Category: Class 8

8th Standard English Unit 6 Supplementary Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 6 Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story 8th Standard English 6th Lesson Question and Answer

Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Textual Exercise Questions and Answers

A. Comprehension Questions (Text Book Page No. 177)

1. What is the name of the hero of this story?
Answer:
“The name of the hero of this story is Cesar

2. Where did this story happen?
Answer:
This story happened at the hospital in Rio do Sul, in Brazil.

3. When was he admitted in the hospital?
Answer:
Cesar was admitted to the emergency room of the hospital at about 3 a.m.

4. Where is the hospital?
Answer:
The hospital is in Rio do Sul, South Brazil.

5. Who accompanied him to the hospital?
Answer:
A gang of dogs accompanied him to the hospital.

B. Write the answers to the following questions in 100 words.

1. Where did the nurse post this story?
Answer:
A nurse named Cris Mamprim, worked at a hospital to look after the patients. One day a man came to the hospital to seek treatment and medication for his ailment. The nurse knew neither his condition nor his background. Soon she and her colleagues realized that he had a gang of four dogs to accompany him. When she witnessed the unbelievable loyalty of the dogs, she snapped a photo of the touching scene and later she posted it on Facebook. She writes that” I came across this today, at the hospital where I work at 3 A.M. while their master being treated, his companions waited at the door”.

2. What did Cesar do when he was offered food by the nurses?
Answer:
Cesar is the hero of the story. One day he went to a hospital to seek treatment and medication for his illness. Meanwhile, a miraculous event happened there. None of his relatives came to look after Ceasar, but he was accompanied by four dogs. When the nurses offered him some food to eat he did not eat the whole but saved something to give the dogs later.

3. How many dogs accompanied him when he left the hospital?
Answer:
When the treatment was over, Cesar was about to leave the hospital. At that time four dogs came there to accompany him. An hour later, Cesar left the hospital with the four dogs, as happily wagging their tails.

4. How many people followed Mamprim’s post?
Answer:
Mamprim worked as a nurse at the hospital. She witnessed the loyalty of the dogs. She snapped a photo of the touching scene and posted it on Facebook. It was followed by 1,36,000 people and commented by 24,000 people when she posted it.

C. Can you guess the meaning of the following words after understanding the story?

Answer:

homeless	a person without home
boomerang	a weapon that returns to the originators
canine	dog
stray	wandering – street dog
health facility	hospital
colleague	co-worker
accompany	go with someone as a companion
trailing	following
wagging	moving / shaking
reciprocal	mutual
possession	property
mistreatment	treatment is given wrongly

Step to Success (Text Book Page No. 178)

Coding-Decoding

Number the alphabet according to their position to decode the following:

1. In a certain code language, if BUG = 30 and ALMS = 45 then CADET:
a) 70
b) 24
c) 33
d) 37
Answer:
c) 33

2. In a certain code language, if INFER = 25 and JERSEY = 28, then CHOICE =?
a) 43
b) 34
c) 89
d) 52
Answer:
a) 43

3. In a certain code language, EGG is 577 and ICE is 935 then what is 8945?
a) HIDE
b) FEAR
c) DEED
d) HIGH
Answer:
a) HIDE

4. In a certain code language, YSMIR is TNHDM and VPJHN is QKECI then GKTZO is ………………. ?
a) TEFMD
b) BFOUJ
c) IPBVR
d) ZOAFQ
Answer:
b) BFOUJ

Connecting to Self

Tick the boxes that you have done and check yourself whether you are a good friend.

Answer:

Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Summary in English

Cesar, a homeless, Poorman was admitted to the hospital, at Rio do Sul in South Brazil. He had been feeding the stray dogs. Those four dogs came to the hospital to see him. When he was discharged he went with him happily. The use of the hospital took notice of it and posted the above incident on her Facebook accounts. Though Cesar was homeless he was not friendless.

Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Summary in Tamil

சீசர் என்ற ஏழை மனிதன் வீடற்றவர். அவன் நோய்வாய்ப்பட்டு தெற்கு பிரேசில் நாட்டில் உள்ள ரியே டோ சுல் என்ற இடத்தில் உள்ள மருத்துவமனையில் சேர்ந்தார். அவன் தன் உணவை தெருநாய்களுடன் பகிர்ந்து கொள்வது வழக்கம். எனவே அந்த நான்கு நாய்கள் வந்து மருத்துவமனையில் காத்து இருந்தன. சீசர் வெளியே சென்றதும் நாய்கள் அவனை மகிழ்வுடன் பின் தொடர்ந்தன. சீசர் வீடற்றவன்தான். ஆனால் நண்பர்கள் இல்லாதவன் அல்ல.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Back Answers

• The Woman on Platform 8 Book Back Answers
• Jim Corbett, A Hunter Turned Naturalist Book Back Answers
• The Three Questions Book Back Answers
• Crossing the River Book Back Answers
• When Instinct Works Book Back Answers
• Homeless Man and his Friends: A True Story Book Back Answers
• The Mystery of the Cyber Friend Book Back Answers

8th Standard English Unit 3 Poem Making Life Worth While Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Poem 3 Making Life Worth While Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Making Life Worth While 8th Standard English 3rd Lesson Question and Answer

Warm Up

Observe the pictures and write the moral values. Share your experience. (Text Book Page No. 79)

Answer:
1. Taking care of the animals.
2. Helping the weaker person.
3. Supporting the differently abled person.
4. Helping the old people.

8th English Guide Making Life Worth While Textual Exercise Questions and Answers

1. Comprehension questions. (Text Book Page. 81)

1. What should we learn from every soul?
Answer:
We should learn the good from every soul.

2. What qualities will help us to brave the thickening ills of life?
Answer:
We must pass on good thoughts, kindness, aspiration, courage, and faith to brave the thickening ills of life.

3. Why should we make this life worthwhile?
Answer:
We should make this life worthwhile to have a glimpse of the brighter skies.

4. What does the poet assure us if we make our life worthwhile?
Answer:
The poet assures the inheritance of heaven for the people who live a purposeful life in this world.

2. Fill in the blanks:

1. We should have a ……………. in life.
Answer:
aspiration

2. A ……………. is needed for the darkening sky.
Answer:
a bit of courage

3. One must have a ……………. of brighter skies to make life worthwhile.
Answer:
glimpse

3. Figure of speech.

Pick out any two lines of repetition from the poem. (Text Book Page No. 81)

On page 81, we have four lines of a poem written by Robert Frost. He repeats the line

And miles to go before. I sleep,
and miles to go before I sleep,

He uses this literary device called repetition to make the idea clearer and more memorable. It is used to emphasize a feeling or idea. Repetition creates rhythm and brings attention to the idea focussed.

8th English Guide Making Life Worth While Additional Appreciation Questions and Answers

1. One bit of courage For the darkening sky;
Answer:
What is needed for the darkening sky?
One bit of courage is needed for the darkening sky.

2. One gleam of faith
Answer:
To brave the thickening ills of life;
What is needed to brave the thickening ills of life?
One gleam of faith is needed to brave the thickening ills of life.

3. One glimpse of brighter skies – To make this life worthwhile
Answer:
What is needed to make the life worthwhile?
One glimpse of a bright sky is needed to make this life worthwhile.

4. One aspiration yet unfelt One bit of courage
Answer:
What is unfelt yet?
One aspiration is yet unfelt.

Poetic Devices

Repetition:
The word ‘one’ is found to be repeated throughout the poem.

Rhyming words:
contact – thought

Alliteration:
And heaven a surer heritage.
The consonant ‘h’ is repeated twice in the above line and henceforth it is an alliterated line of this poem.

Basic idea of the poem:
Love your neighbor as you love yourself.

Making Life Worth While Summary in English

Everyone who comes in contact with, us must be influenced by us. They must get something good from us. That kindly act will make our life purposeful. Even little grace, kindly thought, bit of courage, one gleam of faith, one glimpse of brightness can make our life to fight with the ills of life.

Making Life Worth While Summary in Tamil

நம்மை அணுகி வரும் எவரும் நம்மிடமிருந்து ஏதோ ஒரு நன்மையைப் பெற்றுக் கொள்ள வேண்டும். நம்மிடமிருந்து அவர்கள் பெறும் நன்மையே நம் வாழ்வைக் குறிக்கோள் உள்ளதாக இப்பூமியில் ஆக்குகிறது. சிறிது கருணை, அன்பான எண்ணம், சிறிது தைரியம், ஒரு கீற்று நம்பிக்கை, வெளிச்சத்தின் ஒரு சிறிய பார்வை, நாம் இந்த உலக வாழ்வின் தீமைகளை எதிர்த்துப் போராட உதவுகிறது.

Making Life Worth While About the Author in English

George Eliot – Mary Ann Evans (1819 – 1880), known by her pen name George Eliot, was an English novelist, poet, journalist, translator, and one of the leading writers of the Victorian era. She wrote seven novels.

