Category: Class 7

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

7th Social Science Guide Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is renewable resource?
a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Petrol
d) Solar energy
Answer:
d) Solar energy

Question 2.
Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?
a) Kamuthi
b) Aralvaimozhi
c) Muppandal
d) Neyveli
Answer:
a) Kamuthi

Question 3.
Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Copper

Question 4.
……………. is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics industry.
a) Limestone
b) Mica
c) Manganese
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Mica

Question 5.
Electricity produced from coal is called ……………………
a) Thermal Power
b) Nuclear power
c) Solar power
d) Hydel power
Answer:
a) Thermal Power

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.
Answer:
China

2. Iron ores found at………………….in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kanjamalai

3. ………………..is produced from bauxite ore.
Answer:
Aluminum

4. ……………… is used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called …………………..
Answer:
Black gold

III. Match the following:

1. Renewable resource	a) Iron
2. Metallic resource	b) Mica
3. Non-metallic resource	c) Wind energy
4. Fossil fuel	d) Sedimentary rock
5.. Limestone	e) Petroleum

Answer:

1. Renewable resource	c) Wind energy
2. Metallic resource	a) Iron
3. Non-metallic resource	b) Mica
4. Fossil fuel	e) Petroleum
5.Limestone	d) Sedimentary rock

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind power is clean energy.
Reason (R) : Wind turbines do not produce any emissions.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
Reason (R) : It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Resource.
Answer:
The things which can be used for satisfying the human need is called resource.

Question 2.
What are the uses of iron?
Answer:

• Iron is used to make steel.
• It is usable in engineering applications such as the construction of machinery and machine tools, automobiles, large ships, structural components of buildings, bridges etc.

Question 3.
What are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world?
Answer:
India, China, Japan, Italy and the United States of America are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Question 4.
Name the types of coal-based carbon content.
Answer:
Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content. They are:

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Peat.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Duralumin.
Answer:

• Duralumin is a strong, hard, lightweight alloy of aluminum widely used in aircraft construction.
• It is produced by the addition of small quantities of other metals to aluminium, it creates a superior Alloy than pure aluminium.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Biotic resources and abiotic resources
Answer:
Biotic resources:

1. Biotic resources are found in the biosphere which is obtained from living and organic materials.
2. Biotic resources depend on abiotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Plants, trees, animals, microorganisms etc.

Abiotic resources :

1. Abiotic resources are the non-living parts of an environment.
2. Abiotic resources do not depend on biotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Sunlight, temperature, water, soil, air, etc.

Question 2.
Renewable resources and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. Renewable resources can be used again and again throughout its life.
2. These resources are present in unlimited quantity.
3. These resources are pollution-free
4. Example: Solar energy, wind energy, and hydropower.

Non-renewable resources:

1. Non-renewable resources cannot be used again and again as it is limited which can be depleted one day.
2. These resources are present in a limited quantity only.
3. These resources are not pollution-free.
4. Example: Fossil fuels, iron, copper, gold silver etc.

Question 3.
Metallic resources and non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Metallic resources:

1. Metallic resources are the types of resources that are composed of metals.
2. These are hard substances, which are good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of metallic resources are iron, copper, gold, bauxite, silver, manganese, etc.

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Aluminium has a wide range of uses compared to other metals.
Answer:

• Aluminium is light in weight, tough and cheaper, which makes it popular metal for constructional purpose.
• It is mainly used in the construction of aircrafts, ship, automobiles, railway coaches and etc.
• So, Aluminium has wide range of use compared to other metals.

Question 2.
Water is considered a great source of energy.
Answer:
At present, water is used for producing hydroelectric power. Hydroelectricity is generated from moving water with high velocity and great falls with the help of turbines and dynamos. So water is considered a great source of energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. The sun produces energy in the form of heat and light. Solar energy is not harmful to the environment.
2. Photovoltaic devices or solar cells, directly convert solar energy into electricity.
3. India, China, Japan, Italy, and the States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Hydropower:

1. Hydroelectricity power is the cheapest and most versatile source of energy out of all the know energy. Hydroelectric power is a renewable resource.
2. China, Canada, Brazil, the United States of America, Russia, India, Norway, and Japan are some countries producing hydroelectricity. China is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.

Wind energy :

1. Wind power is clean energy since wind turbines do not produce any emission.
2. In recent years, wind energy has become one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies.
3. Major wind energy-producing countries are United States, China, Germany, Spain, India, United Kingdom, Canada and Brazil.

Question 2.
Describe the non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

Mica:

1. Muscovite and Biotite are the common ores of Mica.
2. It is one of the indispensable minerals used in the electrical and electronics industry.
3. In powder form, it is used for making lubricating oils and decorative wallpapers.

Limestone:

1. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, composed mainly by skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and molluscs.
2. About 10% of sedimentary rocks are limestones. Mostly limestone is made into crushed stone and used as a construction material.
3. It is used for facing stone, floor tiles, stair treads, windows sills, and many other purposes.
4. Crushed limestone is used in smelting and other metal refining process. Portland cement is made from limestone.

Question 3.
What are the different types of fossil fuel resources? Explain them.
Answer:
Fossil fuel resources:

1. Fossil fuel resources are normally formed from the remains of dead plants and animals.
2. They are often referred to as fossil fuels and are formed from hydrocarbon.

Coal:

1. This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel that forms when dead plant matter is converted into peat.
2. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines to generate electricity.

Petroleum:

1. Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located in Offshore and coastal areas.
2. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold as they are very valuable.

Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
2. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.

IX. Activity:

2. Crossword puzzle

Across
2. The leading coal producers of the world.
Answer:
China

4. Considered as a great source of energy.
Answer:
Water
5. Precious metal like gold.
Answer:
Silver

6. Used as an insulating material in the electrical industry.
Answer:
Mica

Down

1. Used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

2. Good conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Copper

3. The largest producer of gold in India.
Answer:
Karnataka

5 . Produces energy in the form of heat and light.
Answer:
Sun

7th Social Science Guide Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Bhatra Nangal Dam is situated in
a) Punjab
b) Hariyana
c) Gujarat
d) Orissa
Answer:
a) Punjab

Question 2.
Which is the fourth most element in Earth’s crust?
a) Silica
b) Zypsum
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer:
c) Iron

Question 3.
Aluminium is produced from which ore?
a) Maganese
b) mica
c) Bauxite
d) Anthraxite
Answer:
c) Bauxite

Question 4.
Which is the world’s leading silver producer?
a) India
b) Mexico
c) South Africa
d) Srilanka
Answer:
b) Mexico

Question 5.
Which is steel, greyed hard, shiny and brittle metal?
a) Manganese
b) Mercury
c) Silver
d) Zinc
Answer:
a) Manganese

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………….. energy is not harmful to the environment.
Answer:
Solar

2. Hydroelectricity is generated from…………………water.
Answer:
moving

3. ………………..resources that are once consumed and cannot be replaced.
Answer:
Non – renewable

4. ………………..is the world’s number one country in the production of copper.
Answer:
Chile

5. ………………..is a rare and precious metal.
Answer:
Gold

6. …………….. field is one of the deepest mines of the world located in India.
Answer:
Kolar Gold

7. ………………… is the world’s leading bauxite producer.
Answer:
Australia

8. …………………is the world’s leading producer of manganese.
Answer:
South Africa

9. …………………and…………………are the common ores of mica.
Answer:
Muscovite and Biotite

10. ………………… is the world’s top producer of Mica.
Answer:
China

11. Fossil fuels are formed from…………………
Answer:
hydro carbon

12. ………………..in china is the largest hydroelectricity project in the world.
Answer:
Three Gorges Dam

13. Tehri Dam is situated in ………………… in India.
Answer:
Uttarakhand

14. The leading coal producers of the world is …………………
Arts:
China

15. ……………………..energy is not harmful to the environment
Answer:
Solar

III. Match the following:

1. Mexico	a) China
2. Manganese	b) South Africa
3. Bauxite	c) Australia
4. Mica	d) Silver

Answer:

1. Mexico	b) South Africa
2. Manganese	a) China
3. Bauxite	d) Silver
4. Mica	c) Australia

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind Aluminum is a popular metal for construction purposes.
Reason (R) : Aluminium light in weight tough and cheaper,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the importance of resources?
Answer:

• Natural resources satisfy the daily needs of man such as food, clothing, and shelter.
• It also contributes to boosting up a nation’s economy.

Question 2.
Name major wind farms in India.
Answer:

• Muppandal
• Jaisalmer
• Brabmanvel
• Jalgaon
• Damanjodi.

Question 3.
Which is the clean energy? Why?
Answer:
Wind power is clean energy because wind turbines do not produce any emissions.

Question 4.
Point out any 5 Hydroelectricity projects.
Answer:

1. Tehri dam
2. Srisilam Dam
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. Sardar Sarovar Dam
5. BhakraNangalDam.

Question 5.
What is limestone?
Answer:
Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and mollusks.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Differences between Manganese and Mica
Answer:
Manganese

1. Manganese is a steel greyed, hard, shiny, and brittle metal
2. The common ores of manganese are pyrolusite Manganese Psilomelane and Rhodochrosite
3. Manganese is used in electrical batteries disinfecting liquids bleaching powder, Fertilizer, etc.
4. South Africa is the world’s leading producer of Manganese

Mica:

1. Insulting soft metal
2. The common ores of mica are muscovite and Biotite
3. Mica is used in the electrical industry making lubricating oil and decorative wallpapers
4. China is the world’s top producer of Mica

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Wind power is clean energy.
Answer:
Wind Turbines do not produce any emissions. In react years, wind energy is one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies so wind power is clean energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Classify and explain the resources based on origin.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, resources may be divided into two types. They are

1. Biotic resources
2. Abiotic resources

Biotic resources:

• Biotic resources are found in biosphere materials.
• It includes forests, crops, birds, animals, fishes, man and fossil fuels.

Abiotic resources:

• Abiotic resources that come from non-living, nonorganic material.
• Ex: land, water, air, sunlight, gold, copper, silver, etc.

Question 2.
Which is called Black Gold? Describe it.
Answer:

• Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold. It is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located near coastal areas. It produces a variety of products like diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics, etc.
• The chief petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, and Qatar.
• Digboi in Assam, Bombay High are the leading producers of petroleum in India.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Poem 2 Courage Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Poem 2 Courage

7th English Guide Courage Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 121)

Look at the face It chart. Discuss in small groups and tell how to face those situations.

If you aspire to get the trophy on the sports day well and good. Aspiration is not enough. You have to practice for it taking painful efforts. You might get into fights, you might become sick, you might get some other problems. Still you have to target the trophy in your mind. You have to work for it. Then you will be successful surely.

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 123)

A. Answer the following questions.

1. Can courage be developed suddenly? Why?
Answer:
Courage is not a brilliant dash. It is not an instant thing. It is something deep in the soul of man.

2. When should we have courage?
Answer:
Courage persists in man always. It is an ingrained trait. It cannot be called in the times of danger.

3. Give an example for dazzling light.
Any light however powerful it is, it flashes and passes away from sight. But Courage is a permanent thing. It dwells in the heart of brave men for ever.

4. Can a courageous man be defeated? Why?
Answer:
Yes. A courageous man also meet many defeats, but he will not give up his target due to failure. He will struggle hard to overcome defeat and hardships.

5. What is the ‘breath of life’?
Answer:
Courage is the breath of life.

6. What are the characteristics of a courageous man?
Answer:
Patience, strength, hard work, doing daring deeds, striving for distant goal are the characteristics of courageous men. They are men of planning and unwavering.

Appreciation Questions

B. Read the following lines and answer the questions.

1. It isn ’t an instantaneous thing
Born of despair with a sudden spring
a. What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
Courage is not a quality that can arise in a person all of a sudden. ‘It’ refers to the quality of courage.

b. What does ‘born of despair mean’?
Answer:
A moment of despair can not bring out courage in a person. Because courage is a quality that is deep in the soul of man.

2. It’s a slow, unwavering, ingrained trait
With the patience to work and the strength to wait
a. What is an ‘ingrained trait’?
Answer:
Courage is an ingrained trait of bold man.

b. Why does a courageous man need patience?
Answer:
Victory in anything does not come easily. The strong men strive hard for their distant goal with patience and hardwork.

3. It’s part of his hours, his days and his years,
Back of his smiles and behind his tears.
a. What does ‘tears’ mean?
Answer:
Hardships and trials are difficulties , we face in our struggles. Defeats and tears are obstacles in the path of strong men. Still they are courageous to do their daring deeds.

Literary Appreciation:

C. Work in pairs and answer the following. (Text Book Page No. 124)

1. Pick out the alliterated words:
1. Sudden spring,
2. daring deed,
3. serve some plan

2. Pick out the rhyming words.
1. dash – flash
2. thing – spring
3. hope – rope
4. not – hot
5. goal – soul
6. sight – trait
7. blue – do
8. freed – need
9. show – go
10. defeat – meet
11. years tears
12. deed – creed

3. Write the rhyming scheme of the poem.
Answer:
The scheme of the poem runs as ab, ab, ab, ab, ab scheme in four stanze.

Creative Writing

Bio – Poem

A Bio-poem is an essay about oneself in the form of poetry.

