Category: Class 7

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 2 Man Overboard Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 2 Man Overboard

7th English Guide Man Overboard Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Exercise

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 130)

A. Complete the following statements.

1. Everyone on the ship started to pray because
Answer:
they received a message about the formation of a storm

2. Vasantha’s imagination run wild because
Answer:
She had heard her teacher’s story of the storm

3. Vasantha made a lot of noise because
Answer:
a man tumbled over the railings into the wild sea

4. Vasantha could not see the rescue operation because
Answer:
the lifeboat was too far for her to see

5. The captain presented a gift to Vasantha because…
Answer:
of her immediate action in saving a man

B. Identify the speaker/character.

1. “Don’t worry, Madam, it’s only a warning.”
Answer:
The gentleman consoled the old lady, with these words.

2. “A man fell into the sea. Please save him. ”
Answer:
Vasantha shouted these words to the captain

3. “Stop ship. Drop anchor. Quick! ”
Answer:
Captain ordered to the crew members.

4. “He’ll have to be given artificial respiration and kept warm.”
Answer:
The doctor informed Vasantha with these words.

5. “Wake up, child.”
Answer:
A sailor made sleeping Vasantha to wake up with these words.

C. Book Talk!

Read the story once again and fill in the boxes.

Answer:

Project

E. Look at the picture. Browse the internet with the help of your teacher to get information about the little brave hearts of India.

Search for similar brave hearts in your locality.

Scan the QR. Download the nomination form for National Bravery Award. Read the instructions and fill the nomination for NBA.

Little brave hearts of India:
1. Gunjan, a young girl offered herself as a hostage to save her friends. She with her classmates were abducted in a school van in Assam. She was freed by the gunmen.
2. 17 years old Reshen Fatma’s uncle poured acid on her head when she refused to marry him. She pushed him off the car bravely. She managed to escape and went to the police station.
3. 16-year-old Monika, saw her neighbour drowning, in the Alaknanda river in Uttarkhand. She jumped in and saved him. But she was drawn in the current and sadly drowned.
4. 10 years old Vishal from Gujarat carried two 7 years old boys on his shoulders when he saw them drowning. He pulled them out.
5. Rumoh Meto, risked his own life while saving a 32-year-old man. Who was stuck to a 33 kV high voltage line? Rumoh sustained injuries and bums. His brave actions saved a life.
6. Riya a 15 years old girl from Lucknow sacrificed her life to save her father, when miscreants entered her house and attacked her family, they tried to shoot her father. Riya came in the way. and took the bullet herself. She saved her father. But Riya died on the spot.

Step to Success

F. In each question below, there is a sentence in which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

1. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
a. RQPS
b. QSPR
c. SQPR
d. PQRS
Answer:
a) RQPS

2. They felt safer
P: to watch the mountain
Q: of more than five miles
R: as they settled down
S: from a distance
a. RPSQ
b. RSQP
c. PQSR
d. PRSQ
Answer:
b) RSQP

3. If you need help
P: promptly and politely
Q: ask for attendants
R: to help our customers
S: who have instructions
a. SQPR
b. QPSR
c. QSRP
d. SQRP
Answer:
c) QSRP

4. He knew that
P: and then to save himself
Q: was to save all the lives
R: entmsted to his care
S: the duty of a captain
a. PQRS
b. SQRP
c. SPRQ
d. QSRP
Answer:
b) SQRP

5. With her body
P: dragging her unwilling feet
Q: week and infirm
R: doubled with age
S: she persisted in her mission
a. PQRS
b. QPRS
c. RQPS
d. SRPQ
Answer:
a) PQRS

Man Overboard Summary in English

Vasantha, a child travels in the ship named S.S. Rajula, all alone. The next day, the announcement comes that there is a storm blowing in the Indian Ocean. Vasantha is not worried like others. She runs around and plays. At that time she sees a man falling into the sea, accidentally. She informs people in the ship. The man who fell down into the sea is rescued with great difficulty. Vasantha is honoured with a lovely present by the captain of the ship.

Man Overboard Summary in Tamil

வசந்தா என்ற குழந்தை ராஜீடிலா என்ற கப்பலில் தனியாகப் பயணம் செய்கிறாள். மறுநாள் ஒரு அறிவிப்பு வருகிறது. இந்தியப் பெருங்கடலில் ஒரு புயல் உருவாகி இருப்பதாக தகவல் வருகிறது. வசந்தா மற்றவரைப் போல கவலைப்படவில்லை. கப்பலைச் சுற்றி விளையாடுகிறாள். அப்போது, ஒருவர் எதிர்பாராது கடலில் விழுந்து விடுவதைப் பார்க்கிறாள். கப்பலில் உள்ளவர்களிடம் தகவல் சொல்லுகிறாள். கடலில் விழுந்தவர், மிகுந்த சிரமத்திற்கு பிறகு, மீட்கப்படுகிறார். வசந்தாவை பாராட்டி கௌரவிக்க, கப்பல் கேப்டன் அவளுக்கு அழகிய பரிசு தரு

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production

7th Social Science Guide Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Production refers to ………….
a) destruction of utility
b) creation of utilities
c) exchange value
d) none of these
Answer:
b) creation of utilities

Question 2.
Utilities are in the nature of ……………
a) form utility
b) time utility
c) place utility
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

Question 3.
Primary factors are ……………..
a) land, capital
b) capital, labour
c) land, labour
d) none of these
Answer:
c) land, labour

Question 4.
The entrepreneur is also called …………….
a) exchanger
b) Agent
c) organizer
d) communicator
Answer:
c) organizer

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
Utility

2. Derived factors are ………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Capital,Organisation

3. …………. is a fixed in supply.
Answer:
Land

4. …………….. is the human input into the production process.
Answer:
Labour

5. ………………… is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.
Answer:
Capital

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Primary production	a) Adam Smith
2. Time utility	b) fishing, mining
3. Wealth of nation	c) entrepreneur
4. Human capital	d) stored for future
5. Innovator	e) education, health

Answer:

1. Primary production	b) fishing, mining
2. Time utility	d) stored for future
3. Wealth of nation	a) Adam Smith
4. Human capital	e) education, health
5. Innovator	c) entrepreneur

IV. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is a process of combining various material inputs and immaterial inputs in order to make something for consumption.

Question 2.
What is utility?
Answer:
Utility means want satisfying power of a product.

Question 3.
Name the types of utility.
Answer:
Utilities are in the nature of form utility, time utility, and place utility.

Question 4.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Organization

Question 5.
Define Labour.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines labour as, ‘the use of body or mind, partly or wholly, with a view to secure an income apart from the pleasure derived from the work’.

Question 6.
Define Division of labour.
Answer:
Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component processes and assigning each component in the hands of labour or a set of labourers, who are specialists in that particular process.

Question 7.
Write the forms of capital.
Answer:

1. Physical Capital or Material Resources, Ex. Machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
2. Money capital or Monetary resources, Ex. Bank deposits, shares and securities, etc.
3. Human capital or Human Resources Ex. Investments in education, training, and health

Question 8.
Write the three characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Answer:

• Identifying profitable investible opportunities.
• Deciding the location of the production unit.
• Making Innovations
• Deciding the reward payment.
• Taking risks and facing uncertainties.

V.Give brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the types of production?
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary production
3. Tertiary or service production

1. Primary Production:

• Primary production is industries that are extracting the gifts of nature from the earth’s surface and oceans.
• Ex: fishing, mining, agriculture.

2. Secondary Production:

• It is the manufacturing industry, conversion of raw material into finished good.
• Ex: Manufacture of clothes, cars and chemicals.

3. Tertiary production:

•  In the tertiary sector, all those services enable the finished goods to be put in the hands of consumers.
• Ex: Banking, transport, and communications.

Question 2.
What is the land? What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
Land is a factor of production and natural resource.

Characteristics of Land:
Land is a Free Gift of Nature:

• Land is not the outcome of human labour.
• It existed even long before the evolution of man.

Land is fixed in supply:

• The land quantity does not undergo any change and no alteration can be made.
• It is limited, increased or decreased by human efforts.

Land is imperishable
The land is not destructible and imperishable.

Land is a primary factor of production
In any kind of production process, start with land. Land provides raw materials and crops for industry.

Land is immovable:
Land cannot be transported from one place to another place.

Land has some original Indestructible powers
The indestructible powers of land cannot be destroyed by man.

Land Differs in Fertility:

• Fertility of land differs on different places of land.
• One piece of land may produce more and the other less.

Question 3.
Explain the merits and demerits of division of labour.
Answer:
Merits of the division of labour

• Division of Labour improves the efficiency of Labour.
• Time and Materials are put to the best and most efficient use.
• Use of Machinery in production, resulting in inventions.

Demerits:

• Repetition of the same work makes labour to feel monotonous and stale.
• Narrow Specialization reduces to find alternative avenues of employment. This results in increased unemployment.
• Reduce the growth of handicrafts and the worker losed satisfaction.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of capital.
Answer:

• Capital is a passive factor of production
• Capital is manmade
• Capital is not an indispensable factor of production
• Capital has the highest mobility
• Capital is productivity
• Capital lasts over time.
• Capital involves a present sacrifice to get future benefits.

7th Social Science Guide Production Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Banking conies under which production?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) tertiary
d) mixed
Answer:
Tertiary

Question 2.
The father of Economics is
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) Malthus
c) John Renier
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 3.
A wealth of Nations book written in the year
a) 1770
b) 1774
c) 1776.
d) 1789
Answer:
c) 1776

Question 4.
The concept Division of Labour was introduced by
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) M.N Roy
d) Dadabhai Nauroji
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 5.
Most of the Gross Domestic Product of our country is contributed by the
a) Primary sector
b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector
d) mixed sector
Answer:
c) tertiary sector

II.Fill in the blanks:

1. There are two kinds of people ……………….. and ……………….
Answer:
producers, consumers

2. Indian Economy is a ………………. economy.
Answer:
mixed

3. …………….. of Land differs in different places of the land.
Answer:
Fertility

4. Capital means ………………
Answer:
money

5. The entrepreneur is also called ………………..
Answer:
organizer

6. ………….are called factors of production.
Answer:
Inputs

7. The concept ‘Division of labour’ was introduced by ……………………..
Answer:
Adam Smith

8. The factors for production are …………….., ………….., ………………..
Answer:
land, labour, capital

9. ………….means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
utility.

10. In the Secondary production …………………. getting more importance.
Answer:
Manufacturing

11. Secondary production is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
Construction

12. Tertiary production is also known as ………………………
Answer:
Service production

13. …………….. cannot be separate for the labourer.
Answer:
labour

14. …………… is a passive factor of production.
Answer:
Capital

15. Sugarcane is a ……………..plant.
Answer:
money

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Secondary production	a) Time utility
2. Tertiary Production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
3. Money capital	c) Making clothes
4. wheat	d) Transport
5. Cotton Industry	e) Monetary Resources

Answer:

1. Secondary production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
2. Tertiary Production	d) transport
3. Money capital	e) Monetary Resources
4. wheat	a) Time utility
5. Cotton Industry	c) Making clothes

IV.True of False:

Question 1.
The total quantity of land does not undergo any change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Manufacture of cars comes under the primary sector.
Answer
False

V. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

1. Land is movable
2. Land differs infertility.
3. Land has some original Indestructible powers.
4. Land is perishable.

Question a)
Consider which of the above
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 and 1
Answer:
b) 2 and 3

VI. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is place utility? Give example.
Answer:

• Place utility is the commodity transported from one place to another.
• So the utility may increase.
• Ex: If rice is transported to Tamil Nadu from Kerala, its utility will be more.