Making Life Worth While About the Author in Tamil

ஜார்ஜ் எலியட் – மேரி ஆன் ஈவன்ஸ் (1819 – 1880), தன் புனைப்பெயரான ஜார்ஜ் எலியட் என்பதன் மூலம் அனைவராலும் அறியப்பட்டார். அவர் ஓர் ஆங்கில நாவலாசிரியர், கவிஞர், பத்திரிக்கை எழுத்தாளர், மொழிபெயர்ப்பாளர் மற்றும் விக்டோரியன் சகாப்தத்தின் முன்னணி எழுத்தாளர்களுள் ஒருவராவார். இவர் ஏழு நாவல்களை எழுதியுள்ளார்.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Back Answers

• Special Hero Book Back Answers
• My Hobby: Reading Book Back Answers
• Making Life Worth While Book Back Answers
• A Thing of Beauty Book Back Answers
• Fire Work Night Book Back Answers
• Lessons in Life Book Back Answers
• My Computer Needs A Break Book Back Answers

8th Standard English Unit 7 Prose Cyber Safety Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 7 Cyber Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Cyber Safety 8th Standard English 7th Lesson Question and Answer

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 180)
In pairs, identify the types of computer, Choose and write the names from the box. (Text Book Page No. 180)

Textual Exercise
Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 180)

A. Choose the correct SYNONYMS for the italicized words:

1. I was really scared.
a) bold
b) frightened
c) timid
Answer:
b) frightened

2. Let us browse about it.
a) surf
b) read
c) glance
Answer:
a) surf

3. There is a chance to get addicted.
a) accustomed
b) known
c) inclined
Answer:
a) accustomed

4. We can’t ignore the benefits of internet.
a) favorable
b) harm
c) popularity
Answer:
a) favorable

5. She gathered the information from the internet.
a) disburse
b) collect
c) amass
Answer:
b) collect

B. Choose the correct ANTONYMS from the options given below:

1. The explosion had weakened the building’s foundations.
a) dreary
b) dull
c) strengthen
d) weak
Answer:
c) strengthen

2. A stranger was roaming around the street.
a) well known
b) newcomer
c) unknown
d) foreigner
Answer:
a) well known

3. Vairavan is having a spot of bother with law.
a) worry
b) annoy
c) pester
d) pleasing
Answer:
a) worry

4. He asked the manager to improve the facility in the hall.
a) amenity
b) comfort
c) uneasy
d) short coming
Answer:
b) comfort

5. A good diet is beneficial to health.
a) benefit
b) helpful
c) harmful
d) useful
Answer:
c) harmful

C. Fill in the blanks:

1. Internet is a great tool where, One can gather …………………… .
Answer:
Information

2. Gladin is gathering information for his …………………… .
Answer:
Science project

3. Children should use internet …………………… .
Answer:
wisely

4. We should keep our personal details …………………… in the internet.
Answer:
very private

5. We should not get addicted to …………………… .
Answer:
Mobile phones

D. Say true or false.

1. Gladin’s mom knew how screw guage works.
Answer:
False

2. We use internet to gather information and gain knowledge.
Answer:
True

3. Rani was frightened of an online predator.
Answer:
True

4. Strangers don’t misuse your information.
Answer:
False

5. Do not give your name, address, telephone number to the strangers.
Answer:
True

6. Too much of anything is good for nothing.
Answer:
True

E. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

1. Why did Gladin’s mom ask him to browse?
Answer:
Gladin’s mom asked Gladin to browse to know about the working of a screw gauge.

2. Why do we use the internet?
Answer:
Internet helps us to connect with people around the world, allows us to watch movies, listen to music, play games and enjoy various other activities.

3. What was Rani afraid of?
Answer:
Rani was afraid of a stranger chatting with her every day, using bad words.

4. What was the father’s advice to Rani?
Answer:
Father advised Rani not to respond to the message even if he continuously disturbed her still if he bothered her, the father would take care of the predator.

5. Who is an online predator?
Answer:
An online predator is a person who sexually exploits a child over the internet.

6. What was the father’s instruction to Gladin and Rani?
Answer:
Father advised Rani and Gladin never to chat with anybody until they know them like classmates, friends, family members etc.

7. What do strangers do with our personal information?
Answer:
Strangers may use our profile and misuse our information, without our knowledge.

8. What are the benefits of the computer?
Answer:
Computer and the internet are helpful to us socially and educationally. They provide us entertainment and also an e-shopping facility.

F. Answer the following in about 100 words.

1. How should one use the technology of the present world?
Answer:
One should use the technology of the present world carefully and wisely It is beneficial to all of us. But we face some negative effects while using it Online facilities are for sharing information or knowledge among known members. We should never chat with anybody until we know them. They could be our classmates, friends, and family members, we should keep our personal details very private. Strangers may use our profile and misuse our information without our knowledge. Internet or mobile helps us to connect with people around the world. They allow us to watch various activities. But too much of anything is not good for us.

2. What happens if someone is addicted to a mobile phone?
Answer:
Mobile addiction causes several serious problems such as headaches, weakened eyesight, sleep disorders, depression, stress, social isolation, aggressive behavior, financial problems, ruined relationships, and no or low professional growth. Too much of anything is good for nothing.

3. “We can’t ignore the benefits of internet and mobile phone” – Justify.
Answer:
We can’t ignore the benefits of internet and mobile phones to our life, educationally and socially. They help us to connect with people around the world. They allow us to watch movies, listen to music, play games and enjoy various other activities.

Internet helps us to gather information and gain knowledge, Online facilities are for sharing knowledge and information among known members. We should never chat with anybody until we know them like classmates, friends, and family members. We should also limit the usage of the internet and mobile phones to take charge of our lives.

Vocabulary (Text Book Page No. 187)

British and American English:

A) Find the suitable British or American English word and fill in the following.

Spelling Differences:

B) Find the suitable British or American English spelling and fill in the following.

Spelling difference

British Words	American Words
colour	color
honour	honor
favour	favor
organise	organize
realise	realize
recognise	recognize
metre	meter
Mom	mum
maths	math
programme	program

C) Fill in the blanks with the correct Meaning and Eponym for the given words. (Text Book Page No. 189)

Eponymous Words:

I) Fill in the blanks with correct Euphemisms for the given words.

Deaf, or hard of hearing	Answer: hearing impaired
Mentally ill	Answer: psychiatric
Fat	Answer: chunky, plumpy
Blind	Answer: visually challenged
liar	Answer: teller of tall tales

 

Listening (Text Book Page No. 190)

E) Complete the following statements appropriately:
The Listening passage given at page no. 231

1. A mobile phone is like a world in our pockets as
Answer:
it can connect us to the rest of the world

2. Parents do not have to remain in tension if their sons and daughters are late because
Answer:
they can connect to their children at any time

3. Some of the negative effects of a mobile phone are:
Answer:
(a) accidents
(b) social pollution
(c) health issues
(d) privacy problems

4. Excessive use of mobile phones can be hazardous to one’s health as
Answer:
headache, earache, blurring vision, etc.

5. A mobile phone is a threat to one’s privacy as.
Answer:
a hidden camera to take pictures and videos.

Speaking (Text Book Page No. 190)

G. Imagine a world with no books, but only e-books. How would you find such a world? Deliver a two-minute talk.
Answer:
World without books would be, like feast without salt. Books are the treasure house of knowledge. In olden days there was no current in houses. There was no computer or mobile phone. Even in those days, books helped people to educate themselves. Books can be used at any time. Leisurely we can read books. We can take notes also. Reading books does not give much stress to the eyes. Reading books does not need internet. Using internet excessively might create health issues such as headaches, earache, blurring vision, etc.

Writing (Text Book Page No. 191)

F. Write a formal email to the young scientist Mr Sundar Pitchai CEO, of Google, requesting him for an appointment to interview him.
Answer:

Use Grammar

Question Tags
a) Fill in the blanks with suitable tags. (Text Book Page No. 195)

1. She is collecting stickers, ……………………..?
Answer:
isn’t she?

2. We often watch TV in the afternoon, …………………….?
Answer:
don’t we?

3. You have cleaned your bike, …………………….?
Answer:
aren’t you?

4. John and maz don’t like maths, ……………………..?
Ans: do they?

5. Peter played handball yesterday, ……………………?
Answer:
didn’t he?

6. They are going home from school, ………………………?
Ans: aren’t they?

7. Mary didn’t do her homework last Monday, ……………………….?
Answer:
did she?

8. He could have bought a new car, ………………….?
Answer:
could he?

9. Kevin will come tonight, ……………………?
Answer:
won’t he?

10. I’m clever, …………………….?
Answer:
aren’t I?

b) Fill in the blanks with suitable tags (Text Book Page No. 196)

1. He is still sleeping,
a) is not he?
b) isn’t he
c) wasn’t he?
Answer:
b) isn’t he?

2. You go to school,
a) do you?
b) aren’t you?
c) don’t you
Answer:
c) don’t you?

3. Let’s go for a walk,
a) shall we?
b) shan’t we?
c) will we?
Answer:
a) shall we?

4. We won’t be late,
a) won’t we?
b) will we?
c) are we?
Answer:
b) will we?

5. Nobody called,
a) do they?
b) didn’t they?
c) did they?
Answer:
c) did they?

6. They will wash the car,
a) will it?
b) won’t they?
c) wouldn’t they?
Answer:
b) won’t they?

7. We must lock the doors,
a) mustn’t they?
b) shouldn’t we?
c) mustn’t we
Answer:
c) mustn’t we?

8. I’m right?
a) amn’t I?
b) am not I?
c) aren’t I?
Answer:
c) aren’t I?

9. So you bought a car,
a) didn’t you?
b) haven’t you?
c) weren’t you?
Answer:
a) didn’t you?

10. You wouldn’t like to invite my Dad,
a) did you?
b) would you?
c) won’t you?
Answer:
b) would you?

Simple Compound and Complex

A) State which of the following sentences are Compound, and which are Complex. (Text Book Page No. 198)

1. Man proposes, but God disposes.
Answer:
Compound

2. I went because I was invited.
Answer:
complex

3. Jancy returned home because she was tired.
Answer:
complex

4. Whatever you do, do well.
Answer:
complex

5. Listen carefully and take notes.
Answer:
compound

6. I called him, but he gave me no answer.
Answer:
compound

7. The town in which I live is very large.
Answer:
complex

8. They always talk who never think.
Answer:
complex

9. We must eat to live, but we should not live to eat.
Answer:
compound

10. Govern your passions or they will govern you.
Answer:
compound

Cyber Safety Summary in English

Cyber safety is a lesson given with pictures. There are a few characters with pictures. There are a few characters as a father, mother and two children, Gladin and Rani. Rani is scared an of an online predator. Her father advises both the children about the wise usage of the internet.