Line 1 : Your name
Line 2 : Four adjectives that describe you.
Line 3 : Son of / daughter of… brother of / sister of.
Line 4 : Lover of three people, things, or idea.
Line 5 : Who feels (three sensations or emotion)
Line 6 : Who needs (three things)
Line 7 : Who gives (three things)
Line 8 : Who fears (three things)
Line 9 : Who would like to see (three persons or places)
Line 10: Who lives …
Line 11: your last name

NIRMALA Energetic, hard-working, presistent, loving Daughter of Raj and Mary, Sister ofJohn Lover of books, music, dance who feels happy, bright, smart Who needs service, training and sharing Who gives help, care and courage Who fears unkind words Wash judgements and uncharitable deeds Who would like to see Nile river Who lives in clara India

D. Work in small groups. Pick out the adjectives and nouns that suit you using a dictionary. Read the steps given. Arrange adjectives and nouns like the given sample to construct your BioPoem. Present in the class.

Adjective in the Bio-Poem	Nouns in the Bio Poem
Energetic, Hard Working, Persistent, Unkind, Uncharitable, happy, bright, smart	Nirmala, Daughter, Raj, Mary, sister, John, lover, books, music, dance, help, care, courage, happy, bright, smart, training, sharing, words, judgement, deeds, Nile, river, India

7th English Guide Courage Additional Appreciation Questions

1. “Courage isn’t the last resort
In the work of life or the game of sport;
It isn’t a thing that a man can call ”
a. What is not a thing that a man can call according to the poet?
Answer:
Courage can not be called by man. It is not the last resort in the work of life or the game of sport.

2. “Courage was never designed for show; ”
a. What does the poet mean in this line?
Answer:
The poet tells courage is a quality. It can be seen only in action. Courage can not be exhibited in empty words or show.

3. “It’s the breath of life and a strong man’s creed”
a. Why does the poet say the above line?
Answer:
Courage is an ingrained trait and it is in one’s breath and blood. It is an inborn quality. Strong men never have fear. Courage is their creed.

Courage Summary in English

Courage is in the soul of man. When a man strives for a distant goal. He must have courage with in his soul. It is part of the man. It is in victory and defeat. It is in smiles and tears. It is the breath of life.

Courage Summary in Tamil

தைரியம் என்பது மனிதனின் ஆன்மாவில் உள்ளது. மனிதன் இலட்சியத்தை நோக்கி முயற்சிக்கும் போது அவன் இதயத்தில் துணிவு இருக்க வேண்டும். துணிவு மனிதனின் இதயத்தின் ஒரு பகுதியாகும். இது வெற்றியிலும் உண்டு. தோல்வியிலும் உண்டு. புன்னகையிலும் உண்டு. கண்ணீரிலும் உண்டு. வாழ்வின் மூச்சுக் காற்றிலும் உண்டு .

Courage About the Author in English

Edgar Albert Guest (1881-1959) was a profilic England- born American poet who was popular in the first half of the 20th century and became known as the People’s poet. His poem often had an inspirational and optimistic view.

Courage About the Author in Tamil

எட்கார் ஆல்பர்ட் கெஸ்ட் என்பவர் (1881 -1959) வரை வாழ்ந்தவர். இங்கிலாந்தில் பிறந்த அமெரிக்கர். 20ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் முன் பாதியில் பிரபலமாய் இருந்தவர். மக்களின் கவிஞர் என்று புகழ் பெற்றவர். அவரது கவிதைகள் ஆர்வமூட்டுபவை. நல்ல நம்பிக்கை ஊட்டுபவை. நம் அன்றாட வாழ்வில் உற்சாகத்தை ஊட்டுபவை.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Prose Chapter 2 A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 2 A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery

7th English Guide A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 105)

Many people become engineers, doctors, IAS officers, film stars and soon. But few become “Human”. (Text Book Page No. 105)

Look at the pictures.

Discuss and Answer.

1. What makes a personal hero?
Answer:
A hero is a person with distinguished courage and ability. He has brave deeds and noble qualities. He is selfless, good, and responsible.

2. How do heroes make a difference?
Answer:
Heroes are not bom but made. They are high achievers. They are great souls. The efforts they make keep them in the line of outstanding heroes.

3. Does every hero have to fight or risk their life?
Answer:
Yes. The heroes take risks. They are selfless. They are willing to fight and bring reform. They face immense hardships. They fight against social evils and social injustice.

Think and Answer:

1. Can you think of a situation in which taking a small action would make a big difference?
Answer:
Feeding the hungry people, helping the needy men, sheltering the downtrodden people, educating the underprivileged children are small acts that can make big difference.

2. What about everyday heroes who do small but important acts?
Answer:
Firefighters, Social activists, men who help the society in natural disasters, Medical staff who treat the patients, people who guard our nation are real heroes in everyday life.

3. Are these people really heroes?
Answer:
Yes. People who create unforgettable impressions are real heroes. They work for the uplift and betterment of the nation. They risk their lives for the security of others. Such selfless people make the nation a blessed one. They are down to earth persons. They are strong but not rude. They are kind but not weak. They need not have superpowers. Still, they stand high as the makers of the nation.

Section – I

Textual Questions (Text Book Page No. 107)

Discuss and Answer:

1. How did Neerja save the Americans?
Answer:
Neerja Bhanot collected the passports of the Americans. She managed to hide their passports and discard them down the rubbish chute. With her help, 39 Americans out of 41 were saved.

2. Why did Neerja alert the pilots?
Answer:
Neerja alerted the pilots using the code. The pilots made an escape. The plane could not move from its place without the pilots. So, she alerted them.

3. What happened when the terrorists lost their patience?
Answer:
The terrorists lost their cool and opened fire on the passengers.

Section – II

Textual Questions (Text Book Page No. 109)

Discuss and Answer:

1. Name the schools and colleges Neerja studied in.
Answer:
Neerja studied upto 6th std in Sacred Heart School, Chandigarh. In Mumbai, She studied at Bombay Scottish School. She got her degree in St.Xavier’s College, Mumbai.

2. Why was Neerja sent to London?
Neeija was sent to London to get training to be a purser in Pan Am airways.

3. What is the duty of a purser?
Answer:
Pursers worked as managers on flights, handling passenger’s complaints, making required announcements and handling security.

Section – III

Textual Questions (Text Book Page No. 110)

Discuss and Answer:

1. Why was Neerja awarded the Asok Chakra?
Answer:
Neerja’s, bravery was acknowledged and rewarded. She was awarded the Ashok Chakra, India’s highest honour for bravery in peace time and she became the youngest civilian to receive it.

2. How was Neerja honoured by various governments?
Answer:
Indian Government gave Neerja Ashok Chakra.
American Government gave Neerja ‘Justice for Crimes Award’.
Pakistan Government gave her Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award.

3. What are the selection criteria for the Neerja Bhanot Pan Am award?
Answer:
The trust of Neerja Bhanot Pan AM gives an award to honour a flight crew member who acts beyond the call on duty. Another award is given to an Indian woman who overcomes social injustice and helps other women in similar social distress.

Think and Answer. (Text Book Page No. 111)

1. According to Neerja’s father, Neerja had well-defined principles and there was little room for compromise in that area. Do you have any principles where you don’t want to compromise?
Answer:
Yes, everyone should have his own principles, in avoiding the bad habit of telling lies, copying in the test, stealing the things of others in the class. Respecting the teachers and parents, obeying the elders must be the principles of all students.

2. Virinda told the Indian Express that Neerja was a loyal friend. Are you always loyal to your friend?
Answer:
Yes. We must be loyal to our friends. We must share good books with our friends. We must help them in their needs. We must correct them if they are wrong. We must guide them when they are helpless.

3. Neerja would speak her mind, tell them the truth, according to one of her classmates Eliza. Do you always have the courage to stand for the truth?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi refused to say any lies in his ife. He was successful in his freedom struggle. Like him, people who are truthful will always win even if they come across some difficulty in their efforts. A truthful person has a free conscience and a brave heart. He has no fear.

Read and Understand

A. Fill in the blanks.
1. The terrorists asked Neerja to collect the passports of the passengers because …………………………
Answer:
they wanted to target the Americans

2. Neerja passed on the warning in a code to the pilots because she ………………………….
Answer:
wanted them to escape

3. Neerja leapt into action when she ………………………….
Answer:
saw the danger

4. Neerja had a sour marriage due to ………………………….
Answer:
dowry harassment

5. Neerja was sent to London based on ………………………….
Answer:
performance and review

B. Think and write.

1. “I will die; but not run away” – Justify the saying of Neerja.
Answer:
Yes. Neerja Bhanot had been true to her words. She could have run away for She knew the escape routes well. But She died not ran away.

2. Why did the three governments of – India, America, and Pakistan – honour Neerja?
Neerja Bhanot had been an Indian. So the Indian government honoured her. The hijacking incident took place on the soil of Pakistan. So the Pakistan Government honoured her. Neerja Bhanot protected the Americans when the terrorists wanted to target the Americans. So the government of America honoured her.

3. How can we abolish terrorism?
Answer:
The unemployed youth are misguided to join terrorist movements. The rural youth and youth on the hill ranges have to be employed. Security in the country must be screwed up. Vigilant survillence throughout the country must get more tightened. These are some of the measures to abolish terrorism.

C. Read the “Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery” Once again and complete the flow chart.

D. Write a summary based on the flow chart.
Neerja Bhanot sacrificed her life in an attempt to hijack the plane. After graduation, she had a sour marriage. So she left her husband and took her career. She had been in modelling first. Then she became the cabin manager. When the plane was hijacked she alerted the pilots to escape. The plane could not move. She tried to evacuate the passengers. The terrorists opened fire. She died with the injury inflicted by bullets. She was given Ashok Chakra Award, Justice for Crimes Award, Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award. In the year 2004, the postage stamp was issued. A square in Mumbai was named after Neerja Bhanot.

Vocabulary

E. Fill in the blanks with appropriate airline vocabulary given in the box.

1. You must present the boarding pass at the gate.
2. It might be a turbulent ride because we are flying through a storm.
3. If you need anything just press the call flight.
4. The captain and the co-pilot set in the cockpit.
5. Gate 3B is down this hall and to your right.
6. We will be landing in Chennai in approximately ten minutes.
7. The plane almost missed the bumpy because it was such a bad storm.
8. We are next in line to touch down on this run way.
9. That was a very smooth take-off.
10. This runway should only last a few minutes.

F. Match the phrasal verbs in column A with their meaning in Column B.

Answer:

A	B
fight or flight	to defend oneself or to run away
put to flight	to cause someone to flee
take flight	to flee or run away
flight of fancy	an imaginative but unrealistic idea
have a nice flight	enjoy your flight
in full flight	escaping as rapidly as possible
top-flight	among the best of a particular group

G. Find out the anagrams. Use each pair of phrases as clues. (Text Book Page No. 114)

1. The past tense of a leap
Answer: leaped
Something to serve food on
Answer: Plate

2. A place to grow flowers
Answer: garden
Something to be careful of
Answer: danger

3. Another word for under
Answer: below
A part of your arm
Answer: elbow

4. Try to hear
Answer: listen
Another word for quiet
Answer: silent

5. Another word for gift
Answer: Present
A large snake or a dragon
Answer: serpent

6. Minutes and hours
Answer: Time
A thing on a list
Answer: item

7. An organ that pumps blood
Answer: heart
The planet we live on
Answer: earth

8. Something used to water plants
Answer: hose
A thing you put on your foot
Answer: shoe

Listening

H. Listen to the announcements and answer the questions (Text for listening is in page number -155)

H. Announcement-1

1. What is the number of the flight?
Answer:
Flight 89 B is the number of flight

2. What are the things to be kept ready?
Answer:
Boarding pass and identification must be kept ready.

3. When will the regular boarding begin?
Answer:
Regular boarding will begin in ten minutes.

Announcement – 2

1. For whom is the final boarding call?
Answer:
The final boarding call is for the passengers, Alex and Ruskin

2. Where should the passengers proceed?
Answer:
The passengers should proceed to gate 3 immediately.

3. Where is the flight to?
Answer:
The plane goes to New Delhi.

Announcement – 3

1. When will the flight be in the air?
Answer:
They expect the flight will be in the air in seven minutes.

2. What are the things that should be turned off?
Answer:
Cell phones, electronic devices should be. turned off while take off.

3. What is prohibited during the flight?
Answer:
Smoking is prohibited during the flight.

Speaking

J. Imagine that your are going to interview one of the survivors of the Pan Am Hijack. Discuss with your partner and write down the conversation. Then one of you play the role of the interviewer and other the survivor. You can use the sample questions given below. (Text Book Page No. 116)

1. Do you have any information regarding the suspects of the hijack?
Answer:
The hijackers wanted to fly to Israel and crash the plane against a building.

2. Which countries did the passengers belong to?
Answer:
The passengers were from many countries.
There were Indians, Germans, Americans, Pakistanis among others.
Note: There is no reference about the nationality of the hijackers in the lesson. So, this question is given wrongly.
Here we have the corrected question above.

3. What are the details of the hijacked flights?
Answer:
The aircraft Pan Am 73 was with 360 Passengers on board. It came from Mumbai. Its destination was the United States. It had been parked at Karachi airport. At that time, armed terrorists hijacked the plane.

4. How many passengers were on board?
Answer:
360 passengers were on board.

5. What happened in the last few minutes of the hijack drama?
Answer:
After 17 hours the plane ran out of power. The terrorists opened fire at the passengers. They raised hell on board. Neeija tried to evacuate the passengers.