Question 2.
What is the mixed economy?
Answer:

• The private and public sectors are existing together is known as a Mixed Economy.
• Ex: Indian Economy.

Question 3.
Point out the feature of form utility.
Answer:

• The physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility also increases.
• Ex: Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes.

VII. Give a brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the factors of production?
Answer:
There are two kinds of factors responsible for production.

1. Primary factors
2. Derived Factors

Primary Factors:
The primary Factors are land and labour. These are naturally given and without them, no goods can be produced.

Derived Factors:
Derived factors are capital and organization. These derived factors, when combined with the primary factors of production raise total production.

Question 2.
Describe the characteristics of Labour.
Answer:

• Labour is not homogenous. Skill and dexterity vary from person to person.
• Labour cannot be separated from labourer.
• Labour is like mobile moving from one place to another for occupation.
• Individual labour has only limited bargaining power. In the Trade union, Labour power increases.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is meant by Bi-party system?
a) Two parties run the government
b) Two members run a party.
c) Two major political parties contest election.
d) None of these.
Answer:
a) Two parties run the government.

Question 2.
Which system of government does India have?
a) Single-party system
b) Bi-party system
c) Multi-party system
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Multi-party system

Question 3.
Recognition of a political party is accorded by……………..
a) The Election commission
b) The president
c) The supreme court
d) A committee
Answer:
a) The Election commission

Question 4.
Political parties are generally formed on the basis of.
a) Religious principles
b) Common interest
c) Economic principles
d) Caste
Answer:
b) Common interest

Question 5.
Single-party system is found in
a) India
b)U.S.A
c) France
d) China
Answer:
d) China

II. Fill in the blacks:

1. ……………. form the back bone of democracy.
Answer:
Politicai parties

2. Every party in our country has to register with…………….
Answer:
Election Commission of India

3. Political parties serve as intermediaries between the …………….  and …………….
Answer:
citizen,policy makers

4. A registered but ……………. political party cannot contest election on its own symbol.
Answer:
unrecognised

5. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of…………….
Answer:
Cabinet minister

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Democracy	a) criticize the government policies
2. Election commission	b) forms the government
3. Majority party	c) rule of the people
4. Opposition party	d) free and fair election

Answer:

A	B
1. Democracy	c) rule of the people
2. Election commission	d) free and fair election
3. Majority party	b) forms the government
4. Opposition party	a) criticize the government policies

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓)  appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a) Every party in the country has to register with the election commission.
b) The commission treats all the parties equally.
c) Election commission allots a separate symbol for recognized parties.
d) All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Majority party plays a decisive role in making laws for the country.
Reason (R) : The number of candidates elected is more than the others in the election. ;;
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic components of a political party?
Answer:
The basic components of the party are the leader, the active members and the followers.

Question 2.
Name the three major types of party systems.
Answer:
There are three major types of the party system:

1. Single party system,
2. Bi – party System,
3. Multiparty system.

Question 3.
Name the countries which follow the Bi – party system.
Answer:
Bi- party system can be seen in UK and USA.

Question 4.
Write a note on Coalition Government.
Answer:
Without a majority, some parties join together to form the government, known as Coalition Government.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write any four functions of a political party?
Answer:

• The political parties provide loyal opposition to accountability and stability.
• They put forward different policies and programmes for the welfare of the people.
• They connect the society and the state.
• They form and run the government and develop public policy.

Question 2.
When is a political party recognized as a National Party?
Answer:
Criteria for A political party to be recognised as a National Party

1. The party that secures should atleast 6% of the valid votes in the Lok Sabha election or assembly elections in four states.
2. They must win 4 seats in Lok sabha from any State/States
3. It has to win 2% of seats in Lok sabha from atleast 3 different states in the latest general election.

VII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Are political parties are necessary for a democratic country?
Answer:
Yes political parties are necessary for a democratic country because

1. They are the backbone of democracy.
2. They are essential elements to form the government.
3. Citizens can elect their representatives.
4. Citizens also vote for the party of their choice and thus influence Government formation.

Question 2.
Give any three names of National party, Regional party, and Registered but unrecognized party.
Answer:

1. National Party: Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Communist party of India.
2. Regional Party: All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Desiya Murpokku Dravidar Kazhagam, Pattali Makkal Katchi
3. Registered but unrecognized party: Labour party of India, Bhartiya Panchayat party, Indian Indira Congress.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Write an election manifesto (if you were a party leader).
Answer:

1. Take measures to give a corruption-free Government.
2. The agriculture sector would be given prior importance.
3. Students will be taught technical skills at school which would enhance their scope for employment.
4. Free and quality medical care would be made available to all needy people.

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Who was the supreme head of the legislative, Executive, and Judiciary in ancient India?
a) King
b) Queen
c) Prince
d) Cheif minister
Answer:
a) King

Question 2.
India became a democratic country in
a) 1946
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1952
Answer:
c) 1950

Question 3.
A recognised party should secure how much of total votes in the last general election?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 6%
d) 10%
Answer:
c) 6%

Question 4.
Which party system is existence in India France, Sweden, and Norway?
a) Single party
b) Two-party
c) Triple party
d) Multiparty
Answer:
Multiparty

Question 5.
The headquarter of the election commission in India is located in
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkatta
d) Chennai
Answer:
New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A Vibrant democracy needs a strong …………………Party.
Answer:
Opposition

2. In Cuba …………………party system existed.
Answer:
Single

3. …………………is an autonomous statutory body.
Answer:
Election commission

4. Recognised parties are given a unique …………………by the election commission.
Answer:
Symbol

5. A free symbol is reserved for …………………party.
Answer:
unrecognized

6. A …………………symbol for a recognised political party.
Answer:
reserved

7. The party which gets the second largest number of seats is called …………………party.
Answer:
opposition

8. The symbols are excepted by the election commission are the ………………… and the …………………
Answer:
Lion, elephant

9. …………………commission is responsible for free and fair elections in India.
Answer:
Election

10 commission is a body for the implementation of election procedures.
Answer:
Election

11. …………………Minister is a member of parliament or legislative assembly cabinet.
Answer:
Cabinet

12. A political party must have at least …………………members.
Answer:
100

13. …………………has the largest number of political parties in the world
Answer:
India

14. The election commission of India has some …………………for the recognition of political parties in India.
Answer:
Criteria

15. State parties need to win a minimum of …………………in the legislative assembly
Answer:
3%

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Election symbols	a) U.S. A
2. National party	b) Election commission
3. Single party	c) 6% votes
4. Bi – Party system	d) China

Answer:

A	B
1. Election symbols	b) Election commission
2. National party	c) 6% votes
3. Single party	d) China
4. Bi – Party system	a) the U.S. A

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Some parties join together to form the coalition government.
Reason (R) : A single party may not secure the majority to form the government,
a) A and R correct R explains A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) A and R correct R explains A

V. True or false:

1. National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in only two states of India.
Answer:
False

2. In India, the election symbols order was. passed on 1968.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
How the political party is to be recognised?
Asnwer:
A party is recognised if ‘

• It has been engaged in political activity for five years.
• Its candidates secure atleast six percent of total votes in the last general election.

Question 2.
What is the party ’Manifesto’?
Answer:
Before the election, the candidates announce the programmes and policies that their party will undertake if voted to power.

Question 3.
Define the majority Party?
Answer:
The Political party whose number of candidates elected is more than the other is called the majority party forms and runs the government.

Question 4.
How to form a political party?
Answer:

• Must be registered with the Election commission of India.
• Must have atleast 100 members.
• Each member needs to hold a voting card.

Question 5.
What are the criteria for a regional party?
Answer:

• A party that secures atleast 6% of the valid votes in the state legislative assembly election.
• They must win one Lok sabha seat for every 25 seats or atleast 2 seats in the Legislative assembly.
• Need to win a minimum of 3 % of the total number of seats in Legislative Assembly.ff

Question 6.
What is Free symbols ‘Poll Panel’?
Answer:

• As per the Election symbols order 1968, symbols are either reserved or free.
• A reserved symbol is for a recognised political party and
• A free symbol is for unrecognised party.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the party system in India.
Answer:

• India’s party system originated in the late 19th century.
• In fact, India has the largest number of political parties in the world.
• They are national parties, Regional parties, and Registered but unrecognised parties (independent candidates).
• Every party in the country has to register with the Election commission.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are political parties? Explain.
Answer:

• Political parties are the voluntary associations of individuals with broad ideological identities who agree on some policies, formulate an agenda and programme for society.
• They seek to implement their policies by winning people’s support through elections.

There are 3 types of political parties.

1. Single party – China, Cuba
2. Bi r Party – UK, USA
3. Multi-party – India, France, Sweden.

Question 2.
What is the role of the opposition party in Democracy?
Answer:

• The party which gets the second largest number of seats next to the majority party in the election is called the opposition party.
• They are as important as that of the ruling party.
• They critically examine the policies and bills introduced by the government.
• They raise their voice on the failures and wrong policies.
• They highlight important issues which are not acted upon by the Government.
• The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister.

Question 3.
What are the differences between the National Party and the Regional Party?
Answer:
National party Regional Party

• National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in India. State parties that participate in different elections within one State.
• It should be strong enough in atleast four states. It should be strong enough in at least one or two states.
• It has an exclusive symbol throughout the country. A symbol is reserved for it in the state in which it is recognized. But the same symbol can be allotted to different parties in different states.
• It resolves the state’s National and International issues. It promotes regional and states interest.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 2 Emergence of New Kingdoms in North India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 1 Chapter 2 Emergence of New Kingdoms in North India

7th Social Science Guide Emergence of New Kingdoms in North India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who wrote Prithivirajraso?
a) Kalhana
b) Vishakadatta
c) Rajasekara
d) Chand Bardai
Answer:
d) Chand Bardai

Question 2.
Who was the first prominent ruler of Pratiharas?
a) Bhoja I
b) Naga Bhatta I
c) Jayapala
d) Chandradeva
Answer:
b) Naga Bhatta I

Question 3.
Ghazni was a small principality in ………………
a) Mangolia
b) Turkey
c) Persia
d) Afghanistan
Answer:
d) Afghanistan

Question 4.
What was the most important cause of the invasion of Mahmud of Ghazni?
a) To destroy idolatry
b) To plunder the wealth of India
c) To spread Islam in India
d) To establish a Muslim state in India –
Answer:
d) Chand Bardai

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………… was the founder of Vikramashila University.
Answer:
Dharmpala

2. Arabs conquered Sind in …………….
Answer:
712 A.D ( C.E)

3. The city of Ajmer was founded by ………………….
Answer:
Simharaji

4. The Khandarya temple is in ……….
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Khajuraho	a) Mount Abu
2. Sun temple	b) Bundelkhand
3. Dilwara Temple	c) Konark

Answer:

A	B
1. Khajuraho	b) Bundelkhand
2. Sun temple	c) Konark
3. Dilwara Temple	a) Mount Abu

IV. True or False:

1. Rajputra is a Latin word.
Answer:
False

2. King Gopala was elected by the people.
Answer:
True

3. The temple at Mount Abu is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Answer:
False

4.Raksha Bandan is a festival of brotherhood.
Answer:
True

5. Indians learnt the numerals 0-9 from Arabs.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion : The tripartite struggle was to have control over Kanauj.
Reason : Kanauj was a big city.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Questions 2.
Statement I : Mahipala could not extend his domain beyond Benaras.
Statement II : Mahipala and Rajendra Chola were contemporaries.
a) I is correct
b) II is correct
c) I and II are correct
d) I and II are false.
Answer:
c) I and II are correct

Question 3.
Assertion: India’s Islamic period did not begin after Arab conquest of Sind in AD (CE)712.
Reason: Gurjara Pratiharas gave a stiff resistance to Arabs.
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct and R is wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
c) I and II are correct.