Cyber Safety Summary in Tamil

கணினி பாதுகாப்பு என்ற பாடம் படக்கதையாக கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இக்கதையில் சில கதாப்பாத்திரங்கள் உள்ளன. அப்பா, அம்மா கிளாடின், ராணி என்ற குழந்தைகள் கதாப்பாத்திரங்கள் உள்ளன. ராணி இணையத்தின் மூலம் பாலியல் தொந்தரவு கொடுக்கும் ஒரு தீயவனை நினைத்து அச்சம் அடைகிறாள். அவள் தந்தை, கணினி இணையம் இவற்றை பாதுகாப்பாக பயன்படுத்துவது எப்படி என்று விபரமாய் சொல்லித் தருகிறார்.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Back Answers

• The Nose-Jewel Book Back Answers
• Hobby – Turns A Successful Career Book Back Answers
• Sir Isaac Newton – The Ingenious Scientist Book Back Answers
• My Reminiscence Book Back Answers
• Being Safe Book Back Answers
• Friendship Book Back Answers
• Cyber Safety Book Back Answers

8th Standard English Unit 7 Poem My Computer Needs A Break Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Poem 7 My Computer Needs A Break Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

My Computer Needs A Break 8th Standard English 7th Lesson Question and Answer

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 199)

In pairs, tell each other how computer plays a vital role in all fields. (Text Book Page No. 199)

1. A computer helps students to learn new things.
2. We learn current news.
3. We can book our tickets.
4. We can have online shopping.
5. We can read e-books.

8th English Guide My Computer Needs A Break Textual Exercise Questions and Answers

A) Answer the following:

1. How does the poet describe her computer?
Answer:
The poet describes her computer as very intelligent and smart. The computer seems to know a lot of information by heart.

2. What happened to the computer?
Answer:
The computer is absent-minded. It forgets to save her files. Sometimes the files vanish in the most dreadful way.

3. List four things that the computer could not do after it became absent-minded
Answer:

1. The computer forgets to save the poet s work.
2. It doesn’t check her spelling.
3. It hides all her files.
4. It makes her work vanish in the most dreadful way.

4. What made the poet squirm?
Answer:
The naughty computer of the poetess gobbled a worm. The computer behaved so erratically that it made the poetess squirm.

5. Why did the poet call the doctor?
Answer:
The computer caught a virus and fell very sick. So the poet had to call a doctor.

B) Fill in the blanks. (Text Book Page No. 201)

1) Computers are ……………. and ……………..
Answer:
brainy, smart

2) We get answers for questions by a ……………..
Answer:
click of the mouse

3) The computer forgot to ……………. the poet’s work.
Answer:
save

4) The computer actually gobbled a ……………..
Answer:
worm

5) The poet feels that his computer needs ……………..
Answer:
holiday

C) Pick out the rhyming words from the poem.

Smart – heart
click – quick
right – sight
sick – quick.

D) Match the poetic lines with Figures of speech.

1. So brainy	personification
2. Mountains	personification
3. It’s so absent-minded	hyperbole
4. Computer gobbled a worm	metaphor
5. Very sick.	metaphor

Answer:

1. So brainy	personification
2. Mountains	metaphor
3. It’s so absent-minded	personification
4. Computer gobbled a worm	hyperbole
5. Very sick.	metaphor

E) Find the alliterating words from the poem.

1) Save – store
2) Doctor – double
3) Virus – very
4) makes – most
5) Gobbled –

8th English Guide My Computer Needs A Break Additional appreciation Questions and Answers

1. ‘My computer always gives me the answer really quick! ’
How does the computer give you an answer?
Answer:
If we type in a question and gives the mouse a click, the computer gives the answer really quick.

2. ‘And hides my files so that they vanish from sight’.
What does a computer hide?
Answer:
The computer hides the files.

3. ‘My computer doesn’t check that my spellings are right ’
What does the computer fail to do?
Answer:
The computer does not check the spelling.

4. ‘My computer has always been so brainy and smart’
What are the qualities of a computer given in the above line?
Answer:
The computer is brainy and smart. These are the qualities of the computer.

5. ‘And one day. my naughty computer actually gobbled a worm.’
What did the computer do in a naughty way?
The naughty computer gobbled a worm.

6. ‘Then my computer caught a virus, and fell, very sick.’
Why did the computer fell sick?
Answer:
The computer caught a virus and fell sick.

My Computer Needs A Break Summary in English

The computer is brainy and smart. It gives us quick answers to our questions. It has an absent-mindedness. It hides my files. Once it became a virus stricken. The computer falls sick. It is tiring. It needs a holiday.

My Computer Needs A Break Summary in Tamil

கணினி அறிவானது. சுறுசுறுப்பானது. மிக விரைவாய் பதில் சொல்லக் கூடியது. அதற்கு ஞாபக மறதியும் உண்டு. அது என் கோப்புக்களை மறைத்து விடும். வைரஸ் தாக்குதலுக்கு உள்ளாகி நோயுற்று விடும். சில சமயம் களைத்துவிடும். அதற்கும் கூட விடுமுறை தேவை.

My Computer Needs A Break About the Author in English

Shanthini Govindan is a widely published, award-winning author of children’s literature in English in India, who has written over 50 books for children including poetry, picture books, and short stories for children of all ages.

My Computer Needs A Break About the Author in Tamil

சாந்தினி கோவிந்தன், பிரசித்தி பெற்றவர். விருதுகள் வாங்கியவர். குழந்தை இலக்கியத்தில் எழுத்தாளர் ஆக புகழ் பெற்றவர். 50 புத்தகங்களுக்கு மேல் எழுதியுள்ளார். இவற்றில் படக்கதைகள், கவிதைகள் அடங்கும். எல்லா வயது குழந்தைகளுக்கும் ஏற்றவாறு சிறுகதைகள் எழுதியுள்ளார்.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Back Answers

• Special Hero Book Back Answers
• My Hobby: Reading Book Back Answers
• Making Life Worth While Book Back Answers
• A Thing of Beauty Book Back Answers
• Fire Work Night Book Back Answers
• Lessons in Life Book Back Answers
• My Computer Needs A Break Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Public and Private Sectors

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The public sector in India owes its origin in the ……………… industrial policy resolution of the Government of India.
a) 1957
b) 1958
c) 1966
d) 1956
Answer:
1956

2. Mixed economy is the mixture of ……………… .
a) Capitalism
b) Socialism
c) a& b are correct
d) A & B are incorrect
Answer:
c) a & b are correct

3. …………………… is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
a) Private Sector
b) Joint Sector
c) Public Sector.
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Joint Sector

4. Public sector is on ……………… motive.
a) Profit Motive
b) Service Motive
c) Speculative Motive
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Service Motive

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The …………………… and …………………… are allotted their respective roles in promoting the economic welfare of all sections of the community.
Answer:
Pubiic sector, Private sector

2. The private sector is on …………………… motive.
Answer:
profit

3. …………………… is the process of social and economic development in a society.
Answer:
Socio-economic development

4. The main function of the private sector is to create …………………… and ……………………
Answer:
innovation, modernisation

5. The government is committed to strengthening …………………… and cooperation among the citizens.
Answer:
Community business

III. Match the Following

1. Think Tank	a) Primary Sector
2. Agriculture	b) Gross Domestic Product
3. Industries	c) NITI Aayog
4. GDP	d) Secondary Sector

Answer:

1. Think Tank	c) NITI Aayog
2. Agriculture	a) Primary Sector
3. Industries	d) Secondary Sector
4. GDP	b) Gross Domestic Product

IV. Which is the Odd one.
1. Which one of the following is not the indicator of Socio-Economic Development.
a) Black Money
b) Life Expectancy
c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
d) Employment
Answer:
a) Black Money

V. Which of the following is a correct answer.
1. i) The Industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are referred to as Schedule-A
ii) The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state sector, with the state taking the sole responsibility for starting new units which are specific in Schedule-B.
iii) The remaining industries which were in the private sector are not mentioned in the Schedule.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) i and ii are correct

VI. Short Answer:
1. Write a short note on public sectors?
Answer:

1. The sector, which is engaged in the activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as the Public Sector.
2. The enterprises, agencies, and bodies are fully owned, controlled, and run by the government whether it is central government, state government, or a local government.

