Category: Class 7

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 1 Sindbad – My First Voyage Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 1 Sindbad – My First Voyage

7th English Guide Sindbad – My First Voyage Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 99)

A. Match the following.

Answer:

Column A	Column B
green island	huge fish
Mihrjan	the king
Sindbad the Sailor	voyager
Sindbad the porter	poor listener
slaves	in the cave

B. Choose the correct options from the ones. (Text Book Page No. 100)

1. Sindbad decided to sail to the ……………….. (Persian Gulf / Mexican Gulf) with some goods.
Answer:
Persian Gulf

2. He was being tossed by powerful waves and was thrown on an /a ……………….. (island/peninsula).
Answer:
island

3. The men in the cave were all ……………….. (ministers/slaves) of the king.
Answer:
slaves

4. The king was a ……………….. (noble and kind/mean and cruel) person.
Answer:
noble and kind

5. The king gave many valuable ……………….. (gifts/rewards) to Sindbad.
Answer:
gifts

C. Read the passage and answer the questions given below.

One day, when I was standing on the port, I saw a ship approaching the port. It was the same ship, which had sailed further after leaving me behind, struggling in the sea. When the captain of the ship saw me, he was greatly surprised to find me alive. He and the other crew members hugged me with happiness. The captain handed over my goods to me, which had been left on the ship.
1. Where was he standing?
Answer:
Sindbad was standing on the port.

2. What did he see?
Answer:
Sindbad saw a ship approaching.

3. Whom did he meet on the ship and why was the person surprised?
Answer:
Sindbad met the captain of the ship. He was surprised to find Sindbad alive.

4. What did he get back from the captain?
Answer:
Sindbad got back his goods from the captain.

D. Rearrange the following sentences in the correct order.

1. I longed to go back home.
2. I narrated my tale of sufferings and hardships to the king.
3. Our group sailed from one country to another, selling goods.
4. I saw the same ship approaching the port.
5. My father was a rich merchant.
6. I was being tossed by the frequent powerful waves.
7. Sindbad completed the tale of his voyage.
8. He presented the purse full of gold coins.
Answer:
5, 3, 6, 2,1, 4, 8, 7

E. Work in pairs and write the answers. (Text Book Page No. 101)

1. Describe the island that the ship’s crew found.
Answer:
Sindbad was thrown on an island. There was nothing to eat except a few herbs. Sindbad managed to get a few herbs. He quenched his thirst from a spring.

Sindbad met a man. The man asked Sindbad where he had come from. Sindbad poured out his misfortune to him. That man took pity on him. He took Sindbad inside a cave. There were a number of men present. They were all slaves of the king of the island. These men were kind. They served good food and drink. They treated Sindbad well – king Mihrjan was the ruler of island. These islands were under king Mihrjan.

During the stay of Sindbad he witnessed a number .of remarkable sights. The sea water around the island, contained huge and terrible fishes. A few were hundred times bigger than the largest ship. Once he saw a fish that had a head like a bull. He witnessed many unimaginable wonders.

2. Did Sindbad the porter enjoy his meeting with Sindbad the sailor? Why?
Answer:
Sindbad completed the tale of his first voyage. The poor porter Sindbad was listening to the amazing tale of Sindbad, the sailor all with wonder. Sindbad the sailor, then bade good bye to the poor porter and asked him to come the next day to narrate the tale of his new voyage. But before leaving, he presented Sindbad the porter a purse full of gold coins. The unexpected riches overjoyed Sindbad, the porter.

Project

F. Brochure Making
Your school is organising an education trip. Work in a team and prepare a brochure for the trip. Include places to see, essential things to be brought, and the activities one can do on the trip.
Objective of educational trip:

• To gain fun and information
• To achieve motivation
• To gain first hand experience
• To attain rich immersion experience

Paragraph: 1

Purpose of educational trip
An educational tour is a planned site visit for school and college students. Purpose of education tour is to provide some information to students. Education trip means more than simply leaving the school ground. Educational trips should always have a major educational element, but the impact of educational trips can extend much further. The importance of educational trips includes, giving students the chance to build closer bonds with their classmates, experience in new environments and enjoy a day away from the classroom.

Paragraph: 2

Importance of educational trips:
Memories of school education trips are the most prominent memories of the formative years largely because they are impressive. The trip needs a lot of planning and preparation. Such trips make the students grow more empathetic and respectful towards others culture. Students gain knowledge of social issues. Education trips have a time honoured tradition. The experience gained in the educational trips is immeasurable.

places to see:

• Temples
• Educational museum
• Archaeological sites
• Historical monuments
• Historical relics.
• Diverse landscape
• Observatory
• Herbarium
• Aquarium

Slogans:

• Nature is your teacher
• World is your classroom

Activities in the educational trip:

• Observation
• Collecting information
• Recording the date
• Taking photographs and videos
• Documentation

Thinks to be brought:

1. Woollen clothes if necessary
2. trekking equipment
3. footwear
4. suitable clothes
5. technology instruments like camera, phones
6. reading materials, stationery article
7. First aid
8. Medicines if required

Connecting to Self

G. Road Safety
Road safety rules make our driving a better experience. As responsible citizen, we ought to obey traffic rules and pay attention to the road signs.
Look at the picture. Circle the dangerous actions of pedestrians on or near the road. Discuss in groups and write down the Pedestrians Road Safety Rules. (Text Book Page No. 102)

Safety rules on the road have to be followed by all of us so that no one is killed or injured.

1. Pedestrians must cross the road on zebra-crossing.
2. Everyone must respect safety rules.
3. The vehicles must stop at seeing the red light.
4. The vehicles must get ready at seeing, yellow light.
5. The vehicles must move forward at seeing, green light.
6. Everyone must observe the traffic lights and act.
7. The vehicles can not be parked at no parking area.
8. The drivers of the vehicles must not drink and drive.
9. The drivers should not attend the cell phones while driving.
10. The drivers must not blow the home in silent zones such as hospitals.
11. The drivers must keep up the speed limit.
12. When the pedestrians cross the road they must look to the right, left then to right before crossing the road.
13. Playing on the roadside, crossing the road carelessly must be avoided.
14. When the vehicles go near schools, they must go slowly.

Step to Success (Text Book Page No. 103)

H. A set of words are given below. Categorize it under the appropriate columns.

Answer:

Airport	Railway Station	Harbour
air hostess	TTE	Captain
crew	compartment	anchor
passport	engine driver	deck
visa	platform	helmsman
pilot	porter
cockpit

Sindbad – My First Voyage Summary in English

Sindbad, the hero of adventure stories, narrates the story of his first voyage. Sindbad on his first voyage missed his ship. He was thrown on an island. After some time, fortunately, Sindbad met his old ship and the crew. He presented the king of the island with some gifts. The king also gifted him with some valuables. Sindbad returned to Baghdad as a rich man.

Sindbad – My First Voyage Summary in Tamil

சிந்துபாத், வீரசாகச கதைகளின் கதாநாயகன் ஆவான். அவனது முதல் கடல் பயணக் கதையை இங்கு விவரிக்கப்படுகிறது. சிந்துபாத் தன் முதல் கடல் பயணத்தில் தன் கப்பலை தவற விட்டு விடுகிறான். ஒரு தீவின் மீது தூக்கி எறியப்படுகிறான். அதிர்ஷ்டவசமாக, சிந்துபாத் தான் பயணம் செய்து வந்த பழைய கப்பல் மாலுமிகளை திரும்ப சந்திக்கிறான். தீவின் மன்னருக்கு பரிசளிக்கிறான். மன்னரும் சில விலை உயர்ந்த பொருட்களை பரிசளித்தார். சிந்துபாத் செல்வந்தனாய் பாக்தாத் திரும்பினான்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 2 Chapter 2 The Mughal Empire Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 2 Chapter 2 The Mughal Empire

7th Social Science Guide The Mughal Empire Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in India?
a) Humayun
b) Babur
c) Jahangir
d) Akbar
Answer:
b) Babur

Question 2.
In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?
a) Panipat
b) Chausa
c) Haldighati
d) Kanauj
Answer:
c) Haldighati

Question 3.
Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher Shah?
a) Babur
b) Humayun
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Alam Khan
Answer:
b) Humayun

Question 4.
Who introduced Mansabdari system?
a) Sher Sha
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
Answer:
b) Akbar

Question 5.
Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
a) Birbal
b) Raja Bhagwan Das
c) Raja Todarmal
d) Raja Man Singh
Answer:
c) Raja Todarmal

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………was the name of the horse of Rana Pratap.
Answer:
Chetak

2. ……………….was a hall at FatehpurSikri where scholars of all religions met for a discourse.
Answer:
Ibadat Khana

3. The Sufi saint who received Akbar’s utmost respect was ………………..
Answer:
Salim Chishti

4. During the reign of ……………. the Zabti system was extended to the Deccan provinces.
Answer:
Shahjahan

5. ……………..were tax-free lands given to scholars and religious institutions.
Answer:
Suyurghal

III. Match the following

1. Babur	a) Ahmednagar
2. Durgavati	b) Jaipur
3. Rani chand Bibi	c) Akbar
4. Din Ilahi	d) Chanderi
5. Raja Man Singh	e) Central Province

Answer:

1. Babur	d) Chanderi
2. Durgavati	e) Central Province
3. Rani chand Bibi	a) Ahmednagar
4. Din Ilahi	c) Akbar
5. Raja Man Singh	b) Jaipur

IV. Write True or False :

1. Babur inherited Farghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.
Answer:
True

2. Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1565.
Answer:
False

3. Aurangzeb married a girl of a notable Rajput family.
Answer:
False

4. Jahangir ordered the execution of Sikh leader Guru Aijun for helping his son Khusrau.
Answer:
True

5. During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture received much patronage.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The British established their first factory at Surat.
Reason (R) : Jahangir granted trading rights to the English.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Aurangzeb’s intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among people.
Reason (R) : Aurangzeb re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Find out the correct statements
I) Kamran was the son of Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
II) Akbar abolished the jizya poll tax on non-Muslims and the tax on Hindu pilgrims.
III) Aurangzeb acceded the throne after killing his three brothers.
IV) Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan,
a) I), II) and III) are correct
b) II), III) and IV) are correct
c) I), III) and IV) are correct
d) III), IV) and I) are correct
Answer:
b) II), III) and IV) are correct

Question 4.
Arrange the battles in chronological order.
i) Battle of Khanwa
ii) Battle of Chausa
iii) Battle of Kanauj
iv) Battle of Chanderi
Answer:
i), iv), ii), iii)

Question 5.
Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order
I)  Sarkars
II) Parganas
III) Subhas
Answer:
II), III), I)

VI. Match the father and son.

Father	Son
1. Akbar	a) Dilawar Khan
2. Daulat Khan Lodi	b) Rana Pratap
3. Hasan Suri	c) Humayun
4. Babur	d) Sher Shah
5. Uday Singh	e) Jahangir

Answer:

Father	Son
1. Akbar	e) Jahangir
2. Daulat Khan Lodi	a) Dilawar Khan
3. Hasan Suri	d) Sher Shah
4. Babur	c) Humayun
5. Uday Singh	b) Rana Pratap

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write the circumstance that led to the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
Answer:
Babur did not have any ambition beyond Punjab till 1524. Then a greater opportunity came knocking. Dilawar Khan, who was Daulat Khan Lodi’s son, and Alam Khan, who was the uncle of Sultan of Delhi, arrived in Kabul to seek Babur’s help in removing Ibrahim Lodi from power. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the famous Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Question 2.
Mention did Humayun recapture the Delhi throne in 1555?
Answer:
With the help of the Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp of the Safavid dynasty, Humayun recaptured the Delhi throne in 1555.

Question 3.
Write a note on the Mansabdari system.
Answer:

• Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.
• The nobles, civil and military officials were combined to form one single service in this system.
• A Mansabdar, hold such a rank which was dependent on Zat and Sawar.

VIII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Describe the land revenue administration of the Mughals.
Answer:

• Land Revenue was the main income source during the Mughal Period.
• It was toned up during the reign of Akbar.
• Raja Todar Mai, the Revenue Minister of Akbar, adopted and refined the system introduced by Sher Shah.

Zabt System:

• According to this system, after the survey, lands were classified based on the nature and fertility of the soil.
• The share of the state was 1/3 of average produce for 10 years.
• During the reign of Shah Jahan, the zabt system was extended to the Deccan provinces.

Jagir:

• The Mughal emperors enforced the old iqta system, renaming it a ‘Jagir’.
• The collection of revenue of an area and the power of governing were bestowed upon military or civil official named Jagirdar.
• The revenue collector was assisted by Potdar, Qanungo, the Patwari, and the Muqaddams.

Zamindars:
Zamindars collected taxes and maintained law and order with the help of Mughal officials and soldiers. Thus, they maintained the land revenue system.

Question 2.
Estimate Akbar as a patron of learning.
Answer:

• Akbar was a great patron of learning.
• He had a personal library that had more than 4000 manuscripts.
• He patronized scholars of all beliefs and all shades of opinions.
• He extended his benevolence to authors such as Abul Fazl, Abul Faizi, and Abdur Rahim khan-i-khanan and Birbal.

IX. HOTs:

Question 1.
Shah Jahan’s time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour. Support this statement in comparison with the times of other Mughal rulers.
Answer:

• Shah Jahan’s time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour.
• Because the famous Peacock throne, Tajmahal, Moti Masjid, the Pearl Mosque, the great Jama Masjid, Diwan-i-Khas, and Diwan – i – am were built during the reign of Shah Jahan.
• Other Mughal rulers Babur, Akbar, and Jahangir also lovers of architecture.
• But after Shahjahan’s reign, architecture did not receive much patronge.
• So in his reign came the climax of Mughal Splendour.