Question 4.
Assertion: The second battle of Tarain was lost by Prithiviraj.
Reason: There was disunity among the Rajputs,
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct and R is wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write about the tripartite struggle over Kanauj.
Answer:

• There was a tripartite struggle between the Gujara Pratiharas of Malwa, the Rashtrakutas of Deccan, and the Palas of Bengal wanted to establish their supremacy over the fertile region of Kanauj.
• In this process, all their powers were weakened.

Question 2.
Name any four Rajput clans.
Answer:
The Pratiharas, the Chauhans, the Solankis, and the Paramaras of Pawar’s.

Question 3.
Who was the founder of the Pala dynasty?
Answer:
Gopala was the founder of the Pala Dynasty.

Question 4.
Mention the first two early Caliphates.
Answer
Umayyads and the Abbasids.

Question 5.
Name the ruler of Sind who was defeated by Qasim.
Answer
Dahir the ruler of Sind who was defeated by Qasim.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What was the impact of the Arab conquest of Sind? (point out any five)
Answer:
The impact of the Arab conquest of Sind was

1. Islam was spread over Indian regions.
2. Arab Scholars translated Sanskrit books into Arabic.
3. The importance of zero was learned by Arabs from India.
4. The Arabs learned the numerals 0 to 9 from India.
5. The people in the west and the Arabs learned the game of chess from the Indians.

VIII. HOTs:

Question a.
Difference between Mahmud Ghazni’s invasion and Muhammad Ghor’s invasion.
Answer:
Mahmud Ghazni invasion:
Mahmud of Ghazni conducted 17 raids into India. He initially raided the shahi kingdom. After his victory over Shahi and Waihind, he extended his rule over Punjab. But his subsequent raids were aimed at plundering the rich temples and cities of North India. Some of the cities were Nagarkot, Thaneshwar, Mathura, and Anhilwad. He plundered the famous temple of Somnath, breaking the idol.

Muhammad Ghor’s invasion:
Muhammad of Ghor who was initially a vassal of Ghazni took over its control after the death of Mahmud Ghazni. Unlike Ghazni, he wanted to extend his empire in India and captured Multan and Punjab.

Question b.
Find out

Answer:

IX. Students Activity:

Question a.
Word Splash (Students discuss what they know about the words given here. They use the words from what they have learnt in a narrative form)
Harsha, Rajputs, Kanauj, Vikramashila, Prithiviraj, Caliph
Answer:

1. Harsha: A famous king of the Rajput clans.
2. Rajputs: Rajputra Means scion of the royal blood. They are known for their valour and chivalry. They ruled northern and central India.
3. Kanauj: A very fertile region, there was a prolonged tripartite struggle between Pratiharas of Malwa, Rashtrakutas of Deccan and the Palas of Bengal.
4. Vikramashila: Dharmapala, the pala king founded Vikramashik Monastery, which became a great centre of Buddhist learning.
5. Prithiviraj: Prithiviraj Chauhan, the last of Chauhan’s kings, was considered the greatest of all Chauhan rulers.
6. Caliph: Caliph means a representative of Prophet Muhammad.

b. Time Line:

Write the event for the given year in each column.

Answer:

XI. Answer Grid:

Question 1.
Who was the Shahi ruler of Punjab defeated by Mahmud of Ghazni?
Answer:
King Jayapala

Question 2.
Rajput style of Painting is called
Answer:
Rajasthani

Question 3.
How many Rajput clans were there?
Answer:
36

Question 4.
Who established the first Islamic empire in India?
Answer:
Muhammad of Ghor

Question 5.
Who was the first Sultan of Delhi?
Answer:
Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Question 6.
Where is Mecca?
Answer:
Arabia

7th Social Science Guide Emergence of New Kingdoms in North India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which was the rallying point for Rajputs?
a) Chittor
b) Jaipur
c) Purandar
d) Railear
Answer:
a) Chittor

Question 2.
One of the four prominent clans of the Rajputs ruled from Gurjaratra in Jodhpur.
(a) Palas
(b) Pratiharas
(c) Chauhans
(d) Chalukyas
Answer:
(b) Pratiharas

Question 3.
How many Hindu and Jain temples in Osian?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 17
Answer:
c) 16

Question 4.
Who was the President of Vikrama Shila Monastery?
a) Dharmapala
b) Devapala
c) Atisha
d) Sakambari
Answer:
c) Atisha

Question 5.
At which century Abbasid caliphates were declined?
a) 6th
b) 7th
c) 8th
d) 9th
Answer:
d) 9th

Question 6.
Muhammed bin Qassim defeated the ruler of sind
a) Mohammed Nabi
b)Dahir
c) Sabutissin
d) Ummayyad
Answer:
b) Dahir

Question 7.
Which was the capital of sind?
a) Aror
b) Knnauy
c) Tamila
d) Chittor
Answer:
a) Aror

Question 8.
Which game of Indians was learned by Arabas?
a) Hockey
b) Polo
c) Dice
d) Chess
Answer:
d) Chess

Question 9.
The famous Somnath temple expedition of Ghazni was held in
a) 1000 A.D
b) 1010A.D
c) 1025 A.D
d) 1030A.D
Answer:
c) 1025 A.D

Question 10.
The most capable general of Muhammed Ghor was
a) Qutb – ud – din Aibak
b) Malik Kafur
c) Khan Sahib
d) Iltumish
Answer:
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Rajput States formed a collective entity called ……………………
Answer:
Rajputana

2. Tomaras were ruling in the ………………….. region.
Answer:
Harayana

3. Thirty-six royal Rajput clans were listed by ………………. in 1829.
Answer:
James Tod

4. Harichandra laid the foundation of the ………….. dynasties
Answer:
Gujarat

5. ………………….. was the first and prominent ruler of Pratiharas.
Answer:
Nagabhatta I

6. Deva Pala donated 5 villages to…………………..
Answer:
Buddhists

7.The Founder of the second Pala dynasty was…………………..
Answer:
Mahipala I

8. The Chauhans capital was…………………..
Ans:
Sakambari

9. A was the bride choosing the bridegroom of her choice.
Answer:
suyamwara

10. Rajasthani painting focuses on…………………..themes.
Answer:
religious

11. The Khajuraho in Bundelkhand has …………………..temples.
Answer:
30

12. The Palas were adherents to …………………..school of Buddhism.
Answer:
Mahayana

13. The monk ………………….. reformed Tibetan Buddhism.
Answer:
Atisha

14. Islam originated at …………………..in Arabia.
Answer:
Mecca

15. The founder of Islam was Prophet…………………..
Answer:
Muhammad Nabi

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Dharmapala	a) 997 – 1030
2. Mahipala -I	b) 988 – 1038
3. Kajini Muhammed	c) 1191- 1192
4. Muhammed Ghori	d) 770- 810
5. Battle of Tarani	e) 1149- 1206

Answer:

A	B
1. Dharmapala	d) 770- 810
2. Mahipala -I	b) 988 – 1038
3. Kajini Muhammed	a) 997 – 1030
4. Muhammed Ghori	e) 1149- 1206
5. Battle of Tarani	c) 1191 – 1192

IV. True or False:

1. Muhmud Ghazini conducted 15 Raids into India.
Answer:
False

2. Rajapala was the ruler of Kanauj.
Answer:
True

3. The Palas were the followers of the Hinayana school of Buddhism.
Answer:
False

4. The Chauhan’s were the foundatories of the Prathikaras.
Answer:
True

5. Monastery is the place where the monks live.
Answer:
True

V. Find the odd one out:

1. Dharmapala, Mahipala, Devapala, Simharaji
Asnwer:
Simharaji

2. Mandu, Gwalior, Chanderi, Kumbhalgarh
Answer:
Kumbhalgarh

VI. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Mahipala I was called the founder of the second Pala dynasty.
Reason (R): Mahipala I was the powerful ruler of the Pala dynasty,
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct and R is wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
a) R Is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In the 11th and 12th century many local kings making themselves Independent.
Reason (R): The Rajputs fought each other endlessly.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct and R is wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct.
1. The Arabs learned the numerals o tp 9 from Indians
2. The game of chess was learned by Arabs from Indians.
3. Indians learned the importance of 0 from Arabs.
4. Through the ArabsEurope gained more knowledge in mathematics
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct.
b) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
c) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
d) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Answer:
b) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

VII. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Point out the achievement of Dharmapala.
Answer:

• Dharmapala was a powerful ruler of the Pala dynasty. He led a successful campaign against Kanauj.
• He was a great patron of Buddhism. He founded Vikramashila Monastery.

Question 2.
Who were Chauhans?
Answer:

• Chauhans were the feudatories of Prathiharas and staunchly stood by them to check the Arab invasions.
• Prithiviraj Chauhan was considered the greatest of all Chauhan rulers.

Question 3.
Mention the importance of Rajput Forts.
Answer:
The strong fortress of Rajputs was situated in Chittorgarh, Ranathambhor and Kumbahlgarh Mandu, Gwalior, Chanderi, and Asirgarh.

Question 4.
Name the important palaces of Rajputs.
Answer:
Palaces of Mani Singh at Gwalior, lake palaces at Udaipur, Jodhpur Palace, and Jaipur Palace.

Question 5.
Write a note on Dilwara Temple at Mount Abu.
Answer:
The Dilwara Jain Temple at Mount Abu has a white marble hall and a central dome of 11 concentric rings and a richly curved valuated ceiling and pillars. It was built during the period of Rajput rulers.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Name some important Rajput buildings.
Answer:
Some of the important examples of the Rajput buildings are the strong fortresses of Chittorgarh. Ranthambhore and Kumbhalgarh (all in Rajasthan), Mandu, Gwalior, Chanderi, and Asirgarh (all in Madhya Pradesh).

