to overcome the obstacles, and to achieve growth.

Question 36.
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are
carried out.

• In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
• The ‘exchange activity1 supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non-economic activities.
• The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy, and others.
• The major economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment, governance, regulations etc.,
• he external activities from other economies such as import, international relations, emigration,immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings etc .also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

Question 37.
Compare the features of capitalism and socialism.
Answer:

Features	Capitalism	Socialism
1. Ownership of means of production	Private ownership	Public ownership
2. Economic motive	Profit	Social welfare
3. Solution of central problems	Free market system	Central planning system
4. Government Role	Internal regulation only.	Complete involvement
5. Income	Distribution	unequal Equal
6. Nature of Enterprise	Private Enterprise	Government Enterprise
7. Economic Freedom	Complete Freedom	Lack of Freedom
8. Major problem	Inequality	Inefficiency

Question 38.
Compare the feature among capitalism, socialism and Mixedism
Answer:

S.No	Features	Capitalism	Socialism	Mixedism
1.	Ownership of means of production	Private ownership	Public ownership	Private and public ownership
2.	Economic motive	Profit	Social welfare	Social welfare and the profit motive
3.	Solution of central problems	Free market system	Central Planning system	Central planning ‘and Free market system
4.	Government Role	Internal regulation only	Complete involvement	Limited Role
5.	Income Distribution	unequal	Equal	Less unequal
6.	Nature of Enterprise	Private Enterprise	Government Enterprise	Both private and state Enterprise
7.	Economic freedom	Complete freedom	Lack of freedom	Limited freedom
8.	Major Problem	Inequality	Inefficiency	Inequality and Inefficiency.

12th Economics Guide Introduction to Macro Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I . Choose the best Answer.

Question 1.
John Maynard Keynes book “The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money” was published in –
(a) 1936
(b) 1946
(c) 1956
(d) 1966
Answer:
(a) 1936

Question 2.
The term ‘Globalism’ was coined by …………………………….
a) A.J. Brown V
b) Manfred D Steger
c) J. R. Hicks
d) J.M. Keynes
Answer:
b) Manfred D Steger

Question 3.
………………….. is the driving force behind capitalism.
a) Social welfare
b) Equality
c) Profit motive
d) Private ownership
Answer:
c) Profit motive

Question 4.
Capitalism and Socialism are two extreme and ……………………… approaches.
(a) normal
(b) opposite
(c) upward
(d) downward
Answer:
(b) opposite

Question 5.
Poverty and unemployment can be minimized by
a) Proper allocation of resource and initiating corrective measures.
b) Increasing the Role of Government.
c) Increasing production and Investment.
d) All the above.
Answer:
a) Proper allocation of resource and initiating corrective measures.

Question 6.
……….. helps to make meaningful comparison and analysis of economic indicators.
a) Micro Economics
b) Command Economy
c) Fiscal Economics
d) Macro Economics
Answer:
d) Macro Economics

Question 7.
There are ………………………… major types of economic systems.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
Answer:
c) 3

Question 8.
…………………… are planned in such a way that the benefits are distributed to the society at large.
(a) Investment
(b) Production
(c) Distribution
(d) Services
Answer:
(a) Investment

Question 9.
The commonly used economic models are ………
a) The supply-demand models
b) Circular flow models
c) Smith models
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 10.
In …………………….. economies both private and public sectors coexist.
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Globalism
(d) Mixed
Answer:
(d) Mixed

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

A) Micro – 1) JMKeynes
B) Macro – 2) Micro Economics
C) National Income – 3) Ragnar Frish
D) Individual Income – 4) Macro Economics

Answer:
b) 1 2 4 3

Question 2.
A) Macro Economics – 1) National Accounts
B) Micro Economics – 2) Depression
C) Business cycle – 3) Income theory
D) Circular flow of Income – 4) Price theory

Answer:
d) 3 4 2 1

Question 3.
A) Capitalism – 1.North Korea
B) Socialism – 2. United States
C) Communism – 3. India
D) Mixedism – 4. China