7th Social Science Guide The Mughal Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The founder of Mughal Empires
a) Babur
b) Humayan
c) Shershah
d) Akbar
Answer:
a) Babur

Question 2.
Babur led his first expedition towards India in
a) 1500
b) 1505
c) 1525
d) 1526
Answer:
b) 1505

Question 3.
Who was defeated Babur in the First Battle of Panipat?
a) Rana Sanga
b) Prithiviraj
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Daulatkhan Lodi
Answer:
c) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 4.
The Second Battle of Panipat was held in the year.
a) 1516
b) 1526
c) 1556
d) 1761
Answer:
c) 1556

Question 5.
South Indian women Ruler ………….. of Ahmed Nagar Glad to confront against Askbarf
a) Chand Bibi
b) Durgavati
c) Nurjahan
d) LakshmiBai
Answer:
a) Chand Bibi

6. The great composes and Musician in Akbar’s Court was ………………
a) Daswant
b) Tansen
c)Abdul Fazal
d) Birbal
Answer:
b) Tansen

Question 7.
Jahangir executed the Sikh leader
a) Ramadas
b) TejBahdaur
c) Govind Singh
d) Arjun
Answer:
d) Arjan

Question 8.
Purana Qila was built by
a) Akbar
b) Sher Shah Sur
e) Shan Jahan
d) Shivaji
Answer:
b) Sher Shah Sur

Question 9.
The Prime minister of the Mughal Government was called as
a) Wakil
b) Kotwals
e) Sawar
d) Peshuwa
Answer:
a) Wakil

Question 10.
Aurangzeb means
a) King of the world
b) light of the world
e) The Conqueror of the world
d) Tiger of the world
Answer:
c) The Conqueror of the world

II Fill in the blanks:

1. Mughal rule statted in India from …………….
Answer:
1526 A.D

2. …………….. and ……….. invited Babur to invade India.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan, Alam khan

3. The autobiography of Babur is ………………..
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Baburi

4. Babur defeated Rana Sanga in the Battle of ……………. in 1527.
Answer:
Khanwa

5. Sher Shah Sur defeated Humayun in the Battle of ………… in 1539 and …………….. in 1540.
Answer:
Chausa, Kannauj

6. Persian ruler ………………….. helped Humayun to defeat Sher Shah.
Answer:
Shah Tahmasp

7. Sher Shah started the rule ……………….. of the dynasty at Agra.
Answer:
Sur

8. Akbar abolished the Poll tax named…………….
Answer:
Jizya

9. Sikh shrine Harmandir Sahib was built at ………..
Answer:
Amritsar

10. ……………, a hail of worship was built by Akbar.
Answer:
Ibadat Khana

11. The Sufi saint …………… was respected by Akbar.
Answer:
Salim Chishti

12. The artist in Akbar’s court was …………..
Answer: Daswant

13. ………………, a representative 01 King iames i or tngianci visiteo ianangirs cou
Ans:
Thomas Roe

14 ……………. maintained law and order in the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Kotwals

15. Din Ilahi means ………………
Answer:
Divine faith

III. Match the following:

1. Babur	a) Battle of Chausa
2. Humayun	b) Battle of Ahom
3. Akbar	c) Battle of Chanderi
4. Aurangzeb	d) Battle of Haldighati

Answer:

1. Babur	c) Battle of Chanderi
2. Humayun	a) Battle of Chausa
3. Akbar	d) Battle of Haldighati
4. Aurangzeb	b) Battle of Ahom

IV Write true or false:

1. Humayun fell down the stairs of his library in Delhi and died.
Answer:
True

2. Babur led his First expedition to India in 1524 A.D
Answer:
False

3. Akbar treated all the religious groups fairly with the generosity of spirit.
Answer:
True

4. Humavun granted tradin2 ri2hts to the Portuguese and English.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the Following statements. (✓) Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Mughals had to lose control over the trade routes to Afghanistan, Persia, and central Asia.
Reason (R) : There was a prolonged fight between Mughals and Sikhs
a) R is not the correct explanation of A b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Jahangir ordered the execution of Sikhs leader Guru Aijun
Reason (R) : For religious causes, Jahangir ordered the execution of guru Aijun
a) R is not the correct explanation of A b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
a) R is not the correct explanation of A

VI. Circle the odd one out:

Babur, Humayun, Sher Shah, Jahangir
Answer:

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Who is Sher Shah?
Answer:

• Sher Shah was the son of an Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, the ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
• He started the rule of the Sur dynasty at Agra.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Second Battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between Hemu, a general of the Sur dynasty, and Akbar at Panipat in 1556.
• In this battle, Akbar’s general Bairam Khan defeated and killed Hemu.

Question 3.
Which women rulers fought against Akbar?
Answer:

• Rani Durgavati of Central Province.
• Rani Chand Bibi of Ahmed Nagar.

Question 4.
What is Din Ilahi?
Answer:
Akbar tried to include the good principles in all religions and formulated them into one single faith called Divine faith or Din -I – lahi.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Redfort.
Answer:

• Redfort also called Lai Qila is situated at Delhi.
• It was the residence of the Mughal emperors.
• It was constructed in 1639 by Shah Jahan.
• It has massive enclosing walls of red sandstone.

VIII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Estimate the Contribution of Mughal rulers towards art and architecture.
Answer:
All the Mughal Emperors show their keen interest in Art and Architecture.
Babur:

• Babur introduced the Persian style of architecture in India.
• He built many structures at Agra. Biana, Dholpur Gwalior, and Kiul.

Humayun:
Humayun built his royal palace Din-i-Panah and Delhi.

Akbar:
The Diwan-i-Khas, Diwan-i-Am, Panch – Mahal, Rang Mahal, Salim Chishti’s Tomb and Buland Darwaza were built during Akbar’s time.

Jahangir:
Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara, Tomb of Itmad-ud-doula at Agra (father of Nur Jahan) was built by Jahangir.

Shahjahan:
The famous Peacock throne, Tajmahal, Moti Masjid, Pearl Mosque at Agra, Red Fort, Jamma Masjid of Delhi, Diwan-i-Khas, and Diwan-i-am in Delhi were built by Shah Jahan.

Aurangzeb:

• The Bibi ka Maqbara a mausoleum was built during Aurangzeb. period.
• Shahjahan’s Period witnessed the Mughal splendour in architecture.

 

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu

7th Social Science Guide Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
a) Shore Temple
b) Mandagapattu
c) Kailasanatha Temple
d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer:
a) Shore Temple

Question 2.
In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO world Heritage site?
a) 1964
b) 1994
c) 1974
d) 1984
Answer:
d) 1984

Question 3.
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
a) bas-reliefs
b) vimanas
c) corridors
d) gopurams .
Answer:
b) Vimanas

Question 4.
Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
a) Tirukkurungudi
b) Madurai
c) Tirunelveli
d) Srivilliputhu
Answer:
a) Tirukkurungudi

Question 5.
Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
a) Mahendravarman
b) Narasimhavarman
c) Rajasimha
d) Rajaraja II
Answer:
d) Rajaraja II

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………………. was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king Mahendravarman.
Answer:
Mandagapattu

2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of………………….
Answer:
Sembian Mahadevi

3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshiamman temple is the………………….
Answer:
Pudumandapam

4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful………………….
Answer:
gopurams

5. Vijayanagar period’s unique feature is the………………….
Answer:
mandapam

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Seven Pagodas	a) Madurai
2. Rathi mandapam	b) Darasuram
3. Iravatheswara temple	c) Tirukkurungudi
4. Adinatha Temple	d) Shore temple
5. Pudumandapam	e) Azhwar Tirunagari

Answer:

A	B
1. Seven Pagodas	d) Shore temple
2. Rathi mandapam	c) Tirukkurungudi
3. Iravatheswara temple	b) Darasuram
4. Adinatha Temple	e) Azhwar Tirunagari
5. Pudumandapam	a) Madurai

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs:

Question 1.
1. Krishnapuram Temple – Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis – Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore
Answer:
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking. Reason (R) : The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A arid R are wrong
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram Tiruvannamalai.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the epoch of the following:
a) A.D. 600 to 850 – ………………………………………………
b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – ………………………………………………
c) A.D. 1100 tol350 – ………………………………………………
d) A.D. 1350 tol600 – ………………………………………………
Answer:
a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
c) A.D. 1100 tol350 – Later Chola Epoch
d) A.D. 1350 tol600 – Vijaynagara /Nayak Epoch

Question 5.
Find out the correct statement/s:
1. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2. Meenakshi Amman temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3. The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.
4. The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai Meenakshiamman Temple.
Answer:
1. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
3. The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.

V. State true or false:

1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
Answer:
True

2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
Answer:
False

3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
Answer:
True

4. Brahadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
True

5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram.
Answer:
False

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
Answer:

1. The Tamil Dravid tradition is exemplified by rock-cut- monuments.
2. Such as Draupadiratha, Dharmarajaratha, Bheemaratha, Arjunaratha, and Nagula – Sahadeva Ratha.

Question 2.
Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal
Answer:

• Sittanavasal is located at Pudukkottai district.
• It have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
• They painted the walls with fresh painting.
• Among the surviving ones,the lot of pond is not able for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the scene.

Question 3.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
Answer:

1. The Thanjavur BigTemple completed around A.D.1010 was built by Rajaraja.
2. It was a huge temple complex.
3. The 216 feet vimana is not able as it is one of the tallest man-made shikaras in the world.
4. The huge bull statue (Nandi) is carved out of a single rock.

Question 4.
Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.
Answer:

• The Sethupathis ruled Ramanathapuram was built the temple.
• In the temple, the predominance of the corridor striking.
• It is claimed that this temple has the longest set of corridors in the world.
• The temple has three sets of corridors.
• The outer set of the corridors has a height of almost 7metres and stretches for about 120 metres.
• Many of these pillar sare decorated by ornate carvings. .

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples – Explain.
Answer:

• The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
• Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then rocks were cut to build temples.
• Mandaga pattu temple was the first trock-cut temple built by him.
• The rock-cut cave structure has two pillar sin the front that hold it.
• All the cave temple shaves implesanctum cut on there a side of the wall with a front age – projecting mandapa(pavilion).
• The structural temples provided a wider scope to the sculptor to use his skill.

Question 2.
Discuss how the architecture of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Answer:

• During the Vijayanagara epoch,a new form of construction emerged.
• The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are:
• Decorated mandapas
• Ornamental pillars
• Life-size images
• Gopuras
• Prakaras
• Music pillars
• Floral works and stone windows
• Tanks are attached to the temple
• Massive gopurarrts at four sides.
• niches with sculptures.
• These as found at
• Alakiya Nambi temple atTirukkurungudi
• Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam
• Adinatha temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
• Nellaiyappar temple -Tirunelveli
• The 1000-pillar mandapam – Madurai
• Meenakshi Amman temple – madurai
• Rathi Mandapam – Tirukkurungudi
• Vanamamalai Temple – Nanguneri
• The Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore,
• The temples at Thadikompu near Dindugal.

VIII. Hots:

Question 1.
Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin – Explain.
Answer:

• Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin.
• It advanced overtime by a process of evolution.
• The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were the 7th-century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
• The absence of monuments in South India prior to the 7th century is attributed by scholars to temples that ought to have been built in wood, which was eventually destroyed by forces of nature.
• In TamilNadu, the evolution of temple architecture took place in five stages:
  • The Pallava Epoch.
  • Early Chola Epoch.
  • Later Chola Epoch.
  • Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch.
  • Modem Epoch.

Question 2.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period – Elucidate.
Answer:

• The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated, mandapas,ornamental pillars,life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars,
• Floral works and stone windows during the 15th to 17th centuries.
• Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from Four directions with massive gopurams.
• The practice of fitting then inches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period.
• There was an increased use of major sculpted figures(relief sculpturejas found at the Alakiya Nambite mpleat Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
• The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at AzhwarTirunagari and the porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.

7th Social Science Guide Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The Pallava Epoch in Tamilnadu is ………………
a) A.D 600-850
b) A.D 850-1100
c) A.D 1350-1850
d) A.D 1100-1350
Answer:
a) A.D 600-850

Question 2.
The Pallava king ………………was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
a) Narasimma varman
b) Mahendravarman
c) Simha Varman
d) Vaathabi Kondan
Answer:
b) Mahendravarman

Question 3.
The ……………… Penance, carved on the face of a granite boulder, is a magnificent relief.
a) Arjun’s
b) Sivam
c) Vishnu
d) Thirumal
Answer:
a) Arjun’s

Question 4.
In the Siva temple of Pandyas, the ……………… is carved out of the mother rock.
a)Vimanam
b) Gopuram
c) lutes
d) linga
Answer:
d) linga

Question 5.
Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai and Nellaiappar Temple in Tirunelveli represent examples of ……………… architectural style.
a) Pandya’s
b) Cheran
c) Chola
d) Vijaynagar
Answer: a) Pandya’s

Question 6.
The maturity attained by ……………… architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
a) Cheran
b) Cholas
c) Pandiyas
d) Vijayanagar
Answer:
b) Cholas

Question 7.
………………, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple.
a) Kalugumalai
b) Arykkudi
c) Dharasuram
d) Thiruvadalan
Answer:
c) Dharasuram

Question 8.
The cave temple at ………………(near Karaikudi, TamilNadu) belonging to 13th century.
a) Irrukkaikudi
b) Aryakkudi
c) Varalanpadi
d) Pillayarpatti
Answer:
d) Pillayarpatti

Question 9.
The practice of fitting the with sculptures continued during the Nayak period.
a) Mandapam
b) Gopuram
c) lutes
d) niches
Answer:
d) niches

Question 10.
The Later Chola period was known for beautiful
a) Mandapam
b) Gopuram
c) Nandi
d) Theppakulam
Answer:
b) Gopuram

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The ……………… epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
Answer:
Pallava

2. Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by ……………….
Answer:
Mahendravarman

3. TheKanchi ………………was built by the Pallava king, Rajasimha.
Answer:
Kailasanatha Temple

4. The monolithic sculpture made at Mahabalipuram is ………………
Answer:
Pancha Pandava Rathas.

5. The Mamallapuram monuments and temples were notified as a ……………… in 1984.
Answer:
UNESCO

6. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of the ………………
Answer:
Pallavas

7. The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at ………………, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
Answer:
Kazhugumalai

8. Many early Pandya images are unearthed now in ……………… museum at Madurai.
Answer:
Tirumalai Nayakkar

9. Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the ………………
Answer:
Jain monks

10. For the early Chola epoch, the temple at ……………… Tamilnadu is worth mentioning.
Answer:
Tindivanam, Dadapuram

11. At the time the Big Temple of ……………… was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
Answer:
Thanjavur

12. The Brihadeeshwara temple of ………………, is undoubtedly as worthy a successor to the Brihadeeshwara
temple of Thanjavur.
Answer:
Gangaikonda Cholapuram

13. The Kalyana mandapam at ………………, Jalagandeshwar temple are notable examples.
Answer:
Vellore

14. At Vijayanagar epoch, the mandapam and port of ……………… at Adinatha are special features.
Answer:
Azhwar temple

15. The Sethupathis ruled ………………and contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture.
Answer:
Ramanathapuram

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Dwarapalas	a) Mandivarman-II
2. Vaigunda Perumal Kovil	b) Monolithic temple
3. Arjuna’s Penance	c) Sittanavasal paintings
4. Kazhugumalai	d) Gate Keepers
5. Pudukottai	e) 100ft long, 45ft wide

Answer:

A	B
1. Dwarapalas	d) Gate Keepers
2. Vaigunda Perumal Kovil	a) Mandivarman-II
3. Arjuna’s Penance	e) 100ft long, 45ft wide
4. Kazhugumalai	b) Monolithic temple
5. Pudukottai	c) Sittanavasal paintings

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs:

Question 1.
Find out the wrong pair/pairs
1. Iravatheswara – Indira’s elephant
2. Pillayarpatti – A beautiful Ganesha
3. Rameshwaram Temple – Theppakulam
4. 1000 pillar mandapams – Meenakshi Amman Temple
5. Gangai Konda Solapuram – Chola Capital
Answer:
3. Rameshwaram Temple – Theppakulam

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The Thanjavur Big Temple is one of the highest temple in the World.
Reason (R) : Due to its massive height, the shikhara is called the Dakshina Meru.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd one out:
Arjuna’s Penance, Rock, cut, temple, Kailasanathar temple, Palani Malai temple
Answer:

Question 4.
Find out the correct statement/s.
1. In Dharasuaram near Kumbakonam Vyayanagar King’s temple is situated.
2. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant part of Pandya architecture.
3. The maturity attained by Pallava’s architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangai Konda Cholapuram.
4. The Temple at Dadapuram, near Tindivanam in Tamilnadu is worth mentioning of Later Chola Epoch.
Answer:
2. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant part of Pandya architecture.