Question 2.
Describe the expeditions of Mahmud of Ghazni.
Answer:

• Mahmud of Ghazni conducted 17 raids into India.
• The initial raids were against the Shahi kingdom and its King Jayapala was defeated in 1001 A.D.
• The Successor of Jayapala, Anand Pala fought against Mahmud in the battle of Waihind and defeated in 1008 A.D.
• In 1011 he raided Nagarkot in Punjab hills and Thaneswar.
• In 1018 Mahmud Plundered the holy city of Mathura and attacked Kanauj.
• He raids Gujarat and in 1024 A.D. (CE) Mahmud defeated Solanki King and plundered Anhilwad.
• He sacked the famous temple of Somnath by breaking the idol.
• His last campaign was through Sind in 1030A.D. (CE).
• Mahmud died in 1030 A.D.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 3 Emergence of New Kingdoms in South India: Later Cholas and Pandyas Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 1 Chapter 3 Emergence of New Kingdoms in South India: Later Cholas and Pandyas

7th Social Science Guide Emergence of New Kingdoms in South India: Later Cholas and Pandyas Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who revived the later Chola dynasty?
a) Vijayalaya
b) Rajaraja I
c) Rajendra I
d) Athirajendra
Answer::
a) Vijayalaya

Question 2.
Who among the following Pandya rulers is known for ending the Kalabhra rule?
a) Kadunkon
b) ViraPandyan
c) Kun Pandyan
d) Varaguna
Answer:
a) Kadunkon

Question 3.
Which of the following was the lowest unit of Chola administration?
a) Mandalam
b) Nadu
c) Kurram
d) Ur
Answer:
a) Mandalam

Question 4.
Who was the last ruler Vijayalaya line of Chola dynasty?
a) VeeraRajendra
b) Rajadhiraja
c) AthiRajendra
d) RajarajaII
Answer:
c) AthiRajendra

Question 5.
An example Of Chola architecture can be seen at ………………………………
a) Kannayiram
b) Uraiyur
c) Kanchipuram
d) Thanjavur
Answer:
d) Thanjavur

Question 6.
To which of the following, Marco Polo went in the last decade of the 13th century in India?
a) Chola mandalam
b) Pandya country
c) Kongu region
d) Malainadu
Answer:
b) Pandya country

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………………. built the famous Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur.
Answer:
Rajaraja I

2. …………. established a Vedic college at Ennayiram.
Answer:
Rajendra I

3. ………….. was the donor of Velvikudi Copper plates.
Answer:
Jatila Parantaka Nedujadayan (Varguna I)

4. The royal secretariat of the Pandya kingdom was known as ……………
Answer:
Eluttu – Mandapam

III. Match the Following:

A	B
1. Madurai	a) Inland traders
2. Gangaikonda Cholapuram	b) Maritime traders
3. Anju- Vannatter	c) Capital of Cholas
4. Mani- gramattar	d) Capital of Pandyas

Answer:

A	B
1. Madurai	d) Capital of Pandyas
2. Gangaikonda Cholapuram	c) Capital of Cholas
3. Anju- Vannatter	b) Maritime traders
4. Mani- gramattar	a) Inland traders

IV. True or False:

1. A Muslim state subordinate to Delhi Sultan was in Madurai.
Answer:
True

2. Koodal – Nagar Kavalan was the title of a Pandya king.
Answer:
True

3. Chola kingdom was situated in the Vaigai delta.
Answer:
False

4. Kulothunga I belonged to Chalukya – Chola dynasty.
Answer:
True

5. The elder son of the Chola king was called Yuvaraja.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements about Later Cholas are correct?
1. They had a system of local self-government.
2. They maintained a strong navy.
3. They were the followers of Buddhism.
4. They built big temples.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) 1,3 and 4
Answer:
c) 1,2 and 4

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are true with regard to Rajendra Chola?
1. He assumed the title Gangaikonda Chola.
2. He conquered Southern Sumatra.
3. He is credited with consolidating the Chola power.
4. His naval power enabled him to conquer Srivijaya.
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 3.
Assertion: The Yuvaraj were appointed Governors in the provinces.
Reason: This was done for their training in administration.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order.
1) Nadu
2) Mandalam
3) Ur
4) Kurram
Answer:
2) Mandalam → 1) Nadu → 4) Kurram → 3) Ur

Question 5.
Arrange the events in chronological order.
1. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co-regent.
2. Civil war broke out.
3. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.
4. MaravarmanKulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan
5. SundraPandyan sought help from Ala -ud-din Khalji.
6. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.
Answer:
4. MaravarmanKulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan
1. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co-regent.
2. Civil war broke out.
5. SundraPandyan sought help from Ala -ud-din Khalji.
6. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.
3. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.

Question 6.
Find out

Answer:
Brahmadeya – Land gifted to Brahmins
Devadana – Land gifted to temples
Pallichchandam- Land donated to Jain institution
Vellanvagai Land of non – brahmins properties

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What were the items exported during the later Chola period?
Answer:
The items exported during the Later Chola period were Sandalwood, ebony, condiments, precious gems, pepper, oil, paddy, grains, and salt.

Question 2.
What was called Chatur-Vedi-Mangalam?
Answer:
Chatur – Vedi – Mangalam or Mangalam was the Brahmin settlements created by kings and local chiefs with irrigation facilities.

Question 3.
Write about Kanikadan.
Answer:
The land tax in Chola country was known as Kanikadan. One – third of the produce was collected as land tax in kind.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Highlight any five aspects of Cholas’ legacy.
Answer:

1. The chola rulers established a well organized system of administration in which the empire was divided into mandalans, naadu, Kurrams and gramam.
2. A very efficient local administration was another important feature of the Chola rule.
3. Chola gave importance to irrigation – vati-vaykkal, ur-vaykkal and nadu-vaykkal ensured proper distribution of water.
4. The Chola rulers built the famous temples in Thanjavur, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Darasuram. Chola Kings were great patrons of learning. Trade flourished during their period.

VIII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Chola kings were great patrons of learning: Support the statement with details.
Answer:

1. Rajendra I established Vedic college at Ennayiram where Vedas, grammar, and Upanishad were taught.
2. This was later followed by his successors and two more such colleges had been founded.
3. The Great literary works like Periyapuranam and Kamba Ramayanam belong to this period.

IX. Students Activity:

Who am I?

Question 1.
I was responsible for the Malik Kafur invasion.
Answer:
Sundara Pandiyan

Question 2.
I built 16-mile embankment-lake in Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola

Question 3.
I am a water supply channel.
Answer:
Vaykkal

Question 4.
I codified Thirumurai.
Answer:
Nambiyandar Nambi

Question 5.
I was a great port. Marco Polo visited me twice.

Answer:
Kayal Patnam

X. Answer Grid:

Question 1.
Name the two literary works of the Chola period.
Answer:
Periyapuranam, Kamba Ramayanam

Question 2.
Which port is associated with pearl fishery?
Answer:
Korkai

Question 3.
What do kasu, kalanchu and pon refer to?
Answer:
Gold coins

Question 4.
In which district is Kayal -Pattinam located?
Answer:
Thoothukudi

Question 5.
Who was the Pandya king, defeated by Parantaka I?
Answer:
RajaSimha II

Question 6.
Where is the famous Meenakshi temple located?
Answer:
Madurai

7th Social Science Guide Emergence of New Kingdoms in South India: Later Cholas and Pandyas Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The river ………………………. flow in Chola country
a) Cauvery
b) Vaigai
c) Gangai
d) Amaravathi
Answer:
a) Cauvery

Question 2.
The capital of Chola country was
a) Kayal
b) Madurai
c)Uraiyur
d)Vanchi
Answer:
c) Uraiyur

Question 3.
Gangai konda cholapuram was built by
a) RajarajaI
b) RajendraI
c) RajendraII
d) Kulonthunga I
Answer:
b) Rajendra I

Question 4.
VelanVagai landholders were called as
a) Vellalars
b) Chettis
c) Brahmas
d) Vaisyas
Answer:
a) Vellalars

Question 5.
Chola rulers were the followers of
a) Saivism
b) Vaishnavism
c) Buddhism
d) Jainism
Answer:
a) Saivism

Question 6.
Which saivi Saint converted Pandya king Arikestria Jainism to Saivism?
a) Appar
b) Thirugana sambandar
c) Sundarar
d) Maanikka vaasagar
Answer:
b) Thirugana sambandar

Question 7.
……………………….was known as koodal
a) Chennai
b) Trichy
c) Thanjavur
d) Madurai
Answer:
d) Madurai

Question 8.
Vaishnava saints were known as
a) Alwars
b) Nayanmars
c) Monks
d) Priests
Answer:
a) Alwars

Question 9.
The busiest port in Pandya country was
a) Tondi
b) Musiri
c) Kayal pattinam
d) Korkai
Answer:
c) Kayal Pattinam

Question 10.
Manur Inscription dated on
a) 800 A. D
b) 900 A.D
c) 1000A.D
d)1100A.D
Answer:
a) 800 A.D

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In ……………………..A.D Chola dynasty was declined.
Answer:
1279

2. The Group of Villages were called as……………………..
Answer:
Kurram

3. The eldest son in Chola kingdom was……………………..
Answer:
Yuvaraja

4. The Urar was……………………..
Answer:
landholders

5. ……………………..in Brahman villages carried out administrative, Judicial, and Financial functions.
Answer:
Sabhaiyar

6. The sub-section of Vellalar was……………………..
Answer:
Ulu-kudi.

7. ……………………..were the lowest rung of society.
Answer:
Adimai and Panicey – makkal

8. The ……………………..was in practice in distributing the water.
Answer:
turn system

9. Mani – gramattar was…………………….. traders.
Answer:
inland

10. Anju-vannattar was……………………..traders.
Answer:
maritime

11. Pandyas early capital was……………………..
Answer:
Korkai

12. Pandyas eliminated the power of ……………………..and came to power.
Answer:
Kalabhras

13. Arikesari Maravarman was known as ……………………..
Answer:
Kunpandian

14. Arikesari Maravarman was a contemporary of the Pallava king……………………..
Answer:
Mahendravarman I.

15. Arikesari impaled ……………………..Jains.
Answer:
8000

III. Match the Following:

A	B
1. Uttiramerur	a) Karnataka
2. Vijayalaya	b) Puducherry
3. Tirubuvanai	c) Kanchipuram
4. I cole	d) Thanjavur

Answer:

A	B
1. Uttiramerur	c) Kanchipuram
2. Vijayalaya	d) Thanjavur
3. Tirubuvanai	b) Puducherry
4. I cole	a) Karnataka

IV. True or False:

1. The average cost of Jama – lud din’s own breed cost was 220 dinars of Gold.
Answer:
True

2. Marco Polo and wassaff state the importance of the spice trade.
Answer:
false

3. Marco Polo hailed the chola kingdom as the richest and the most splendid province in the world.
Answer:
false

4. The 16-mile long embankment built by Rajendra chola in Gangaikonda cholapuram
Answer:
true

V. Consider the following statements. Tick ( ) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which assertion is are correct about the pavons at cholas in Learnins
1. Chola kings were great patrans of learning.
2. Rajendra I established a vedic college at Ennayiram village
3. Cholas were learning vedas, grammar and upanishadi
4. Two more such colleges founded in 1048 and 1067
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of these
Answer:
c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The Governments of the east coast pursued a more liberal and enlightened policy towards overseas trades.
Reason (R) : Arab settlements were expanded on the west coast of Southern India
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : The Chola period witnessed extensive construction of temples.
Reason (R) : Chola rulers were ardent saivifies
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What were the works of Committees in Chola country?
Answer:

• The assemblies in Ur, Sabha, Nagaram and Nadu worked through Various Committees in Chola country.
• The Committees took care of irrigation, roads, temples, gardens, collection of revenue, and conduct of religious festivals.

Question 2.
Write a note on Uttiramerur Inscription.
Answer:

• Uttiramerur is situated in Kanchipuram District. It was a Brahmadeya village.
• The process of election qualification of candidates was mentioned in this inscription.

Question 3.
Point out the importance of Vedic College in Ennayiram
Answer:

• King Rajendra, I established the Vedic College at Ennayiram.
• There were 340 students learning Vedas, grammar, and Upanishads by 14 teachers.

Question 4.
Who was ai – nutruvar?
Answer:
The Ai – Nutruvar was a guild, operated the maritime trade in Chola country covering South – East Asian Countries.

Question 5.
Mention the name of Royal officials in the Pandya Empire.
Answer:
Maran – eyinan, Sattan, – ganapathy, enathi – sattan, tira – tiran, murthi- eyinan and others.

Question 6.
What is an Embankment?
Answer:
An embankment is a wall or stone structure built to Prevent a river from flooding an area as well as to store water.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Rajaraja I was the powerful ruler of the Chola Empire – Justify.
Answer:

• Rajaraja I was the most powerful and popular ruler.
• He established Chola authority over South India, the West coast, and Srilanka.
• He built the famous Brihadeshwara temple in Thanjavur.
• He had a marriage alliance with Eastern Chalukyas and extend his empire.