6. Do you have information regarding the victims?
Answer:
No information of the victims is given in the book.

7. Was there any recorded communication to/from the plane during the hijacking?
Answer:
Usually, the voice recorder records the communication and it is inside the black box. The black box is kept in the tail of an aircraft. From the black box, some recorded communication during the hijacking could have obtained.

8. How many terrorists were there?
Answer:
There were four terrorists. ,

9. How did you feel when you were on the flight?
Answer:
I felt terrible. I was scared and felt hell.

10. Can you recall Neerja’s role in safeguarding the passengers?
Answer:
The service of Neeija was selfless and noble. She had been heroic, fearless, alert, and sensible. The braveheart sacrifices her life in the service of others.

Use Grammar

L. Discuss with your partner and Punctuate the following. (Text Book Page No. 117)

1. the woman said to the student please help me cross the street
Answer:
The woman said to the student, “Please help me cross the street.”

2. sarathy said oh how thrilling it was
Answer:
Sarthy said, “Oh! How thrilling it was!”

3. the teacher said to the students where do you want to go
Answer:
The teacher said to the students, “Where do you want to go?”

4. i am tired mohana said to her aunt
Answer:
“I am tired,” Mohana said to her aunt.

5. shankar said to his teacher madam I had prepared my project assignment but i forgot to bring it
Answer:
Shankar said to his teacher, “Madam, I had prepared my project assignment but I forgot to bring it.”

M. Complete the sentences in reported speech. (Text Book Page No. 117)

1. “It is too late,” I said that it ………………. too late.
Answer:
was

2. “I met you yesterday.” Sam told me that he had met me ………………..
Answer:
the previous day

3. “I cannot come,” Mala said that ………………..
Answer:
she could not come.

4. I will pay tomorrow. “He said that he would pay ………………..
Answer:
the next day.

5. The Himalayas are the highest mountain ranges. He knew that the Himalayas ………………. the highest mountain ranges.
Answer:
are

6. I may lend you some money.” Balu Promised ………………. some money.
Answer:
to lend me

7. I have been watching a film.” He said that ………………. a film.
Answer:
he had been watching

8. I have not done it today.” I explained that I had not done it ………………. .
Answer:
that day.

9. I was with him last week.” Jimmy told that ………………. with him the previous week.
Answer:
Jimmi had been

10. I will finish this picture tomorrow.” Jothi said that ………………. picture the next day.
Answer:
he would finish that

N. Read the following dialogue and report it.

Betty : What are you doing here, Kitty? I haven’t seen you since June.
Kitty : I’ve just come back from my holiday in Darjeeling.
Betty : Did you enjoy it?
Kitty : I love Darjeeling. The landscape is amazing.
Betty : Did you go to Lloyd’s Botanical Garden?
Kitty Yes, It was my first trip. I can show you some pictures. Are you doing anything tomorrow?
Betty : I must arrange a couple of things. But I am free tonight.
Kitty : You might come to my place. What time shall we meet?
Betty : I’ll be there at eight. Is it all right?

Betty asked Kitty how she was doing there. And she added she had not seen Kittv since June. Kitty explained that she had just come back from her holiday in Darjeeling. Betty asked if she enjoyed it. Kitty told her that she loves Darjeeling and that the landscape is amazing Betty wanted to know if Kittv had gone to the Lloyd’s Botanical Garden. Kitty said that it was her first trip and that she could show some pictures. And then she asked her if she was free that night Betty explained that she must arrange a couple of things. But she added that she was free that night. Kitty suggested that Betty should come to her place and asked her at what time she would be there Betty said she would be there at eight. And finally, she asked if it was all right.

Writing

O. Read the story of Neerja Bhanot. Make notes based on the table and complete it.


Answer:

Name		Neerja Bhanot
Father’s Name & Occupation		Harish Bhanot, Journalist
Mother’s Name & Occupation		Rama Bhanot, Journalist
Born on		7.9.1963
Nationality		Indian
State		Punjab
City		Chandigarh
Education		School: Sacret Heart High School, Chandigarh
		College: St. Xavier’s College, Bombay Scottish School Mumbai.
Career		Modelling, Purser in Pan Am air ways
Personal Life		Marriage had been a disaster – she left her husband
Siblings		She had two brothers, named Akil, Aneesh
Achievements		She became the senior most cabin manager in Pan Am airways
Awards		Ashok Chakra, Justice for crimes award, Tamgha – e- Insaniyat award
Legacy		Trust formed for two awards every year.
Died on		5.9.1986
Place of Death		Karachi airport, in the hijacking tragedy

Creative Writing

P. Heroes are ordinary people who do extraordinary things.” Write an anecdote on the extraordinary deed of Jaiswal K.P. who helped in the recent Kerala Flood. Use the tips given in the box. (Text Book Page No. 120)

An anecdote is a brief, revealing account of an individual person or an incident. Consider these questions to write an anecdote.

1. Who was involved in the story?
Answer:
Jaiswal. K.P. was involved in the story.

2. What, when, where happened?
Answer:
In the year 2018 August there was severe flood in Kerala due to high rainfall. 483 people died. 140 people were said to be missing. Due to flood, there were landslides 1,50,000 people were evacuated. Several districts were isolated. Traffic became impossible. Coastel areas were submerged.

3. How is it relevant?
Answer:
J.P. Kaiswal is a resident of Tanur. He helped an elderly woman step into an, inflatable boat. The fishermen and local residents helped the victims of flood to a great extent.

A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery Summary in English

A Plane, PAN Am Flight 73 was hijacked at Karachi airport by the terrorists. Neerja Bhanot tried to save the people. She made the pilots escape. She evacuated many passengers. She was hit by the bullets of the terrorists and she died.

Neeraja Bhanot had a sour marriage. So she left her husband. She became the senior most cabin manager.

The act of bravery was acknowledged and rewarded by Indian, Pakistanian and American governments. She was given Ashok Chakra award. She got ‘Justice for Crimes Award’ posthumously.

She received the Tamgha – e- Insaniyat award.
A trust is formed by her parents. A postage stamp was issued in her honour. In India, a square in Mumbai was named after her –

A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery Summary in Tamil

PAN AM Flight 73 என்ற விமானம் கராச்சி விமான நிலையத்தில், தீவிரவாதிகள் கட்டுப்பாட்டுக்குள் வந்தது. நீரஜா பானட் பயணிகளை காக்க விரும்பினாள். பைலட்கள், வெளியேறி தப்பிக்கும்படி செய்தாள். பல பயணிகளை விமானத்திலிருந்து தப்பிக்க வைத்தாள். தீவிரவாதிகளின் துப்பாக்கி குண்டில் பலியாகி இறந்தாள்.

நீரஜா பானட்டின் திருமணம் கசப்பானது. எனவே கணவன் வீட்டை துறந்தாள். மூத்த கேபின் மானேஜராய் விமானக் கம்பெனியில் பணி புரிந்தாள்.

அவளது வீரச் செயல், இந்திய பாகிஸ்தானிய, அமெரிக்க அரசுகளால் கௌரவிக்கப்பட்டது. அவளுக்கு அசோக சக்கரா விருது கிடைத்தது. ‘குற்றங்களுக்கு நீதி’ என்ற விருதும் மரணத்திற்கு பின் கிடைத்தது. தம்கா-இ-இன்சாட் யாட் விருதும் கிடைத்தது. அவளது பெற்றோரால் ஓர் அறக்கட்டளை தொடங்கப்பட்டது. நீரஜாவை கௌரவிக்க தபால் தலை இந்தியாவில் வெளியிடப்பட்டது. மும்பையில் ஒரு சதுக்கம் அவள் பெயரால் விளங்குகிறது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Poem 1 Sea Fever Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Poem 1 Sea Fever

7th English Guide Sea Fever Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 93)

Rescue the sinking words. (Text Book Page No. 93)

1. Sail
2. Navigate
3. explore
4. harbour
5. ship
6. wave
7. Voyage
8. Island

Textual Exercises (Text Book Page No. 93)

B. Choose the best answer.

1. The title of the poem ‘Sea Fever’ means
a) flu fever
b) the poet’s deep wish to be at sea
c) the poet’s fear of the sea
Answer:
b) the poet’s deep wish to be at sea

2. The poet asks for
a) a fishing net
b) a big boat
c) a tall ship
Answer:
c) a tall ship

3. The poet wants to lead a life at sea like
a) the gulls and whales
b) the penguins and sharks
c) the pelicans and dolphins
Answer:
a) the gulls and whales

C. Read the lines and answer the questions.

1. I must go down to the sea again, to the lonely sea and the sky
Where does the poet want to go?
Answer:
The poet wants to go to the lonely sea and the sky.

2. And the wheel’s kick and the winds song and the white sail’s shaking
What according to the poet are the pleasures of sailing?
Answer:
Hearing the wheel’s kick, hearing the wind’s song and feeling the white sail’s shaking are the pleasures of sailing.

3. And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying
Why does the poet ask for a windy day?
Answer:
On the windy day, the white clouds fly. Spume is blown. The sea gulls cry. So the poet wants’ a windy day, when he is in the sea.

4. And all I ask is a merry yam from a laughing fellow rover.
What kind of human company does the poet want?
Answer:
The poet wants to hear a merry, imaginary story from a fellow wanderer. The poet wants to get the company of a fellow rover.

5. And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over
What does the poet want to do after his voyage is over?
Answer:
When the voyage is over, the poet wants to have a quiet sleep and sweet dream.

D. Poem Appreciation.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct rhyming words from the poem.
Answer:
Sky by, knife life, rover over

2. Quote the line that has been repeated in the poem.
Answer:
I must go down to the seas again.

3. Write the poetic device which is used in the line below.
Answer:
And a grey mist on the sea’s face metaphor is the poetic device.

4. What poetic device is used for the comparison in the below line?
Answer:
‘Where the wind’s like a whetted life’ – simile is the comparison.

E. The poem has many visual and sound images. Complete the table with examples from the poem. The first one has been done for you.

Answer:

Visual images	Sound images
Wheel’s kick	Wind’s song
whetted knife	sea gulls crying
white clouds flying	call of the running tide
blown spume	laughing of the fellow rover
grey mist	appealing to the senses
lonely sea	bring a mood of freedom

7th English Guide Sea Fever Additional Appreciation Questions

1. I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky,
Why does the poet say ‘lonely sea’?
Answer:
The land is heavily populated. But the sea is always lonely due to its dangers. Only now and then ships sail on the sea. Most of the time, the sea appears to be lonely and deserted.

2. And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by;
Which star is referred to in the poem?
Answer:
The North star is the pole star which tells the sailor where North is and thus they can steer the ship correctly.

3. And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying,
Why does the poet ask for windy day?
Answer:
The winds help the mariners to sail smoothly in the sea. Favourable winds reduce the labour of the sailors.

Sea Fever Summary in English

I must go to the seas. I must go to the lonely sea. I need a tall ship and pole star. I must hear the wheel’s kick, wind’s song, white sail’s shaking. I must see mist and dawn. The call of the sea cannot be denied. I ask for a windy day, blowns spume, sea gulls, crying, gypsy life, cold wind, merry yam of a fellow rover, quiet sleep and sweet dreams after the voyage is over.

Sea Fever Summary in Tamil

நான் கடல் பயணத்திற்கு செல்ல வேண்டும். தனிமையான கடலும், வானமும் உள்ள கடலுக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். எனக்கு தேவைப்படுவது எல்லாம் ஒரு உயர்ந்த கப்பலும் துருவ நட்சத்திரமும் மட்டுமே. துருவ நட்சத்திரத்தின் துணை கொண்டு கப்பல் புறப்பட்டு, சக்கரங்களின் சப்தமும், காற்றின் இசையும், வெள்ளை நிற துடுப்புகளின் அசைவும், கடல் கன்னியின் முகத்திலே சாம்பல் நிறம் கலந்த மூடுபனியும், சாம்பல் நிறம் கலந்த காலை வெளிச்சமும் பட்டுத் தெறிப்பதை நான் உணர வேண்டும். நான் கடலுக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். ஆடும் அலைகளின் அழைப்பு பலத்த, தெளிவான அழைப்பு ஆக இருப்பதால் என்னால் அதனை புறக்கணிக்க முடியாது.

எனக்குத் தேவை எல்லாம் காற்று நிறைந்த நாள் மட்டுமே. காற்று வீசும் அந்நாளில் வெள்ளை மேகங்கள் பறந்தபடி இருக்க, கடல் நுரை தூக்கி எறியப்பட, கடல் பறவைகள் கத்தல் கேட்க, நான் கடல் பயணத்திற்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். நாடோடி வாழ்வுக்கு, கடல் பறவைகளும் திமிங்கலங்களும் நடமாடும் கடலில், தீட்டப்பட்ட கத்தி போன்ற கூர்மையான குளிர்காற்று ஊடுறுவும் கடல் பயணத்திற்கு, நான் செல்ல வேண்டும். நான் விரும்புவது ஒன்றுதான். நகைத்துக் கொண்டிருக்கும் சக மாலுமியின் மகிழ்வான கதையை கேட்க வேண்டும். கடல் பயணத்தின் பின்னால், எனக்கு அமைதியான உறக்கமும் கனவுகளும் வரவேண்டும்.

Sea Fever About the Author in English

John Edward Masefield Om was an English poet and writer, and poet laureate of the United Kingdom from 1930 until 1967. Among his best known works are the children’s novels. He was bom on 1. 6. 1878 and died on 12.5.1967.