V. State true or false:

1. Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.
Answer:
True

2. Pandyas installed Nandi in the sanctums in their cave temples.
Answer:
false

3. The Puddukottai Sittanavasal Lotus Pond is the excellent execution.
Answer:
True

4. Tanjavur served as the Chola capital for about 250 years, until the decline of the Cholas and the rise of the Pandyas.
Answer:
False

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write short note about the specialities of Mamallapuram.
Answer:
The Mamallapuram monuments and temples, including the Shore Temple complex, were notified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.

Question 2.
Write about Kazhugumalai sculpture.
Answer:

• The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
• At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu and Brahma are found.

Question 3.
Write about Pillayarpatti Karpaka Vinayagar temple.
Answer:

• The cave temple at Pillayarpatti (near Karaikudi, TamilNadu) belonging to 13th century.
• This temple is important both for its sculptures and for an inscription.
• A beautiful Ganesha is carved facing the entrance. .

Question 4.
What are the specialities of Ganga – kondacholapuram?
Answer:

• Gangaikonda Cholapuram served as the Chola capital.
• It was built by Rajendra Chola.
• The height of the temple is 5 5 metres.
• The sanctum has two storeys.
• The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Mention the places of Pallavas Creation.
Answer:

• Mahendravadi – Pallavaram
• Mahabalipuram – Thirukazhukundram
• Vallam – Mammandur
• Mandagapattu – Melaiserri
• Kanchi – Chengalpattu.

Question 2.
List out the Vijayanagar temple of Tamilnadu Architecture.
Answer:

• Kanchi – Vaikuntha Perumal Temple.
• Tirunelveli – Nellaiappar Temple Corridor.
• Vellore – Jalagandeshwar Temple.
• Azhwar Tirunagari – Adinatha Temple.
• Thanjavur – Brihadeeshwara Temple.
• Madurai – Meenakshi Amman Temple

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 3 Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 3 Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America

7th Social Science Guide Exploring Continents – North America and South America Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ………………….. separates North America from Asia.
a) Bering Strait
b) Palk Strait
c) Malacca Strait
d) Gibraltar straits
Answer:
a) Bering Strait

Question 2.
………………….. is known as the “sugar bowl of the world”.
a) Mexico
b) USA
c) Canada
d) Cuba
Answer:
d) Cuba

Question 3.
………………….. are the longest rivers in North America.
a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
b) The Mackenzie river
c) The St. Lawrence river
d) The Colorado river
Answer:
a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers

Question 4.
………………….. is the longest mountain chain in the world.
a) The Andes
b) The Rockies
c) The Himalayas
d) The Alps
Answer:
a) The Andes

Question 5.
………………….. basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location
a) The Mackenzie
b) The Orinoco
c) The Amazon
d) The Parana
Answer:
c) The Amazon

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………….. 86 m below the sea level is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
Answer:
Death valley

2.
………………….. is one of the world’s best fishing grounds.
Answer:
Grand bank

3. The highest peak in the Andes is ………………….. on the Chile – Argentina border.
Answer:
Mount Aconcagua

4. ………………….. of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”.
Answer:
The selvas

5. …………………. is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world.
Answer:
Minas Gersals and Sao paulo

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Mount McKinley	a) Tropical forests
2. Grand Canyon	b) The flightless bird
3. Ebony	c) The Colorado River
4. 4’o Clock Rains	d) 6194 m
5. Rhea	e) The equatorial regions

Answer:

A	B
1. Mount McKinley	d) 6194 m
2. Grand Canyon	c) The Colorado River
3. Ebony	a) Tropical forests
4. 4’o Clock Rains	e) The equatorial regions
5. Rhea	b) The flightless bird

IV. Give the Reasons:

Question 1.
The eastern coast of North America particularly the USA enjoys a mild climate.
Answer:
The South and east are usually warm all the year round and regions around the mouth of the Mississippi – Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow onshore in summer.

Question 2.
The United States of America is known as “Melting Pot”.
Answer:
The United States of America is known as a “Melting pot” where hundreds of different cultures meet, blend, and create a new culture.

Question 3.
Though Quito and Amazon basin are in the same latitude Quito enjoys eternal Spring. Whereas the Amazon basin is hot.
Answer:

1. The Climatic of the continent of South America has been closely influenced by the latitudes, altitudes, and the proximity of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
2. It is hot in the Amazon basin as the equator passes through it whereas Quito situated almost on the
   same latitude on the Andes has Eternal Spring
3. That is, it has a pleasant climate throughout the year because of its high altitude at 9,350 feet or 2849.88 the meter above the sea level.

Question 4.
Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tròpical fish.
Answer:

• Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish. Here the cool Humboldt Current helps in bring planicton, which is the main food for fishes.
• Commercial deep-sea fishing off of Peru’s coastal belt over 3000 km.

V. Distinguish between

Question 1.
The Rocky Mountain and the Appalachian mountain.
Answer:
Rocky mountain

1. The western part of North America is occupied by long ranges of young fold mountains known as Rocky mountains
2. The Width varies from 110 to 480 Kms.
3. The Rocky Mountains are west of the Mississippi River.

Appalachian mountain

1. The eastern part of North America formed of old fold Appalachian which is not continuous like the Rockies.
2. There are few peaks more than 1800m high.
3. The Appalachian Mountain is east of the river.

Question 2.
The Prairies and the Pampas grassland.
Answer:
Prairies grassland:

1. The temperature grasslands of North America are known as prairies.
2. Region – Central USA and Central Canada.
3. Winter is very cold, Summer is hot and rainfall is moderate.

Pampas grassland:

1. The temperature grasslands of South America are known as pampas.
2. Region – North of Eastern part of Argentina, Uruguay and Southernmost Brazil.
3. Summer is quite warm and winter is cold and moderate rainfall.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:
Tundra

1. Region – Northern coast of Canada and the Northern islands.
2. Climate – Winter is long and Severely cold, Summer is short and cool. Rainfall is scanty.
3. Flora – Mosses, Lichens, and Dwarf willows.

Taiga :

1. Region – The coniferous forests are found in Alaska and Canada, South Central Alaska and North Eastern Canada.
2. Climate – Winter is very cold, Summer is warm and short. Heavy snowfall in winter.
3. Flora – Pine, Fir, Cedar and Spruce.

VI. Put (✓) for the correct option:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R) : Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil which provide favourable condition.
a) Both A and R is correct.
b) A is correct and R is wrong,
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
a) Both A and R is correct.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Industries in South America have developed rapidly.
Reason (R) : The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) need for industrialization,
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct and R is wrong,
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
c) A is wrong and R is correct

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Name the boundaries of North America.
Answer:
North America is surrounded by the Pacific Ocean in the West, the Atlantic Ocean in the east, the Arctic Ocean in the north and South America in the south.

Question 2.
Write a note on Mackenzie River.
Answer:

• The Mackenzie River is the second-largest drainage basin of North America.
• It has its source from Great Slave Lake and drains into the Arctic Ocean.

Question 3.
What type of fruits are cultivated in North America? Name some of them.
Answer:
The important Fruits of North America are Cranberries, Blueberries, Concord Grapes, Strawberries, Gooseberries and other fruit.

Question 4.
Give a short note about the lifestyle of Eskimos.
Answer:

• Eskimos live in a very cold and hospitable region where plenty of fish varieties are available.
• They were able to dress in thick warm clothes made of further life in igloos.
• Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
• The specially designed a house by ice and is known as igloos.

Question 5.
Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
Answer:
The Eastern part of North America, the Great Lakes region, Florida, California, Mexico, and Central America are the most densely populated areas.

Question 6.
Name the physiographic divisions of South America.
Answer:

• The Andes Mountains.
• The River Basin or Central Plains.
• The Eastern High land.

Question 7.
What is called “4’o clock rains”?
Answer:

• The Amazon basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location.
• The regions around the Equator get what is called“4’o Clock Rains” which are convectional rains.

Question 8.
Name the flora and fauna of equatorial forest in South America.
Answer:
FLORA:
Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Logwood, Brazil, nuts and Ceiba.

FAUNA:
Anaconda, Armadillo, Piranha, Monkey, Snake, Crocodile and Parrot.

Question 9.
What is known as “Estancias”?
Answer:

• The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias.
• These are divided into several paddocks.
• Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals are sorted and branded.
• The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.

Question 10.
Name the major export of South America.
Answer:

• South America’s major exports are mostly primary commodities such as sugar, coffee, cocoa, tobacco,
• beef, com, wheat, petroleum, natural gas, linseed, cotton, iron ore, tin and copper.
• South America’s products are mostly exported to North America and Europe.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Give an account of the climate of North America.
Answer:

• The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.
• Unlike the Himalayas, the Rockies run north to south which do not form a climatic barrier and do not prevent the icy winds from the Arctic region and penetrating the central plains which therefore have a very long cold winter and very short hot summer.
• Precipitation occurs due to cyclonic storms.
• The Arctic region is cold and mostly dry and has very short summers and a very long bitterly cold winter.
• As one proceeds southwards the short summers become warm but the winters are very cold.
• The central plains have extreme climates from freezing conditions in winter to tropical heat in summer.
• The South is usually warm all the year-round and the regions around the month of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.
• The warm moist South-Western lies not only bring rainfall to the North West coast and also keep it warm.
• The warm Alaskan Current keeps the North West coast ice-free.
• The State of California in the USA has a Mediterranean Climate with moist winter and dry summers.

Question 2.
Describe the Heavy Engineering Industries in North America.
Answer:

1. Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, the involvement of huge investment, and large transport costs are called heavy industries.
2. These industries depend heavily on the Iron and Steel industry.
3. The important Heavy Industries are automobile industries, aircraft industries, shipbuilding industries, Railway Wagon industries, and farm equipment industries.
4. The USA is the largest producer of automobiles.
5. The important Centres of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint-Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in the USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 3.
Describe the drainage system in South America.
Answer:

• Owing to the position of the Andes all the great rivers of the continent drain into the Atlantic.
• The Pacific streams are short and swift but along the coastlands of Peru their waters are used for irrigation and to some extent for hydro-electric power.
• Amazon is the longest river in South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world.
• This river has over at housand of tributaries.
• The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira, and Tapajos are important tributaries.
• At the point where it enters the sea, the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80km into the high seas.
• The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
• The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
• All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the major races in South America.
Answer:

• South America contains the world’s most mixed population.
• Many people in South America are descended from Europeans, especially the Spanish and Portuguese, who begin to arrive during the 15th century.
• The descendants of African slaves brought over by the European native people still live in the mountain and the rainforests and keeping their own languages.
• The mixed population of native Indians and Europeans is known as ‘Mestizo’
• The mixed population of Europeans and Blacks is called ‘Mulato’ mixture of Native Indians and Blacks is called ‘Zambo’.

X. Activity:

Question 1.
Given below are some important cities with industries placed in brackets. Pick out the correct answer from them.

1. Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping)
2. Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering)
3. Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement)
4. Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile)
5. Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)

Answer:

1. Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping)
2. Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering)
3. Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement)
4. Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile)
5. Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)

Question 2.
Write down the answers to the question given in blocks:

Answer:

7th Social Science Guide Exploring Continents – North America and South America Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
………………….. North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
a) 1492
b) 1592
c) 1493
d) 1595
Answer:
a) 1492

Question 2.
………………….. was introduced by European settlers in North America.
a) Maize
b) Barley
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
Answer:
d) Wheat

Question 3.
………………….. is the native Food Crop of North America.
a) Maize
b) Barley
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
Answer:
a) Maize

Question 4.
…………………..grows well in Southern and Western States
a) Maize
b) Barley
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton
Answer:
d) Cotton

Question 5.
………………….. beet is used for making Sugar.
a) Sugar
b) Flour
c) Chips
d) Fries
Answer:
a) Sugar

Question 6.
The USA is the largest producer of …………………..
a) Atomic power
b) Solar power
c) Automobile
d) Tyre
Answer:
c) Automobile

Question 7.
Toronto, Cornwell, and Kingston are the major ………………….. in Canada.
a) Textile industry
b) Iron and steel industry
c) Paper industry
d) none
Answer:
a) Textile industry

Question 8.
………………….. are important ports on the West Coast of North America.
a) San Francisco
b) Newyork
c) Philadelphia
d) puledra
Answer:
a) San Francisco

Question 9.
………………….. are animals typically found only in South America.
a) Anaconda
b) Llamas
c) Piranha
d) Raccoons
Answer:
b) Llamas

Question 10.
…………………..are the most important crops in South America.
a) Coffee and Cocoa
b) Tea
c) Brazil
d) Rubber
Answer:
a) Coffee and Cocoa

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………….. is a narrow stretch of land joining two large landmasses.
Answer:
Isthmus

2. …………………..is a narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies.
Answer:
Strait

3. The Rockies and the Coast Range are together called the …………………..
Answer:
Western Cordilleras

4. The Mississippi and Missouri rivers are the longest rivers in …………………..
Answer:
North America

5. ………………….. erodes a lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.
Answer:
The Big Muddy

6. Both Canada and the USA are the major exporter of ………………….. than the other countries of the world.
Answer:
wheat

7. Barley and Oats is used as …………………..
Answer:
cattle fodder

8. ………………….. is used for extraction of edible oil.
Answer:
Soya beans

9. The Isthmus of ………………….. in the North West connects South America with North America.
Answer:
Panama

10. ………………….. is the greatest river of South America.
Answer:
Amazon

11. The ………………….. found in the Amazon is a fierce flesh-eating fish.
Answer:
Piranha

12. …………………..has the second-largest iron ore deposits in the world after Russia.
Answer:
Brazil

13. …………………..is the third-largest producer of copper in the world.
Answer:
Chile

14. …………………..is the third-largest bauxite producing country.
Answer:
Brazil

15. …………………..areas are Paraguay, Chile, and Uruguay.
Answer:
Moderate populated

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Antarctica	a) active Volcano
2. Mississippi	b) Great lakes
3. Grand Banks	c) Biggest bird
4. Cordilleras	d) Petroleum reserves
5. Condor	e) Mount Vinson Massif

Answer:

A	B
1. Antarctica	e) Mount Vinson Massif
2. Mississippi	b) Great lakes
3. Grand Banks	d) Petroleum reserves
4. Cordilleras	a) active Volcano
5. Condor	c) Biggest bird

IV. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Mississippi River has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy”.
Answer:
The Mississippi River has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodes a lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.

Question 2.
South America is also known as Latin America.
Answer:
Together with Central America, South America is also known as Latin America, having been discovered and colonized mostly by the Latin’s i.e., The Spanish the Portuguese.

V. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
North America and South America
Answer:
North America

1. It lies between 7°N and 84°N latitude which lie entirely in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. The Largest lake superior is located.
3. Highest peak – Mount Mckinley

South America

1. It lies between 12°N and 55°S latitude and 35°A and 81°W longitudes.
2. The Largest lake Maracaibo is Located.
3. Highest Peak highest peak Andes mountain

Question 2.
Savanna Grassland and The Pampas Grasslands
Answer:
Savanna Grassland

1. Located in Guiana Highland, Brazilan Highland.
2. Tall coarse grass
3. Summer in hot and moist

The Pampas Grasslands

1. Located in Uruguay and Southernmost Brazil.
2. Short grass
3. Summer is quite warm

VI. Put (✓) for the correct option:

Question 1.
1. Joining two large landmasses – Isthmus
2. Africa – Mount Kilimanjaro
3. America Prairie Grassland – High production of wheat
4. Bagland island – Goat
5. Argentina – samba dance
Answer:
1. Joining two large landmasses – Isthmus

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is “The Big Muddy”?
Answer:
The Mississippi River has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodes a lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.

Question 2.
Name the physical divisions of North America?
Answer:

1. The Rocky Mountains,
2. The Great Plains,
3. The Appalachian Highlands and
4. The Coastal Plain.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Mississippi Rivers.
Answer:

• The Mississippi and Missouri rivers are the longest rivers in North America
• They form the fourth longest river system in the world and stretching more than 6114 km from Montana to the Gulf of Mexico.
• The Mackenzie River is the second-largest drainage basin of North America.
• It drains into the Arctic Ocean.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Name the types of forests in North America.
Answer:
i. Tundra:

• Winter is long and severely cold.
• The northern coast of Canada.
• Mosses, lichens and dwarf willows.
• Arctic Fox, Polar Bears, Wolverin, Sable, and Blue Fox.

ii. Taiga or the Cold temperate Coniferous Forest:

• Summer is warm and short. Heavy snowfall in winter.
• Southcentral Alaska
• Pine, Fir, Cedar, and Spruce
• Beaver, Fox, Moose, Black Bears, and Grizzly Bears.

iii. Temperate Prairie Grasslands:

• winter is very cold, rainfall is moderate.
• Central USA and Central Canada.
• Grasses shrubs, Coyote, Gophers.
• Rabbits, Prairie Dogs and Bison.

iv. The Mediterranean forest:

• Summer is hot and dry, cool wet winter.
• western Coastal margin and Southern California
• Olive, Grapes, Oak, Walnut, and Fig.

v. Desert forest:

• The rainfall is very little.
• Southwest USA northern Mexico Desert.
• Cactus, Saguaro Cholla Cacti and yucca.
• Desert Fox, Gazelles, Scorpions, Lizards, and Rattle Snakes.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 1 Sources of Medieval India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 3 Chapter 3 Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu

7th Social Science Guide Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the Jaina canon?
a) Pataliputra
b) Vallabhi
c) Mathura
d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
a) Pataliputra

Question 2.
In which language was Agama sutras written?
a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit
b) Hindi
c) Sanskrit
d) Pali
Answer:
a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit

Question 3.
Which of the following was patronised by the Kalabhras?
a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c)Ajivikas
d) Hinduism
Answer:
b) Jainism

Question 4.
Where are the Rock beds found with no head-rests?
a) Vellore
b) Kanchipuram
c) Sittanavasal
d) Madurai
Answer:
a) Vellore

Question 5.
Who is believed to have built the Kazhugumalai Rock-Cut Temple?
a) Mahendra Varman
b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan
c) Parantaka Veera Narayana Pandyan
d) Harihara II
Answer:
b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The image of………………. is considered to be the tallest Jain image in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Neminatha

2. Buddhacarita was written by……………….
Answer:
Asvaghosa

3. Chinese traveller Huein Tsang visited Pallava country in ……………….century.
Answer:
7th

4. ……………….describes Buddhism as a religion in decay.
Answer:
Mattavilasa prahasana

5. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasaratha patronised……………….
Answer:
Ajivikas

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Kalpa sutra	a) Tiruthakkathevar
2. Jivaka Chintamani	b) Madurai
3. Neminatha	c) Nagasena
4. Milinda Panha	d) Bhadrabahu
5. Kizha Kuyil Kudi	e) 22ndTirthankara

Answer:

A	B
1. Kalpa sutra	d) Bhadrabahu
2. Jivaka Chintamani	a) Tiruthakkathevar
3. Neminatha	e) 22ndTirthankara
4. Milinda Panha	c) Nagasena
5. Kizha Kuyil Kudi	b) Madurai

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Find out the odd one
Tiruparuttikunram, Kizha Kuyil Kudi, Kazhugumalai, Nagapattinum, Sittanavasal.
Answer:

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of the old religions. Reason (R) : The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through living the life of an ascetic.
a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) Both A and R are wrong.
d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
Answer:
a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s
i) During the 6th century B.C. as many as 62 religious schools flourished in India.
ii) ‘Palli’is an educational centre of Buddhists.
iii) Royal patronage allowed pre-Muslim India to become a land of vihars.
iv) The Ajivikas continued to exist till 15th century.
a) i) and iii) are correct
b) i), ii) and iv) are correct
c) i) and ii) are correct
d) ii), iii) and iv) are correct
Answer:
a) i) and iii) are correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair/s
1. Parshvanatha – 22^nd Tirthankara
2. Mahabhasya – the Ceylonese Chroniclei
3. Visuddhimagga – Buddhagosha
4. Buddha – Eight-fold Path
Answer:
1. Parshvanatha – 22^nd Tirthankara
2. Mahabhasya – the Ceylonese Chroniclei

V. True or False:

1. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
Answer:
True

2. Throughout history, Ajivikas had to face persecution everywhere.
Answer:
True

3. Education was imparted in institutions of Jains irrespective of caste and creed.
Answer:
True

4. Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramashila gained reputation as pilgrim centres.
Answer:
False

5. Buddhism faced challenges from Saiva and Vaishnava sects from the Chola period onwards.
Answer:
False

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Make a list of the Five Great Vows of Jainism.
Answer:

• Non-violence – Ahimsa
• Truth – Satya
• Non-stealing – Acharya
• Celibacy/Chastity – Brahmacharya
• Non-possession – Aparigraha

Question 2.
What are the four noble truths of Buddha?
Answer:

• Life includes pain, getting the old, disease, and ultimately death.
• Suffering is caused by craving and aversion.
• Suffering can be overcome and happiness attained.
• True happiness and contentment are possible if one pursues the eight-fold path.

Question 3.
Explain the three divisions of Tripitaka.
Answer:

1. Vinaya Pitaka contains the rules of the order of Buddhist monks, which must be observed for achieving purity of conduct.
2. Sutta Pitaka lays down the principles of religion by citing discourses as evidence.
3. Abhidhamma Pitaka is the latest in the Tripitaka. It deals with ethics, philosophy, and metaphysics.

Question 4.
Highlight the importance of Sittanavasal.
Answer:

• Sittanavasal cave in Pudukkottai district is located on a prominent rock that stands 70 m above the ground.
• It has a natural cavern, known as Eladipattam, at one end, and a rock-cut cave temple at the other.
• Behind the fenced cavern,there are 17 rock beds marked on the floor.
• The largest of these ascetic beds contains a Tamil-Brahmi inscription that dates to the 2nd century B.C.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Enumerate the sources of study for Jainism and Buddhism
Answer:
Sources and Literature: Jainism:

• Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the Jain religion.
• They have been written in the Ardha-magadhi Prakrit language.
• Stories of Kalpasutra of Bhadrabah, Panchatantra.
• The Jainacharitha of Kalpa Sutra, Jivaka Chintamani, a Tamil epic poem.
• These are written by Jain Monk.

Temples and Cave temples of Jainism:

• Sittanavasal cave in Pudukkottai district-Rock Beds,The stone berths, ascetic beds.
• Jain temples in Kanchipuram are Trilokyanatha.
• Jinaswamy Temple at Tiruparutti kunram
• The Chandra Prabha temple dedicated to the Tirthankara named Chandraprabha.
• Kazhugumalai Jain Rock-Cut Temple. Areas are Vellore, Tirumala, Arai, Madurai.

Buddhist Literature:
Tripitaka was written in the Pali language.

Literary works in Buddhism include:

• Jatakas
• Buddhavamsa
• Milindapanha-which means questions of Milinda’.
• The two’ famous Ceylonese chronicles are
• Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa.
• Buddhagosha’s Visuddhimagga is work.
• Buddhacharita, written by Asvaghosa.

Question 2.
Give an account of relics of Jainism and Buddhism that have come to light in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Relics of Jainism:

• Sittanavasl cave in Pudukkottai district. It consists of Rock Beds, stone berths, ascetic beds.
• The largest of these ascetic beds contains a Tamil-Brahmi inscription.
• Arivar Koil was built during the period of pandas.
• Jain Temples in Kanchipuram, Thirupattikunram.
• Kazhugumalai temple rock-cut temple.
• The beds are found at the Bhairavamalai in Latheri, Katpadi taluk, Vellore district.
• Tirumala is a Jain temple in a cave complex located near Aranitown.
• There are 26 caves, 200 stone beds, 60 inscriptions, and over 100 sculptures in and around Madurai.

Relics of Buddhism:

• The discovery of 13th century Buddhist bronzes in Nagapattinam.
• The sculptures of Buddha inThiyaganur village in Salem district.
• The evidence in support of this is some monuments of the Pandya country, which are assigned to the 3rd century B.C. (BCE).
• Excavations of Buddhist Vihara and a temple at Kaveripoompattinam.
• Buddha statue in padmasana’ pose in remote Tirunattiyattankudi village in Tiruvarur district.

Question 3.
Discuss the essence of Ajivika philosophy and its presence in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• The Ajivikas believed in the doctrine of karma, transmigration of the soul, and determinism.
• The head of the Ajivika sect was Gosala Makhaliputta.
• The Ajivikas practiced asceticism of a severe type.
• The Ajivika religious order and school of philosophy are known from the Vedic hymns, the Brahmanas, the Aryankas, and other ancient Sanskrit compilations and treatises of the pre-Jaina and pre-Buddhi stage.

Presence in TamilNadu:

• Ajivikas continued to have influence along the Palar river in the modem states of Karnataka and TamilNadu (Vellore, Kanchipuram, and Tiruvallur districts) till about the 14th century.
• In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed into Vaishnavism.

VIII. Hots:

Question 1.
Analyze the commonalities and differences between heterodox religions and Vedic religion.
Answer:
Heterodox religious and Vedic religion commonalities.

• Heterodox religious like. Buddhism and Jainism co-existence peacefully with various sects of Hinduism.
• All the religious doctrine and codified into texts to be followed by their devotees and practitioners.
• All the religions shared their key concepts.

Heterodox Religious	Vedic Religion
No virtues and Practice	Rituals and practice had become elaborate and extensive
Ahimsa was preached	Animal Sacrifice existed.

Question 2.
Why did these heterodox religions fail to become mainstream religion in India?
Answer:

1. Though Buddhism faced challenges from Saiva and Vaishnava sects from the Pallava period onwards.
2. Since the time of the Bhakthi Movement, Buddhism came to be challenged by its exponents.
3. In the case of Jainism lack of patronage lack of efforts to spread the religion, Jain adopted many Hindu faiths.
4. Jain’s stater of differentiating people in the name of caste and classes.

7th Social Science Guide Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
After two hundred years of Maveeran dead, Jain Scholars assembled at ……………………
a) Kosalam
b) Kovalam
c) Mauvnam
d) Pataliputra
Answer:
d) Pataliputra

Question 2.
Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the ……………………religion.
a) Hindu
b) Buddha
c) Jain
d) French
Answer:
c) Jain

Question 3.
The …………………… has a great amount of Jain influence.
a) Jivaka Sinthamani
b) Panchatantra
c) Thirukkural
d) Kalpa Sutram
Answer:
b) Panchatantra

Question 4.
……………………, a Tamil epic poem, is composed in Sangam literature
a) Naladiyar
b) Thirukkural
c)Nallaru
d) Jivaka Chintamani
Answer:
d) Jivaka Cintamani

Question 5.
It is believed that the …………………… were the patrons of Jainism.
a) Cheran
b) Cholan
c) Pandiyan
d) Kalabhras
Answer:
d) Kalabhras

Question 6.
Most of the Pallava rulers were ……………………
a) Hindu
b) Sikkism
c) Jain
d) Buddhism
Answer:
c) Jain

Question 7.
The …………………… century Kazhugumalai temple in Kovilpatti taluk marks the revival of Jainism.
a) 6th
b) 7th
c) 8th
d) 9th
Answer:
c) 8th

Question 8.
Jaina monasteries and temples also served as seats of ……………………
a) Monks
b) Yoga
c) Learning
d) Painting
Answer:
c) Learning

Question 9.
…………………… contains the rules of the order of Buddhist monks.
a) Vinaya Pitaka
b) Sutha Pitaka
c) Abhidhamma Pitaka
d) Buddha Pitaka
Answer:
a) Vinaya Pitaka

Question 10.
The two famous Ceylonese chronicles are …………………… and ……………………
a) Vinaya, Sutta
b) Mahavamsa, Dipavamsa
c) Buddha vamsa
d) Milindapanha
Answer:
b) Mahavamsa, Dipavamsa

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Mahavira’s preaching was orally transmitted by his ……………………over the course of about one thousand years.
Answer:
disciples

2. In 1st century B.C., a major split occurred in Jainism namely …………………… and ……………………
Answer:
Digambaras, Svetambaras

3. Agama Sutras have been written in the …………………… Prakrit language.
Answer:
Ardha-magadhi

4. The …………………… of Kalpa Sutra is a Jain text containing the biographies of the Jain.
Answer:
Jainacharitha

5. Another scholarly work in Tamil, ……………………, is also attributed to a Jain monk.
Answer:
Naladiyar

6. Tamils broadly come under ……………………sect.
Answer:
Digambara

7. ……………………flourished during the Pallava reign.
Answer:
Jainism

8. ……………………on the banks of the river Palar.
Answer:
Trilokyanatha Janaswamy temple

9. ……………………in a cave complex located near Arani town in Tiruvannamalai district.
Answer:
Tirumala cave Jain temple

10. Buddha’s teachings for a long time were transmitted through the memory of …………………… and disciples.
Answer:
teachers

11. ……………………was various stories of the lives of the Buddha found in Buddhist literature.
Answer:
Jatakas

12. Buddhagosha’s …………………… is a later Work in Buddhist literature.
Answer:
Visuddhimagga

13. ……………………, the Chinese traveller, visited south India in the 7th century.
Answer:
Hieun Tsang

14. …………………… was a Buddist monk who skilled in tantric rituals.
Answer:
Vajrabodhi

15. …………………… gained a reputation as great educational centres of Buddist.
Answer:
Nalanda, Taxila, and Vikramshila

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Agama Sutras	a) Both Male and Female Attendants
2. Jain Temple	b) Visuddhimagga
3. Yakshas and yakshis	c) karma, transmigration of the soul
4. Buddhagosha	d) books of the Jain
5. Ajivika Philosophy	e) Tiruparuttikunram2.