Question 2.
Discuss the external trade under Pandyas.
Answer:

• Kayal was the important port in Pandya Country. Gold coins were used as a medium of gold. It was variously called Kasu, Kalanchu and pon.
• Marco Polo and Wassaff were the foreign travellers praised the horse trade in the Pandyan kingdom.
• The horse traders were known as Kudirai Chetties. Pearl fishing was another important trade in the Pandya country.
• Arab traders established an agency in Pandya country and had trade connections to the east coast.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality

7th Social Science Guide Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following does not come under Equality?
a) Non discrimination on the basis of birth, caste, religion, race, colour, gender.
b) Right to contest in the election.
c) All are treated equal in the eyes of law.
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor.
Answer:
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor

Question 2.
Which one of the following is comes under political Equality?
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.
b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste.
c) All are equal before the law.
d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law.
Answer:
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy

Question 3.
In India, right to vote is given to all the citizens at the age of ………………….
a) 21
b) 18
c) 25
d) 31 .
Answer:
b) 18

Question 4.
Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, money, religion etc is called as ………………….
a) Natural inequality
b) Manmade inequality
c) Economic inequality
d) Gender inequality
Answer:
b) Manmade inequality

Question 5.
In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women in the year
a) 1981
b) 1971
c) 1991
d) 1961
Answer:
b) 1971

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Civil equality implies equality of all before ………………….
Answer:
Law

2. The Indian constitution deals about the Right to equality from Article …………………. to ………………….
Answer:
14,18

3. Right to contest in the election is a ………………….Right.
Answer:
political

4. Equality means, absent of ………………….privileges.
Answer:
Social

III. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is Equality?
Answer:
Equality is ensuring individuals or groups are not treated differently or less favourably on the basis of caste, gender, disability, religion or belief, etc.

Question 2.
Why is gender Equality needed?
Answer:

• Women are considered as weak as compared to men.
• Their rights, responsibilities, and opportunities depend on males.
• So women need Gender Equality to the equal rights of both men and women to have access to opportunities and resources.

Question 3.
What is civil Equality?
Answer:

• Civil equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
• There should not be any discrimination of Superior or inferior, the rich or the poor, caste or creed.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the importance of Equality.
Answer:

• Equality is a powerful moral and political ideal that has inspired and guided human society.
• The concept of equality in votes the idea all are equal regardless of their caste, colour, gender, race or nationality.
• Democratic ideals are meaningful and effective only when they are implemented with equal justice.

Question 2.
What is political Equality?
Answer:
Political Equality includes

• Right to vote
• Right to hold public Office
• Right to criticise the government

1. Citizens should have an equal opportunity to actively participate in political life.
2. In India, the voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18years of age ’ without any discrimination.
3. Any person who has completed the age of 25 years can contest in the election.
4. Right to criticise the government is also a very important right and the people can express their resentment through demonstrations.
5. The value of the vote of the Prime Minister and the value of the vote of the common man in the general election is the same which denotes political equality.

Question 3.
How does the Constitution of India protect the Right to Equality?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India has also guaranteed equality to all citizens by providing Articles form 14-18.
   • Article 14 – guarantees to all the people equality before the law.
   • Article 15 – deals with the prohibition of discrimination.
   • Article 16 – provides equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.
   • Article 17 – abolishes the practice of untouchability.
   • Article 18 – abolishes the titles conferred to citizens.
2. Equality before the law and equal protection of the law has been further strengthened in the Indian constitution under Article 21.

HOTs:

Question 1.
How can we eliminate inequality at the school level?
Answer:

1. Students should be given admission in school without any discrimination of superior or inferior. The rich or the poor, caste, or creed.
2. The Government has taken several measures to ensure that students from a different state of society get an opportunity to study in private schools too through RTE (Right to Education) Act.
3. Wearing a uniform helps to nip off the social and economical discrimination that may arise among students. Students should be encouraged to develop feelings of oneness among themselves.

I. Life Skills.

Write the correct answer.

Enumeration of Different types of equality	Type of equality
1. There should not be any discrimination among the citizens on the basis of status, caste, colour, creed and rank, etc.
2. Equality of all before the law.
3. Right to vote, right to hold public office and right to criticize the government.
4. My ability is not less than men in any aspect.
5. conurbation

Answer:

Enumeration of Different types of equality	Type of equality
1. There should not be any discrimination among the citizens on the basis of status, caste, colour, creed and rank, etc.	Social Equality
2. Equality of all before the law.	Civil Equality
3. Right to vote, right to hold public office and right to criticize the government.	The population more than 5000
4. My ability is not less than men in any aspect.	Political Equality
5. conurbation	Gender Equality

7th Social Science Guide Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Which equality should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, color and race?
a) civil
b) Social
c) economic
d) political
Answer:
b) Social

Question 2.
The Rule of law is in force in
a) Britain
b) France
c) Ireland
d) the USA
Answer:
a) Britain

Question 3.
Which is the first country to give the right to vote to women in 1st general election?
a) Canada
b) the USA
c) Britain
d) India
Answer:
d) India

Question 4.
The first general election ¡n India was held in the year?
a) 1950
c) 1951
e) 1952
d) 1953
Answer:
c) 1952 .

Question 5.
The reservation has been given to women in Local bodies are
a) 33%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 66%.
Answer:
c) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Liberty and equality are …………….. ideals.
Answer:
democratic

2. …………….. equality means that all citizens enjoy equal status in society.
Answer:
Social

3. ……………..equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
Answer:
Civil

4. Rule of law was advocated by ……………..the British Legalist.
Answer:
A.V Dicey

5. All democratic countries guaranteed the rights ……………..to all citizens.
Answer:
political

6. ……………..is given the voting right to all citizens has attained 18 years of age.
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise

7. ……………..preserves the dignity of an individual.
Answer:
Equality

8. Any person who has completed the age of ……………..can contest in the election.
Answer:
25 years

9. ……………..Equality is equal opportunities and resources given to men and women equally.
Answer:
Gender

10. In 2017, UNO declared ……………..equality is the fifth sustainable goal.
Answer:
Gender

III. Match the following:

1. Article 14	a) Prohibition of discrimination
2. Article 15	b) guarantees equality
3. Article 16	c) abolishes untouchability
4. Article 17	d) Provides equal opportunity employment

Answer:

1. Article 14	b) guarantees equality
2. Article 15	a) Prohibition of discrimination
3. Article 16	d) Provides equal opportunity employment
4. Article 17	c) abolishes untouchability

IV. True or false:

1. Rule of law was advocated by Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
False

2. Article 21 strengthened the equality before the law in the Indian constitution
Answer:
True

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Equality is an important principle for a society to function.
Reason (R) : Equality preserves the dignity of an individual
a) A and R are correct and explains A.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
A and R are correct and explains A.

V. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is social equality?
Answer:

• Social equality is all citizens are entitled to enjoy equal status in society.
• There should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, colour and race.
• All have equal opportunity.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of Equality?
Answer:
There are four kinds of Equality as follows:

• Social Equality
• Civil Equality
• Political Equality
• Gender Equality

Question 3.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18 years of age without any discrimination is known as Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Gender equality given by UNICEF?
Answer:

• According to UNICEF, Gender Equality means that “women and men, and girls and boys, enjoy the same rights, resources, opportunities and prolictions.
• It does not require that they be treated exactly alike”.

Question 5.
What is human dignity?
Answer:

• Human dignity is the most important human right. Dignity is the quality of being honourable, noble, and excellent.
• Every human being regarded as a valuable member of the community.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How can we promote Equality?
Answer:

• We can promote equality by
• Treating all fairly
• Creating an inclusive culture
• Ensuring equal access to opportunities
• Enabling to develop full potential
• Making Laws and policies
• Education.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of inequalities? Give examples.
Answer:

• There are two kinds of inequalities Nature and man-made in equalities.
• Nature has made man equal in colour, height, talent, physical strength, etc.,
• Man-made in equalities on the basis of caste, money, religion, etc.,

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 2 Chapter 2 Media and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 2 Chapter 2 Media and Democracy

7th Social Science Guide Media and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following comes under print media?
a) Radio
b) Television
c) Newspaper
d) Internet
Answer:
c) Newspaper

Question 2.
Which one of the following is the broadcast media?
a) Magazines
b) Journals
c) Newspaper
d) Radio
Answer:
d) Radio

Question 3.
Which invention has brought the world closure?
a) Typewriter
b) Television
c) Telex
d) none of these
Answer:
b) Television

Question 4.
Which is mass media?
a) Radio
b) Television
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both a &b

Question 5.
Why is it necessary for media to be independent?
a) to earn money
b) to encourage company
c) to write balanced report
d) none of these
Answer:
c) to write balanced report

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………………have made the world smaller and closer.
Answer:
Mass Media

2. Every individual person is a medium of……………………
Answer:
expression

3. Printing press was invented by……………………
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

4. ……………………is a code of values which govern our lives.
Answer:
Mass Media

5. ……………………is the radio broadcast of the Government of India.
Answer:
Akashvani /All India Radio

III. Match the following:

1. Narrowcast media	a) Films
2. Social media	b) posters
3. Print media	c) Seminar
4. Web media	d) google web site
5. Broadcast media	e) facebook

Answer:

1. Narrowcast media	c) Seminar
2. Social media	e) facebook
3. Print media	b) posters
4. Web media	d) google web site
5. Broadcast media	a) Films

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Print media has been referred to as people’s university
Reason (R) : They perform the role of public informer, educate, custodian of public interest.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is Correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one
a) newspapers
b) magazine
c) journals
d) twitter
e) posters
Answer:
d) twitter

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) Media is generally the agency for interpersonal communication.
b) Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
c) Media plays a prominent role in the formation of public opinion.
d) Media does not have any responsibility
i) a, b and c are correct ii) a, c and d are correct
iii) b, c and d are correct iv) a, b and d are correct
Answer:
i) a, b and c are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is media?
Answer:

• Media is the agency for inter-personal communication.
• It includes every broadcasting and narrowcasting medium.
• It allows communicating messages, thoughts, ideas, views, etc.

Question 2.
How does the public get the news about the decision that is taken in the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

• Media carry every report of the action of the Legislative Assembly.
• Based on the information the people can learn about the functioning of the government and the decision taken in the Legislative Assembly.

Question 3.
What is the importance of local media?
Answer:
Local Media in each locality gives importance to the local problem of the public.

Question 4.
Media is the fourth pillar of democracy. Justify.
Answer:

• The fourth pillar of democracy Media ensures that all the people should aware of happenings in the country.
• It also ensures transparency in the working of all the other three Pillars.

Question 5.
State any two responsibilities of media.
Answer:

• The media has a massive responsibility in providing facts.
• The media should help people to express their opinion on important social issues.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
How can we classify media?
Answer:
Classification of Media:

• Narrowcast Media – Cable Television, Direct mail, Seminar
• Broadcast Media – Films, Television, Radio
• Print Media – Newspapers, Magazine, Journals, Books, Posters, Reports.
• Web Media – Google website and Blogs
• Social Media – Twitter, Facebook, WhatsApp and Instagram

Question 2.
In what ways does the media play an important role in a democracy?
Answer:

• Media is the backbone of democracy.
• In our democratic society mass media is the driving force of public opinion
• Media strengthens democratic value. It enlightens and empowers people.
• It can educate the voters and ensures that government is transparently accountable.
• Media carry every report of the action of administration of the government
• Based on the information, the citizen can learn about the functioning of the government and day to day happenings taking place around them.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of media?
Answer:

• People get the latest news in a very short time
• People get to bring out their hidden talents.
• Great in promoting mass consumer products.
• Serves as a good source of entertainment
• Media leads to the diffusion of different cultures.