Sea Fever About the Author in Tamil

ஜான் எட்வர்ட் மேஸ் பீல்ட் ஓம் என்பார் ஆங்கிலேய கவிஞர், எழுத்தாளர், ஆஸ்தான கவிஞராக அரசவையில் 1930 இருந்து 1967ம் ஆண்டு வரை பிரிட்டனில் இருந்தார். குழந்தைகட்கான புதினங்கள் அவரது கதைகளில் பிரபலமானவை. அவர் 1.6. 1878 இல் பிறந்து 12.5.1967ம் ஆண்டு இறந்தார்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 2 Chapter 3 Rise of Marathas and Peshwas Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 2 Chapter 3 Rise of Marathas and Peshwas

7th Social Science Guide Rise of Marathas and Peshwas Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
1. Who was the teacher and guardian of Shivaji?
a) Dadaji Kondadev
b) Kavi Kalash
c) Jijabai
d) Ramdas
Answer:
a) Dadaji Kondadev

Question 2.
How was the Prime Minister of Maratha kings known?
a) Deshmukh
b) Peshwa
c) Panditrao
d) Patil
Answer:
b) Peshwa

Question 3.
Name the family priest of Shambhuji who influenced him in his day-to-day administration.
a) Shahu
b) Anaji Datto
c) Dadaji Kondadev
d) KaviKalash
Answer
c) Dadaji Kondadev

Question 4.
What was the backbone of Shivaji’s army in the beginning?
a) Artillery
b) Cavalry
c) Infantry
d) Elephantry
Answer:
c) Infantry

Question 5.
Who proclaimed wars and freed Malwa and Gujarat from Mughal domination?
a) Balaji Vishwanath
b) Bajirao
c) Balaji Bajirao
d) Shahu
Answer:
Bajirao

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The spread of the …………….. movement in Maharashtra helped the Maratha people to develop
consciousness and oneness.
Answer:
Bhakti

2. …………… was the key official of the revenue administration of Peshwa.
Answer:
Kamavisdar

3. The imperial moment of the Marathas sadly ended at ………………. in 1761.
Answer:
Panipat

4. ……………… was the foreign minister in the Ashtapradhan.
Answer:
Sumant / Dubeer

5. Shambhuji succeeded Shivaji after a succession tussle with ………………..
Answer:
Anaji Datto

III. Match the following.

1. Shahji Bhonsle	a) Mother of Shivaji
2. Shambhuji	b) General of Bijapur
3. Shahu	c) Shivaji’s father
4. Jijabai	d) Son of Shivaji
5. Afzal khan	e) Shambhuji’s grandson

Answer:

1. Shahji Bhonsle	c) Shivaji’s father
2. Shambhuji	d) Son of Shivaji
3. Shahu	e) Shambhuji’s grandson
4. Jijabai	a) Mother of Shivaji
5. Afzal khan	b) General of Bijapur

IV. State true or false:

1. The rocky and mountainous terrain gave protection to the Marathas from invaders.
Answer:
True

2. Hymns composed in Sanskrit by the Bhakti saints were sung by people of all castes and classes.
Answer:
False

3. Shivaji captured Puranthar from the Mughals.
Answer:
True

4. Deshmukhs held sway over rural regions and their control was over between twenty and a hundred villages.
Answer:
True

5. Abdali invaded ten times before finally marching on Delhi.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Soldiers were to live in forts and towns far away from home
Reason (R) : Maratha soldiers were not permitted to retire from battlefields each year for the
purpose of cultivating their land.
a) R is correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is Wrong and R is correct
d)A and R are wrong
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Judging from the ledgers of correspondence and account books, Peshwas were keen on accurate record-keeping.
Statement II: Artillery decided the battle at Panipat in 1761.
a) I is correct
b) II is correct
c) I and II are correct
d) I and II are false
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd one out
Shahji, Shivaji, Shambuji, Shahu, Rahuji Bhonsle
Answer:

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair
1. Gaikwad – Baroda
2. Peshwa – Nagpur
3. Holkar – Indore
4. Shinde – Gwalior
Answer:
2. Peshwa – Nagpur

Question 5.
Arrange the events in chronological order
I) Shivaji became totally independent after the death of his guardian Kondadev.
II) Emperor Shahu died when Balaji Bajirao was Peshwa.
III) Shivaji resumed his military raids after his father’s death and conquered Javali.
IV) Balaji Vishwanath became Peshwa.
Answer:
I), III), IV), II)

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
The impact of the Bhakti movement on Marathas.
Answer:

• The Bhakti movement in Maharastra helped the Maratha people to develop consciousness of their identity and oneness.
• It promoted a feeling of unity and social equality among the Marathas.

Question 2.
Chauth and Sardeshmukhi
Answer:
Chauth:
It is one-fourth of the revenue collected as the protection money collected from the people by Shivaji.

Sardeshmukhi:
It was an extra one-tenth, as the chieftain’s due collected by Shivaji.

Question 3.
Role of Kamavisdar in Maratha revenue administration.
Answer:

• The revenue administration of Peshwas was headed by Kamavisdar.
• He had to maintain a small body of soldiers to police the administrative area, from where they collected tribute or tax.

Question 4.
Execution of Shambhuji by Mughal Army.
Answer:

• Shambhuji was in no position to resist the Mughals.
• But Aurangzeb himself arrived to Deccan and captured Shambhuji and after torture, hanged them put to death.

Question 5.
Battle of Panipat fought in 1761.
Answer:
The imperial moment of the Marathas sadly ended at Panipat near Delhi in 1761. The king of the Afghans, Ahmad Shah Abdali, invaded eight times before finally marching onto Delhi. The Marathas were now divided among several commanders, who approached the battle with different tactics. Artillery decided the battle in January 1761. The mobile artillery of the Afghans proved lethal against both Maratha cavalry and infantry.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Examine the essential features of the Maratha administration under Shivaji.
Answer:
Village Administration:

• Deshmukh control twenty and a hundred villages.
• Each village was administered by village headman ‘Patil’, who was assisted by village accountant ‘Kulkami’.

Military Administration:

• Shivaji gave utmost attention to his army and the training of its personnel.
• Every soldier was selected by Shivaji.
• Retired captains holding in charge of guarding the forts.

Ashtapradhan:
Shivaji designated eight ministers as ‘Ashtapradhan’. Peshwa was the Prime minister and Amatya was the finance minister.

Revenue Administration:

• He collected Chauth and Sardeshmukhi taxes.
• The assessments were made 3/5 left to the cultivator and 2/5 taken by the Government.

Judicial Administration:

• Civil cases decided by the Panchayat and village council.
• Criminal laws were based on the shastras of Hindu law books.

VIII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Compare the revenue administration of the Peshwas with that of Shivaji.
Answer:

• Peshwas appointed Kamavisdar to collect the tax.
• A small staff of clerks and servants were employed to maintain revenue records.
• The contract for revenue collection auctioned.
• A prospective tax or Revenue required to pay one third to one – half of the revenue.
• While Shivaji required to pay Chauth (1/4 of revenue) as protection money, and Sardeshmukhi (extra 1/10 of revenue) chieftain’s due.
• The assessment was made on three fifths (3/5) left to the cultivator and two fifths (2/5) taken by the government.

X. Student Activity:

I. Match the responsibilities of Ashtapradhan

A	B
1. Amatya	a) Foreign Minister
2. Waqia	b) Commander-in-chief
3. Sumant	c) Finance Minister
4. Senapati	d) Interior Minister

Answer:

A	B
1. Amatya	a) Foreign Minister
2. Waqia	d) Interior Minister
3. Sumant	c) Finance Minister
4. Senapati	b) Commander-in-chief

2. Group Activity

Question
Collect information about the Thanjavur Marathas with special reference to their contribution to education, art, and architecture.
Answer:

•  Venkoji, a half-brother of great Maratha king Shivaji established the Maratha Kingdom at Tanjore in April 1674 A.D.
•  Shahuji I, Serfoji I, Serfoji II were important rulers of Tanjore Maratha place, Saraswathi Mahal Library were important buildings built by them.
• They favoured, Sanskrit, and Telugu literature.
• Tanjore paintings are added beauty to their palaces.

7th Social Science Guide Rise of Marathas and Peshwas Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
The welfare system followed by Shivaji was
a) Tulughama
b) Guerilla
c) Tank System
d) Bluewater policy
Answer:
b) Guerilla

Question 2.
The major Mughal port in the Arabian sea was
a) Karachi
b) Cochin
c) Goa
d) Surat
Answer:
d) Surat

Question 3.
Shivaji assumed the title Chhatrapathi in the year.
a)1654
b)1664
c)1674
d)1684
Answer:
b) 1664

Question 4.
The village accountant and a keeper of records in the Maratha empire was
a) Kulkarni
b) Patil
c) Nyayadhish
d) Senapathi
Answer:
a) Kulkarni

Question 5.
Eight ministers council of Shivaji was known as
a) Astadiggajas
b) Ashta Pradhan
c) Navarathnas
d) Triratnas
Answer:
b) Ashta Pradhan

Question 6.
The name of the Gwalior Maratha family is ……………..
a) Gaikuvar
b) Bhosle
c) Holkan
d) Scindhia
Answer:
d) Scindhia

Question 7.
Shivaji conquered Javali from the Maratha chief …………………..
a) Chandra Rao More
b) Shaisha Khan
c) Afzal khan
d) Kondadev
Answer:
a) Chandra Rao More

Question 8.
………………was the major port of Mughals.
a) Bijapur
b) Javali
c) Pune
d) Surat
Answer:
d) Surat

Question 9.
In Maratha administration ……………… held sway over rural regions.
a) Patil
b) Kulkami
c) Deshmukkhs
d) All of these
Answer:
c) Deshmukkhs

Question 10.
In Maratha Administration Waqia – navis was responsible for …………….. ministry.
a) Finance
b) External affairs
c) Interior
d) Law
Answer:
c) Interior

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………. was the father of Shivaji.
Answer:
Shaji Bhonsle

2. Shivaji’s mother ……………….
Answer:
Jijabal.

3. Two great Hindu epics are ……………. and the ……………
Answer:
Ramé yana, Mahabharatha.

4. The strength of Shivaji’s army was …………….. Soldiers.
Answer:
Mavali foot

5. Shivaji conquered Javali in …………………
Answer:
1656

6. Aurangzeb’s uncle and the Mughal general were…………….
Answer:
Shaista Khan

7. Shivaji plundered Surat in ………………
Answer:
1664.

8. Chatrapati means ……………….
Answer:
Parasolpati

9. The village headman in Maratha kingdom was …………………..
Answer:
Patil.

10. ………………… was the chief Justice in the Marathon empire.
Answer:
Nyayadhish

11. Shahu mean …………….
Answer:
honest

12.Two prominent Maratha families are …………….., …………….
Answer:
Gaikwad, Peshwa

13. During the period of the ……………….. the northern frontiers of the Maratha state extended
Answer:
Peshwa Balaji Bajiro

14. The revenue administration of Peshwa was headed by a key official called ………………….
Answer:
Kamavisdar

15. the Third Battle of Panipat was fought in the year …………………
Answer:
1761 A.D

III. Match the following:

1. Peshura	a) Village accountant
2. Patil	b) Finance Minister
3. Amatya	c) Prime minister
4. Kulkami	d) Village head man

Answer:

1. Peshura	c) Prime minister
2. Patil	d) Village head man
3. Amatya	b) Finance Minister
4. Kulkami	a) Village accountant

IV. State true or false:

1. The Bhakti Movement in Maharastra helped the Maratha people develop consciousness of their identity and oneness
Answer:
True

2. The forces of Shivaji Plundered Surat in 1674.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Shivaji’s father captivated by the Sultan of Bijapur.
Reason (R) : Shivaji’s Military raids angered the Sultan of Bijapur.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Bajirao assumed the powers of the commands in chief
Reason (R) : He didn’t want to depend on Deshmukh’s
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
a) R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd one out.
1. Shurunavis, Waqia – Navis, Sumant, Kamavisdar
Answer:

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Who were the notable saints of the Bhakthi movement?
Answer:
Eknath, Tukaram, and Ramdas were the notable saints of the Bhakti Movement

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Chhatrapati?
Answer:
Chhatra means ‘parasol’, pati means ‘master or lord’ is the Sanskrit equivalent of King or Emperor. It was used by the Marathas, especially Shivaji.

Question 3.
Name the prominent Maratha families.
Answer:

• Gaekwad at Baroda
• Bhonsle at Nagpur
• Holkar at Indore
• Shinde or Scindhia at Gwalior
• Peshwa at Pune.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What were the factors responsible for the rise of Marathas?
Answer:
Geographical Features:
The rocky and mountainous terrain proved to be advantageous in guerrilla warfare for Marathas.

Bhakti Movement and the Marathas:
The Bhakthi Movement in Maharashtra helped the Maratha people develop consciousness of their identity and oneness. It promoted a feeling of unity and social equality among the Marathas.

Literature and Language of the Marathas:
Marathi Language and literature also served to develop unity among the people.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 2 Man Overboard Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 2 Man Overboard

7th English Guide Man Overboard Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Exercise

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 130)

A. Complete the following statements.

1. Everyone on the ship started to pray because
Answer:
they received a message about the formation of a storm

2. Vasantha’s imagination run wild because
Answer:
She had heard her teacher’s story of the storm

3. Vasantha made a lot of noise because
Answer:
a man tumbled over the railings into the wild sea

4. Vasantha could not see the rescue operation because
Answer:
the lifeboat was too far for her to see

5. The captain presented a gift to Vasantha because…
Answer:
of her immediate action in saving a man

B. Identify the speaker/character.

1. “Don’t worry, Madam, it’s only a warning.”
Answer:
The gentleman consoled the old lady, with these words.