Answer:

A	B
1. Agama Sutras	d) books of the Jain
2. Jain Temple	e) Tiruparuttikunram2.
3. Yakshas and yakshis	a) Both Male and Female Attendants
4. Buddhagosha	b) Visuddhimagga
5. Ajivika Philosophy	c) karma, transmigration of the soul

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Find out the odd one
Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, Abhidhamma Pitaka, Agama Sutras
Answer:

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : A Vihara in Sanskrit means ‘dwelling’ or ‘house’.
Reason (R) : Viharas were dwelling places used by wandering monks during the rainy season.
a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) Both A and R are wrong.
d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
Answer:
a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s
1. Agama sutras have been written in the Artha – magathi prakrit language .
2. Jivaka Chinthamani, a Tamil epic poem is composed is the Tradition of sangam literature by Thiruthakkathevar.
3. The Archaeological survey of Tamilnadu took over the Sittanavasal caves.
4. Tirumala jain temple located in vellore District.
Answer:
1. Agama sutras have been written in the Artha – magathi prakrit language.
2. Jivaka Chinthamani, a Tamil epic poem is composed is the Tradition of sangam literature by Thiruthakkathevar.

V. True or False:

1. Bigha Nitaya is an ancient Buddhist tract and it has a religious school that flourished in India.
Answer:
True

2. There was eight popular pledges in Buddhism.
Answer:
False

3. There is a movement of the Jains from Karnataka to the Kongu region and the Kaveri Delta.
Answer:
True

4. According to 2011, the census of Buddist is 63,359.
Answer:
False

5. In Tamilnadu, Buddhism was spread from Srilanka.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Jaina monasteries.
Answer:

• Jaina monasteries and temples also served as seats of learning.
• Education was imparted in these institutions to the people irrespective of caste and creed.
• The Bhairavamalai, Kukkara Palli is an educational centre of Jains.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Buddha Vamsa.
Answer:

• A legend in verse, containing a narration of the life and activities of the 24 Buddhas who are believed to have preceded Gautama.
• Most of the literature was written only in the Pali language.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Buddha Viharam.
Answer:

• A Vihara in Sanskrit means ‘dwelling’ or ‘house’.
• Originally, viharas were dwelling places used by wandering monks during the rainy season.
• Later they transformed into centres of learning through the donations of wealthy lay Buddhists.

Question 4.
What is the reason for the failure of Ajivika’s philosophy?
Answer:

• Village communities under Pallavas, Cholas, and Hoysalas imposed special taxes on them.
• Despite such obstacles, Ajivikas continued to have influence along the Palar river.
• In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed into Vaishnavism.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain briefly, about Jain Literature.
Answer:
Jain literature is generally classified into two major categories.
1. Agama Sutras:

• Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the Jain religion.
• They have been written in the Ardha-magadhi Prakrit language.
• Containing the direct preaching of Mahavira, consisting of 12 texts, they were originally compiled by immediate disciples of Mahavira.
• The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.

2. Non-Agama Literature:

• Non-Agama literature includes commentary and explanation of Agama Sutras, and independent works, compiled by ascetics and scholars.
• They are written in many languages such as Prakrit, Sanskrit, old Marathi, Rajasthani, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Tamil, German and English.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

7th Social Science Guide Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Road safety is meant for
a) Passersby
b) drivers
c) public
d) all who use roads
Answer:
d) all who use roads

Question 2.
Road accidents affect a country’s
a) improvement
b) life
c) finance
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 3.
Permit refers to
a) permission for driving
b) permission for carrying goods
c) certificate for drivers
d) registration of vehicles
Answer:
a) permission for driving

Question 4.
Raksha safe drive is a device useful for
a) pedestrians
b) motorists
c) car drivers
d) passengers
Answer:
c) car drivers

Question 5.
Road safety week celebration was first imitated in India in the year
a) 1947
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 2019
Answer:
b) 1989

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The most useful invention of man for transport is ………………….
Answer:
wheel

2. Using …………………. is inevitable in our journey of life.
Answer:
Helmet

3. Too many vehicles on the road cause …………………. and …………………. pollution.
Answer:
Air, Noise

4. …………………. is the monetary supporter of a family.
Answer:
Breadwinner

5. In case of emergency for medical assistance call …………………. for help.
Answer:
108

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Informatory sign	a) Traffic lights
2. The Legal Metrology Act	b) Narrow bend sign
3. Mandatory sign	c) Petrol pump sign
4. Cautionary sign	d) License
5. Right to drive a vehicle	e) walkers

Answer:

A	B
1. Informatory sign	c) Petrol pump sign
2. The Legal Metrology Act	e) walkers
3. Mandatory sign	a) Traffic lights
4. Cautionary sign	b) Narrow bend sign
5. Right to drive a vehicle	d) License

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion (A) : Car pooling is the use of vehicles by turns. Reason (R) : It saves fuel, time and money and also.
a) A is correct and R is not correct
b) A is correct and R is also correct
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
c) A is wrong and R is correct

Question 2.
Find the odd one
a) car
b) trucks
c) tempos
d) aeroplanes
Answer:
d) aeroplanes

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) Road safety education in the school curriculum is an additional burden for the students.
Answer:
False

b) An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching.
Answer:
True

c) Hoarding on roads has to be banned.
Answer:
True

d) Following road safety rules from childhood will become a habit in future.
Answer:
True

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the distractors while driving?
Answer:

• This is a larger threat and the leading cause of road accidents.
• It is the distraction of the driver, engaging in any other activity while driving.
• It may be talking over the mobile phone or texting messages or engaging in any activities with attention diverted from driving.

Question 2.
Mention the 2 safety gears for safe driving.
Answer:

• Obey the traffic rules and signs.
• Keep vehicle fit.

Question 3.
Why is not safe to drive at night?
Answer:

• Extra alertness is needed while driving at night.
• Uncontrolled sleep, tiredness due to the long drive, poor lighting on the road can cause fatal accidents.

Question 4.
When can a person obtain the night to drive a vehicle?
Answer:
As per Indian law, one should be eligible to get a driving license at the age of 18.

Question 5.
How can media promote road safety among the public?
Answer:
Mass media and journals could play a key role to raise awareness of road safety. In particular, they can disseminate preventive messages and promote safe behaviours, increase people’s knowledge and understanding of the gravity of the problem, and advocate for safer roads and systems.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the documents necessary for an Indian while driving.
Answer:
One who drives a vehicle should have undergone the training and tests to obtain a driving license.
It is compulsory to have the following documents:

• driving license
• registration certificate of the vehicle
• Insurance certificate
• Taxation certificate
• fitness certificate and permit.

Question 2.
What is the need for including road safety education in the school curriculum?
Answer:

• Provide Road Safety education since childhood.
• It has to be made a part of the school curriculum, syllabus, textbook and included in competition on road safety.
• Activities like writing slogans, essays, and paintings on this theme should be conducted for reinforcement.

Question 3.
How can parents teach their children road safety rules?
Answer:

• Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
• If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will initiate the same in the future.
• So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and regulations.
• Video and computer games that simulate driving should be banned by the government.
• Help your children learn about traffic signals and rules.
• Warn them not to run across or along the road.
• Teach them to use the footpath while walking on the road.

HOTs:

Question 1.
Knowing the road safety rules, how will you influence your parents and relatives?
Answer:

1. We will educate parents on following road safety rules.
2. Explain the risk of not wearing a helmet.
3. We will insist our parents wear a seat belt while driving a car.
4. We will tell them not to exceed the speed limit while riding or driving.

Question 2.
If the wheel had not been invented, what might have been our mode of transport?
Answer:

• If the wheel had not been invented, there is a need for road transport.
• Walking would have been the only mode of transport.

7th Social Science Guide Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1
……………….. is the world’s largest contributor to road accidents.
a) China
b) India
c) Africa
d) none
Answer:
b) India

Question 2.
India accounts for about ……………….. of road accident fatalities at worldwide.
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 10%
d) 20%
Answer:
c) 10%

Question 3.
……………….. failure can result in crucial collisions.
a) Brake
b) Accelerator
c) Gear
d) all of these
Answer:
a) Brake

Question 4.
The Government of India observes; Road Safety Week; awareness during ……………….. Every year.
a) December
b) January
c) November
d) none
Answer:
b) January

Question 5.
Every country celebrates ……………….. week.
a) Road safety
b) Road rules
c) Regulation
d) Traffic Signs
Answer:
a) Road safety

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Accident occurs to the ……………….. of the driver, engaging in any other activity while driving.
Answer:
distraction

2. ……………….. is a major traffic violation of rules.
Answer:
Reckless driving

3. Increase of ……………….. on the road create a heavy traffic jam and cause more pollution.
Answer:
vehicles
4. Impatience of ……………….. and violation of traffic rules result in accidents.
Answer:
Pedestrians

5. Avoiding the use of ……………….. for two-wheelers lead to unwanted happenings.
Answer:
helmets

6. ……………….. is a device capable of automatic crash detection.
Answer:
Raksha safe drive

7. ……………….. will reduce the number of vehicles on the road.
Answer:
Carpooling

8. Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education ………………..
Answer:
young ones

9. ……………….. is a healthy habit and reduces pollution.
Answer:
Cycling

10. ……………….. act as silent conductors of the traffic on the road.
Answer:
Traffic signs

III. Match the following

A	B
1. Night driving	a) Safe instrument
2. Driving license	b) Loss their Stability
3. Raksha drive	c) Road safety week
4. Drinking alcohol	d) tiredness
5. January month	e) Age 18

Answer:

A	B
1. Night driving	d) tiredness
2. Driving license	e) Age 18
3. Raksha drive	a) Safe instrument
4. Drinking alcohol	b) Loss their Stability
5. January month	c) Road safety week

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Reckless driving is a major traffic violation of rules.
Reason (R) : In which the driver Purposely disregards the rules of the road.
a) A is correct and R is not correct
b) A is correct and R is also correct
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
b) A is correct and R is also correct

Question 2.
Find the odd one.
a) STOP OR SLOW DOWN
b) BUCKLE UP
c) WEAR HELMET
d) KEEP VEHICLES FIT
e) PROHIBITION the hoarding soil
Answer:
e) PROHIBITION the hoarding soil

V. Answer in one or two sentences :

Question 1.
Define Raksha safe drive.
Answer:
Raksha safe drive is a device capable of automatic crash detection, two-way call connectivity, GPS tracking, engine health monitoring, and a smart panic button.

Question 2.
Write short notes on Carpooling.
Answer:
Carpooling is the sharing of car journeys so that more than one person travels in the car, and prevents the need for more cars to the same location.

Question 3.
Write the impact of Alcohol.
Answer:

• Alcohol leads to fatal accidents.
• Alcohol affects your vision, judgment, and ability to react quickly.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Golden Rules for Road Safety.
Answer:

• Stop or slow down
• Buckle up
• Obey traffic rules and signs
• Obey speed limits
• Keep vehicle fit
• Never use mobile while driving
• Wear helmet
• Never drive dangerously
• Be courteous
• Never mix drinking and driving.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 2 Chapter 1 Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 2 Chapter 1 Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms

7th Social Science Guide Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who was the greatest ruler of Sangama Dynasty?
a) Bukka
b) Devaraya II
c) Harihara II
d) Krishna Devaraya
Answer:
b). Devaraya II

Question 2.
Which was the most common animal depicted on the pillars of Vijayanagara style?
a) Elephant
b) Horse
c) Cow
d) Deer
Answer:
b) Hors

Question 3.
Who was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty?
a) Rama Raya
b) Tirumaladeva Raya
c) Devaraya II
d) Virupaksha Raya II
Answer
d) Virupaksha Raya II

Question 4.
Who ended the Sultanate in Madurai?
a) Saluva Narasimha
b) Devaraya II
c) Kumara Kampana
d) Tirumaladeva Raya
Answer:
c) Kumara Kampana

Question 5.
Name the Bahmani King who was a linguist and a poet.
a) Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah
b) Muhammad I
c) Sultan Firoz
d) Mujahid
Answer:
c) Sultan Firoz

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………..was the capital of the Aravidu dynasty.
Answer:
Penukonda

2. Vijayanagar emperor’s issued a large number of gold coins called …………………….
Answer:
Varaha’s

3. Mahmud Gawan used …………………. chemists to teach the preparation and use of gunpowder.
Answer:
Persian

4. In Vijayanagara administration ……………… looked after the affairs of villages.
Answer:
Gauda

III. Match the following:

1. Vijayanagara	a) Ruler of Odisha
2. Prataparudra	b) Astadiggajas
3. KrishnaDevaraya	c) Pandurangamahatyam
4. Abdur Razzaq	d) City of victory
5. Tenali Ramakrishna	e) Persian emissary

Answer:

1. Vijayanagara	d) City of victory
2. Prataparudra	a) Ruler of Odisha
3. KrishnaDevaraya	b) Astadiggajas
4. Abdur Razzaq	e) Persian emissary
5. Tenali Ramakrishna	c)Pandurangamahatyam

IV.Match the statement with the reason. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Vijayanagar army was considered one of the feared armies in India.
Reason (R) : Vijayanagar armies used both firearms and cavalry.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find out the wrong pair
a) Silk – China
b)Spices – Arabia
c) Precious stone – Burma
d)Madurai Vijayam – Gangadevi
Answer:
b) Spices – Arabia

Question 3.
Find the odd one out
Harihara II, Muhammad I, Krishnadeva Raya, Devaraya I.
Answer:

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct
I) Turquoise throne is one of the bejeweled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s Shah Nama.
II) The fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra and Krishna-Godavari delta were the zones of conflict among the rulers of Vijayanagar, and Bahmani.
III) Muhammad I was educated at Multan.
IV) Mahmud Gawan served with great distinction as the Prime Minister under Muhammad III.
a) i), ii) are correct
b) i), ii), iii) are correct
c) ii), iii), iv) are correct
d) iii), iv) are correct
Answer:
i), ii) are correct

V.True or False:

Question 1.
Harihara and Bukka were the founders of the Bahmani kingdom.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Krishnadeva Raya, who reigned for 20 years, was the most illustrious ruler of the Sangama dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Alasani Peddana was the greatest of all Astadiggajas.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Kingship of Vijayanagar administration was hereditary, based on the principle of primogeniture.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
There were 18 monarchs of the Bahmani dynasty.
Answer:
True

VI.Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
The four dynasties of the Vijayanagara kingdom with reference to prominent rulers of each dynasty.
Answer:
Four dynasties of the Vijayanagara kingdom and its prominent rulers are:

1. Sangama Dynasty – Devaraya II
2. Saluva Dynasty – Saluva Narasimha
3. Tuluva Dynasty – Krishnadevaraya
4. Aravidu Dynasty – Tirumaladeva

Question 2.
Battle of Talikota.
Answer:

• The Sultans of Deccan kingdoms forming a league to fight against the Vijayanagar Empire.
• The battle is known as ‘Rakasa Tangadi’ or ‘Battle of Talikota’.
• They fought at Talikota in 1565 A.D. Vijayanagar was defeated.
• All the buildings, Palaces and temples were destroyed in the capital city Hampi.