2. What does society want?
Answer:

• Society wants the state to play an extensive role in developing the country.
• The economic growth may be sustained at a maximum rate if the private sector and public sector join hands.

3. Write the objectives of the Public Sector?
Answer:
The objectives of the Public Sector:

1. To promote rapid economic development through the creation and expansion of infrastructure
2. To generate financial resources for development
3. To promote redistribution of income and wealth
4. To create employment opportunities

4. What are the three organs of public sectors?
Answer:
The three organs of the public sector are

• Administration by a government Department.
• The Joint sector companies
• Public corporation

5. Name some indicators that measure socio-economic development.
Answer:
Socioeconomic development is measured with indicators, such as GDP, life expectancy, literacy and levels of employment.

6. Write a short note on the Private sector?
Answer:
The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled, and managed by private individuals or enterprises is known as the Private sector.

7. Name any three Major Private Sector industries?
Answer:

• National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
• Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC)
• Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)

VII. Brief Answer.
1. Explain the organs of public sector.
Answer:
The organs of Public sector are
Administration by a Government Department:

• It is very common in all most countries.
• Eg: Post and Telegraph, Railways.

The Joint Sector companies:

• It is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
• Eg: Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited.

Public Corporation:

• This type of organization is the establishment of public corporation by the state of the Parliament of legislative.
• Eg: LIC, Air India.

2. Write briefly explain the history of public sector?
Answer:
History of Public Sector:

1. When India achieved independence in 1947, it was primarily an agricultural country with a weak industrial base. It is established for their own economic interest and rule the subcontinent with brute force.
2. The first Industrial Policy Resolution announced in 1948 laid down broad contours of the strategy of industrial development.
3. The Planning Commission was formed in March 1950 and the Industrial Act was enacted in 1951.
4. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru believed that the establishment of basic and heavy industry was fundamental to the development and modernisation of the Indian economy.
5. His vision was carried forward by Dr. V. Krishnamurthy and the Indian statistician Mahalanobis.
6. The 1991 industrial policy allowed greater freedom to the private sector and foreign direct investment was invited from business houses outside india.
7. Thus, multinational corporations gained entry into the Indian economy.
8. Thus, we have public sector units, private sector enterprises and multinational Coexisting in Indian economy.

3. Explain any five measured indicators of socio-economic development?
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product:

• GDP supports in developing socio-economic development. The proportion of GDP by the industrial sector both private and public sector has been increased.
• It results in increasing government funds and increase public spending.

Life Expectancy:

• According to Health Ministry statistics, the life expectancy for male is 67. 3 year and 69. 5 for female.
• The government many schemes to serve poor and vulnerable families.
  Literacy:
• Educational Skill plays a vital role in the socio-economic development Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is government of India’s flagsup programme.

Employment:

• A growing number of people moved to urban areas in search of employment.
• It increased urban population, hence government started the ‘Smart city’ scheme which provides the city with many facilities.

Provision of House, Clean Drinking Water, and Sanitation:
Government sector provides housing facilities, clean drinking water facilities, and sanitary facilities under clean India Planning.

4. What are the importance of public sector?
Answer:
Public sector plays a major role in the development of any economy. It has following importance:
1. Public Sector and Capital Formation:

• The role of public sector in collecting, saving and investing them during the planning period has been very important.

2. Economic Development:

• Economic development mainly depends upon industrial development.
• Heavy and basic industries like Iron and steel, shipping, mining, etc. are required for supplying raw materials to small industries.

3. Balanced Regional Development:

• Public enterprises have developed the backward areas thereby bringing about a complete transformation in the socio-economic life of the people in these regions.

4. Employment generation:

• Public sector has created millions of jobs to tackle the unemployment problem in the country.
• The number of persons employed during the year 2011 was 150 lake.

5. Export Promotion and Foreign Exchange Earnings:

• Some public enterprises have done much to promote India’s export.
• The State Trading Corporation (STC). The Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) have done very well in export promotion.

6. Protection to Sick Industries:

• Public sector takes over the sick industries and prevent many people from getting unemployed.
• It also prevents unnecessary locking of capital, land, building, machinery,etc.

7. Import Substitution:

• Some public sector enterprises were started specifically to save foreign exchange.
• The ONGC, the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., the Bharat Electronics Ltd., etc., have saved foreign exchange by way of import substitution.

5. Difference between the public and private sector.
Answer:

Public Sector	Private Sector
1. Ownership of industries is with government.	Ownership of industries is with private individuals.
2. Public revenue depends upon levy of taxes on income and commodities and services.	Issuing shares and debentures or by taking loan.
3. Public sector ensures the proper wage.	Private sector exploits the workers.
4. It does not allow to concentrate huge wealth in few hands or rich people.	It allows concentrated of huge wealth in few hands or rich people.
5. Public sector industries include Police, Army Mining, Health, Manufacturing, Electricity Banking, etc.	Private sector industries include finance, Mining, Transport, Education, etc.
6. No tax evasion.	Tax evasion is high.
7. It is service oriented.	It is purely profit-oriented.
8. Reservations are implemented. Priority is given to the socially backward people.	It does not care the socially backward class people. Reservation is not followed.

6. Write the functions of private sector?
Answer:
Functions of Private Sector are given below:

1. The main function of private sector is to create innovation and modernization.
2. Develop and maintain infrastructure and services.
3. Promote and expand existing businesses.
4. Promote human capital development, to help vulnerable groups.
5. Promote small, micro and medium enterprises (SMME) through supply side measures, and demand side measures and attract investment in the city.
6. The Government has fixed a specific role to the private sector in the field of industries, trade and services sector.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The Industrial act was enacted in ………………..
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1951
d) 1956
Answer:
c) 1951

2. ……………….. is an example for the public sector which serves as a consultancy.
a) MECON
b) Railways
c) Hotel
d) FCI
Answer:
a) MECON

3. What is the full form of GDP?
a) Grain Domestic Product
b) Gross Development Product
c) Gross Domestic Project
d) Gross Domestic Product
Answer:
d) Gross Domestic Product

4. ……………….. supports in developing socio – Economic Development.
a) GDP
b) GST
c) GNP
d) none
Answer:
a) GDP

5. The city which provides the city with many facilities like hospitals, schools, and facilities are called ………………..
a) Clean city
b) White city
c) Smart city
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Smart city

6. The largest public sector employer in India is
a) Indian Railways
b) Infosys
c) WIPRO Limited
d) ICICI bank
Answer:
a) Indian Railways

7. ……………….. removes regional inequality.
a) Employment
b) Literacy
c) GDP
d) none
Answer:
a) Employment

8. Example for export Promotion Earning industry is
a) ONGC
b) Indian oil corporation Ltd
c) The State of Trading corporation
d) None of these
Answer:
c) The State of Trading corporation

9. India’s five year plan emphasized the development of public sector enterprises.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) none
Answer:
b) Second

10. The activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as Sector.
a) Public
b) private
c) both
d) none
Answer:
a) Public

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. ……………….. is the mixture of merits of both capitalism and Socialism.
Answer:
Mixed economy

2. ……………….. is the key of economic development of a country.
Answer:
Rapid industraiisation

3. Nehru’s vision was carried forward by ………………..
Answer:
Dr.VKrishnamurthy

4. NHPS means ………………..
Answer:
National Health Productive Scheme

5. The public sector of the full growth is an ………………..
Answer:
Economy

6. Administration by a Governor Department – Example ………………..
Answer:
Port Trust

7. The Joint sector companies – Example
Answer:
Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited

8. Public corportation – Example ………………..
Answer:
Air India

9. STC is a ………………..
Answer:
State Trading corporation

10. ……………….. save foreign exchange by way of import substitution
Answer:
The oil and Natural Gas commission

III. Match the Following.

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

Answer:

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

IV. Which is the Odd one:
1. Public Sector
2. Balanced Regional Development
3. Import Substitution
4. Life Expectancy
Answer:
4. Life Expectancy

V. Which of the following is the correct Answer.
1. i) The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled and managed by Private sector.
ii) The Private sector is a part of country”s economic system that is run by individuals and companies, rather than the government.
iii) The contribution of the products of cottage, and village industries and the small, scale industries is the major portion of the wholesale and retail trade.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
a) All are Correct

VI. Short Answer.
1. What is mixed economy?

• Mixed economy is the mixture of capitalism and socialism.

2. What is the life expectancy revealed by Health Ministry?

• In India for male life expectancy is 67.3 years and for female it is 69.5 years.

VII. Brief Answer:
1. How are industries classified?
Answer:
Industries are classified as the public sector in India owes its origin in the 1956 industrial policy resolution of the government of India. According to it industries were classified as
Schedule A:
The industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are refered as schedule A.

Schedule B:
The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state taking the responsibility for starting new units are called schedule B.

Schedule C:
The remaining industries which were in the private sector are mentioned as schedule C.

2. How is the Public sector divided?
Answer:
The Public sector is divided into nine categories. They are

• Supply essential infrastructure for economic development called primary public ability.
• Control of the commanding height of the economy.
• Entrepreneurial role or capital intensive industries.
• Under government monopoly exclusive meant for high technology industries.
• Consumer-oriented
• Taking over the sick private units.
• Set up as trade corporation. ,
• Serves as consultancy and engineering services.