VII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Is Media necessary? Why?
Answer:
Yes, Media is necessary. In today’s society, the use of social media has become necessary for daily social interaction and access to news and information and decision making. It is a valuable communication tool with others locally and worldwide, as well as to share, create, and spread information.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term press conference?
Answer:
A press conference is an event organized to officially distribute information and answer questions from the media. Press conferences are held by corporations and other businesses, politicians, and other government officials.

Question 3.
In what ways media affects our daily lives?
Answer:
Media is considered as the best source to know about the happenings of the world. Newspaper, magazine, radio, television and the internet are the different types of media. It greatly affects our lives because media has the power to influence our thoughts. This influence is sometimes positive and sometimes negative.

Question 4.
Media is a boon or bane.
Answer:
The media can be both boon or bane, depending on our usage. If we use it intelligently, it will be useful in gaining knowledge and for the best impact. Also, some stunts in movies and television are copied by people, which leads to major accidents in our society.

Question 5.
Name Some Local Media of your locality.
Answer:
News Papers and magazine:
Deccan Chronicle, The Hindu, Dinamalar, Dina Thanthi, Malai Malar, Kumudam, Ananda Vikadan, etc.

7th Social Science Guide Media and Democracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

 I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
Television belongs to which media?
a) Broadcast
b) Narrowcast
c) Print
d) Social
Answer:
a) Broadcast

Question 2.
Instagram belonged to which media?
a) Broadcast
b) Narrowcast
c) Print
d) Social
Answer:
d) Social

Question 3.
Printing Press was invented in the year
a) 1400
b) 1450
c) 1453
d) 1460
Answer:
c) 1453

Question 4.
The backbone of Democracy.
a) Media
b) resources
c) Transport
d) Minerals
Answer:
a) Media

Question 5.
……………………media has been referred to as people’s university
a) Broadcast media
b) Print media
c) Social media
d) Web Media
Answer:
b) Print media

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………………… is generally the agency for inter-personal Communication.
Answer:
Media

2. A …………………… or …………………… allows communicating messages, thoughts, ideas, views, etc.
Answer:
medium, media

3. An awakened and free media is very much essential for the function of the
Answer:
government

4. Akashvani means……………………
Answer:
voice from the sky

5. Twitter belongs to ……………………
Answer:
social media

6. …………………… media and …………………… media helps the people to express their opinion on important social issues.
Answer:
Print, electronic

7. Parliamentary democracy can flourish only under the watchful eyes of ……………………
Answer:
media

8. Democracy means ……………………
Answer:
rule by people

9. Films comes under the …………………… media.
Answer:
broadcast

10. …………………… provides transparency of the government.
Answer:
Media

III. Match the following:

1. Harikatha	a) E-Mail
2. Personal communication	b) Seminar
3. Mass communication	c) Religious stories
4. Narrowcast Media	d) Television

Answer:

1. Harikatha	c) Religious stories
2. Personal communication	a) E-Mail
3. Mass communication	d) Television
4. Narrowcast Media	b) Seminar

IV. Consider the following statement: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
a) Media does not interfere in democracy
b) Media broadcast national and international News
c) Media is working for the welfare of a particular area
d) Media educates masses in rural areas
i) a, b, and c are correct
ii) a, c and d are correct
iii) b, c, and d are correct
iv) a, b and d are correct
Answer:
iii) b, c, and d are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why Print Media referred to as People’s University?
Answer:
Print media has been referred to as People’s university because they perform the role of public informer, educate and custodian of public interest.

Question 2.
What are the Four Pillars of Democracy?
Answer:
The four pillars of Democracy are the Legislature, Executive, Judiciary, and Media.

Question 3.
Define Democracy.
Answer:
Democracy means rule by the people. It combines two Greek words ‘Demos’ refers to citizens. ‘Kratos’ means either power or rule.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the classifications of communication?
Answer:

• Communication can be classified into two types.
• They are personal and mass communication.

Personal communication:

• These are personal use like cell phones, telephones, fax, and letters.

Mass communication:

• These are used for communicating with the masses.
• Ex. T.V. radio and newspaper.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government

7th Social Science Guide State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?
a) 18 Years
b) 21 Years
c) 25 Years
d) 30 Years
Answer:
c) 25 Years

Question 2.
How many states does India have?
a) 26
b) 27
c) 28
d) 29 .
Answer:
d) 29

Question 3.
The word state government refers to
a) Government departments in the states
b) Legislative Assembly
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Both a and b

Question 4.
The overall head of the government in the state is the
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 6.
Who becomes the Chief Minister?
a) Leader of the majority party
b) Leader of the opposition party
c) Both
d) None
Answer:
a) Leader of the majority party

Question 7.
What are the three branches of the state Government?
a) Mayor, Governor, MLA
b) Panchayat, Municipality, Corporation
c) Village, City, State
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
Answer:
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Governor is appointed by the ………………..
Answer:
President

2.The leader of the majority party is appointed as ……………….. in the State Assembly.
Answer:
Chief Minister

3. ………………..is the highest judicial organ of the state.
Answer:
High Court

4. Mia stands for ………………..
Answer:
Member of the Legislative Assembly.

5. ………………..is a particular area form were all the voters living there choose their representatives.
Answer:
Constituency

6. The elected representatives who are not the member of ruling party are called ………………..
Answer:
Opposition party

III. Match the following.

1. MLAs	a) Chennai
2. Governor	b) 7
3. Chief Minister	c) Head of the State
4. Union Territories	d) Legislative Assembly
5. Fort St. George	e) Leader of the Majority party

Answer:

1. MLAs	d) Legislative Assembly
2. Governor	c) Head of the State
3. Chief Minister	e) Leader of the Majority party
4. Union Territories	b) 7
5. Fort St. George	a) Chennai

IV. Consider the following statement: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
To become a governor, one
a) Should be the citizen of India
b) Should have completed 25 years of age
c) Should have sound mind
d) Should not hold any office of profit,
i) A & b ii) C & d iii) A iv) B
Answer:
iv) B

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and state true or false

a) MLAs are together responsible for the work of government.
Answer:
True

b) All the MLAs of other political party who do not belong to the ruling party are called opposition.
Answer:
True

c) MLAs are not the representatives of people.
Answer: False

Question 3.
Find out the correct meaning of bicameral legislature
a) It means that there are cameras in the legislature.
b) It means that the legislature has men and women members.
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.
d) It means that the governor is the leader over the members of the legislature.
Answer:
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : India has a federal system of government.
Reason (R) : According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state governments
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct and R explains A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What are the qualifications to become the Governor of a state?
Answer:
A person to be eligible for the post of Governor should be:

• The Governor should be the citizen of India.
• They should have completed 35 years of age.
• The Governor should have a sound mind and should not hold any public office of profit.

Question 2.
Who are called oppositions?
Answer:
The party which gets the total number of seats next to the majority party was called the opposition party.

Question 3.
Write a note on Lok Adalat.
Answer:
Lok Adalat is the people’s court established by the Government of India to settle disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Question 4.
What is a constituency?
Answer:
The constituency is the division in the state on the basis of the population. The entire state divided into several constituencies.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the powers of the Governor.
Answer:

• Governor is the head of the State executive.
• All the administration works are carried out by his name.
• All bills become law only after his assent.
• He appoints important officials of the State Government such as Advocate General, Chairman, State Public Service Commision, State Election Commissioner, Vice-Chancellors of the State Universities etc.

Question 2.
Who is an MLA?
Answer:

1. The Member of the Legislative Assembly is called MLA.
2. They are elected by the people through general election.
3. The candidate who gets the more number of votes becomes MLA.
4. MLAs are the representatives of the people.

Question 3.
What is the role of the Chief Minister and other Council of Ministers at the state level?
Answer:

• The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.
• He allocated the portfolios among the ministers.
• The Chief Minister formulate programmes and policies for the welfare of the people of the state.
  Council of Ministers:
• All the ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislature and Legislative Assembly of state.

VII. HOTs.

Question 1.
Name some departments of the government.
Answer:
Some departments of the Government:

1. Agriculture Department
2. Energy Department
3. Health and Family Welfare Department
4. Industries Department
5. Law Department
6. Public works Department
7. School Education Department
8. Transport Department
9. Youth Welfare and Sports Department
10. Finance Department etc.

Question 2.
Tabulate: qualification, appointment and any two powers of Governor, Chief Minister and MLAs
Answer:

VIII. Activity.

Question 1.
Make a list of the name of the Governor, Chief Minister, and other Ministers with their departments
Answer:
State of Tamil Nadu Governor – Banwarilal Purohit
Chief Minister – EdappadiK., Palaniswami

Minsters:

1. Dindigul C. Sreenivasan – Minister for forests
2. SenkottaiyanK.A – Minister of School education
3. SelIur K. Raju – Minister of Co-Operation
4. Thangamani. P – Minister for Electricity
5. Velumani – Minister for Municipal & Rural administration
6. D. Jayakumar – Minister for Fisheries
7. K.P.Anbalagan – Minister of Higher Education
8. V. Saroja – Minister for Social Welfare and Nutritious Noon Meal Programme etc.

Question 2.
Write an essay on ‘If you were the Chief Minister of the state’
Answer:
If I will be the Chief Minister of the state:

1. I would pass a strong law banning the cutting of trees. For cutting every single tree he would be forced to plant 100 trees.
2. All the factory’s manufacturing units would be forced to install smoke and effluent treatment plants.
3. I would implement anti-corruption law.

7th Social Science Guide State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is our capital territory?
a) Chennai b) Mumbai
c) Newdelhi
d) Calcutta
Answer:
c) Newdelhi

Question 2.
The completed age of the people to cast their note in India
a) 15
b) 18
c) 20
d) 21
Answer:
b) 25

Question 3.
The term of the chief minister office is
a) 4 year
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
Answer:
b) 5 years

Question 4.
The chief minister should have completed which years
a) 21
b) 23
c) 25
d) 30
Answer:
c) 25

Question 5.
Who appointed the Vice-Chancellors?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Register
d) High court judge
Answer:
a) Governor

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Fort ………………….. is the first English fortress in India.
Answer:
St.George

2. A Legislative Assembly is the ……………….. house
Answer:
Lower

3 ………………..is the head of the union.
Answer:
President

4. The Member of the Parliament is called………………..
Answer:
MP

5. ………………..parties play a vital role in the election.
Answer:
Political

6 ………………..of India conducts the election.
Answer:
The Election Commission

7. ML A should have completed ……………….. years of age.
Answer:
30

8. Tamil Nadu has ………………..cameral Legislature.
Answer:
Uni

9. The lower house is called ………………..
Answer:
Legislative Assembly

10. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible for the State ………………..Assembly.
Answer:
Legislative

11. ……………….Courts are to settle disputes relating to marriages.
Answer:
Family

12. Lok Adalat also called as
Answer:
People’s Court

III. Match the following:

1. High Court	a) 29
2. States	b) Highest Judicial Organ
3. New Delhi	c) State capital
4. Chennai	d) National Capital

Answer:

1. High Court	a) 29
2. States	b) Highest Judicial Organ
3. New Delhi	c) State capital
4. Chennai	d) National Capital

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
1. There was no separate system of administration for the union, states, and union territories.
2. MLA’s are appointed by the governor
3. The central and state government work, together according to the Indian constitution
Answer:
3. The central and state government work together according to the Indian constitution

Question 2.
1. Vellore Fortress is the first English fortress in India.
2. St. George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu
3. Redfort is in Chennai
Answer:
2. St George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where is Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly is at Fort St. George, Chennai.

Question 2.
Define the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
A Legislative Assembly is the Lower house where all the MLAs meet to discuss various matters related to the welfare of the state.

Question 3.
Define the Federal system.
Answer:
The power is divided into two sets of governments – the Central Government and State Government. This is called as Federal system.