2. “A man fell into the sea. Please save him. ”
Answer:
Vasantha shouted these words to the captain

3. “Stop ship. Drop anchor. Quick! ”
Answer:
Captain ordered to the crew members.

4. “He’ll have to be given artificial respiration and kept warm.”
Answer:
The doctor informed Vasantha with these words.

5. “Wake up, child.”
Answer:
A sailor made sleeping Vasantha to wake up with these words.

C. Book Talk!

Read the story once again and fill in the boxes.

Answer:

Project

E. Look at the picture. Browse the internet with the help of your teacher to get information about the little brave hearts of India.

Search for similar brave hearts in your locality.

Scan the QR. Download the nomination form for National Bravery Award. Read the instructions and fill the nomination for NBA.

Little brave hearts of India:
1. Gunjan, a young girl offered herself as a hostage to save her friends. She with her classmates were abducted in a school van in Assam. She was freed by the gunmen.
2. 17 years old Reshen Fatma’s uncle poured acid on her head when she refused to marry him. She pushed him off the car bravely. She managed to escape and went to the police station.
3. 16-year-old Monika, saw her neighbour drowning, in the Alaknanda river in Uttarkhand. She jumped in and saved him. But she was drawn in the current and sadly drowned.
4. 10 years old Vishal from Gujarat carried two 7 years old boys on his shoulders when he saw them drowning. He pulled them out.
5. Rumoh Meto, risked his own life while saving a 32-year-old man. Who was stuck to a 33 kV high voltage line? Rumoh sustained injuries and bums. His brave actions saved a life.
6. Riya a 15 years old girl from Lucknow sacrificed her life to save her father, when miscreants entered her house and attacked her family, they tried to shoot her father. Riya came in the way. and took the bullet herself. She saved her father. But Riya died on the spot.

Step to Success

F. In each question below, there is a sentence in which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

1. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
a. RQPS
b. QSPR
c. SQPR
d. PQRS
Answer:
a) RQPS

2. They felt safer
P: to watch the mountain
Q: of more than five miles
R: as they settled down
S: from a distance
a. RPSQ
b. RSQP
c. PQSR
d. PRSQ
Answer:
b) RSQP

3. If you need help
P: promptly and politely
Q: ask for attendants
R: to help our customers
S: who have instructions
a. SQPR
b. QPSR
c. QSRP
d. SQRP
Answer:
c) QSRP

4. He knew that
P: and then to save himself
Q: was to save all the lives
R: entmsted to his care
S: the duty of a captain
a. PQRS
b. SQRP
c. SPRQ
d. QSRP
Answer:
b) SQRP

5. With her body
P: dragging her unwilling feet
Q: week and infirm
R: doubled with age
S: she persisted in her mission
a. PQRS
b. QPRS
c. RQPS
d. SRPQ
Answer:
a) PQRS

Man Overboard Summary in English

Vasantha, a child travels in the ship named S.S. Rajula, all alone. The next day, the announcement comes that there is a storm blowing in the Indian Ocean. Vasantha is not worried like others. She runs around and plays. At that time she sees a man falling into the sea, accidentally. She informs people in the ship. The man who fell down into the sea is rescued with great difficulty. Vasantha is honoured with a lovely present by the captain of the ship.

Man Overboard Summary in Tamil

வசந்தா என்ற குழந்தை ராஜீடிலா என்ற கப்பலில் தனியாகப் பயணம் செய்கிறாள். மறுநாள் ஒரு அறிவிப்பு வருகிறது. இந்தியப் பெருங்கடலில் ஒரு புயல் உருவாகி இருப்பதாக தகவல் வருகிறது. வசந்தா மற்றவரைப் போல கவலைப்படவில்லை. கப்பலைச் சுற்றி விளையாடுகிறாள். அப்போது, ஒருவர் எதிர்பாராது கடலில் விழுந்து விடுவதைப் பார்க்கிறாள். கப்பலில் உள்ளவர்களிடம் தகவல் சொல்லுகிறாள். கடலில் விழுந்தவர், மிகுந்த சிரமத்திற்கு பிறகு, மீட்கப்படுகிறார். வசந்தாவை பாராட்டி கௌரவிக்க, கப்பல் கேப்டன் அவளுக்கு அழகிய பரிசு தரு

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 3 Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 3 Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements

7th Social Science Guide New Religious Ideas and Movements Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who of the following composed songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother Yashoda?
a) Poigaiazhwar
b) Periyazhwar
c) Nammazhwar
d) Andal
Answer:
b) Periyazhwar

Question 2.
Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
a) Ramanujar
b) Ramananda
c) Nammazhwar
d) Adi Shankara
Answer:
d) Adi Shankara

Question 3.
Who spread the Bhakthi
a) Vallabhacharya
b) Ramanujar
c) Ramananda
d) Surdas
Answer:
c) Ramananda

Question 4.
Who made Chishti order popular in India?
a) Moinuddin Chishti
b) Suhrawardi
c) Amir Khusru
d) Nizamuddin Auliya
Answer:
a) Moinuddin Chishti

Question 5.
Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
a)Lehna
b) Guru Amir Singh
c) Guru Nanak
d) Guru Gobind Singh
Answer:
c) Guru Nanak

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Periyazhwar was earlier known as ……………………
Answer:
Vishnu Chittar

2. ……………………is the holy book of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib

3. Meerabai was the disciple of ……………………
Answer:
Ravidas

4. ……………………philosophy is known as vishistadvaita.
Answer: Ramanuja

5. Gurudwara Darbar Sahib is situated at. ……………………. in Pakistan.
Answer:
Kartarpur

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Pahul	a) Kabir
2. Ramcharitmanas	b) Sikhs
3. Srivaishnavism	c) Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
4. Granthavali	d) Guru Gobind Singh
5. Suhrawardi	e) Tulsidas

Answer:

A	B
1. Pahul	d) Guru Gobind Singh
2. Ramcharitmanas	e) Tulsidas
3. Srivaishnavism	b) Sikhs
4. Granthavali	a) Kabir
5. Suhrawardi	c) Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs:

Question 1.
1. Andal – Srivilliputhur
2. Tukaram – Bengal
3. Chaitanyadeva – Maharashtra
4. Brahma-sutra – Vallabacharya
5. Gurudwaras – Sikhs
Answer:
1. Andal – Srivilliputhur
5. Gurudwaras – Sikhs

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : After Guru Gohind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib came to be considered the guru.
Reason (R) : Guru Gobind Singh was the compiler of Guru Granth Sahib,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 3.
Find the odd person out.
Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, Periazhwar, Andal, Nammazhwar.
Answer:

V. State true or false:

1. Sufism was responsible for the spread of Islamic culture.
Answer:
False

2. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.
Answer:
True

3. Guru Nanak is considered the first guru of Sikhs.
Answer:
True

4. Sufis believed that realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to God and intense meditation.
Answer:
True

5. The basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon consists of 12 books.
Answer:
True

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
What do you know about Thirumurai?
Answer:

• It is the basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon.
• It consists of 12 books, and 11 of them were assembled by Nambi.
• The 12th book is Sekkizhar’s Periyapuranam.

Question 2.
How many Nayanmars were there and who were prominent among them?
Answer:

• There are 63 legendary Nayanmars.
• Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.

Question 3.
How did Gurunanak help to found Sikhism?
Answer:

• Guru Nanak nominated his disciple Lehna to succeed him as the guru.
• Following this precedent, the successors are named by the incumbent Sikh Guru.

Question 4.
What had Tukaram to do with the Vitthoba temple of Pantharpur?
Answer:

• Tukaram, a 17th-century saint-poet of Maharashtra. .
• It is devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna.
• There is a Vitthoba/Panduranga temple at Pantharpur or Pandaripuram in the Sholapur district, Maharashtra.
• What is Chaitanya deva to Bengal is Tukaram to Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Highlight the spiritual ideas of Kabir that appealed to lower classes.
Answer:

1. As a Muslim, Kabir came under the influence of Varanasi – based Saint Ramananda.
2. He accepted some Hindu ideas and tried to reconcile Hinduism and Islam.
3. He opposed discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, and wealth.
4. Kabir believed that God is one with different names and forms.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give an account of the contributions of exponents of the Bhakti Movement in the southern as well as northern parts of India.
Answer:
Vaishnavite Saints (12Azhwars):
Eg: Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, and Pei Azhwar.

Saivite Saints (63 Nayanmars):
There are 63 legendary Nayanmars. Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.

Adi Shankara:

• He preached the Advaita philosophy.
• Shankara enthusiastically endeavoured to restore the orthodox Vedic tradition.

Ramanuja:

• Ramanuja, a Vaishnava saint, was the most influential thinker of Vaishnavism.
• In the 16th and 17th centuries, Vaishnavism spread across India.
• He established centres to spread his doctrine of devotion, Srivaishnavism, to God Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi.

MeeraBai:
Meera Bai, the wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna.

Chaitanyadeva:
Chaitanya deva popularised Krishna worship through ecstatic songs.

Tulsidas:
He is retelling of the story of Rama in Hindi.

Question 2.
What is Sufism? How did it find its footing in India?
Answer:
Sufism:

• The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool.
• The Sufis wore coarse garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis.

Sufism in India:

• The advent of Suf is to India dates back to the Arab conquest of Sind.
• It gained prominence in the 10th and 11th centuries during the reign of the Delhi Sultans.
• Sufism adopted many native Indian concepts such as yogic postures, music and dance.
• Sufism found adherents among both Muslims and Hindus.
• Sufis in medieval India were divided into three major orders.
• They were Chisti, suhrawardi, and Firdausi.
• Moinuddin Chishti made Chisti order popular in India.
• His resting place is in the Ajmer Sharif Dargah in Ajmer, Rajasthan.

Question 3.
What impact did the Bhakti movement make on Indian society?
Answer:
Impact of the Religious / Bhakti Movement:

• Vedic Hinduism was regenerated and thus saved from the onslaught of Islam.
• The Islamic tenets – unity of God and universal brotherhood – emphasised by the saints promoted harmony and peace.
• Bhakti was a movement of the common people; it used the language of the common people for its devotional literature.
• Bhakti movement opened up space for Indian languages to grow.
• It stimulated literary activity in regional languages.
• What sustained Sanskrit,despite its decline during this period, was the support extended by the rulers of Hindu kingdoms.
• Tamil was the only ancient Indian language remained vibrant during this period.
  Caste system and social disparities came to be criticised.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Examine the statement that the Bhakti movement saved Vedic Hinduism from the onslaught of Islam.
Answer:

1. The Bhakthi movement emphasize the mutual emotional attachment and love of a devotee towards a personal God and of God for the devotee.
2. The Nayanmars and the Azhwars composed devotional Lymns in the Tamil Language.
3. These poet-saints criticize caste-based social status and advocate gender equality.
4. In the religious movements of the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries in Northern India, one has to keep in mind the two very different attitudes towards Islam.

7th Social Science Guide New Religious Ideas and Movements Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The ………….. proposed that the path of bhakti marga is superior to the two other religions.
a) Ramayanam
b) Thirukkural
c) Bhagavad Gita
d) Nanneri
Answer:
c) Bhagavad Gita

Question 2.
The Bhakti movement started in Tamil Nadu around …………. century A.D.
a) Krishna
b) Vishnu
c) Sivan
d) Bhrama
Answer:
a) Krishna

Question 3.
……………. songs were composed in Tamil and other South Indian languages such as Kannada and telugu
a) Krishna
b) Vishnu
c) Sivan
d) Bhrama
Answer:
a) Krishna

Question 4.
……………. was one and only female Azhwar.
a) Koshalai
b) Nachiyar
c) Thirumozhi
d) Andal
Answer:
d) Andal

Question 5.
There are …………… legendary Nayanmars.
a) 63
b) 73
c) 60
d) 62
Answer:
a) 63

Question 6.
Among the 12 books of Tirumurai, the book is Sekkizhar’s Periyapuranam.
a) 10th
b) 12th
c) 11th
d) 9th
Answer:
b) 12th

Question 7.
Adi Shankara masterpiece is the commentary on the
a) Bhrama thegam
b) Brahma Vishnu
c) Bhrama Sutra
d) Athavaitham
Answer:
c) Bhrama Sutra

Question 8.
………….was a popular centre for Sanskrit learning.
a) Sri rangam
b) Kanchipuram
c) Thirupathi
d) Ariyakudi
Answer:
b) Kanchipuram

Question 9.
…………..gained popularity through her bhajans.
a) Chaitanya
b) Meera Bai
c) Pandaribai
d) Surthas
Answer:
b) Meera Bai

Question 10.
Meera Bai, wife of the crown prince of
a) Thakkanam
b) Kuvaliyar
c) Mewar
d) Kaligam
Answer:
c) Mewar

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………….. were of the view that this type of meditation would enable the devotee to understand the true nature of God.
Answer:
Sufis

2. …………….is based on Vishnu’s avatars, particularly Krishna and Rama.
Answer:
Vishnu-bhakti