3. Give a brief account of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

• NITI Aayog replaced 65 years old planning commission.
• Planning commission has power to allocate funds to ministries and states, this function will be now at finance ministry.
• NITI Aayog was formed on January 1st, 2015.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. After the Second World War ……………….. has taken several measures to protect the human rights.
a) UNO
b) Supreme Court
c) International Court of Justice
d) none
Answer:
a) UNO

2. In 1995 women from all over the world gathered at ………………..
a) Beijing
b) New York c) Delhi
d) none
Answer:
a) Beijing

3. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted in ………………..
a) 1990
b) 1993 c) 1978
d) 1979
Answer:
b) 1993

4. The UNO declared 1979 as the International year of ………………..
a) Girl Child b) Children c) women
d) none
Answer:
b) Children

5. When is Human Rights Day observed?
a) 9th December
b) 10th December .
c) 11th December
d) 12th December
Answer:
b) 10th December

6. Which one is known as modern International Magna Carta of Human rights?
a) UDHRC
b) NHRC
c) SHRC
d) International year for women
Answer:
a) UDHRC

7. Who can be appointed as the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) Retired judge of high court
b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court,
c) Any person appointed by the President.
d) Retired Chief Judge of any court.
Answer:
c) Any person appointed by the President

8. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer:
b) 30

9. What is the tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) 5 years or upto 62 years of age
b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
Answer:
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age

10. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Ahmedabad
d) Kolkata
Answer:
a) New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Each individual has ……………….. to lead a dignified life.
Answer:
the right

2. Human Rights are ……………….. rights.
Answer:
basic

3. The State Human Rights commission was formed on ………………..
Answer:
17th April 1997

4. Article 24 of Indian Constitution prohibits ………………..
Answer:
Child Labour

5. United Nations Organisation was established in the year ………………..
Answer:
24th October,; 1945

III. Match the Following

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	a) world’s first charter of human rights
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	b)1997
3. Eve Teasing Act	c) freedom from slavery
4. Child help line	d) Human Rights Commission
5. Civil right	e) right to vote
6. Political right	f) 1098

Answer:

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	d) Human Rights Commission
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	a) world’s first charter of human rights
3. Eve Teasing Act	b) 1997
4. Child helpline	f) 1098
5. Civil right	c) freedom from slavery
6. Political right	e) right to vote

IV. State true or false.

1. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
Answer:
False

2. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was proclaimed in India.
Answer:
True

3. The Human Right Act of 1993 provides the creation of National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:
True

4. National Human Rights Commission has empowered to give punishment to the victims.
Answer:
False

5. Human Rights Commission was empowered to setup commission for the promotion of Human rights
at National and State level. ,
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. Find the wrong statement
a) National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
c) National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
d) National Human Rights Commission is a multilateral institution.
Answer:
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

2. Which of the following statement is not correct about the National Human Rights Commission?
a) It was established in 1993.
b) In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no rights to punish the culprit.
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.
d) The Commission Sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Governments.
Answer:
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.

3. Assertion : Human Rights day is observed on 1 Oth December.
Reason : It commemorates Eleanor RooseveTs birthday.
a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct but R does not explain A

4. Consider the following statements
1. The State Human Rights commission is a multi-member body.
2. The State Human Rights Commission consists of a chairperson and three members. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
Answer:
b) 2 only

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. What are Human Rights?
Answer:

• Human Rights are rights inherent to all human beings regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, and religion.
• Human rights include freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion, and education.

2. Bring out the importance of UDHR.
Answer:

• UDHR has been translated into more than 500 languages.
• In the world it is the most translated document.
• It describes all men are bom free and all are equal in status and right.
• It promote the spirit of brotherhood.

3. What does Article 45 of Indian Constitution provide?
Answer:
It provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

4. Write about Right to Education Act.
Answer:
Article 21A provides that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years.

5. State any three legislations passed to safeguard the welfare of women.
Answer:

• The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 – States that the marriageable age for women is 21.
• The Eve Teasing Act 1997 – Gives relief to women.
• The Factory Act 1948 – Protects the women workers.

6. Mention some of the political rights.
Answer:
It includes the freedom of expression, and peaceful assembly, the right to take part in the government of one’s country, the right to vote, the freedom of speech and obtain information.

7. Name the five primary categories of Human Rights.
Answer:
i) Civil Rights
ii) Political Rights
iii) Social Rights
iv) Economic Rights
v) Cultural Rights.

VII. Answer the following.in detail.

1. Distinguish between Human rights and Civil rights.
Answer:

Human rights	Civil Rights
Human rights belong to everyone, everywhere, regardless of nationality, sexuality, gender, race, religion or age.	Civil rights are those rights that one enjoys by virtue of citizenship in a particular nation or state.
Human rights are considered universal to all human beings and universal in all countries.	Civil rights vary greatly from country to the country’s or government to government. It is related to the Constitution.
No nation may rightfully deprive human rights to an individual.	Different nations can grant or deny different civil rights and liberties.
Human rights are basic rights inherent with birth.	Civil rights are creation of the society.

2. Describe any five basic characteristics of Human rights. Basic characteristics of Human Rights:
Answer:

• Inherent – They are not granted by any person or authority.
• Fundamental – They are fundamental rights because without them, the life and dignity of man will be meaningless.
• Inalienable – They cannot be taken away from the individual.
• Indivisible – They can’t be denied even when other rights have already been enjoyed .
• Universal – They are universal. They apply irrespective of one’s origin or status. They are enforceable.

3. What are the measures taken by the government to protect the children?
Answer:
The government has take some measures to protect the children from all kinds of exploitation and abuses. There are lows in India to Protecting the rights of the children.
i) Right to Education Act – Article 21 A.
ii) Child labour Act – Prohibition and Regulation Act 1986
iii) The Juvenile Justice Act 2000- Care and Protection of Children
iv) POCSO Act 2012 – Protection of Children from Sexual abuses
v) 1098 Childline – 24 hours emergency phone service for children.

VIII. Hots.

1. To whom does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights apply? Why is it important to you?

• Because these are based on dignity, justice, and equality.
• They are endowed with intelligence and concience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men.
• Universal Declaration of Human Rights is applicable for all men and women in the world without any discrimination.
• So it is very important.

IX. Project and Activity

1. Make a list of 10 rights that you enjoy, and the responsibilities that you have.
Answer:
Rights:
Article 14 – Equality before law.
Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability.
Article 20 – Freedom of speech, assembly movement, residence and profession.
Article 23 – Prohibition traffic human being and forced labour.
Article 28 – Prohibition of employment of Children in factories etc.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
Article 27 – Freedom from payments of taxes for promotion for any religion.
Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain education institution.
Article 29 – Protection of languages, script and culture of minorities.
Article 31 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Responsibilities:

1. Tolerate all religions.
2. Do not hurt others.
3. To protect the environment.
4. Respect the elders.
5. Follow the rules of government.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The Magna Carta of England released in the year ………………..
a) 1214
b) 1215
c) 1216
d) 1217
Answer:
b) 1215

2. A document of France Stating the Rights of all citizens declared in the year ………………..
a) 1789
b) 1790
c) 1791
d) 1792
Answer:
a) 1789

3. The US Constitution and Bill of Rights declared in the year ………………..
a) 1768
b) 1769
c) 1790
d) 1791
Answer:
d) 1791

4. UNO has declared the year ……………….. as the international year of women.
a) 1970
b) 1978
c) 1979
d) 1980
Answer:
b) 1978

5. The ……………….. is considered as an important national asset.
a) Resources
b) Education
c) Child
d) Welfare
Answer:
c) child

6. The Juvenile Justice Act implemented in the year ………………..
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2010
d) 2012
Answer:
a) 2000

7. The marriageable age for women is ………………..
a) 20
b) 21
c) 18
d) 22
Answer:
c) 18

8. The ……………….. appoints the chairperson and other members of National Human Rights
Commission.
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Minister
d) Vice – President
Answer:
a) President

9. UDHR has been translated into more than ……………….. languages.
a) 500
b) 510
c) 600
d) 610
Answer:
a) 500

10. National Human Rights Commission has ……………….. divisions.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer:
b) 5

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. An act for the better Securing liberty of the subject in England is ………………..
Answer:
The Habeas Corpus Act 1679

2. UNO was established on 24th October of ………………..
Answer:
1945

3. ……………….. is a milestone document in the history of Human rights.
Answer:
UDHR

4. ……………….. the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
Cyrus the Great

5. The decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the ……………….. language in ……………….. Script.
Answer:
Akkadian, Cuneiform

6. ……………….. is the most translated document in the world.
Answer:
UDHR

7. ……………….. is known as modem International Magna carta.
Answer:
UDHR

8. ……………….. provides for children to develop in a healthy manner.
Answer:
Article 39(f)

9. Child helpline number is ………………..
Answer:
1098

10. An International bill of rights of women adopted in the year ………………..
Answer:
1979

11. UNIFEM has worked since ……………….. to implement the Beijing Platform for Action.
Answer:
1995

12. In ……………….. the ……………….. world conference of Women held in Beijing.
Answer:
1995, Fourth

13. ……………….. Protects the women workers.
Answer:
The factory Act

14. ……………….. rights are creations of the Society.
Answer:
Civii

15. ……………….. and ……………….. rights are human rights.
Answer:
Women and girl’s

III. Match the following.

1. The Factory Act	a) 1952
2. The Plantation Labour Act	b) 1961
3. The Mines Act	c) 1948
4. The Maternity benefit Act	d) 2005
5. Domestic violence Act	e) 1951