Question 4.
Explain Central Government.
Answer:

• India is a parliamentary democratic republic country.
• The President of India is the head of the Indian Union and the Prime Minister and all the ministers are responsible to run the Government. This is called the Central Government.

Question 5.
Who conducts elections in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India conducts and monitors the elections.

Question 6.
What is Bi-cameral Legislature?
Answer:
A state has two houses – an Upper house and a Lower house. This is called the Bi-cameral Legislature.

Question 7.
What is Unicameral Legislature?
Answer:

• In India, states have two houses in their Legislature.
• But some states have a Lower house only. This is called Uni-cameral Legislature.
• Ex: Tamil Nadu.

Question 8.
For what purpose courts have been established?
Answer:
The courts have been established to ensure justice to the people without any bias.

Question 9.
What are the duties of the three main branches of Government?
Answer:

• The three main branches or organs of Government are the legislative, executive, and Judiciary.
• The Legislative branch makes laws, the executive branch enforces the laws and the judiciary interprets the laws.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Judicial System of States in India.
Answer:

• The Hight courts are the highest judicial organ in the state.
• It is an independent body.
• The State high court consists of a Chief Judge and other Judges.
• Chief Judges are appointed by the President and hold office till the age of 62.
• District courts and tribunals, family Courts, and Lok Adalat also ensure justice to the people and settle the disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

7th Social Science Guide Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is renewable resource?
a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Petrol
d) Solar energy
Answer:
d) Solar energy

Question 2.
Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?
a) Kamuthi
b) Aralvaimozhi
c) Muppandal
d) Neyveli
Answer:
a) Kamuthi

Question 3.
Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Copper

Question 4.
……………. is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics industry.
a) Limestone
b) Mica
c) Manganese
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Mica

Question 5.
Electricity produced from coal is called ……………………
a) Thermal Power
b) Nuclear power
c) Solar power
d) Hydel power
Answer:
a) Thermal Power

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.
Answer:
China

2. Iron ores found at………………….in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kanjamalai

3. ………………..is produced from bauxite ore.
Answer:
Aluminum

4. ……………… is used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called …………………..
Answer:
Black gold

III. Match the following:

1. Renewable resource	a) Iron
2. Metallic resource	b) Mica
3. Non-metallic resource	c) Wind energy
4. Fossil fuel	d) Sedimentary rock
5.. Limestone	e) Petroleum

Answer:

1. Renewable resource	c) Wind energy
2. Metallic resource	a) Iron
3. Non-metallic resource	b) Mica
4. Fossil fuel	e) Petroleum
5.Limestone	d) Sedimentary rock

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind power is clean energy.
Reason (R) : Wind turbines do not produce any emissions.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
Reason (R) : It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Resource.
Answer:
The things which can be used for satisfying the human need is called resource.

Question 2.
What are the uses of iron?
Answer:

• Iron is used to make steel.
• It is usable in engineering applications such as the construction of machinery and machine tools, automobiles, large ships, structural components of buildings, bridges etc.

Question 3.
What are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world?
Answer:
India, China, Japan, Italy and the United States of America are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Question 4.
Name the types of coal-based carbon content.
Answer:
Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content. They are:

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Peat.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Duralumin.
Answer:

• Duralumin is a strong, hard, lightweight alloy of aluminum widely used in aircraft construction.
• It is produced by the addition of small quantities of other metals to aluminium, it creates a superior Alloy than pure aluminium.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Biotic resources and abiotic resources
Answer:
Biotic resources:

1. Biotic resources are found in the biosphere which is obtained from living and organic materials.
2. Biotic resources depend on abiotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Plants, trees, animals, microorganisms etc.

Abiotic resources :

1. Abiotic resources are the non-living parts of an environment.
2. Abiotic resources do not depend on biotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Sunlight, temperature, water, soil, air, etc.

Question 2.
Renewable resources and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. Renewable resources can be used again and again throughout its life.
2. These resources are present in unlimited quantity.
3. These resources are pollution-free
4. Example: Solar energy, wind energy, and hydropower.

Non-renewable resources:

1. Non-renewable resources cannot be used again and again as it is limited which can be depleted one day.
2. These resources are present in a limited quantity only.
3. These resources are not pollution-free.
4. Example: Fossil fuels, iron, copper, gold silver etc.

Question 3.
Metallic resources and non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Metallic resources:

1. Metallic resources are the types of resources that are composed of metals.
2. These are hard substances, which are good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of metallic resources are iron, copper, gold, bauxite, silver, manganese, etc.

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Aluminium has a wide range of uses compared to other metals.
Answer:

• Aluminium is light in weight, tough and cheaper, which makes it popular metal for constructional purpose.
• It is mainly used in the construction of aircrafts, ship, automobiles, railway coaches and etc.
• So, Aluminium has wide range of use compared to other metals.

Question 2.
Water is considered a great source of energy.
Answer:
At present, water is used for producing hydroelectric power. Hydroelectricity is generated from moving water with high velocity and great falls with the help of turbines and dynamos. So water is considered a great source of energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. The sun produces energy in the form of heat and light. Solar energy is not harmful to the environment.
2. Photovoltaic devices or solar cells, directly convert solar energy into electricity.
3. India, China, Japan, Italy, and the States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Hydropower:

1. Hydroelectricity power is the cheapest and most versatile source of energy out of all the know energy. Hydroelectric power is a renewable resource.
2. China, Canada, Brazil, the United States of America, Russia, India, Norway, and Japan are some countries producing hydroelectricity. China is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.

Wind energy :

1. Wind power is clean energy since wind turbines do not produce any emission.
2. In recent years, wind energy has become one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies.
3. Major wind energy-producing countries are United States, China, Germany, Spain, India, United Kingdom, Canada and Brazil.

Question 2.
Describe the non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

Mica:

1. Muscovite and Biotite are the common ores of Mica.
2. It is one of the indispensable minerals used in the electrical and electronics industry.
3. In powder form, it is used for making lubricating oils and decorative wallpapers.

Limestone:

1. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, composed mainly by skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and molluscs.
2. About 10% of sedimentary rocks are limestones. Mostly limestone is made into crushed stone and used as a construction material.
3. It is used for facing stone, floor tiles, stair treads, windows sills, and many other purposes.
4. Crushed limestone is used in smelting and other metal refining process. Portland cement is made from limestone.

Question 3.
What are the different types of fossil fuel resources? Explain them.
Answer:
Fossil fuel resources:

1. Fossil fuel resources are normally formed from the remains of dead plants and animals.
2. They are often referred to as fossil fuels and are formed from hydrocarbon.

Coal:

1. This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel that forms when dead plant matter is converted into peat.
2. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines to generate electricity.

Petroleum:

1. Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located in Offshore and coastal areas.
2. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold as they are very valuable.

Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
2. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.

IX. Activity:

2. Crossword puzzle

Across
2. The leading coal producers of the world.
Answer:
China

4. Considered as a great source of energy.
Answer:
Water
5. Precious metal like gold.
Answer:
Silver

6. Used as an insulating material in the electrical industry.
Answer:
Mica

Down

1. Used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

2. Good conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Copper

3. The largest producer of gold in India.
Answer:
Karnataka

5 . Produces energy in the form of heat and light.
Answer:
Sun

7th Social Science Guide Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Bhatra Nangal Dam is situated in
a) Punjab
b) Hariyana
c) Gujarat
d) Orissa
Answer:
a) Punjab

Question 2.
Which is the fourth most element in Earth’s crust?
a) Silica
b) Zypsum
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer:
c) Iron

Question 3.
Aluminium is produced from which ore?
a) Maganese
b) mica
c) Bauxite
d) Anthraxite
Answer:
c) Bauxite

Question 4.
Which is the world’s leading silver producer?
a) India
b) Mexico
c) South Africa
d) Srilanka
Answer:
b) Mexico

Question 5.
Which is steel, greyed hard, shiny and brittle metal?
a) Manganese
b) Mercury
c) Silver
d) Zinc
Answer:
a) Manganese

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………….. energy is not harmful to the environment.
Answer:
Solar

2. Hydroelectricity is generated from…………………water.
Answer:
moving

3. ………………..resources that are once consumed and cannot be replaced.
Answer:
Non – renewable

4. ………………..is the world’s number one country in the production of copper.
Answer:
Chile

5. ………………..is a rare and precious metal.
Answer:
Gold

6. …………….. field is one of the deepest mines of the world located in India.
Answer:
Kolar Gold

7. ………………… is the world’s leading bauxite producer.
Answer:
Australia

8. …………………is the world’s leading producer of manganese.
Answer:
South Africa

9. …………………and…………………are the common ores of mica.
Answer:
Muscovite and Biotite

10. ………………… is the world’s top producer of Mica.
Answer:
China

11. Fossil fuels are formed from…………………
Answer:
hydro carbon

12. ………………..in china is the largest hydroelectricity project in the world.
Answer:
Three Gorges Dam

13. Tehri Dam is situated in ………………… in India.
Answer:
Uttarakhand

14. The leading coal producers of the world is …………………
Arts:
China

15. ……………………..energy is not harmful to the environment
Answer:
Solar

III. Match the following:

1. Mexico	a) China
2. Manganese	b) South Africa
3. Bauxite	c) Australia
4. Mica	d) Silver

Answer:

1. Mexico	b) South Africa
2. Manganese	a) China
3. Bauxite	d) Silver
4. Mica	c) Australia

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind Aluminum is a popular metal for construction purposes.
Reason (R) : Aluminium light in weight tough and cheaper,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the importance of resources?
Answer:

• Natural resources satisfy the daily needs of man such as food, clothing, and shelter.
• It also contributes to boosting up a nation’s economy.

Question 2.
Name major wind farms in India.
Answer:

• Muppandal
• Jaisalmer
• Brabmanvel
• Jalgaon
• Damanjodi.

Question 3.
Which is the clean energy? Why?
Answer:
Wind power is clean energy because wind turbines do not produce any emissions.

Question 4.
Point out any 5 Hydroelectricity projects.
Answer:

1. Tehri dam
2. Srisilam Dam
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. Sardar Sarovar Dam
5. BhakraNangalDam.

Question 5.
What is limestone?
Answer:
Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and mollusks.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Differences between Manganese and Mica
Answer:
Manganese

1. Manganese is a steel greyed, hard, shiny, and brittle metal
2. The common ores of manganese are pyrolusite Manganese Psilomelane and Rhodochrosite
3. Manganese is used in electrical batteries disinfecting liquids bleaching powder, Fertilizer, etc.
4. South Africa is the world’s leading producer of Manganese

Mica:

1. Insulting soft metal
2. The common ores of mica are muscovite and Biotite
3. Mica is used in the electrical industry making lubricating oil and decorative wallpapers
4. China is the world’s top producer of Mica

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Wind power is clean energy.
Answer:
Wind Turbines do not produce any emissions. In react years, wind energy is one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies so wind power is clean energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Classify and explain the resources based on origin.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, resources may be divided into two types. They are

1. Biotic resources
2. Abiotic resources

Biotic resources:

• Biotic resources are found in biosphere materials.
• It includes forests, crops, birds, animals, fishes, man and fossil fuels.

Abiotic resources:

• Abiotic resources that come from non-living, nonorganic material.
• Ex: land, water, air, sunlight, gold, copper, silver, etc.