Question 3.
The structure of governance in the Vijayanagar kingdom.
Answer:

• The Vijayanagar empire was divided into different mandalams, nadus, sthalas and gramas.
• Each province was administered by Mandalesvara.
• Each village had a grama sabha. Gauda, village headman, looked after the affairs of the village.
• They maintained the army consisted of the infantry, cavalry with a firearm, and elephant corps.

Question 4.
The five independent kingdoms of Deccan Sultanate.
Answer:
The five independent kingdoms of Deccan were Bidar, Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Berar and Golconda.

Question 5.
The educational reforms of Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah.
Answer:

• Hasan Shah took special care in founding a school to educate his sons.
• He opened institutions for the children of noble families in the art of soldiery.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Discuss the career and achievements of Krishna Devaraya.
Answer:
(i) Krishnadevaraya who reigned for 20 years was the most illustrious ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.

(ii) He brought under control the independent chieftains in the Tungabhadra river basin.

(iii) The Bahmani sultan, Mahmud Shah, had been overthrown and kept in imprisonment by his minister. Krishnadevaraya freed the sultan and restored him to the throne. Prataparudra negotiated for peace and offered to marry off his daughter to him.

(iv) Accepting the offer, Krishnadevaraya returned the territory he had conquered from Prataparudra.

(v) Krishnadevaraya, with the assistance of the Portuguese gunners, could easily defeat the Sultan of Golconda and subsequently take over Raichur from the ruler of Bijapur.

A Great Builder:

(i) Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and reservoirs for harvesting rainwater.

(ii) He built the famous temples of Krishnaswamy, Hazara Ramaswamy and Vithalaswamy in the capital city of Hampi.

(iii) He distributed the wealth he gained in wars to all major temples of South India for the purpose of constructing temple gateways (gopura), called ‘Rayagopuram,’ in his honour.

(iv) He had good friendly relationship with the Portuguese and Arabian traders, which increased the Empire’s income through customs.

Patron of Literature, Art and Architecture:
Krishnadevaraya patronised art and literature. Eight eminent luminaries in literature known as astadiggajas adorned his court.

VIII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes for the decline of the Vijayanagar rule. To what extent the Bahmani sultans contributed to it?
Answer:

• After Krishna Devaraya, the rulers were inefficient in the Vijayanagar empire. Making use of the situation the commanders declared independence.
• There were frequent wars between Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdom which made the country economically weak.
• Finally, the sultans of Deccan Kingdoms formed a league against Vijayanagar. The combined forces of the enemies defeated Vijayanagar in the Battle of Talikota in 1565 A.D.
• These sultans destroyed the buildings, palaces, temples and the capital city of Hampi.

X. Answer Grid:

1. Name the kingdom ruled by 18 monarchs which lasted for nearly 180 years.
Answer:
Bahmani Kingdom

2. Name the Bahmani Sultan who was restored to the throne by Krishna Devaraya?
Answer:
Mahmud Shah

3. Name the book written by Krishna Devaraya in Sanskrit.
Answer:
Jambavati Kaiyanam

4. Where did Hasan Bahman Shah shift his capital.
Answer:
Gulbarga

7th Social Science Guide Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The repressive measures of which Muslim king led to the rise of newly independent states?
a) Balban
b) Ala – ud – din Khilji
c) Muhammed – bin – Tughlaq
d) Firoz Tuglagq
Answer:
c) Muhammed – bin – Tughlaq

Question 2.
Battle of TaliKota was fought in the year.
a) 1550
b) 1555
c) 1560
d) 1565
Answer:
d) 1565

Question 3.
The poem Madura Vijayam composed by
a) Kumara Kampana
b) Ganga Devi
c) Ibn Battuta
d) Abdur Razzaq
Answer:
b) Ganga Devi

Question 4.
The Eight Eminent Luminaries in Literature were known as
a) Ashoka Pradhan
b) Navaratnas
c) Anju Vannathar
d) Astadiggajas
Answer:
d) Astadiggajas

Question 5.
A Persian emissary who visited the court of Krishna Devaraya was
a) Wassuf
b) Marcopolo
c) IbnBattuta
d) Abdur Razzaq
Answer:
d) Abdur Razzaq

Question 6.
Who wrote a Telugu epic Amuktamalyada
a) Krishna Devaraya
b) Tenali Ramakrishna
c) Allasani Pethana
d) Tukkanna
Answer:
a) Krishna Devaraya

Question 7.
The Bahmani Kingdom was established in the year …………………………
a) 1327
b) 1337
c) 1347
d) 1350
Answer:
c) 1347

Question 8.
The territorial divisions of Bhamani Kingdom was …………………………
a) District
b) City
c) Tarafs
d) Capital
Answer:
Tarafs

Question 9.
Wasir – i – ashraf was the minister of in the Bahmani Kingdom
a) Finance
b) Deputy finance
c) Foreign affairs
d) Police affairs
Answer:
c) Foreign affairs

Question 10.
The eighth Bahmani king was……………………….
a) Mahmud bavan
b) Muhammad
c) Zahan khan
d) Sultan firoz
Answer:
d) sultan firoz

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In South India, ……….. and ………… are the two great kingdoms.
Answer:
Vijayanagar, Bahmani

2. Vijayanagar means ………….
Answer:
the city of victory

3. ……………., head of Saivite Sringeri mutt instructed to establish the Vijayanagar kingdom.
Answer:
Vidyaranya

4. The Vijayanagar ruler who recruited Muslim fighters in their army was ……………
Answer:
Devaraya II

5. Saluva Dynasty was founded by …………………
Answer:
Saluva Narasimha

6. Tuluva Dynasty was founded by …………………
Answer:
Naras Nayaka

7. Krishna deva Raya, with the assistance of the ……………….. easily defeated the Sultan of Golconda.
Answer:
Portuguese gunners

8. Rayagopuram were built by …………….
Answer:
Krishna Devaraya

9. The notable in Krishnadevaraya Patron was ………………….
Answer:
Tenali Ramakrishna

10. Battle of Talikota also known as ……………………
Answer:
Rakasa Tangadi

11. Krishna Devaraya was succeeded by …………………….
Answer:
Achtyuda Deva Raya

12. Vijayanagar Empire collapsed in the year ……………………
Answer:
1646

13. Vijayanagar Provinces were administered by …………………
Answer:
Mandalesvara

14. The new style of temple building temple was introduced by Vijayanagar rulers is called …………………..
Answer:
Vijayanagara style

15. ………………contributed extensively to the development of the bhamani kingdom
Answer:
Mahamud Gawan

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Bidar	a) Madura Vijayan
2. Ganga Devi	b) Vijaya Nagar
3. Goda Devi	c) Madrasa
4. Hampi	d) Amukta malyada

Answer:

A	B
1. Bidar	c) Madrasa
2. Ganga Devi	a) Madura Vijayam
3. Goda Devi	d) Amukta malyada
4. Hampi	b) Vijaya Nagar

lV. Match the statement with the reason. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Several foreign nobles of the state to leave for their Provinces.
Reason (R) : Gawan was executed.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of

Question 2.
Find the odd one out
a) Muhammad -1
b) Mujahid
c) Gawan
d) Shihab – ud – din Mahmud
Answer:
c) Gawan

V. State true or false:

Question 1.
Vijayanagar temple architecture belonged to the Dravidian style of Architecture
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The Capturing fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra was the major cause for the wars between Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdom
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Delhi Sultanate was gradually broken up into six independent Deccan Kingdoms
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Amir – i – Jumla was the finance minister of the Bahmani Kingdom.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is Astadiggajas?
Answer:

• Astadiggajas were the eight eminent luminaries in literature adorned in the court of Krishnadevaraya
• Alasani Peddana and Tenali Ramakrishnan were the notable persons in Astadiggajas.

Question 2.
What are countries did Vijayanagar had trade contact?
Answer:
Vijayanagar traded with Persia, South Africa, Portugal, Arabia, China, Burma, South East Asia, and Sri Lanka.

Question 3.
Who were the important scholars in Vijayanagar Empire?
Answer:
Srinatha, Pothana, Jakkama, Duggana, Tenali Ramakrishna and Allasani Peddana were important scholars in the Vijayanagar Empire.

Question 4.
What is Turquoise?
Answer:

• Turquoise is a semi-precious stone sky blue in colour.
• It is one of the bejewelled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s Shah Nama.

Question 5.
What is the Special feature of Golconda fort?
Answer:

• The Golconda Fort is located about 11 kilometers from Hyderabad.
• The fort is popular for its acoustic architecture.
• The highest point of the fort is Bala Hissar.
• There is a secret underground tunnel, which leads from the Durbar Hall to one of the palaces at the foot of the hills.

VII. Answer in detail:
Question 1.
Describe the eight ministers of the Bahmani state.
Eight ministers of the Bahmani state:
Answer:

1.  Vakil-us-saltana – Lieutenant of the Kingdom.
2.  Peshwa – He was associated with the lieutenant.
3.  Waziri – kull-He supervised the work of all other ministers.
4.  Amir-i-jumla – Minister for finance.
5.  Nazir – Assistant minister for finance.
6.  Wasir-i-ashraf – Minister of foreign affairs.
7.  Kotwal – Chief of police and city magistrate.
8. Sadr-i-jahan – Chief justice and minister of religious affairs and endowments.

Question 2.
Explain the life and achievements of Mahmud Gawan.
Answer:
Life of Mahmud Gawan:

• Mahmud Gawan was a Persian and prime minister of Muhammad HI, the sultan of Bahmani Kingdom.
• He well versed in Islamic theory, Persian, and mathematics.
• He was also a poet and a prose writer.

Achievements:

• Gawan was known for his military campaigns as well as administrative reforms.
• He used gun powder in the battle against the Vijayanagar kings in Belgaum.
• To control the provincial governors. Gawan divided the four provinces of the Sultanate into eight provinces.
• The administrative reforms introduced by Gawan improved the efficiency of the Government.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The oldest type of tourism is …………………
a) Religious
b) Historical
c) Adventure
d) Recreational
Answer:
a) Religious

Question 2.
In which state is the Kaziranga national park located.
a) Rajasthan
b) West Bengal
c) Assam
d) Gujarat
Answer:
c) Assam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a beach of India?
a) Goa
b) cochin
c) Kovalam
d) Miami
Answer:
d) Miami

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in India?
a) Nal sarovor in Gujarat
b) Koonthakulam in Tamil Nadu
c) Bharatpur in Rajasthan
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh
Answer:
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh

Question 5.
In which district Courtallam waterfalls is located?
a) Dharmapuri
b) Tirunelveli
c) Namakkal
d) Theni
Answer:
b) Tirunelveli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The three main components of tourism together known as …………………………….
Answer:
A3 concept

2. Gastronomy refers to an aspect of …………….tourism.
Answer:
cultural

3. Suruli falls is also called as………………..
Answer:
Cloudland falls / Meghamalai Falls

4. The second largest urban beach is
Answer:
Marina Beach, Chennai

5. Expansion of TAAI
Answer:
Travel Agents Association of India

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Transport, Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities
2. Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, Digha
3. Corbett, Sundarbans, Periyar, Mayani
4. Hogenakal, Kumbakkarai, Suruli, Kalakad
5. Rishikesh, Ladakh, Gulmarg, Kotagiri
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

1. Anamalai hills	a) West Bengal
2. Monkey falls	b) Goa
3. Darjeeling	c) Coimbatore
4. Nature’s Haven	d) Top slip
5. Aguda Beach	e) Javadi

Answer:

1. Anamalai hills	d) Top slip
2. Monkey falls	c) Coimbatore
3. Darjeeling	a) West Bengal
4. Nature’s Haven	e) Javadi
5. Aguda Beach	b) Goa

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer: 

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tourism is an essential activity for the life of the society.
Reason (R) : Its direct impact on social cultural, education and economic sector of the nation.
a) A and R are correct and A explains R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : One of the most popular beaches in Goa, Calangute is a treat for the adventure sports activities.
Reason (R) : Foreigners throng the beaches.
a) A and R are correct and A explain R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explain R

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourism.
Answer:
Tourism is an essential part of the life of the society because of its direct impact on the social, cultural, educational, and economic sectors of the nation and on their international relations too.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Eco-Tourism.
Answer:

• Ecotourism is travel to destinations where plants and animals thrive in a naturally preserved environment.
• Ex: Amazon rain forest, African forest safari.

Question 3.
What are the basic elements of Tourism?
Answer:
The basic elements of tourism are

• Pleasant weather
• Scenic beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

Question 4.
Name any five hill stations in India.
Answer:
Kodaikanal, Darjeeling, Nainital, Mussoorie, Gulmarg, etc.

Question 5.
Name any five beaches in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Kovalam Beach, Marina Beach, Elliot Beach, Mahabalipuram Beach, Silver Beach.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
International Tourism and Historical Tourism.
Answer:
International Tourism:

1. International tourism refers to tourism that crosses national borders
2. Globalization has made tourism a popular global leisure activity.

Historical Tourism

1. Historical tourism is primarily focused upon historical places.
2. The individuals make visits to these places with the purpose of leisure as well as acquiring information.

Question 2.
Religious Tourism and Adventure Tourism.
Answer:

Religious Tourism:

1. Religious tourism is one of the oldest types of tourism, wherein people travel individually or in groups for a pilgrimage to a religious location such as temples, churches, mosques, and other religious places.
2. Religious tours to Kasi (Varanasi) by Hindus, Jerusalem by Christians, and Mecca by Muslims are a few of examples of religious tourism.

Adventure Tourism:

1. Adventure tourism is a type of tourism involving travel to remote or exotic places in order to take part in physically challenging outdoor activities
2. For e.g. skydive in Australia, Bungee jumping in New Zealand, mountaineering in the peaks of the Himalayas, rafting in the Brahmaputra River at Arunachala Pradesh.

Question 3.
Attraction and Accessibility
Answer:
Attraction:

1. Attractions mainly comprise of two types such as: Natural attraction, Cultural attraction
2. The natural attraction includes landscape, seascape, beaches, climatic condition and forests. Cultural attractions are historic monuments and other intellectual creations. Apart from this, cultural attractions also include fairs and festivals.

Accessibility:

1. Accessibility means reachability to a particular place of attraction through various means of transportation such as road, rail, water and air.
2. Transport decides the cost of travel and the time consumed in reaching or accessing a specific attraction.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the geographical components of tourism?
Answer:
There are seven geographical components of tourism They are

1. Landforms: Mountains
2. Water: Waterfalls, hot Springs, geysers
3. Vegetation:  Forest, grasslands, deserts
4. Climate:  Sunshine, clouds, snow
5. Animal life:  Game reserves, zoo, hunting and fishing
6. The settlement features: Historical remains, monuments, towns
7. Culture: Way of life, traditions, folklore, arts.

Question 2.
Write briefly about the waterfalls in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Waterfalls in Tamil Nadu attracts many tourists.
A trek amidst thick green trees steep hills and a bath in the gushing water is most rejuvenating. The  famous waterfalls of Tamil Nadu are:

1. 1. Hogenekal falls in Dharmapuri
   2. Kumbakkarai in Kodaikanal
   3. Monkey falls in Coimbatore
   4. Killiyur falls in Shervarayan hills
   5. Courtallam in Tirunelveli District
   6. Agaya Gangai in Puliancholai
   7.  Suruli falls in Theni District.