Answer:

1. The Factory Act	c)1948
2. The Plantation Labour Act	e) 1951
3. The Mines Act	a) 1952
4. The Maternity benefit Act	b) 1961
5. Domestic violence Act	d) 2005

State true or false:

1. UNO has declared 1980 as the International Year of Children.
Answer:
False

2. The Act not ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
Answer:
False

3. A set of basic right and freedoms has deep roots in European and American countries.
Answer:
True

4. Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
True

5. Child help line number is 109.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer;

1. 1) The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act 1856 Legalised widow remarriage.
2) The Hindu Successian Act 1956 ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
3) The plantation Labour Act protects the men workers.
4) The Factory Act 1998, protects the women workers,
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1 and 2 are correct

2. Assertion: One of the greatest achievements of United Nations is the creation of human rights law.
Reason : To advance this goal, the UN established a commision on Human Rights, a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
c) A and R are correct

3. Consider the following statements
1. UNO has declared 1978 as International year of women.
2. UNO has declared 1979 as the International year of children.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both a and b d) None
Answer:
c) Both a and b

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Define the Preamble of UDHR.
Answer:

• All men are bom free and all are equal in status and rights.
• They are endowed with intelligence and conscience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men..

2. Why December 10th is celebrated as Human Rights Day?
Answer:

• Human Rights Day is celebrated annually on 10th December every year.
• It is to honour the United Nations General Assembly for declaring the human rights universally..

3. Explain about The Cyrus Cylinder’.
Answer:

• Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient Persia, free the slaves and declared that all people had the right to choose their own religion and established racial equality.
• These and other decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the Akkadian language in cuneiform script
• It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

4. Write short note on ‘State Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The State Human Rights Commission of Tamil Nadu was formed on 17th April, 1997.
• It functions at the state level. It consists of three members including a Chairperson.
• A state Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects
  covered under State list and Concurrent list. .

5. Write three Non- govermental Organisations.
Answer:
Amnesty International, Children’s Defense Fund, Human Rights Watch.

6. What are the Indian Constitution Articles for children?
Answer:

• Article 24 – prohibits child labour.
• Article 39(f) – provides for children to develop in healthy manner.
• Article 45 – provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

7. Write Short notes on Welfare of parents and Senior citizen Act?
Answer:

• This Act makes it legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents. Protection and support during old age are envisaged as human rights.
  8. What are the Legislations to protect women rights?
• The Factory Act 1948
• The Plantation Labour Act 1951
• ‘ The Mines Act 1952
• The Maternity benefit Act 1961

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain about the written Precursors of Human Rights Documents.
Answer:

• The Magna Carta of 1215 (England) – gave people new rights and made the king subject to the law.
• The Petition of Right 1628 (England) – set out the rights of the people.
• The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 (England) – an act for the better securing liberty of the subject.
• The English Bill of Rights of 1689 – set out certain basic civil rights.
• The French Declaration on the Rights of Man and Citizen 1789 – a document of France, stating that all citizens are equal under the law.
• The US Constitution and Bill of Rights 1791 – safeguards the rights of the citizens..

2. Explain about National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12th October, 1993. It is an independent statutory, and non-constitutional body.
• Its headquarter is located in New Delhi. NHRC is a multi- member body which consists of a Chairperson and other members.
• The President appoints the Chairperson and other members.
• They are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
• NHRC has five divisions. Law Division, Investigation Division, Policy Research & Programmes Division, Training Division and Administrative Division.
  < The National Human Rights Commission is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.

3. Write an essay about women Rights.
Answer:

• Women and girl’s rights are human rights.
• Women are entitled to the full and equal enjoyment of all of their human rights and to be free from all forms of discrimination.
• This is fundamental to achieve human rights, peace and security and sustainable development.
• The Charter of the United Nations guarantees equal rights to both women and men.
• The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), adopted in 1979 by the UN General Assembly, is described as an International bill of rights for women.
• In 1995 the Fourth World Conference of Women, held in Beijing, developed a Platform for Action to * recognise women’s rights and improve women’s livelihood worldwide.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer.

1. Secularism means
a) State is against to all religions
b) State accepts only one religion
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion
d) None of these
Answer:
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful coexistence on the part of citizen belonging any religion

2. India is a land of
a) multi-religious faith
b) multi-cultural beliefs
c) Both(l)&(2)
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both (1) & (2)

3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in
a) 1951
b) 1976
c) 1974
d) 1967
Answer:
b) 1976

4. Which one of the following describes India as a secular state?
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duty
c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Preamble of the Constitution
Answer:
d) Preamble of the Constitution

5. Right to freedom of religion is related to
a) Judiciary b) Parliament
c) Directive principles of State Policy d) Fundamental rights
Answer:
d) Fundamental rights

6. According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state-aided educational institutions?
a) Religious instruction b) Moral education
c) Physical education d) None of the above
Answer:
a) religious instruction

7. The country will be considered as a secular country, if it
a) gives importance to a particular religion.
b) bans religious instructions in the state-aided educational institutions.
c) does not give importance to a particular religion.
d) bans the propagation of any religious belief.
Answer:
c) does not give importance to a particular religion

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Religion does not teach us ……………..
Answer:
animosity

2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants ………………
Answer:
equal rights

3. …………….. is a lack of belief in god and gods.
Answer:
Atheism

4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote …………….. and ………………
Answer:
unity & integrity

5. Article 15 …………….. prohibits on the grounds of religion, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Answer:
discrimination

III. Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	a) coined the word secularism
2. Children	b) social reformer
3. Din-i-Illahi	c) lack of belief in god
4. Constitution	d) future citizen
5. Holyoake	e) Divine faith
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	f) 1950

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	c) lack of belief in god
2. Children	d) future citizen
3. Din-i-Illahi	e) Divine faith
4. Constitution	f) 1950
5. Holyoake	a) coined the word secularism
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	b) social reformer

IV. State true or false.

1. There is a state religion in India.
Answer:
False

2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. Answer:
True

4. Jainism originated in China. –
Answer:
False

5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.
Answer:
True

V, Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious diversity.
ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.
a) i, ii only
b) ii, iii only
c) iv only
d) i, ii, and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but
also for the aliens also.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi-religious and multi-cultural country.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct. ‘
d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Find out the wrong pair.
Answer:
a) Din-i-lllahi – A book
b) Khajuraho – Hindu temple
c) Ashoka – Rock Edict
d) Iqbal – Poet
Answer:
a) Din-i-Allahi – A book

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name some of the Indians who contributed to the spreading of secularism.
Answer:

1. Rajaram Mohan Roy
2. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Mahatma Gandhi and
5. B.R. Ambedkar

2. What does secularism mean?
Answer:
Secularism means an attitude of tolerance towards other religions and the peaceful co-existence of citizens belonging to different faiths.

3. State the objectives of secularism.
Answer:
Objectives of Secularism:

1. One religious group does not dominate another.
2. Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

4. Why is it important to separate religion from the state?
Answer:

• Because there is no state religion in India.
• The state will neither establish a religion of its own nor confer any special patronage upon any particular religion.

5. What are the characteristic features of a secular state?
Answer:

• Principle of Liberty – The state permits the practice of any religion
• Principle of Equality – The state does not give preference to any religion over another.
• Principle of Neutrality – The state remains neutral in religious matters.

6. Mention any three constitutional provisions related to secularism?
Answer:

• Article 15 – prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth, etc.,
• Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Why we need secular education?
Secular education is needed

• to remove narrow mindedness and makes dynamic and enlightened view;
• to develop moral and humanistic outlook;
• to train the youth to be a good citizen;
• to strengthen democratic values like liberty, equality, and fraternity, and co-operative living;
• to give a wider vision towards life;
• to develop an attitude of appreciation and understanding of others point of view;
• to develop the spirit of love, tolerance, co-operation, equality, and sympathy;
• to synthesize materialism and spiritualism.

2. Secularism is necessary for a country like India. Justify.

• Yes, Secularism necessary because India is a land of multi-cultural beliefs. ’
• It is the birthplace of four major religions.
  • Hinduism
  • Jainism
  • Buddhism
  • Sikhism
• The main concept of secularism is aimed at creating a society in which people with religious beliefs or people who do not belong to any religion can live together in harmony and peace.

VIII. HOTS

1. Will the Government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice human sacrifice?
Answer:
The government will definitely intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice in infanticide, Ample reason can be given in support of the answer. No religion teaches us to kill any living being, kindness is the root of all religions. Even the law of our country also declares that killing a human being is illegal. It is also against human rights.