3. Nammazhwar’s fame lies in his……………..stanza Thiruvaimozhi.
Answer:
1,102

4. The Thiruppavai and the Nachiyar Thirumozhiare are …………….. celebrated works.
Answer:
A war

5. ……………..is said to have compiled the songs of all of the Nayanmars.
Answer:
Nambi Andar Nambi

6. ……………..is a fundamental text of the Vedanta school.
Answer:
Brahma-sutra

7. …………….. center of learning were Badrinath, Puri, Dwarka, and Sringeri.
Answer:
Adi Shankara

8. …………….., Ramanajun was the most influential thinker.
Answer:
Vaishnava saint

9. Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on ……………..
Answer:
Srirangam

10. In Tulsidas’s Hindi retelling of the story of Rama in the……………..
Answer:
Ramcharitmanas

11. Chisti, Suhrawardi, and Firdausi were the three important order of ……………..
Answer:
Sufis

12. ……………..tried to reconcile Hinduism and Islam.
Answer:
Kabir

13. The ……………..and the ……………..were collections of Kabir’s verses.
Answer:
Granthavali, Bijak

14. He visited many holy places and finally settled in ……………..near Lahore.
Answer:
Kartarpur

15. Guru Nanak preached that ……………..
Answer:
God is without form

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Azhwars	a) Advaita
2. Nayanmars	b) Adira temple
3. Adishankara	c) Vishnu Bhakti
4. Ramanujar	d) 63 members
5. Sufis	e) vishistadvaita

Answer:

A	B
1. Azhwars	c) Vishnu Bhakti
2. Nayanmars	d) 63 members
3. Adishankara	a) Advaita
4. Ramanujar	e) vishistadvaita
5. Sufis	b) Adira temple

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs:

Question 1.
Find out the right pair/pairs.
1. Nayanmars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi
2. Azhwars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi
3. Thulasithassar – Maharastra
Answer:
1. Nayanmars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Sufism: The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool.
Reason (R): The Sufis wore course garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer: b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd person out.
Vallabhacharya, Surdas, Meera Bai, Chaitanya Deva, Adi Shankarar , Nammazhwar.
Answer:

V. State true or false:

1. Kabir had trusted that Hindu and Islam are a brotherhood.
Answer:
True

2. Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, and Pei Azhwar are the three different Azhwars.
Answer:
True

3. There was no Statue Prayer in South India.
Answer:
False

4. North Indians give importance to Divya Prabhatham.
Answer:
False

5. Chaitanyadeva popularised Krishna worship.
Answer:
True

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write short notes on Andal.
Answer:

• Andal, the only female Azhwar, is another.
• Periyazhwar, who was earlier known as Vishnu Chittar, made lots of songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother Yashoda.
• She grew up in the temple town of Srivilliputhur and became known as Andal-she who ruled.

Question 2.
Write a note on Thenkalai and Vadakaiai.
Answer:

• Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on Srirangam.
• Vadakaiai sect focused on Vedic literature, which is written in Sanskrit.
• The Thenkalai gave importance to Divya Prabandhams, written in Tamil.

Question 3.
Write short notes on Meera Bhai.
Answer:

• Meera Bai, the wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna.
• She was a disciple of Ravidas. Meera Bai gained popularity through her bhajans.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the teaching of Guru Nanak’s
Answer:

• Guru Nanak preached that God is without form and wanted his followers to practice meditation upon the name of God for peace and ultimate salvation.
• Guru Nanak had great contempt for Vedic rituals and caste discrimination. The teachings of Guru Nanak formed the basis of Sikhism, a new religious order, founded in the late 15th century.
• His and his successors’ teachings are collected in the Guru Granth Sahib, which is the holy book of the Sikhs.
• Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through the group singing of hymns, called kirtan.
• The devotees gathered in Dharamshala’s (rest houses), which became gurudwaras in course of time.

 

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 3 Population and Settlement Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 1 Chapter 3 Population and Settlement

7th Social Science Guide Population and Settlement Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Caucasoid race is also known as race……………………………..
a) European
b) Negroid
c) Mangoloid
d) Australoid
Answer:
a) European

Question 2.
…………………………Race is Known as Asian – American Race.
a) Caucasoid
b) Negroid
c) Mongoloid
d) Australoid
Answer:
c) Mongoloid

Question 3.
World Population day…………………………
a) September 1
b) June 11
c) July 11
d) December 2
Answer:
c) July 11

Question 4.
Rural settlements are located near…………………………
a) Water bodies
b) Hilly areas
c) coastal areas
d) desert areas
Answer:
a) Water bodies

Question 5.
Arrange the following in terms of size.
1) City 2) Megalopolis 3) Metropolis 4) Conurbation
a) 4, 1, 3,2
b) 1, 3, 4, 2
c) 2, 1,3,4
d) 3, 1,2,4
Answer:
b) 1, 3, 4, 2

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Bushmen is found mainly in …………………………desert in South Africa.
Answer:
Kalahari

2. Lingfestic stock is a group of …………………………family sharing features and its origin.
Answer:
Language

3. In …………………………settlements, where most of the people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities.
Answer:
Urban

4. …………………………towns are generally located outside the rural Urban fringe.
Answer:
Satellite

5. …………………………Settlement Come up around a place of Worship.
Answer:
Pilgrim

III. A. Match the following:

A	B
1. Caucasoid	a) Asian
2. Negroid	b) Australia
3. Mongoloid	c) European
4. Australoid	d) African

Answer:

A	B
1. Caucasoid	c) European
2. Negroid	d) African
3. Mongoloid	a) Asian
4. Australoid	b) Australia

B. Match the following:

A	B
1. Sutlej-Ganga plain	a) Dispersed settlement
2. Nilgris	b) Star like pattern
3. South India	c) Rectangular pattern
4. Seacoast	d) Compact settlement
5. Haryana	e) Circular settlement

Answer:

A	B
1. Sutlej-Ganga plain	c) Rectangular pattern
2. Nilgris	a) Dispersed settlement
3. South India	e) Circular settlement
4. Seacoast	d) Compact settlement
5. Haryana	b) Star like pattern

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : There are numerous languages spoken in the world
Reason (R) : The linguistic diversity in the world is vast.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A.
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explains R.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Palani Hills in Tamil Nadu is an example for pilgrim settlement Reason (R) : Iron and steel industry is located there
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) A is correct R is wrong.
Answer:
d) A is correct R is wrong.

V. Circle the odd one out:

1. Fishing, Lumbering, Agriculture, Banking
2. Himalayas, Alps, Rocky, Ganga
3. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Kanchipuram
Answer:

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the classification of Races?
Answer:
The major classification of human races are:

• Caucasoid
• Negroid
• Mongoloid
• Australoid

Question 2.
What is language?

• Language is a great force of socialization.
• It is in the written or oral form.
• It promotes the transmission of ideas.

Question 3.
Define settlement.
Answer:
A settlement is a place where people live and interact through activities such as agriculture, trading, and entertainment.

Question 4.
On what basis Urban settlements are classified?
Answer:
The basis of classification of urban settlements are

1. Size of population
2. Occupational structure
3. Administration.

Question 5.
Write a note on Smart City.
Answer:
A City which is very much advance in terms of infrastructure, real estate, communication, and market availability is called a Smart City. E.g. New Delhi, Jaipur, Pune, Bhubaneswar, Solapur.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Mumbai is a megacity.
Answer:

• Mumbai city can be a single metropolitan area.
• It is a very large city with a population of more than 10 million people and so Mumbai is called a megacity.

Question 2.
The Himalayas have dispersed settlements.
Answer:
Dispersed settlements are found in areas of extreme climate, hilly tracts, thick forests etc., In these settlements, houses are spaced far apart and interspersed with fields. So the Himalayas have dispersed settlements.

VIII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Language and Religion.
Answer:
Language

1. Language is a great force of socialization.
2. Language promotes the transmission of ideas.

Religion

1. Religion is a particular system of faith and worship.
2. Religion is a symbol of group identity and a cultural rallying point.

Question 2.
Negroid and Mangoloid
Answer:
Negroid

1. Negroid have dark eyes, black skin, black wooly hair, wide nose, long head, and thick lips.
2. They are living in different parts of Africa.

Mangoloid

1. The Mongoloid has light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head and medium nose.
2. They are living in Asia and the Arctic region.

Question 3.
City and town.
Answer:
City

1. The population will be more than 5000 people.
2. Town types are administrative, containment, academic, etc.,

Town

1. The population will be more than 1,00,000 people.
2. Nucleated settlement and multi-functional.

Question 4.
Urban settlement and rural settlement.
Answer:
Urban Settlement

1. Urban areas have domination of secondary and tertiary activities (industries)
2. Densely Populated
3. Cities and towns
4. Non-agricultural works
5. Fast and complicated Life

Rural Settlement

1. Rural areas have predominantly primary activities (agriculture)
2. Sparsely Populated
3. Villages and hamlet
4. Agriculture works
5. Simple and relaxed Life

IX. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write about the four major classifications of races.
Answer:
The race is a biological grouping within the human species

Most widely found human racial types are based on traits such as head shape, nose shape, eye shape and colour, skin colour, stature, blood groups, etc.,

The major world Human races are

• Caucasoid (European)
• Negroid (African)
• Mongoloid (Asiatic)
• Australoid (Australian)

1. Caucasoid: Fair skin and dark brown eyes, wavy hair, and narrow nose. The Caucasoid are also found in Eurasia.
2. Negroid: Dark eyes, Black skin, Black wooly hair, wide nose, long head, and thick lips. They are living in different parts of Africa.
3. Mongoloids: Light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head, and medium nose. Such people are found in Asia and the Arctic region.
4. Australoid: Wide nose, curly hair dark skin, and short in height. They are living in Australia and Asia.

Question 2.
What are the factors influencing rural settlement?
Answer:
Factors influencing rural settlement are:

• Nature of topography
• Local weather condition
• Soil and water resources
• Soil organization
• Economic condition

Question 3.
What are the types of rural settlement? Explain any three.
Answer:
A rural settlement pattern is a function of relief, climate, water supply, and socio-economic factors. It is broadly classified under the following patterns, such as Linear, Rectangular, Circular, Star-like pattern, etc.,

1. In a Linear settlement, houses are arranged along either side of a road, railway line, river (or) canal, the edge of a valley, etc., E.g. the Himalayas the Alps, the Rockies.
2. The rectangular settlements are almost straight, meeting each other at right angles. Such a settlement is found in plain areas (or) intermontane plain. E.g.,Sutlej.
3. Houses built around a central area are known as Circular pattern of settlements. Such settlements develop around lakes and tanks.

X. Activity

Analyze

1. Where do you live?
2. Name the pattern of settlement
3. Sources of water available in your area.
4. What is the important activity of your locality?
5. Name the types of transport available in your locality.

Answer:

1. Where do you live?	Urban
2. Name the pattern of settlement	Madurai District
3. Sources of water available in your area.	River Vaigai.
4. What is the important activity of your locality?	Agriculture, Industries
5. Name the types of transport available in your locality.	iLand’, Water, Air transport

7th Social Science Guide Population and Settlement Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is found the Arctic region?
a) caucasoid
b) Negroid
c) Mongoloid
d) Australoid’
Answer:
c) Mongoloid

Question 2.
The Zoroastrians worship in
a) Synagogue
b) Bacardi
c) Agriyari
d) Viharas
Answer:
c) Agriyari

Question 3.
Viharas are the places of worship of
a) Shan manism
b) Jainism
c) Zoroastrianism
d) Buddhism
Answer:
b) Jainism

Question 4.
The world cultural and diversity day is celebrated on
a) 18th May
b) 20th May
c) 21th May
d) 25th May
Answer:
21th may

Question 5.
TamilNadu has how may major cities to be transformed as smart cities
a) 5
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
Answer:
d) 12

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Population Geography is a study of …………………………….
Answer:
demography

2. The study of movements and mobility of the population is …………………………….
Answer:
migration

3. Human racial types are based on …………………………….traits.
Answer:
visual

4. Causasoid race is found in …………………………….
Answer:
Eurasia

5. …………………………….is a Tribal/Traditional religion.
Answer:
Shamanism

6. …………………………….is the place of worship of Jainism.
Answer:
Basadi

7. The worship place of Judaism is …………………………….
Answer:

8. There are ………………………………..major languages in India.
Answer:
22

9. 11th July is …………………………….Day.
Answer:
3rd Sunday in January

10. …………………is an International Mother Language day
Answer:
21st February

11. …………… is celebrated World Religious day.
Answer:
3rd Sunday in January

12. Houses built around a central area are known as ……………pattern.
Answer:
circular

13. Population more than one lakh is considered as a ……………
Answer:
city

14. The ……………city is very much advanced in terms of infrastructure.
Answer:
smart

15. Settlement may be classified on basis of ……………. a village and town.
Answer:
Occupation

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Town	a) Population more than 1,00,000
2. City	b) Supat in aujamat
3. Mega City	c) Population more than 5000
4. Megalopolis	d) Noida in utter Providers People
5. conurbation	e) Population more than 10 million People

Answer:

A	B
1. Town	c) Population more than 5000
2. City	a) Population more than 1,00,000
3. Mega City	e) Population more than 10 million People
4. Megalopolis	b) Supat in aujamat
5. conurbation	d) Noida in utter Proders People

IV. Consider the following statement and () Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Dry point settlements are not affected by flooding
Reason (R) : The landscape and the source of water and located in low – lying areas,
a) R is correct and explains R.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explains R.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Satellite towns are generally outside the rural-urban fringe.
Reason (R) : The satellite towns purely residential in character
a) R is correct and explains R.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explains R.