Answer:
a) 2 4 1 3

III. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.
a) Father of Macro Economics – Adam smith
b) Father of Socialism – J.M. Keynes
c) Extended capitalism – Manfred D. Steger
d) Father of capitalism – Karl Marx
Answer :
c) Extended capitalism – Manfred D. Steger

Question 2.
a) Capitalist Economy – Foreign Exchange
b) Socialist Economy – Market Economy
c) Stock variable – Command Economy
d) Flow variable – Consumption
Answer:
d) Flow variable – Consumption

Question 3.
a) Y – Government
b) C – Consumption
c) I – Income
d) G – Investment
Answer :
b) C – Consumption

IV. Choose the Incorrect pair:

Question 4.
a) Two sector Economy – Y = C + G
b) Three sector Economy – Y = C + I + G
c) Four sector Economy – Y = C + I + G +(X-M)
d) Socialist Economy – Planned Economy
Answer:
a) Two sector Economy – Y = C + G

Question 5.
a) Capitalist Economy – USA, West Germany
b) Socialist Economy – Australia, Japan
c) Mixed Economy – France, Brazil
d) Globalism – International trade
Answer:
b) Socialist Economy – Australia, Japan

Question 6.
a) Red tapism and corruption – Lassiez faire Economy
b) Bureaucratic Expansion – Socialism
c) Profit motive – Capitalism
d) Customs and tradition – Traditional Economy
Answer:
a) Red tapism and corruption – Lassiez faire Economy

V. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Answer:
a) J.M.Keynes was awarded first Nobel prize in Economics.
b) Ragnar Frisch wrote the General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money
c) Micro Economics studies the economy as a whole.
d) Macro Economics covers National income, inflation, business cycles, poverty and Inequality .
Answer:
d) Macro Economics covers National income, inflation, business cycles, poverty and Inequality.

Question 2.
a) “An Economy is a cooperation of producers and workers to make goods and services that satisfy the wants of the consumers” – A.J. Brown.
b) “A system by which people earn their living” – J.R. Hicks
c) Inflation refers to Steady increase in general price level.
d) The means of production in a capitalistic economy are owned by Government.
Answer:
c) Inflation refers to steady increase in general price level.

VI. Choose the incorrect statement

Question 1.
a) Socialism aims at equality in the distribution of income and wealth for all.
b) In a capitalist economy resources are owned by individuals and the government.
c) Stock refers to a quantity of a commodity measured at a point of time.
d) Flow variables are measured over a period of time.
Answer:
b) In a capitalist economy resources are owned by individuals and the government.

Question 2.
a) The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different economies of the world.
b) Two sector model is for a simple economy with households and firms.
c) Three sector model is for a mixed and closed economy.
d) Four sector model is for an open economy.
Answer:
a) The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different economies of the world.

VII. Choose the Odd Man Out

Question 1.
Four – Sector Economy comprises of
a) Households
b) Firms
c) Government
d) Internal sector
Answer:
d) Internal sector

Question 2.
a) Traditional Economy
b) Socialism
c) Globalism
d) capitalism
Answer:
c) Globalism

Question 3.
a) Boom
b) Extension
c) Recession
d) Depression
Answer:
b) Extension

VIII. Analyse the Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in capitalism.
Reason (R): The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is to maximize profit.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In a socialistic economy all the resources are owned and operated by the Government.
Reason (R): Public welfare is the main motive behind all economic activities.
a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
c) (A) is true (R) is false.
d) (A) is false (R) is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) ; A model is a simplified representation of a real situation.
Reason (R) : Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships, and their behaviour.
a) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both A and R are true R is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A)is true (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true R is not the correct explanation of (A)

IX. Answer the following questions in one or two-sentences:

Question 1.
Name the divisions of Economics.
Answer:

1. Micro Economics
2. Macro Economics

Question 2.
Define Mixed Economy (or) Mixedism?
Answer:

1. In a mixed economy system, both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development.
2. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.
3. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government. India, England, France, and Brazil are examples of a mixed economy.