IX. Project and Activity.

1. Look at the holidays of your school calendar. How many of them pertain to different religions? List them based on religions. What does it indicate?
June 5 – Ramzan
Sep. 2 – Ganesh Chaturthi
Dec. 25 – Christmas
It indicates we had so many religion and given as government holidays for the religious ceremonies.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which article provides a ban on discrimination in State-aided educational institution.
a) Article-19
b) Article – 20
c) Article – 29 (2)
d) Article-16
Answer:
b) Article – 29 (2)

2. Which article provides equality of opportunity in public employment.
a) Article – 15
b) Article – 16
c) Article – 17
d) Article – 18
Answer:
b) Article -16

3. Which article guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to process practice, and Propagate religion individually.
a) Article – 25 (1)
b) Article – 29 (2)
c) Article – 28
d) Article – 27
Answer:
a) Article -25(1)

4 is the State Permits the practice of any religion.
a) Liberty
b) Equality
c) Neutrality
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Liberty

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The term Secularism is derived from the Latin word
Answer:
Saeculum

2 coined the term Secularism.
Answer:
George Jacob Holyoake

3. The statement ‘We are Indians and India is our home* illustrated by
Answer:
Poet Iqbal

4 states the Secularism of Ashoka.
Answer:
12th Rock Edict

5. The policy of Akbar which states that ’Peace and harmony among religions’ termed as
Answer:
Sulh-e-kul

6. The freedom of religion is not confined to its citizen alone but extends to aliens also which is pointed in 1954 case.
Islam and Hinduism.
Answer:
Akbar

9. India is the birthplace of four major religions …, and
Answer:
Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, and Sikhism

10. Secularism is the part of
Answer:
Indian Constitution

11. The State will not accord any
Answer:
Preferential treatment any of them.

12. provides the freedom to manage religious affairs.
Answer:
Article 26

13. Secular education needs to train the
Answer:
Youth to be good citizen.

III. Match the following

1. Secularism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
2. Atheism	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
3. Article – 15	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
4. Article -16	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions
5. Article – 29 (2)	e) tolerance towards other religions

Answer:

1. Secularism	e) tolerance towards other religions
2. Atheism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
3. Article – 15	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
4. Article -16	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
5. Article – 29(2)	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions

IV. State true or false

1. The Secular Indian State declares Public Holidays to mark the festivals of all religions.
Answer:
True

2. Article 15 gives equality of opportunity in public employment.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar does not follow the policy of religious toleration.
Answer:
False

4. State Permits the practice of any religion.
Answer:
True

5. Secularism is not the part of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
ii) Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
iii) Article 28 – The State shall not compel any citizen to promote of any particular religion.
iv) Article 29 (2) – A ban discrimination in State-aided educational institution,
a) i, ii only b) ii, iii only
c) iv only d) i, ii and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion: There is no state religion in India.
Reason: The State will neither establish a religion of its own new confer any patronage upon any particular religion.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Write Short notes on – 12th Rock Edict of Ashoka.

• Emperor Ashoka was the first great emperor to announce as early as 3rd century BC (BCE) that the state would not prosecute any religious sect.
• In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect towards them.

2. How Akbar followed religious toleration?

• The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration.
• His propagation of Din-i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-Kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated for religious toleration.

3. What is the importance of the Khajuraho temple?

A 19th-century Hindu temple in Khajuraho, India incorporates a Hindu spire, a Jain cupola, a Buddhist stupa, and Muslim style dome in place of the usual shikara.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain the characteristic features of a secular state.
Answer:

1. A secular state is the one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the country’s official religion and every religion is treated equally.
2. It gives to every citizen not only the equal right to freedom of conscience but also the right to process practice, and propagate any faith of their own choice.
3. The state observes an attitude of neutrally and impartiality towards all religions.
4. In a secular state, no one is given preferential treatment and the state does not discriminate any person on the basis of their religious practices and beliefs.
5. All citizens are eligible to enter government service irrespective of their faith.
6. There should be absolutely no religious instructions in educational institutions and no taxes to support any particular religion.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
a) Birth
b) acquiring property
c) descent
d) naturalization
Answer:
b) acquiring property

2. _____________ of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship.
a) Part II
b) Part II Article 5-11
c) Part II Article 5-6
d) Part I Article 5-11
Answer:
b) Part II Article 5-11

3. Who is called the first citizen of India?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The President
c) The Chief Minister
d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
b) The President

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. of a state enjoy full civil and political rights.
Answer:
Citizen

2. Our Indian Constitution provides for only citizenship.
Answer:
One

3. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport are called
Answer:
Non-Resident Indian

4. All have a right and responsibility to citizens.
Answer:
Civic

5 is an idea enabling young people to access and participate in shaping modem society.
Answer:
Global Citizenship

III. State true or false.

1. the USA has a single citizenship.
Answer:
False

2. OCI cardholder has voting rights in India.
Answer:
False

3. Citizens of India can enjoy Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our constitution.
Answer:
True

4. Nationality can be change and citizenship can not be changed.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if
a) a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
b) a person who has become a citizen through registration.
c) the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
d) a citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during the war.

a) I and II are correct.
b) I and III are correct
c) I, III, IV are correct.
d) I, II, III are correct.
Answer:
d) I, il, ill are correct.

2. Assertion: When Pondicherry becomes a part of India in 1962, the people who lived there became Indian citizens.
Reason: It was done by one of the provisions of the Act of 1955 – by incorporation of Territory.
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name the types of citizens
Answer:
There are two types of citizens, Natural and Naturalised citizens.

1. Natural citizens: are the citizens by birth.
2. Naturalised citizens: are the one who acquires citizenship.

2. What are the Rights that a citizen can enjoy in our country?
Answer:

• Fundamental Rights
• Right to vote in the election to Lok Sabha and the state Legislature.
• Right to become a Member of Parliament and State Legislature.

3. Mention any three qualities of a good citizen.
Answer:

1. Loyalty to the Constitution.
2. Obeys laws.
3. Contributes to society and community and performs civic duty.
4. Quality of goodness and justice.
5. Respecting diversity.

4. Name the five ways of acquiring citizenship
Answer:

• By Birth
• By Descent
• By Registration
• By Naturalisation
• By incorporation of Territory

5. What do you know about the citizenship Act of 1955?
Answer:
This act is to provide for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship. The citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship. They are by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory.

VI. Answer the following

1. On what grounds that the citizenship of a person is cancelled?
Answer:
1. Renunciation:
(is a voluntary act) when a person after acquiring the citizenship of another country gives up his/her Indian citizenship.

2. Termination:
(takes place by operation of law) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country; he/she automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen.

3. Deprivation:
(is a compulsory termination) Citizenship is derived on the basis of an order of the Government of India in cases involving the acquisition of Indian citizenship by fraud, false representation, or being disloyal to the Constitution.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The word citizen is derived from the ………………… word.
a) English
b) Greek
c) Latin
d) German
Answer:
c) Latin

2. In 1962 ………………… became a part of India
a) Nepal
b) Srilanka
c) Pondicherry
d) Bangladesh
Answer:
c) Pondicherry

3. ………………… country has dual citizenship.
a) Canada
b) Switzerland
c) Australia
d) the UK
Answer:
b) Switzerland

4. ………………… are citizens by birth.
a) Natural Citizens
b) Naturalised citizens
c) Artificial Citizens
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Natural citizens

5. The citizenship act of 1955 prescribes ………………… ways of acquires citizenship.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Answer:
b) Five

6. A person who has married a citizen in India and he is Ordinarily resident in India for ………………… years.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
Answer:
c) 7

7. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India is called as …………………
a) NRI
b) PIO
c) OCI
d) VRS
Answer:
a) NRI

8. The Government of India issued the Citizenship order in …………………
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1962
d) 1965
Answer:
c) 1962

9. ………………… is granted to an individual by the government of the country.
a) Nationality
b) Citizenship
c) Religionship
d) Vetics
Answer:
b) Citizenship

10. ………………… Amendment of our constitution a set of fundamental duties for all citizens.
a) 38
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42
Answer:
d) 42

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………… is the study of government and duties of the citizens.
Answer:
Civics

2. ………………… of a person cannot be changed.
Answer:
Nationality

3. Indian Citizen Act passed in the year …………………
Answer:
1955

4. ………………… of 1955 provides for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship.
Answer:
Indian Citizenship Act

5. The knowledge of 22 languages specified in the Schedule ………………… of the constitution.
Answer:
Eighth

6. By a citizen of any country, renounce the citizenship of that country got …………………
Answer:
Naturalisation

7. Dual citizenship has given in …………………
Answer:
USA

8. A foreign citizen of Indian origin getting ………………… card.
Answer:
Overseas Citizen of India

9. The arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa on …………………
Answer:
January 5

10. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on …………………
Answer:
January 9

III. State true or false:

1. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on the 1st of January.
Answer:
False

2. Nationality of a person cannot be changed but citizenship can be changed.
Answer:
True

3. A Naturalised citizenship granted to a person if he is not a citizen of any country.
Answer:
True

4. India will get citizenship by Registration.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship.
2. Part III of the Constitution of India Prescribes loss of citizenship.
3. A person can change Nationality.
4. A person cannot change citizenship.
Answer:
1) The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship

2. Match

1.Non- Resident Indian	a) DCI
2. Person of Indian origin	b) NRI
3. Cardholder to live in India	c) PIO
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	d) Immigrant
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	e) Alien

Answer:

1. Non- Resident Indian	b) NRI
2. Person of Indian origin	c) PIO
3. Cardholder to live in India	a) DCI
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	e) Alien
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	d) Immigrant

V. Answer the following.

1. What is citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status given to the citizens which provides them the right to legally live in a country as long as they want.