Question 3.
Describe the environmental impact of tourism?
Answer:
The tourism industry created several positive and negative impacts on the environment.
Positive Impacts:

1. Direct financial contributions.
2. Contributions to government revenues.
3. Improved environmental management and planning.
4. Increasing environmental awareness.
5. Protection and preservation of the environment.

Negative Impacts:

1. Depletion of natural water local resources and land degradation.
2. Air pollution, noise pollution, solid waste, littering, and sewage.
3. Air, water, and soil destruction and alteration of eco-System.

IX.HOTs:

Question 1.
Why do we like sightseeing so much?
Answer:

• Sightseeing is considered to be one of the most important activities a tourist chooses to take part in reaching a destination.
• Sightseeing gives the tourist a chance to know a destination and experience it.
• Some people like adventures and to escape their normal monotonous life.
• So some people like sightseeing so much.

Question 2.
What are the ways to protect the sanctuaries?
Answer:

• Adopt: From wild animals to wild places, there’s an option for everyone.
• Volunteer: if you don’t have money to give, donate your time.
• Visit zoos, aquariums, national parks, and wildlife refuges that are all home to wild animals.
• Donate
• Speak up
• Buy responsibility
• Pitch in
• Recycle
• Restore
• Join

Question 3.
List any five reasons for travelling.
Answer:

• We travel to learn, whether it’s learning a new language or learning about an area’s history, travel allows us to learn so many different things.
• We travel to escape. Travel provides a momentary break from the humdrum of our daily lives.
• We travel to discover.
• We travel to make new friends.
• We travel to experience.

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The word Gastronomy refers to
a) Cultural Tourism
b) Medical Tourism
c) adventure Tourism
d) Eco-Tourism
Answer:
a) Cultural Tourism

Question 2.
The largest mountain ranges in India is the
a) Aravallis
b) Vindhya
c) the Himalayas
d) the Western Ghats
Answer:
c) the Himalayas

Question 3.
Which Waterfalls is known as …………….. Niagara fall of India?
a) Aathirapally
b) Jog
c) Kurtallam
d) Monkey falls
Answer:
a) Aathirapally

Question 4.
The length of the coastline of India
a) 7017 Km
b)7217K.m
c) 7417 Km
d) 7517 km
Answer:
d) 7517 km

Question 5.
The princess of Hill stations is
a) Yercaud
b) Ooty
c) Kodaikanal
d) Simla
Answer:
c) Kodaikanal

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The word ‘Tourist’ is derived from ……………..
Answer:
Tourian

2. …………….. tourism is for a fun activity.
Answer:
Recreation

3. The Indian subcontinent has …………….. principal mountain ranges.
Answer:
Seven

4. Gangtok is in the state of ……………..
Answer:
Sikkim

5. Tamil Nadu is popularly known as the land of ……………..
Answer:
Temples

6. There are around …………….. ancient temples in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
33,000

7. Ooty is called as ……………..
Answer:
Queen of Hills

8. In Tamil Nadu …………….. of the land comprises of thick forests.
Answer:
17.6%

9. The total area of Tamilnadu is ……………..
Answer:
130, 058 Sqkm

10. The poor man’s Ooty is ……………..
Answer:
Yercaud

11. Velliangiri Hills is known as ……………..
Answer:
Kailash of the south.

12. Gir National Park in Gujarat is specified for ……………..
Answer:
Lions

13. Kaziranga National Park is in ………………
Answer:
Assam

14. TTDC means ……………..
Answer:
Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation.

15. Horse tail type waterfalls are…………….. falls in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Thalaiyar Water

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Wind, Water, Soil, Computer
2. Attraction, Accessibility, Amenities, Pollution
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

1. Cuindy National park	a) Nilgiris
2. Gulf of mannar Marine park	b) Coimbatore
3. Indira Gandhi National Park	c) Ramanathapuram
4. Mudumalai National Park	d) Chennai

Answer:

1. Cuindy National park	d) Chennai
2. Gulf of Mannar Marine park	c) Ramanathapuram
3. Indira Gandhi National Park	b) Coimbatore
4. Mudumalai National Park	a) Nilgiris

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu Tourists achieve more than twenty percent annual growth.
Reason (R) : Exploring new avenues like medical tourism and adventure tourism.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourist.
Answer:
The word ‘tourist’ is derived from the word ‘tourian’ refers to a person who travels out of his usual environment for not more than one year and less than 24 hours.

Question 2.
What are the Amenities?
Answer:
Amenities are the facilities that cater to the needs of a tourist.

Question 3.
Mention the types of Tourism
Answer:
Religious Tourism, Cultural Tourism, Historical Tourism, Eco-Tourism, Adventure Tourism, and Recreational Tourism.

Question 4.
What is Recreational Tourism?
Answer:

* Recreational tourism aims at enjoyment, amusement or pleasure are mainly for fun activities.
* Waterfalls, hill stations, beaches, and amusement parks are the spots for recreational tourism.

Question 5.
What are the basic elements of Tourism attraction?
Answer:

• Certain elements are fundamental to attract tourists travel destination, They are
• Pleasant weather
• Science beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Distinguish between Positive impact Negative Impact
Positive Impact

1. Direct financial contribution
2. Improved environmental management and planning
3. Increasing awareness and preservation of the environment

Negative Impact

1. Depletion natural resources
2. Air, noise, Solid waste litering, and savage pollution
3. Destruction and Alteration in Air, water Soil Ecosystem

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Define VISA. Explain the types of VISA.
Answer:
VISA is a document issued to a person or a stamp marked on the passport of a person who wants to visit another country.
The types of VISA are

1. Tourist VISA – to go for recreation.
2. Student VISA – to go for higher education
3. Employment VISA – to go to work
4. Medical VISA – to go for medical treatment.

Question 2.
Estimate the tourist attractions in India.
Answer:

• India is a country known for its hospitality with spicy food and culture.
• Varied lifestyle, culture, heritage, colourful fairs, and festivals are abiding attractions for the tourists.
• Varied climate, rich resources for eco, adventure, technological parks, science museums* pilgrimage centres with wonderful art and architecture are an added advantage for tourists.
• Yoga, Ayurveda, and health resorts attract tourists from all over the world.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Play Chapter 1 Jane Eyre Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Play Chapter 1 Jane Eyre

7th English Guide Jane Eyre Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 136)

Every child has a right to an education, a life free from poverty and protection from abuse. (Text Book Page No. 136)

Look at the picture.

Discuss in pairs and answer:

1. What are the basic human rights?
Answer:
Right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion and expression, the right to work and education right to equality, means to satisfy one’s basic needs, universal protection are basic rights.

2. What is education?
Answer:
Education shall be free at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedom.

3. Why do we need education?
Answer:
Every individual irrespective of race, gender, nationality, ethnic or social origin, religion or political preference age or disability, is entitled to an education. Education is very important and no one should be deprived of it, Education gives us knowledge. It develops in us the right perspective of life. It helps us build opinions and have points of view on things in life.

Think and Answer:

1. How would life be on this planet if some of the human rights are excluded?
Answer:
Life on this planet would become more difficult for the commoners if some of the human rights are excluded.

2. Are there any rights you would still like to add to the human rights list?
Answer:
Yes. Protection from sexual harassment of female children can be included as a basic right. Availability of pure drinking water, hygienic food for all children must be made basic human rights. There are thousands of street children in our country who have no protection, food, or drinking water.

Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 144)

1. Why does Jane want to go to school or learn anything in the first place?
Answer:
Jane wants to learn life’s lessons that shape her character as an adult.

2. Why does education become such an important issue for her as a child?
Answer:
Jane was an orphan. If she had to be independent she must have her own earnings so that she could stand on her own legs.

3. What does Jane’s education at Lowood prepare her to do?
Answer:
Jane’s education at Lowood prepares her to understand the world in the teacher-student relationship

Chew on This

Try on an opinion or two and start a debate
In Jane’s childhood, education takes the place of every single one of her emotional and physical needs – food, shelter, family, and friendship. Because Jane initially learns to understand the world in terms of a teacher – student relationship, all her friendships have some master – pupil tinge to them.

Vocabulary

Semantic Map

A. Read the list of words. Write down all the words related to those words. Create a “map” using a graphic organizer and discuss it in groups. One is done for you.

Answer:

Vocabulary Frame: (Text Book Page No. 145)

B. Look at the list of words. Read the instructions and make Vocabulary Frames.

Syllable (Text Book Page No. 145)

C. Fill in the table with monosyllabic, disyllabic and trisyllabic words from the play ‘Jane Eyre’.

Monosyllabic Words	Disyllabic Words	Trisyllabic Words
ten	servant	dependant
No	mo / ney/	co/llap/ses
red	fa/ther	hes/si/tate
show	child/ren	mo/ni/tors
me	win/dow	pro /ba/bly
goes	mat/ter	des/pe/rate
here	mor/ning	te/di/ous
way	bet/ter	en/ter/tain
died	sup/per	pre/dis/posed
want	ra/ther	cha/ri/ty
read	gi/ven	dif/fi/cult

Listening (Text Book Page No. 146)

D. Listen to the conversation between a father and daughter and say whether following statements are true or false.

1. Dad hasn’t been to this fishing spot since last year.
Answer:
True

2. Dad used to go fishing with his father.
Answer:
False

3. Dad has talked a lot about this fishing spot in the past.
Answer:
True

4. The daughter also loves to fish.
Answer:
False

5. Dad says his daughter MUST fish.
Answer:
False

6. The daughter is going to cook the fish.
Answer:
True

7. Dad’s fishing place hasn’t changed since he was a boy.
Answer:
False

Speaking

E. Imagine that below are some of the paintings of Jane Eyre. Discuss your partner and describe the paintings.

Painting (1) Tree:
In the first painting we see a single tree which has produced many beautiful flowers. Trees protect the Earth from pollution. Trees bring forth rain we need a variety of eco-system with diverse flora and fauna.

Painting (2) Snowy mountain:
The second painting of Jane Eyre shows the picture of snow capped mountains. The picture snows the scenic splendour of magical valley. This place appears to be a Paradise on Earth. While looking at the painting we can sense the pristine snowy landscape and the breath taking beauty of it. The place in the painting appears to be a blessed region with fresh air.

Painting (3) Land slide:
A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called land slide. Land slides are a type of mass wasting which denotes any down slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity. Landslides are caused by rain, earthquakes, volcanoes or other factors that make the slope unstable.

Painting (4) Yacht in the sea:
Yacht in the painting is of old type. Yachts may be of different types. There are fishing boats, small boats, sailing yacht etc. A sailing ship uses sails mounted on one or more masts to harness the power of wind and propel the vessel.

Role Play

F. Put students into groups of three and let them act as Jane.

Student A: You are Jane. You live with the Reeds. Tell the other students about your life there.

My Parents died when I was very young. I do not even remember them. Mr. Reed has been my uncle. He liked me. He took me in his house. When he died he got a promise from Mrs. Reed to take care of me. The children of Mrs. Reed tortured me beyond the limit. They scolded me and hit me badly. Though I did nothing wrong Mrs. Reed abused me and locked me in red room. There I got frightened. I thought my uncle Mr. Reed visited me in the red room. I screamed and fainted. I became ill. The doctor told that I had been suffering with fever. Only Bessie, the servant maid showed me some concern and love. No one else. My childhood at the house of Mrs. Reed was a real hell and nothing else.

Student B: You are Jane. You have been at Lowood School for a few months. Tell the other students about your life there.

When I went to the school at Lowood I was not aware that it was charity school for orphans. I went there and met Miss. Temple and Miss. Miller, teachers of the school. Miss. Temple was really kind to me. I befriended Helen Bums. Unfortunately she got infection and died. Out of eighty students forty five of them fell ill at the same time. Half starvation and severe cold made the students ill. After this incident fell the school improved. I was there six years as a student and two years as a teacher.

Student C: You are Jane. You are eighteen. You are going to work at Thornfield Hall as a teacher. Tell the other students about your hopes for your life.

After my laborious years in the school at Lowood, I became half desperate. I wanted liberty. So I advertised in The ‘Herald’ newspaper for situations. A week later I received a letter from Mrs.
Fairfax Thomfield. I left Lowood and went to Thomfield. Mrs. Fairfax was kind to me. I was anxious to see Miss. Fairfax. But Mrs. Fairfax said that she had no family. The house belonged to Mr. Rochester. His ward was Adela. Adela would be my pupil in future. Adela came running in the lawn in the morning. I saw her and talked to her. She looked beautiful. She said she liked dancing, singing and drawing. I started a new life as a governess in Thomfield.

After this, decide who is the unhappiest of the three ‘Janes’.
[Jane in the house of Mrs. Reed was the unhappiest moments of her life. Because she was too young and had no support to defend herself from violence.]

Reading (Text Book Page No. 147)

G. Read the story and fill in the grid by ticking each character’s qualities.

Discuss in pairs to rate the characteristic and give marks from 1 to 10 depending on the grade of each quality.
Justify your views in one or two sentences.

Answer:

Writing (Text Book Page No. 148)

H. Arrange the jumbled sentences and write a paragraph. Use appropriate conjunctions.

Jane Eyre had been an orphan. Mr. Reed, Jane’s uncle liked her but he died. Eventually. Jane was living with her aunt, Mrs. Reed. Mrs. Reed did not like Jane because Jane was not her, own daughter. Mr. Reed made Mrs. Reed promise to take care of Jane, but instead Mrs. Reed sent Jane away. When Jane was ten years old she was sent to Lowood school. There Jane got graduated. She stayed there as a teacher for two years. Afterwards she left for Thomfield, where she worked as a governess and she was happy there.

I. Read scene I. Discuss with your partner what Mrs. Reed might write about Jane in her letter to the owner of a school. Now complete her letter to Mr. Brockiehurst.

Answer:

Gateshead Hall, Gateshead Northumberland Mr. Brockiehurst Lowood Institution Lowood Durham Dear Sir, I understand that you have a school for charity children at Lowood. Here we have an orphan named Jane Eyre in my custody. Kindly admit her in your school at Lowood. So that she can get education. Kindly help me and also the orphan child. Thanking you, Yours sincerely, JMrs. Reed.

Grammar (Text Book Page No. 149)

J. Read the passage. Choose between a little, a lot of, a few, few, fewer, many and much to fill in the gap.

DON’T CALL US, WE’LL CALL YOU!

Two years ago, I moved to a new neighbourhood. There seemed to be very few people in this area without telephones, so I expected to get a new phone quickly. I applied for one as soon as I moved into my new house. ‘We aren’t supplying many new phones in your area’, an engineer told me. ‘A lot of people want new phones at the moment and the company is employing fewer engineers than last year so as to save money. A new phone won’t cost you much money, but it will take little time. We can’t do anything for you before December. ‘You need little patience if you’re waiting for a new phone and you need a few friends whose phones you can use as well. Fortunately, I had both. December came and went, but there was no sign of a phone. I went to the company’s local office to protest. ‘They told me I’d have a phone by December,’ I protested. ‘Which year?’ the assistant asked.