V. Circle the odd one out:

1. Judaism, Hindusim, Shintoism, Animism
2. Kashmiri, Hindi, Bengali, English
Answer:

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the types of Settlements?
Answer:
There are two types of settlements

1. Rural Settlement
2. Urban Settlement

1. Rural Settlement:

• Rural settlements are predominantly located near water bodies.
• People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture, along with the provision of other basic needs.

2.  Urban Settlement:

• The settlements in which most of the people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities are known as urban settlements.

Question 2.
What is pilgrim settlement?
Answer:

• Pilgrim settlement may come up around a place of worship or any spot with a religious significance.
• Eg: Thiruverkadu.

Question 3.
What are the things Suggested by who for a healthy city?
Answer:

• “A Clean” and “Safe” environment.
• Meets the basic needs of “All” its inhabitants.
• Involves the “Community” in local government.
• Provides easily accessible “Health service”.

Question 4.
Define Megalopolis.
Answer:
The word Megalopolis is given for a large conurbation, when two or more large cities whose total population exceeds ten million.

Question 5.
What is Megacity?
Answer:

• A megacity is a very large city typically with a population of more than 10 million people.
• A megacity can be a single metropolitan area.

VII. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write an essay on the languages of India.
Answer:

• India has many languages. Each state has its own language.
• The national language of India is Hindi. 22 major languages were spoken by 97% population of the country.
• Urdu, Punjabi, Hindi, Bengali, Kashmiri, Rajasthani, etc are important North Indian languages.
• Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, etc., are mainly spoken in South India.

Question 2.
Explain the early human Settlements.
Answer:

• In the early periods of human settlements, houses were built using local materials.
• The form of the house was closely related to the environment In the agricultural region’s houses were built with mind walls and the roof was made of stalks of paddy or hatch local wood was used to frame the roof.
• Such old houses had wide verandants and open-air circulation.
• The size of the house depended on the economic status of its inhabitants.

Question 3.
Write about Satellite town?
Answer:

• A satellite town is a town designed to house the overpopulation of a major city but is located well beyond the limits of that city.
• Satellite towns are generally located outside the rural-urban fringe.
• In India, most satellite towns are purely residential in character.
• For e.g. Patna, Barauni, Varanasi and Hajipur.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 4 The Delhi Sultanate Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 1 Chapter 4 The Delhi Sultanate

7th Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
………… laid the foundation of the ‘Mamluk’ dynasty.
a) Mohammad Ghori
b) Jalal-ud-din
c) Qutb-ud-din AibAK
d) Iltutmish
Answer:
c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Question 2.
Qutb-ud-in shifted his capital to Delhi from …………..
a) Lahore
b) Poona
c) Daulatabad
d) Agra
Answer:
a) Lahore

Question 3.
……………………completed the construction of the Qutb-Minar.
a) Razia
b) Qutb-ud-din -Aibak
c) Iltutmish
d) Balban
Answer:
c) Iltutmish

Question 4.
……………… laid the foundation of the city Tughluqabad near Delhi.
a) Muhammad-bin -Tughluq
b) Firozshah Tughluq
c) Jalal -ud-din
d) Ghiyas -ud-din
Answer:
d) Ghiyas-ud-din

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty.
Answer:
Ghiyas – ud- din – Tughlaq

Question 2.
Muhammad-bin-Tughluq shifted his capital from Delhi to………………
Answer:
Devagiri

Question 3.
……………..patronized the famous Persian poet Amir Khusru.
Answer:
Ghiyas – ud – din – Balban

Question 4.
Quwwat-ul-Islam Masjid in Delhi was built by ………………
Answer:
Qutb – ud – din Aibak

Question 5.
The threat of Mongols under Chengizkhan to India was during the reign of ……………………
Answer:
Iltutmish

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Tughril KhanA	a) Governor of Kara
2. Ala-ud-din	b) Jalal-ud-din Yakut
3. Bahlol Lodi	c) Governor of Bengal
4. Razia	d) Governor of Sirhind

Answer:

A	B
1. Tughril Khan	c) Governor of Bengal
2. Ala-ud-din	a) Governor of Kara
3. Bahlol Lodi	d) Governor of Sirhind
4. Razia	b) Jalal-ud-din Yakut

IV.State true or false:

1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak died of a mysterious fever.
Answer:
False

2. Razia was an able and brave fighter.
Answer:
True

3. The Turkish nobles chose Iltutmish, son of Aibak, as Sultan after the death of Aibak.
Answer:
False

4. Firoz Shah Tughluq refused to accept an invitation from a Bahmani Prince to intervene in the affairs of the Deccan.
Answer:
True

V.Match the statement with the reason.Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question a)
Assertion:(A) : Balban maintained a cordial relationship with Mongols
Reason (R) : The Mongol ruler, a grandson of Chengiz Khan, assured that Mongols would not advance beyond Sutlej.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A and R are wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question b)
Find out the correct pair:
1. Hoysala – Devagiri
2. Yadavas – Dwarasamudra
3. Kakatias – Warrangal
4. Pallavas – Madurai
Answer:
3. Kakatias – Warrangal

Question c)
Find out the wrong statement /statements:
1. After Ghori’s death in 1206, his slave Qutb-ud-din Aibak proclaimed himself the ruler of the Turkish territories in India.
2. Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and the trouble makers against her rule.
3. Balban built forts to guard his empire against the Mongol attack.
4. Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in 1526.
Answer:
2. Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and the trouble makers against her rule.

VI.Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Name the land granted to army officials in lieu of a regular wage.
Answer:
Iqta the land granted to army officials in lieu of a regular wage.

Question 2.
Who founded the city of Agra?
Answer:
Sikandar Lodi founded the city of Agra.

Question 3.
Name the ruler who established Muslim rule in India in 12th century A.D. (CE).
Answer:
Muhammad Ghori established Muslim rule in India in 12th Century A.D. (CE).

Question 4.
Write a note on Chahalgani.
Answer:
Chahalgani or the Forty was the Turkish nobility organized by Iltutmish with a select group of 40 nobles in order to counter the attack of Mongols.

Question 5
How did Ala-ud-din Khalji consolidate the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:

1. Alauddin, the nephew of Jalal – ud – din, and governor of Kara invaded and plundered south regions and returned with huge wealth.
2. He killed the ruler Jalal – ud – din with the support of nobles and commanders and declared himself as the Sultan of Delhi in 1296 and consolidated the Delhi Sultanate.

Question 6.
List out the contributions of Firoz Shah Tughluq.
Answer:

• Firoz – shah Tughlag created charities for poor Muslims.
• He built mosques, colleges, and hospitals.
•  He adopted many humanitarian measures.
•  He banned inhuman punishments and unrecognized taxes.
• He promoted agriculture by constructing many canals, gardens, and cities.
• 

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write about the invasion of Timur in 1398.
Answer:

• Timur was a ruler of Samarkand in Central Asia. He saw the weakness of India.
• So he raided India in December 1398 and plundered Delhi, Punjab, etc.
• He carried huge wealth as gold, silver, jewels, and Indian carpenters and masons to work on monuments in Samarkand.

VIII HOTS:

Question 1.
How would you evaluate Muhammad-bin-Tughluq as Sultan of Delhi?
Answer:

• Muhammad – bin Tughlag the sultan of Delhi was a “mixture of opposites”.
•  He was a learned man and a person of cruelty.
• He dreamt of making the whole Indian empire. He introduced various plans.
• But his plans were failed.

Change of Capital:

• He shifted his capital from Delhi to Devagiri. Then he returned again to Delhi.
• He found Delhi empty and many people left.

Tax in Doabregion:
Tughlug increased land tax in the Doab region. So the peasants were revolted against the Government.

Token Currency:

• Due to inadequacy in silver and stock of coins, Tughlaq issued a Token Currency in copper.
• This led the state to become bankrupt.

X. Student Activity:

Question 1.
Match the Father with Son

1. Qutb – ud – din – Aibak	a) Rukn-ud-din-Firuz
2. Iltumish	b) Kaiqubad
3. Ghiyas – ud – din	c) Ala-ud-din
4. Khalji Kingdom	d) Sikandar Lodi
5. Bahlol Lodi	e)  Aram Shah

Answer:

1. Qutb – ud – din – Aibak	e)  Aram Shah
2. Iltumish	a) Rukn-ud-din-Firuz
3. Ghiyas – ud – din	b) Kaiqubad
4. Khalji Kingdom	c) Ala-ud-din
5. Bahlol Lodi	d) Sikandar Lodi

7th Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Qutb – ud – din Aibak was died while playing
a) Hockey
b) Kabaddi
c) Polo
d) Wrestling
Answer:
c) Polo

Question 2.
Malik Kafar invaded Madurai in
a) 1300 A. D
b) 1310A.D
c) 1320A.D
d) 1330 A. D
Answer:
b) 1310 A. D

Question 3.
The other name of Devagiri was
a) Daulatabad
b) Aurangabad
c) Allahabad
d) Nagpur
Answer:
a) Daulatabad

Question 4.
which Marocco traveller visited India during the period of Muhammed bin
a) Ibn – Battuta
b) Abdur Razzaq
e) Marcopolo
d) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
a) Ibn – Battuta

Question 5.
Muhammed – bIn – Tughlag Issued token currency in
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Iron
Answer:
e,) Copper

Question 6.
Feroz Shah Tughiug laid out how many new gardens?
a) 500
b) 1000
c) 1200
d) 1500
Answer:
c) 1200

Question 7.
The Jauhar system was followed among
a) Mughal women
b) Rajput women
c) Tribal women
d) Marathi Women
Answer:
b) Rajput women

Question 8.
The last ruler in Delhi Sultanate was ………………..
a) Ibn Battuta
b) khizz Khan
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Rajput
Answer:
e) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 9.
……………..founded the TUghluh Dynasty
a) Ibn Bauuta
b) Abdur Razak
c) Marco polo
d) Gliyas – ud – din Thughlaq
Answer:
d) Gliyas – ud – din Thughlaq

Question 10.
Sultanate was formed In Madurai In the year
a) A.D 1334
b) A.D 1332
c) A.D 1336
d) A.D 1330
Answer:
a) A.D 1334

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………….is a Persian term used for the slaves purchased for military service.
Answer:
Bandagen

2. The Muslim slaves were posted as …………. in India.
Answer:
Governors

3. Mamluk is an Arabic word which means ………………..
Answer:
Slave

4. The general of Alauddïn Khalji was ………………..
Answer:
Bakhtiar Khali

5. ……………. in Delhi Mosque is considered as the oldest Mosque in India.
Answer:
Quwwat-ul-Islam Masjid

6. ……………………laid the foundation for Qutb-Minar.
Answer:
Qutb-ud-din-Aibak

7. Iltutmish granted ……………to the members of his army.
Answer:
Iqtas

8. The Iqta holder is called the ………….or ………………A.D.
Answer:
Iqtadar, Muqti

9. ……………….abolished the forty systems.
Answer:
Balban

10. …………., grandson of Chengizkhan is a Mongol viceroy in Iran.
Answer:
Hulagu Khan

11. Ala-ud-din established a system of forced ………….of food grains for Delhi.
Answer:
procurement

12. …………..was another name of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Jauna Khan

13. The new Daulatabad declared as an independent state as …………………..
Answer:
Bahmani

14. …………………..besides the Delhi city, was the province suffered most by Timur’s raid.
Answer:
Punjab

15. The representative of Timur was ……………
Answer:
Khizr Khan

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Qutb – ud – din – Aibak	a) 1290- 1320
2. Iltumish	b) 1206 – 1210
3. Ghiyas – ud – din	c) 1210-1236
4. Khalji Kingdom	d) 1266 – 1287

Answer:

1. Qutb – ud – din – Aibak	b) 1206 – 1210
2. Iltumish	c) 1210-1236
3. Ghiyas – ud – din	d) 1266 – 1287
4. Khalji Kingdom	a) 1290- 1320

IV. State true or false:

Question 1.
Whizzer khan founded the Sayyid Dynasty
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Muslim rule was established in India by Muhammad Qasim
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The First battle of Panipat was fought in the year 1526 A. D
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The sack of chittor was held in 1303 A. D
Answer:
True

V.Match the statement with the reason.Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Turkish Nobles conspired against Razia and got her murdered.
Reason (R): Razia made an Ethiopian slave Jalaluddin Yakut as her personal attendant,
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A and R are wrong.
d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Find out the wrong pair
1. Jauhar – Rajput women
2. Balban – The forty
3. Razia – Qutbminar
4. Iitutmish – Igtas
Answer:
3. Razia -Qutbminar

Question 3.
1. Balban abolished the forty
2. ITumish organized the forty
3. Razia was killed by the forty
a) 1,2,3 correct
b) land 2
c) 2 and 3
d) land 3 correct
Answer:
a) 1, 2, 3 correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
How Iitutmish saved Delhi Sultanate from the attack of Mongols?
Answer:
Iitutmish averted the impending danger by refusing to provide shelter to Khwarezm Shah Jalaluddin, the enemy of Chengizkhan, and saved Delhi Sultanate from the attack of Mongols.

Question 2.
What is Jauhar?
Answer:

• Jauhar is the old custom of Rajput women.
• In this custom, the men would go out and die on the battlefield and women would bum themselves on a pyre.