Question 2.
Which is called Black Gold? Describe it.
Answer:

• Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold. It is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located near coastal areas. It produces a variety of products like diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics, etc.
• The chief petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, and Qatar.
• Digboi in Assam, Bombay High are the leading producers of petroleum in India.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

7th English Guide Journey by Train Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 79)

Work in Pairs. Choose six items which are essential for a camp. Rank their priority and justify your answer. (Text Book Page No. 79)

1. Wrist watch – We should keep up punctuality in the camp. Hence we need the watch.

2. Torch light – When the current fails we need the torch.

3. Candle – If the battery in the torch light does not help us we are in need of candle.

4. Tent – Tent is essential for staying in the forests.

5. Guide book – The guide book tells us the directions to be followed in the camp. So it is essential.

6. Stove – If we are in need of hot water for drinking and bathing we need a stove.

7. Cellphone – When we have a cellphone we are at zero km distance with our friends and parents.-

8. Rope – Rope is useful in trekking, tenting and in many other activities.

9. Hammer – If we have the hammer we can have nailing easily.

Section – II

Textual Questions (Text Book Page No. 83)

Discuss and answer

1. Why did the train stop in the middle of the forest?
Answer:
There were no railways laid for fifty miles from Kholby to Allahabad. So the train stopped.

2. Why was Sir Francis angry?
Answer:
The tickets were sold covering the distance from Bombay to Calcutta. The papers also announced the opening of the railway throughout. The papers were mistaken. So, Sir Francis was angry.

Section – III

Textual Questions (Text Book Page No. 85)

Discuss and answer:

1. Which mode of transport did Fogg choose?
Answer:
Mr. Fogg chose to travel by elephant.

2. Did he hire Kiouni? Why?
Answer:
Mr. Fogg wanted to hire Kiouni. Since the owner of the elephant refused, for it. he purchased the elephant.

3. Why was the elephant owner happy with the deal?
Answer:
The owner sold the elephant at the excessive sum of 2,000 pounds. So he was happy.

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 86)

A. Fill in the table.

Answer:

Problems Faced By Mr. Fogg And His Team.	Solution
The train stopped in the middle of the forest.	The passengers found out their own conveyance.
They couldn’t hire the elephant.	The owner of the elephant refused to hire the elephant for the group of Mr. Fogg. So the elephant was purchased.
They were in need of an elephant driver.	The young man offered his service as guide to Mr. Fogg.

B. Answer the questions briefly.

1. Who inhabited the jungles that the train passed through?
Answer:
Snakes, tigers, and elephants inhabited the jungles that the train passed through.

2. What was the reaction of the inhabitants?
Answer:
The elephants stood gazing with sad eyes at the train as it passed. This was the reaction of the elephants.

3. What did Mr. Fogg mean by, ‘it was foreseen’?
Answer:
Mr. Fogg meant that some difficulty or the other would sooner or later arise on his route.

4. Describe the elephant driver in your own words.
Answer:
The elephant driver was a young man. He appeared to be intelligent. He voluntarily came forward to help Mr. Fogg as his guide in the forest. He was a skilled person. He equipped the elephant. His zeal was increased with the promise of a good reward from Mr. Fogg.

C. Think and Answer.

1. What qualities of Mr. Phileas Fogg are highlighted in this extract? Support your answer with suitable examples.
Answer:
Mr. Phileas Fogg was a rich, English man. He was a member of the Reform Club of London. He orders his life precisely by the clock and makes a bet with fellow club members that he can travel around the world in 80 days. He travels with his French servant Passepartout. He is a precise and intelligent man. He is perfect in his manners and is very punctual as well as particular about what he wants. This is evident in this extract when he is determined to travel to Allahabad as planned. He even goes to the extent of purchasing an elephant for 2000 pounds to continue his travel to Allahabad. These qualities of Mr: Fogg are highlighted in his extract.

Vocabulary

D. Fill in the blanks with correct travel words.

To make travel convenient, we must book tickets well in advance. Then we have to pack our things and schedule our trip. We have to reach the railway station in time and board the train in order to reach our destination.

E. Match the phrasal verbs with their meanings.

Answer:

Section – A	Section – B
Phrasal Verbs	Meanings
1. set out	– to begin a journey
2. pick up	– to get someone from a place
3. getaway	– to go somewhere for a short break or holiday
4. see off	– to go to the station to say goodbye to someone
5. get into	– to enter a bus, a train, or a plane
6. get off	– to leave a bus, a train, or a plane

F. Dictionary Task. (Text Book Page No. 87)

Refer to a dictionary. Find the meaning of the following words and write them down.
(Text for listening is on page number – 155)

Answer:
1. journey – an act of travelling.
2. picnic – an occasion when a packed meal is eaten outdoor.
3. pilgrimage – Journey to a sacred place for a religious reason.
4. tour – a journey for pleasure
5. vacation – a fixed holiday period
6. excursion – a short journey took as a leisure activity.

Listening

G. Listen to the teacher reading the Weather forecast and complete the report.

Name of the Cyclone is Gaja. It may affect the places in north Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. Heavy rains are expected on Nov 14^th and 15^th Nov. It is 880 km away from Nagapattinam.

Speaking (Text Book Page No. 88)

H. Your family has decided to go on a tour during the vacation. You are calling a travel agency and seeking information regarding package, places of visit cost, etc. Work in pairs and role play as a receptionist and a customer.

Receptionist – Good morning Sir. How can I help you?
Customer – Good morning. I am in need of some information.
Receptionist – Well sir. Tell me
Customer – My family wants to go on a tour.
Receptionist – Fine Sir. What is your estimate for the tour?
Customer – Five thousand per head.
Receptionist – Then you can go to Bangalore and Mysore.
Customer – How many days of trip is it?
Receptionist – Three days sir. Two days at Bangalore and one full day at Mysore.
Customer – What are the places to be visited?
Receptionist – Lai Bah, Visvesraiya museum, Cubbon park, Bannerghatta, Biological Park, Hilltop sunset, Nandi Hills, Tippusultan Summer place, St. Philomena Church, Brindavan, Zoo at Mysore, Mysore Maharaja Palace, etc will be the places to be visited.
Customer – Is it a package tour?
Receptionist – Yes sir. Travelling expenses like to stay at hotels on nights, local bus fare, tickets at tourist spots all are included in the package.

Textual Grammar (Text Book Page No. 88)

I. Rewrite the story in the past tense. (Text Book Page No. 90)

The boy chases a cat. The cat climbs up the tree and purrs from the branch of the tree. The cat jumps to another tree. The boy who is chasing the cat notices a snake under the tree. He leaves his attempt to catch the cat and he runs home screaming for help.

Answer:
The boy chased a cat. The cat climbed UP the tree and purred from the branch of the tree. The cat jumped to another tree. The boy who was chasing the cat noticed a snake under the tree. He left his attempt to catch the cat and he ran home screaming for help.

J. Look at the picture and complete the following.

Nila told Miruthula that the hotel was famous for masala Idli. Miruthula said that the idly was soft and spongy. Nila exclaimed yummy, yummy. It was delicious too. She also said that they had added Kashmiri chili and spices too. Miruthula said that her sister also liked the dish very much.

Writing

K. Your friend is coming to your city/town to spend a week with you. He/she wants to visit some tourist places and enjoy the special food items of the place. Prepare a two-day itinerary for the visit.

Answer:

Creative Writing (Text Book Page No. 91)

L. You are waiting to board a train at a railway station. The train is delayed by an hour. Write a paragraph about the crowded scene in the railway station based on your observation.

The railway station is a place of activity. We can see many people on the platform. Some wait for the train to arrive. Some stand in a queue at the ticket counter to get their train tickets. There are vendors on the platform. Here we see a fruit vendor. She sells bananas. There are porters. They help the people in carrying their luggage to the train. There are railway tracks find on either side of the platform. There is a loudspeaker to give the announcements. There is a railway worker working On the platform with his scroll board. There is a tea vendor with his tea can. Many people travel with their families. They may be going to attend marriages or some other purpose. We see piles of luggage on the platform. The modem way is to use trolley bags as our luggage.

Journey by Train Summary in English

An Englishman, Mr. Phileas Fogg, and his attendant Passepartout attempt to go round the world in eighty days, one wager of $ 20000 set by his friends at the Reform Club. They travelled on a train from Bombay to Calcutta Via Surat. The train stopped near a hamlet of Kholby. Their Co¬passenger, Sir Francis Cromarty asked for the reason for the halt. The railway lines were not yet finished. So the passengers must provide means of transportation to themselves up to Allahabad. But Mr. Fogg was cool and said that they would reach Calcutta on 22nd. They could leave Calcutta for Hong Kong on 25th.

Journey by Train Summary in Tamil

பிலியஸ் பாக் என்ற ஆங்கிலேயர் தன் உதவியாளர் பாசபார்ட் அவுட் என்பாருடன், உலகத்தை எண்பது நாளில் சுற்றி வருவதாகப் பந்தயம் கட்டுகிறார். தன் நண்பர்களுடன் பந்தயம் கட்டுகிறார். அந்த நண்பர்கள் ‘ரிபாம் கிளப்’ என்ற கிளப்பை சேர்ந்தவர்கள். 20000 டாலர் பணம் பந்தயத்தில் ஜெயித்தால் பிலியஸ் வெல்ல முடியும். எனவே, அவர்கள் புகைவண்டியில் பாம்பேயில் இருந்து கல்கத்தாவிற்கு சூரத் வழியாகச் செல்கிறார்கள். ரயில் கோல்பி என்ற ஊரின் அருகே உள்ள கிராமத்தில் நின்று விடுகிறது. அவர்களுடன் பயணம் செய்பவரான, சர். பிரான்சிஸ் சென்று காரணம் கேட்கிறார். ரயில் பாதை முடிக்கப்படாது உள்ளது என்றும் பயணிகள் தங்கள் பயண ஏற்பாட்டை தாங்களாகவே, அலகாபாத் வரை செல்ல ஏற்பாடு செய்து கொள்ள வேண்டும் என்றும் கூறப்படுகிறது. ஆனால் திரு. பாக் நிதானமாய் இருந்தார். அவர்கள் 22ம் தேதி கல்கத்தா செல்ல இயலும். 25ம் தேதி கல்கத்தாவிலிருந்து ஹாங்காங் செல்ல இயலும் என்றும் கூறினார்.

Journey by Train About the Author in English

Jules Verne was a French novelist, poet, and playwright. He was born on 8.2.1828 at Nantes in France. He has written many short stories like ‘Runners’. His stories had been made in movies too. He died on 24.3.1905 in Amiens, France. He is famed for revolutionary science fiction novels. He was a prolific French author whose writings laid much of the foundation of modem science fiction. The extract is given in section I is taken from the novel ‘Around the World in Eighty days’.

Journey by Train About the Author in Tamil

ஜூல்ஸ் வெர்னே என்ற பிரெஞ்சு ஆசிரியர் கவிஞர், நாடக ஆசிரியர், எழுத்தாளர் என்ற பன்முகதிறன் வாய்ந்தவர். 8.2.1828 அன்று பிரான்சில் உள்ள நான்டேஸ் என்ற ஊரில் பிறந்தார். ரன்னர்ஸ் போன்ற பல சிறுகதைகளை எழுதியுள்ளார். இவரது கதைகள் திரைப்படமாகவும் ஆக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. இவர் 24.3.1905 பிரான்சில் உள்ள எமியன்சில் இறந்தார். புரட்சிகரமான அறிவியல் புதினங்கள் எழுதியமைக்காக இவர் புகழ் பெற்றார். நிறைய எழுதிய இந்த ஆசிரியரின் எழுத்துக்கள் அறிவியல் புதினங்களின் அடிப்படையை உருவாக்கின. நமக்கு கொடுக்கப்பட்ட பகுதி, ‘எண்பது நாளில் உலகத்தைச் சுற்றி’ என்ற புத்தகத்திலிருந்து எடுக்கப்பட்டது.