K. Read the Time Line of Harish. Write sentences using the present perfect tense.
Answer:
(for the Time Line see text book page – 149)

• 1971 – Harish has been born in Madurai.
• 1976 – Harish and his family have moved to Chennai.
• 1993 – Harish has finished college and started working for Indian Oil.
• 1996 – Harish has been promoted as a manager at Indian Oil.
• 1997 – Harish has met Amina.
• 2000 – Harish and Amina have got married.
• 2001 – They have got a child.

L. Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb. (Text Book Page No. 150)

Where had I gone? What had I done?
What had I seen?

I had never seen (see) such beautiful sights before I visited Paris in 2012. I saved (save) money for five years before I booked my trip to Paris. I was very excited! Before my trip to Paris, I had never been (be) out of India.

When I went to Paris, I spent many days touring the city. The city was big. Sometimes I got lost and asked for directions. I asked for directions in French. That was easy because I had been studying (study) French for two years before I visited Paris.

By the time I left Paris, I toured (tour) many beautiful places. The Eiffel Tower, the Notre Dame Cathedral, and the Luxembourg Gardens were just a few of the places I saw. Before I visited Paris, I had only seen (see) those places on television. –

M. Look at the picture and write eight sentences using prepositions.
Where is the rabbit?

1. The rabbit is behind the bag.
2. The rabbit is in front of the bag.
3. The rabbit is under the bag.
4. The rabbit is in the bag.
5. The rabbit is on the bag.
6. The rabbit is in between the bags.
7. The rabbit is beside the bag.
8. The rabbit is around the bag.

Comparative and Superlative Survey

N. Answer the questions below. Write your answers in the second column of the table. (Text Book Page No. 151)

a. How old are you?
Answer:
12 years

b. How tall are you?
Answer:
5 feet

c. What bicycle do you have?
Answer:
Ladybird

d. How many languages do you speak?
Answer:
2 languages

e. At what time do you usually wake up?
Answer:
6 Am

f. How far is your home from school?
Answer:
½ km

Answer:

O. Work in groups of six. Write the other students’ names at the top of the table. Interview each student using the above questions and complete the table with their answers.

When you have all the answers, use the results to write three comparative and three superlative sentences about the students in your group.

Examples:
I am the oldest in my group.
My bicycle is more colourful than Jane’s bicycle.

1. I am older than Babu in my class.
2. Leela is taller than Kala.
3. Leela’s bicycle is more expensive than my bicycle.
4. Leela speaks the highest number of languages in my class.
5. Babu is the one who wakes up at the earliest hour in the morning.
6. Babu’s house is the nearest house to my school.

Passive Voice (Text Book Page No. 152)

P. Read the following article about the amazing similarities between the assassination of John F. Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln; then underline the passive forms.

Abraham Lincoln was elected to Congress in 1846. Voters elected John. F. Kennedy to Congress in 1946.
Answer:
was elected

Lincoln was elected president in 1860. Voters elected Kennedy president in 1960.
Answer:
was elected

Both men were particularly concerned with civil rights.
Answer:
were cocerned

Both wives lost their children while living in the White House.
Answer:
lost

Lincoln was shot on a Friday. Someone shot Kennedy on a Friday.
Answer:
was shot

Lincoln was shot in the head. The gunman shot Kennedy in the head.
Answer:
was shot

Lincoln’s secretary was called Kennedy. Kennedy’s secretary was called Lincoln.
Answer:
was called, was called

Lincoln was assassinated by a Southerner. A Southerner assassinated Kennedy.
Answer:
was assassinated

Lincoln was succeeded by a Southerner named Johnson. A Southerner named Johnson succeeded Kennedy.
Answer:
was succeeded

Andrew Johnson, who succeeded Lincoln, was born in 1808.
Answer:
was born

Lyndon Johnson, who succeeded Kennedy, was born in 1908.
Answer:
was born

John Wilkes Booth, who assassinated Lincoln, was born in 1839. Lee Harvey Oswald, who assassinated Kennedy, was born in 1939.
Answer:
was born

Both assassins were known by their three names and both names are composed of fifteen letters.
Answer:
were known, are composed

Lincoln was shot at a theatre named “Ford”. The gunman shot Kennedy in a car called a “Lincoln that the company Ford made.
Answer:
was shot

Booth ran from the theatre and was caught in a warehouse. Oswald ran from a warehouse and the police caught him in a theatre.
Answer:
was caught

Booth was assassinated before his trial. Someone assassinated Oswald before his trial.
Answer:
was assassinated

Q. Reported Questions (Text Book Page No. 153)

1. Jane told Bessie that she would hide herself in the library with Uncle Reed’s book.
Answer:
Why did Jane tell Bessie that she would hide herself in the library with uncle Reed’s book?

2. John ordered Jane to come there when he called her.
Answer:
What did John order Jane?

3. Eliza asked Jane what she was doing then.
Answer:
What did Eliza ask Jane?

4. Mrs. Reed told Bessie to take her away to the red room and lock her in there.
Answer:
What did Mrs. Reed tell Bessie?

5. Miss. Temple asked Jane whether she could read and write.
Answer:
What did Miss. Temple ask Jane?

6. Miss. Miller asked Miss. Temple where she should put Jane.
Answer:
What did Miss. Miller ask Miss. Temple?

7. Jane asked Helen why they called it an institution.
Answer:
Why did they call the school an institution?

8. Helen asked Jane why she had come there.
Answer:
Why did you come here?

9. Jane asked Mrs. Fairfax whether she would have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax that night.
Answer:
Would I have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax this night?

10. Miss. Adela told Jane that she could sing and dance also.
Answer:
Can you sing and dance?

Project

S. Look at the story board. Read the captions given under each frame. Fill the bubbles and complete the story board. (Text Book Page No. 154)
Create your own story board for the scene ’At Thornfield’.
Make a power point presentation using the story board.

Answer:

Jane Eyre Summary in English

The story of Jane Eyre tells the hardships of an orphan child who started her life as a governess in a rich family. Though she confronted with difficulties, She kept on her principles. At the end, she got a happy life to live ever after.

Jane Eyre Summary in Tamil

ஜேன் ஐயரின் கதை, அநாதையான ஒரு பெண் குழந்தையின் துயரங்கள் பற்றிக் கூறுகிறது. இந்த அநாதை பெண் ஒரு பணக்கார வீட்டில் குழந்தைகளைப் பார்த்துக் கொள்ளும் ஆயாவாக தன் வாழ்வை ஆரம்பிக்கிறாள். நிறைய துயரங்களைச் சந்திக்கிறாள். இருப்பினும் தன் நெறிமுறைகளை காத்துக் கொள்கிறாள். இறுதியில் அவளுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியான வாழ்வு கிட்டுகிறது.

Jane Eyre About the Author in English

Jane Eyre is a novel written by an English novelist, poet, Charlotte Bronte. Her^ sisters Emily and Anne also were writers. Many of her novels including Jane Eyre had been converted to movies. The story of Jane Eyre came as a Tamil film named ‘Santhi Nilayam’.

Jane Eyre About the Author in Tamil

ஜேன் ஐயர் என்ற நாவல் ஆங்கில நாவல் ஆசிரியர், கவிஞர் சார்லட் பிரான்டியால் எழுதப்பட்டது. அவரது சகோதரிகள் எமிலி, ஆனி ஆகியோரும் எழுத்தாளர்கள் ஆவர். சார்லட்டின் நிறைய நாவல்கள் திரைப்படங்களாய் வெளிவந்துள்ளன. ஜேன் ஐயர், கதை, தமிழ் திரைப்படமாக சாந்தி நிலையம் என்ற பெயரில் வந்துள்ளது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production

7th Social Science Guide Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Production refers to ………….
a) destruction of utility
b) creation of utilities
c) exchange value
d) none of these
Answer:
b) creation of utilities

Question 2.
Utilities are in the nature of ……………
a) form utility
b) time utility
c) place utility
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

Question 3.
Primary factors are ……………..
a) land, capital
b) capital, labour
c) land, labour
d) none of these
Answer:
c) land, labour

Question 4.
The entrepreneur is also called …………….
a) exchanger
b) Agent
c) organizer
d) communicator
Answer:
c) organizer

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
Utility

2. Derived factors are ………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Capital,Organisation

3. …………. is a fixed in supply.
Answer:
Land

4. …………….. is the human input into the production process.
Answer:
Labour

5. ………………… is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.
Answer:
Capital

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Primary production	a) Adam Smith
2. Time utility	b) fishing, mining
3. Wealth of nation	c) entrepreneur
4. Human capital	d) stored for future
5. Innovator	e) education, health

Answer:

1. Primary production	b) fishing, mining
2. Time utility	d) stored for future
3. Wealth of nation	a) Adam Smith
4. Human capital	e) education, health
5. Innovator	c) entrepreneur

IV. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is a process of combining various material inputs and immaterial inputs in order to make something for consumption.

Question 2.
What is utility?
Answer:
Utility means want satisfying power of a product.

Question 3.
Name the types of utility.
Answer:
Utilities are in the nature of form utility, time utility, and place utility.

Question 4.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Organization

Question 5.
Define Labour.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines labour as, ‘the use of body or mind, partly or wholly, with a view to secure an income apart from the pleasure derived from the work’.

Question 6.
Define Division of labour.
Answer:
Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component processes and assigning each component in the hands of labour or a set of labourers, who are specialists in that particular process.

Question 7.
Write the forms of capital.
Answer:

1. Physical Capital or Material Resources, Ex. Machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
2. Money capital or Monetary resources, Ex. Bank deposits, shares and securities, etc.
3. Human capital or Human Resources Ex. Investments in education, training, and health

Question 8.
Write the three characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Answer:

• Identifying profitable investible opportunities.
• Deciding the location of the production unit.
• Making Innovations
• Deciding the reward payment.
• Taking risks and facing uncertainties.

V.Give brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the types of production?
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary production
3. Tertiary or service production

1. Primary Production:

• Primary production is industries that are extracting the gifts of nature from the earth’s surface and oceans.
• Ex: fishing, mining, agriculture.

2. Secondary Production:

• It is the manufacturing industry, conversion of raw material into finished good.
• Ex: Manufacture of clothes, cars and chemicals.

3. Tertiary production:

•  In the tertiary sector, all those services enable the finished goods to be put in the hands of consumers.
• Ex: Banking, transport, and communications.

Question 2.
What is the land? What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
Land is a factor of production and natural resource.

Characteristics of Land:
Land is a Free Gift of Nature:

• Land is not the outcome of human labour.
• It existed even long before the evolution of man.

Land is fixed in supply:

• The land quantity does not undergo any change and no alteration can be made.
• It is limited, increased or decreased by human efforts.

Land is imperishable
The land is not destructible and imperishable.

Land is a primary factor of production
In any kind of production process, start with land. Land provides raw materials and crops for industry.

Land is immovable:
Land cannot be transported from one place to another place.

Land has some original Indestructible powers
The indestructible powers of land cannot be destroyed by man.

Land Differs in Fertility:

• Fertility of land differs on different places of land.
• One piece of land may produce more and the other less.

Question 3.
Explain the merits and demerits of division of labour.
Answer:
Merits of the division of labour

• Division of Labour improves the efficiency of Labour.
• Time and Materials are put to the best and most efficient use.
• Use of Machinery in production, resulting in inventions.

Demerits:

• Repetition of the same work makes labour to feel monotonous and stale.
• Narrow Specialization reduces to find alternative avenues of employment. This results in increased unemployment.
• Reduce the growth of handicrafts and the worker losed satisfaction.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of capital.
Answer:

• Capital is a passive factor of production
• Capital is manmade
• Capital is not an indispensable factor of production
• Capital has the highest mobility
• Capital is productivity
• Capital lasts over time.
• Capital involves a present sacrifice to get future benefits.

7th Social Science Guide Production Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Banking conies under which production?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) tertiary
d) mixed
Answer:
Tertiary

Question 2.
The father of Economics is
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) Malthus
c) John Renier
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 3.
A wealth of Nations book written in the year
a) 1770
b) 1774
c) 1776.
d) 1789
Answer:
c) 1776

Question 4.
The concept Division of Labour was introduced by
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) M.N Roy
d) Dadabhai Nauroji
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 5.
Most of the Gross Domestic Product of our country is contributed by the
a) Primary sector
b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector
d) mixed sector
Answer:
c) tertiary sector

II.Fill in the blanks:

1. There are two kinds of people ……………….. and ……………….
Answer:
producers, consumers

2. Indian Economy is a ………………. economy.
Answer:
mixed

3. …………….. of Land differs in different places of the land.
Answer:
Fertility

4. Capital means ………………
Answer:
money

5. The entrepreneur is also called ………………..
Answer:
organizer

6. ………….are called factors of production.
Answer:
Inputs

7. The concept ‘Division of labour’ was introduced by ……………………..
Answer:
Adam Smith

8. The factors for production are …………….., ………….., ………………..
Answer:
land, labour, capital

9. ………….means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
utility.

10. In the Secondary production …………………. getting more importance.
Answer:
Manufacturing

11. Secondary production is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
Construction

12. Tertiary production is also known as ………………………
Answer:
Service production

13. …………….. cannot be separate for the labourer.
Answer:
labour

14. …………… is a passive factor of production.
Answer:
Capital

15. Sugarcane is a ……………..plant.
Answer:
money

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Secondary production	a) Time utility
2. Tertiary Production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
3. Money capital	c) Making clothes
4. wheat	d) Transport
5. Cotton Industry	e) Monetary Resources

Answer:

1. Secondary production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
2. Tertiary Production	d) transport
3. Money capital	e) Monetary Resources
4. wheat	a) Time utility
5. Cotton Industry	c) Making clothes

IV.True of False:

Question 1.
The total quantity of land does not undergo any change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Manufacture of cars comes under the primary sector.
Answer
False

V. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

1. Land is movable
2. Land differs infertility.
3. Land has some original Indestructible powers.
4. Land is perishable.

Question a)
Consider which of the above
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 and 1
Answer:
b) 2 and 3

VI. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is place utility? Give example.
Answer:

• Place utility is the commodity transported from one place to another.
• So the utility may increase.
• Ex: If rice is transported to Tamil Nadu from Kerala, its utility will be more.

Question 2.
What is the mixed economy?
Answer:

• The private and public sectors are existing together is known as a Mixed Economy.
• Ex: Indian Economy.

Question 3.
Point out the feature of form utility.
Answer:

• The physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility also increases.
• Ex: Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes.

VII. Give a brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the factors of production?
Answer:
There are two kinds of factors responsible for production.

1. Primary factors
2. Derived Factors

Primary Factors:
The primary Factors are land and labour. These are naturally given and without them, no goods can be produced.

Derived Factors:
Derived factors are capital and organization. These derived factors, when combined with the primary factors of production raise total production.

Question 2.
Describe the characteristics of Labour.
Answer:

• Labour is not homogenous. Skill and dexterity vary from person to person.
• Labour cannot be separated from labourer.
• Labour is like mobile moving from one place to another for occupation.
• Individual labour has only limited bargaining power. In the Trade union, Labour power increases.