Question 3.
What is Unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation when there are people, who are willing to work and able to work but cannot find suitable jobs.

Question 4.
What is Globalism?
Answer:
Globalism is the new market ideology of globalisation that connects nations together through international trade and aiming at global development.

Question 5.
What is Mixedism?
Answer:
Mixedism is an ideology that mixes or combines the principles of Capitalism and socialism.

Question 6.
What is an Economy?
Answer:
An Economy is ” A system by which people earn their living” – A.J.Brown.

Question 7.
Name the fundamental economic activities.
Answer:
1. Production
2. Consumption

Question 8.
What is an Economic System?
Answer:
Economic system refers to the manner in which individual and institutions are connected together to carry out economic activities in a particular area.

Question 9.
What is Red Tapism?
Answer:
In socialism, decision are taken by government agencies, approval of many officials and movement of files from one table to other takes time and leads to Red Tapism.

Question 10.
What is meant by circular flow of Income?
Answer:
The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.

X. 3 Mark Questions

Question 4.
Define Profit Motive?
Answer:
Profit Motive:
Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy. Each individual and organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit. Advance technology, division of labour, and specialisation are followed. The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is to maximize profit.

Question 2.
What are the demerits of Capitalism?
Answer:

• Capitalism increases inequalities of income.
• Large amounts of resources are wasted on competitive advertising and duplication of products.
• Capitalism leads to class struggle as it divides society into capitalists and workers.
• The free market system leads to frequent violent economic fluctuations and crises.
• Even harmful goods are produced if there is the possibility to make a profit.

Question 3.
State the merits of Socialism?
Answer:

• There is a reduction in Inequalities and exploitation.
• The central planning authority allocates the resources in a planned manner. So wastages are minimized.
• As inequalities are minimum there is no conflict between rich and poor class.
• Planning authority takes control over production and distribution. Therefore economic fluctuations can be avoided.
• It promotes social welfare. There is the absence of exploitation, reduction in economic inequalities.

Question 4.
Explain the features of a mixed Economy.
Answer:

• The means of production and properties are owned by both private and public.
• In mixed economies, both private and public sectors coexist. Private industries work for profit whereas the public sector had a view to maximizing social welfare.
• The central planning authority prepares the economic plans. National plans are drawn up by the Government and both public and private abode.
• The basic problems of the economy are solved through the price mechanism as well as state intervention.
• The overall control of the economic activities rests with the government.

Question 5.
What is a circular flow of income?
Answer:

• The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.
• It shows flows of income, goods and services, and factors of production between economic agents such as firms, households, government, and nations.
• The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics.

XI. 5 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics?
Answer:
Macroeconomics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalization of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good for an individual need not be good for the nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non – economic factors determine economic activities, but they do not find a place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 2.
Explain the merits and demerits of a Mixed economy.
Answer:
Merits of Mixed Economy:

1. Rapid Economic Growth: It promotes rapid economic growth. Thus, both public requirements and private needs are taken care of.
2. Balanced Economic Growth: It promotes balanced growth between agriculture and industry, consumer goods and capital goods, rural and urban, etc.
3. Proper utilization of Resources: The government can ensure proper utilization of resources. The government controls most of the important activities directly and the private sector indirectly.
4. Economic Equality: The government uses progressive rates of taxation for levying income tax to bring about economic equality.
5. Special Advantages to society: The government safeguards the interest of the weaker sections by legislating on minimum wages and rationing, establishing fair price shops, and formulating social welfare measures.