Question 3.
Why did Tughlaq want to change his capital?
Answer:

• Muhammad Tughlug wanted to extend his kingdom in the whole of India. So he chooses Devagiri as capital.
• Tughluq wanted to save his capital from the frequent invasions of Mongols. So he wanted to change his capital to Devagiri, the central place of India.

Question 4.
Write a note on Razia.
Answer:

• Razia was the first Sultana and daughter of Iitutmish. She was an able and brave fighter.
• She successfully faced the Mongol invasion.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Examine the rule of Balban.
Answer:

• Balban ascended the throne in 1266 A.D.
• He abolished the forty.
• He established the department of spies.
• He maintained a cordial relationship with the Mongols.
• He built forts to guard his empire.
• Balban partronised the persian poet Amir Khusru.

Question 2.
Explain the features of Indo – Saracenic architecture with examples.
Answer:

• The Persian architecture with Indian decoration is known as Indo – Saracenic architecture.
• Mosques and Madrasas looked as different with lines from the Koran made a distinct appearance.
• Qutb – lylinar – Alai – Darwaza, Quwwat – ul Islam Masjid, Mothi – ki- masjid, the tombs of Iltumish, Balban, and the forts of Daulatabad and Firozabad were all constructed in this style.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 2 Landforms Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 1 Chapter 2 Landforms

7th Social Science Guide Landforms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
…………………… is a deposition of river sediments along the foot-hills.
a) Plung pool
b) Alluvial fan
c) Flood plain
d) Delta
Answer:
b) Alluvial fan

Question 2.
Courtallam falls is located across the ………………………….river.
a) Cauvery
b) Pennar
c) Chittar
d) Vaigai
Answer:
c) Chittar

Question 3.
The landform created by glacial deposition is …………..
a) Cirque
b) Arete
c) Moraine
d) Tam lake
Answer:
c) Moraine

Question 4.
Large deposits of loess are found in …………..
a) the USA
b) India
c) China
d) Brazil
Answer:
c) China

Question 5.
Landform which is not associated with wave erosion
a) Cliffs
b) Sea arch
c) Stacks
d) Beaches
Answer:
d) Beaches

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The process of breaking and crumbling of rocks is ………………………….
Answer:
weathering

2. The place where the river joins a lake or a sea is known as ………………………….
Answer:
River mouth

3. Inselbergs are found in the …………………………. desert in South Africa.
Answer:
Kalahari

4. A cirque is known as ………………………….in Germany.
Answer:
Kar

5. The longest beach in the world is ………………………….
Answer:
Miami Beach in the U.S.A

III. Match the following:

1. Breaking and crumbling of rocks	a) Glacier
2. Abandoned meander loops	b) Barchans
3. Large body of moving ice	c) Lagoon
4. Crescent-shaped sand dunes	d) Weathering
5.Vembanad lake	e) Oxbow lake

Answer:

1. Breaking and crumbling of rocks	d) Weathering
2. Abandoned meander loops	e) Oxbow lake
3. Large body of moving ice	a) Glacier
4. Crescent-shaped sand dunes	b) Barchan
5.Vembanad lake	c) Lagoon

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The deltas are formed near the mouth of the river.
Reason (R): The velocity of the river becomes slow when it approaches the sea.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct and R is wrong
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Sea arches in turn become Sea Stacks.
Reason (R) : Sea Stacks are the results of wave deposition,
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct and R is wrong
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
b) A is correct and R is wrong

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define erosion.
Answer:
Erosion is the wearing away of the landscape by water, wind, ice and sea waves, etc.

Question 2.
What is a plunge pool?
Answer:
The plunge pool is a hollow feature at the base of a waterfall formed by cavitation.

Question 3.
How are Oxbow lakes formed?
Answer:
Due to continuous erosion and deposition, the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cut-off lake is called an Ox-bow lake.

Question 4.
Name the major landforms formed by glacial erosion.
Answer:
Mountain or valley Glacier, cirque, Tam Lake, Arets, TJ’ shaped Valley.

Question 5.
Give a note on Mushroom rocks.
Answer:
In deserts, the rocks in the shape of a mushroom are commonly called mushroom rocks.

Question 6.
What is a lagoon? Give an example.
Answer:

• A lagoon is a shallow stretch of water partially or completely separated from the sea.
• Ex: Chilkalake, Pulikat lake, and Vembad lake.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Tributary and Distributary
Answer:
Tributary: A Stream or river that flows into and joins the main river.

Distributary: A stream that branches off and flows away from the mainstream.

Question 2.
‘V’ shaped valley and ‘U’ shaped valley
Answer:
‘V’ Shaped Valley

• formed by the river erosion.
• The landscape creates a steep-sided valley like the letter ‘V’ is ‘V’ shaped valley.

‘U’Shaped Valley:

1. formed by Glacier erosion.
2. The landscape deepened and widened by the lateral and vertical erosion is like a letter TJ’ is TJ1 shaped valley.

Question 3.
Continental glacier and Mountain glacier
Answer:
Continental Glacier:

1. The Glacier covering vast areas of a continent with thick ice sheets.
2. Ex: Antarctica, Greenland

Mountain Glacier:

1. Mountain Glacier is a stream of ice flowing along a valley and bounded by steep sides.
2. Ex: The Himalayas and the Alps

VII. Give Reason:

Question 1.
The ends of the meander loops come closer and closer.
Answer:
Due to continuous erosion and deposition of rivers along the sides of the meander, the ends of the meander loop comes closer and closer.

Question 2.
Flood plains are very fertile.
Answer:

• As the river floods, it deposits layers of fine soil and other materials called sediments along its banks.
• This leads to the formation of a flat fertile flood plain. So the flood plains are very fertile.

Question 3.
Sea caves are turned into stacks.
Answer:
As the cavities of sea caves become bigger, only the roof of the caves remains to form sea Arches. When erosion further breaks the roof, only walls are left, thus forming stacks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain different landforms produced by river erosion.
Answer:
The running water in the river erodes the landscape and formed different kinds of land. They are:

• ’V’Shaped Valley: The river erosion creates a steep-sided valley like the letter ‘V’ is known as ‘V’ Shaped Valley.
• Waterfall: When the soft rocks are removed by river erosion formed a waterfall. E.g: Courtallam falls
• Plunge Pool: It is a hollow feature at the base of a waterfall which is formed by cavitation.
• Oxbow lake: Due to continuous erosion along the sides of the meander, the loop cuts off from the river and forms a cutoff lake is called Oxbow lake.

Question 2.
Describe the landforms associated with wind.
Answer:
By the wind, erosion, and deposition the different types of land formed.

Mushroom Rocks:
In deserts, the rocks in the shape of Mushroom commonly called Mushroom Rocks.

Inselbergs:
The eroded hill standing like a pillar with rounded tops are called Inselbergs.

Sand Dunes:
As the wind blows the sand transformed and deposited in low hill like structures called sand Dunes.

Barchans.
The crescent-shaped sand dunes are called Barchans.

Loess:
Very fine and light sand is deposited in large areas is called Loess.

Question 3.
How are aretes formed?
Answer:

1. When two adjacent cirques erode towards each other, the previously rounded landscape is transformed into narrow rocky, steep-sided ridges called Aretes.
2. Thus by the erosion of Glacier, the Aretes are formed.

Activity:

Question 1.
Fill in the corresponding columns with reference to the landform feature given below:
Answer:

S.No	Natural Agents	Landforms
		Erosion	Deposition
1.	River	V-Shaped Valley	Alluvial Fan
2.	Glacier	Arete	Moraine
3.	Wind	nselberg	Barchan
4.	Sea wave	Cliff	Lagoon

[Barchan, ‘V’ Shaped valley, Cliff, Arete, Inselberg, Moraine, Alluvial fan, Lagon]

Question 2.
Identify any one of the following features near your home town and write a note on them.
Answer:

1. Hill – The rocks, mountains are known as hills. The rivers originate from hills.
2. Waterfall – The falling of water over a vertical step in the river bed is called a waterfall.
3. River (or) stream – The water flowing in a definite course is called a river or stream.
4. Beach – The sea waves deposit sediments of sand and gravel along shores forming beaches.

Activity:

Find out the names of a few rivers of the world that form a delta with the help of the Atlas.

1. Amazon Delta
2. Danube Delta
3. Ebro Delta
4. Fly Delta
5. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta
6. Godavari Delta
7. Irrawaddy Delta
8. Indus River Delta
9. Nile Delta
10. Yellow River Delta.

7th Social Science Guide Landforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The place of the origin of the river is ………………..
a) Source
b) mouth
c) Lake
d) delta
Answer:
a) Source

Question 2.
The highest waterfalls in South America is
a) Niagara
b)joke
c) Angel
d)Kuttralam
Answer:
c) Angel

Question 3.
………………..falls is located on the border between Canada and U.S.A.
a) Jake
b) Niagara
c) Angel
d) contra lame
Answer:
b) Niagara

Question 4.
Victoria Falls located in which continent
a) Bengal
b) pern
c) Asia minor
d) Africa
Answer:
Africa

Question 5.
Meander River flows in
a) Bengal
b) Peru
c) Asia minor
d) England
Answer: Asia minor

Question 6.
Corride cirque is located in
a) Holland
b) Scotland
c) Iceland
d) New Zealand
Answer:
Scotland

Question 7.
The crescent shaped sand dunes are called
a) Barchens
b) Meander
c) Lagoon
d) delta
Answer:
a) Barchens

Question 8.
The collection of sediments from all the mouths of river forms
a) Lagoons
b) delta
c) Meander
d) Valley
Answer: delta

Question 9.
The largest beach in the world is ………………..
a) Marina
b) vembanad
c) Silica
d) Miami
Answer:
d) Miami

Question 10.
A shallow stretch of water partially separated from the sea is
a) Lagoon
b) delta
c) Meander
d) Barchens
Answer:
a) lagoon

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Rivers generally originate from a ……………….. or ………………..
Answer:
mountain, hill

2. The raised river banks are called ………………..
Answer:
Levees

3. An active agent of erosion and deposition in the deserts is ………………..
Answer:
wind

4. An isolated residual hill, stand like a pillar with rounded tops are ………………..
Answer:
Inselbergs

5. Northern China loess deposits are brought from the ……………….. Desert.
Answer:
Gobi

6. A part of land adjoining near the sea is called ………………..
Answer:
sea coast

7. The boundary of the sea coast, where land meets water is ………………..
Answer:
coastline

8. ………………..are steep rockfaces formed when the sea waves dash against them.
Answer:
sea cliffs

9. The wall-like feature in the sea is ………………..
Answer:
stacks

10. The second largest beach in the world is the ……………….. beach in Chennai.
Answer:
Marina

11. Moraines are ………………..deposition.
Answer:
glacial

12. ……………….is a stream or river that flow into and joins the main river.
Answer:
Tributary

13. The collection of sediments from all the months of river forms ………………..
Answer:
Delta

14. ………………..is the armchair shaped depression formed by glacial erosion.
Answer:
Cirque

15. The process of leveling of highlands is called ………………..
Answer:
Gradation

III. Match the following.

1.	Meander River	a) Antarctica
2.	Valley Glacier	b) River curves
3.	Contimental Glacier	c) Corrie cirque
4.	Scotland	d) Alps mountain

Answer:

1.	Meander River	b) River curves
2.	Valley Glacier	d) Alps mountain
3.	Continental Glacier	a) Antarctica
4.	Scotland	c) Corrie cirque

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The coastal areas are subject to change.
Reason (R) : Wave erosion and wave deposition frequently happened on sea coasts
a) A and R are correct explanations of A
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct explanations of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Sand is deposited in large areas is called loess
Reason (R) : The wind can carry the sand are very long distances
a) A and R are correct explanations of A
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
d) Both A and R are correct

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define River.
Answer:
The water flowing from its source to the river mouth, along a definite course is called River.

Question 2.
How waterfalls are formed?
Answer:

• The falling of river water over a vertical step in the river bed is called a waterfall. It is formed when the soft rocks are removed by erosion.
• E.g. courtallam falls.

Question 3.
Bring out the feature of Meanders with examples.
Answer:

• As the river enters the plain it twists and turns to form large bends known as Meanders.
• E.g. Meanders along the River Vellar in Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Define Glacier.
Answer:
A large body of ice moving slowly down a slope or valley due to gravity is called Glacier.

Question 5.
What is inselberg?
Answer:

• An isolated residual hill, standing like a pillar with rounded tops are called Inselbergs.
• E.g. Inselberg in the Kalahari Desert.

Question 6.
What is a Sand bar?
Answer:
Sandbar is an elongated deposition of sand or mud found in the sea, parallel to the coast.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
What are the forces of landforms – Explain.
Answer:
There are two processes in the force of landforms.

1. The endogenic process (internal): The endogenic process leads to the upliftment and sinking of the earth’s surface at several places.
2. The exogenic process (external): The Exogenic process is the continuous wearing down and rebuilding of the land surface.

Question 2.
Describe Delta.
Answer:

• Each River distributary forms its own mouth.
• The collection of sediments from all the mouths form Delta.
• Deltas are excellent productive lands. They have more minerals which favours cultivation.
• Eg: Cauvery Delta, Ganga Delta.

Question 3.
How sea caves are formed?
Answer:

• Sea waves continuously strike at the rocks. Cracks develop.
• Over time they become larger and wider. Thus, hollow like caves are formed on the rocks in the sea.
• Thus, sea caves are formed.