Demerits of Mixed Economy:

1. Lack of coordination: As the private and public sectors work with divergent motives, it creates many coordination-related problems.
2. Competitive Attitude: It is expected that both government and private should work with a complementary spirit towards the welfare of the society, but is the reality they are competitive in their activities.
3. Inefficiency: Most of the public sector enterprises remain inefficient due to lethargic bureaucracy red-tapism and lack of motivation.
4. Fear of Nationalization: In a mixed economy, the fear of nationalization discourages the private entrepreneurs in their business operations and innovative initiatives.
5. Widening Inequality: Ownership of resources, laws of inheritance, and profit motive of people widens the gap between rich and poor.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the circular flow of Income in a Three Sector Economy?
Answer:
Circular Flow of Income in a Three-Sector Economy:

• In addition to households and firms, the inclusion of the government sector makes this model a three-sector model.
• The government levies taxes on households and firms, purchases goods and services from firms, and receive factors of production from the household sector.
• On the other hand, the government also makes social transfers such as pension, relief, subsidies to the households.
• Similarly, Government pays the firms for the purchases of goods and services. The Flow Chart illustrates a three-sector economy model:
• Under the three-sector model, national income (Y) is obtained by adding Consumption expenditure (C), Investment expenditure (I) and Government expenditure (G).
• Therefore: Y = C + I + G.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5

Question 1.
Evaluate the following limits, if necessary use L’ Hôpital’s Rule:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0}\) \(\frac { 1-cosx }{ x^2 }\)
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0}\) \(\frac { 1-cosx }{ x^2 }\)

Question 2.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { 2x^2-3 }{ x^2-5x+3 }\)
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { x }{ log x }\)
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { x }{ log x }\) [ \(\frac { ∞ }{ ∞ }\) indeterminate form
Applying L’ Hôpital’s Rule
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { 1 }{ \frac{1}{x} }\) = \(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) x = ∞

Question 4.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) \(\frac { secx }{ tanx }\)
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) \(\frac { secx }{ tanx }\) [ \(\frac { ∞ }{ ∞ }\) indeterminate form
Simplifying, we get
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) \(\frac { 1 }{ sinx }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ sin \frac{π}{2} }\) = 1

Question 5.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) e^-x√x
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) e^-x√x [0 × ∞ indeterminate form
The other form is \(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { √x }{ e^x }\)
[0 × ∞ indeterminate form
Applying L’ Hôpital’s Rule
= \(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 \sqrt{xe^x} }\)
= 0

Question 6.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) (\(\frac { 1 }{ sinx }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\))
Solution:

Question 7.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\) (\(\frac { 2 }{ x^2-1 }\) – \(\frac { x }{ x-1 }\))
Solution:

Question 8.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) x^x
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) x^x [0° indeterminate form
Let g(x) = x^x
Taking log on both sides
log g(x) = log x^x
log g(x) = x log x
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) log g(x) = \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) x log x [0 × ∞ indeterminate form

Question 9.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) (1 + \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\)) ^x
Solution:

Applying L’ Hôpital’s Rule

Exponentiating we get, \(\lim _{x \rightarrow ∞}\) g(x) = e¹ = e

Question 10.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) (sin x) ^{tan x}
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) (sin x)^{tan x} [1^∞ indeterminate form]
Let g(x) = (sin x) ^{tan x}
Taking log on both sides,
log g(x) = tan x log sin x
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) log g(x) = \(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) \(\frac { log sin x }{ cot x }\)
[ \(\frac { 0 }{ 0 }\) Indeterminate form
Applying L’ Hôpital’s Rule
= \(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) (\(\frac { cotx }{ -cosec^2x }\)) = -1
exponentiating, we get
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{π}{2}}\) g(x) = e^-1 = \(\frac { 1 }{ e }\)

Question 11.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) (cos x) ^{\(\frac { 1 }{ x^2 }\)}
Solution:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^+}\) (cos x) ^{\(\frac { 1 }{ x^2 }\)} [1^∞ indeterminate form
let g(x) = (cos x)^{\(\frac { 1 }{ x^2 }\)}
Taking log on both sides,

Question 12.
If an initial amount A₀ of money is invested at an interest rate r compounded n times a year, the value of the investment after t years is A = A₀(1 + \(\frac { r }{ n }\))^nt. If the interest is compounded continuously, (that is as n → ∞), show that the amount after t years is A = A₀e^rt.
Solution:

Applying L-Hospital’s Rule

Hence Proved.

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