2. What is Nationality?
Answer:

• Nationality is the status of belonging to a particular nation by origin, birth basically, it’s an ethnic and racial concept.
• Nationality of a person cannot be changed.

3. Explain the Single Citizenship of India.
Answer:
In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country.

4. Person of Indian Origin – Explain.
Answer:

• A person whose any ancestors was Indian nationals and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship. (other than Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Afghanistan. China and Nepal).
• The PIO scheme was rescinded from 09-01 -2015.

5. Explain Global Citizenship.
Answer:

• Global citizenship is an idea that everyone, no matter where they live is part of a worldwide community rather than as the citizen of a particular nation or place.
• All people have rights and civic responsibilities.

6. Explain – Overseas Indian’s Day.
Answer:

• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Sponsored by the Ministry of External Affairs of the Government of India is celebrated once every two years, to “mark the contributions of Overseas Indian Community in the development of India”.
• The day (January 9) commemorates the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa.

VI. Answer the following.

1. Explain the Acquisition of citizenship by Descent.
Answer:

• A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
• A person born in India on or after st July 1987 is considered a citizen of India only if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
• Those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by
a) President
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
a) President

2. The State Council Ministers is headed by
a) The Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Speaker
d) Home Minister
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
a) Home Minister
b) President
c) Speaker
d) The Governor
Answer:
d) Governor

4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Chief Justice of the High Court
d) President of India
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is
a) 62
b) 64
c) 65
d) 58
Answer:
a) 62

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. ……………. States are there in India at present.
Answer:
29

2. The tenure of the Governor is normally ……………. years.
Answer:
Five

3. The District Judges are appointed by …………….
Answer:
The Governor

4. The Governor is the ……………. Head of the State.
Answer:
Real

5. Minimum age to become an MLA is ……………. years.
Answer:
25

III. Match the Following

1.Governor	a) Lower House
2. Chief Minister	b) Nominal Head
3. Legislative Assembly	c) Upper House
4. Legislative Council	d) Real Head

Answer:

1. Governor	b) Nominal Head
2. Chief Minister	d) Real Head
3. Legislative Assembly	a) Lower House
4. Legislative Council	c) Upper House

IV. State true or false:

1. Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
Answer:
True

2. The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo- Indian Community to the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
False

3. The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement

1. The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice-President
(iii) Rajya Sabha Members
(iv) Members of Legislative Council of the State
a) i, ii & iii are correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i, iii, & iv are correct
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Name the two houses of the State legislature?
Answer:
The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two houses. The upper house is called the Legislative Council while the lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.

2. Write the qualifications of the members of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

• A person has to be at least 25 years old to contest in the election.
• Even if a person does not belong to any political party, he can contest the election and such a candidate is called an independent candidate.

3. How is the Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. He is the head of the State Council of Ministers.

4. How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, there are 234 legislative constituencies.
• The party with more than 118 elected candidates (MLA) are invited by the governor to form the Government.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Powers and functions:

1. The Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State. All major decisions of the State Government are taken under his leadership.

2. The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other Ministers.

3. The Chief Minister supervises the activities of different ministries and advises them accordingly. He also coordinates the activities of different ministries.

4. The Chief Minister plays an important role in making policies of the State Government ensuring public interest. His voice is final in the policy decisions of the State Government.

5. The Governor appoints different higher officials of the State Government on the advice of the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers.

2. Discuss the powers and functions of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The Lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.
Legislative Assembly:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’ (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies.
• For the election of MLA’s the entire State is divided into different constituencies
• One MLA is chosen from each legislative constituency to represent the Legislative Assembly.

Election:

• Different political parties compete in the election by nominating candidates from each constituency.
• One person can stand in more than one constituency at the same time.
• Every party has its own symbol.
• People who are above the age of 18 can cast a vote in the legislative assembly election.
• The meetings of the Assembly are presided over by the Speaker and in his absence, the Deputy Speaker conducts its meetings.

3. Write about the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
1. The High Court has been empowered to issue writs of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for other purposes.

2. Every High Court has a general power of superintendence over all the lower courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.

3. If a case is pending before a subordinate court and the High Court is satisfied that it involves a substantial question of the constitutional law, it can take up the case and decide it itself.

4. The High Court controls all the subordinate courts in the State.

5. Like the Supreme Court, the High Court also acts as a Court of Record.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

1. ………………… is a permanent house of the state legislative.
a) Lok Sabha
b) Legislative assembly
c) Legislative council
d) RajyaSabha
Answer:
c) Legislative council

2. ………………… is the eligible age to cast a vote.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 21
d) 18
Answer:
d) 18

3. ………………… cannot remove the governor from his post.
a) Prime minister
b) State Government
c) Supreme court
d) President
Answer:
State Government

4. Who presides over The Assembly by meeting?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Speaker
d) Law minister
Answer:
c) Speaker

5. If the chief minister is not a member of the state Legislative, he must be so within a period of ………………… month.
Answer:
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 10

6. ………………… stands at the apex of the State Judiciary.
a) District court
b) High court
c) Mobile court
d) Family court
Answer:
b) High court

7. The marriage age for a woman is …………………
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 23
Answer:
b) 18

8. Only ………………… states in India have a legislative council.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 16
Answer:
c) 6

9. A Judge of the high court must have at least ………………… years of experience as an advocate.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
Answer:
a) 10

10. Who plays an important role in making appointments for the state Governments?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Central Minister
d) MLAs
Answer:
b) Chief minister

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The two sets of the government of India are …………………, …………………
Answer:
Central government, State government

2. There are ………………… state Governments in our country.
Answer:
29

3.  ………………… is a chief executive in a state.
Answer:
Governor

4. The age of Governor completed ………………… years.
Answer:
35

5. President impose emergency in the state through ………………… article.
Answer:
356

6. ………………… acts as the chancellor of State Universities.
Answer:
Governor

7. State laws derived by …………………
Answer:
members of the legislative assembly

8. There are ………………… constituency in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
234

9. The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as …………………
Answer:
chief minister

10. The legislative assembly meets ………………… times in a year
Answer:
2 or 3

11. The ………………… has control over the state council of ministers.
Answer:
assembly

12. ………………… is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
Executing

13. The legislative assembly of TamilNadu is located at …………………
Answer:
Chennai

14. The High court stands as the match of the …………………
Answer:
State Judiciary

15. The Chief Justice was appointed by …………………
Answer:
President

III. Match the Following

1. Lower house member	a) 30 years
2. Upper house member	b) 21 years
3. Voting age limit	c) 62 years
4. Men’s marriage age	d) 18 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	e) 25 years

Answer:

1. Lower house member	e) 25 years
2. Upper house member	a) 30 years
3. Voting age limit	d) 18 years
4. Men’s marriage age	b) 21 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	c) 62 years

IV. State true or false

1. The state governor appoints the chief justice of the high court.
Answer:
False

2. Executing laws is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
True

3. The Governor can nominate two members from the Anglo Indian community.
Answer:
False

4. The party which got majority seats in the election forms the government.
Answer:
True

5. Two houses of state legislature is present in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Governor maintaining the relationship between the central government and the state government.
2. Court act as an agent of the central government.
3. The Governor is the Nominal Executive in a State.
4. Chief minister is the head of the state council of Ministers.
a) 1 and 2 c) 2,4
Answer:
d) 3, 4 correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. How the Governor was appointed?
Answer:

• The Constitution provides for the post of the Governor as the head of a state in India.
• He is appointed by the president of India.

2. Who are the Members of the Legislative assembly?
Answer:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’
  (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies. For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.

3. What are the legislative constitution?
Answer:

• For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.
• These constituencies are called the legislative constituencies. One legislative constituency may have one lakh or even more people.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:

• The Governor is the Chief Executive in a state.
• All the executive powers of the state are vested upon him and decisions is taken in his name.
• He appoints the chief minister and council of ministers.
• The President imposes an emergency in a state under Article 356 on the basis of the Governor.
• The Governor also acts as the Chancellor of state universities.
• Money bills can be introduced in the state Legislative Assembly only with the approval of the Governor.
• The annual budget of the state Government inlaid before the legislature with the approval of the

2. How a bill becomes an Act – Explain the states.
Answer:

• A Bill is presented in the Legislative Assembly.
• Debates and discussions take place on it.
• Changes can be made in the Bill.
• If more than half of the MLAs vote in favour of the Bill, it is said to be passed.
• The Bill to get the assent of the Governor to become an Act.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 2 Weather and Climate Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
a) 78% and 21%
b) 22% and 1%
c) 21% and 0.97%
d) 10% and 20%
Answer:
a) 78% and 21%

2. ………………. is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
a) earth
b) atmosphere
c) climate
d) sun
Answer
c) climate

3. The earth receives energy from
a) current
b) electro magnetic radiation
c) waves
d) heat
Answer:
d) heat

4. Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall
a) isotherm
b) isohel
c) isobar
d) isohytes
Answer:
d) isohytes

5. …………. is used to measure the humidity.
a) anemometer
b) barometer
c) hygrometer d) thermometer
Answer:
c) hygrometer

II. Fill in the blank
1. ……………….. refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
Answer:
Weather

2. The scientific study of weather is called ………….
Answer:
Meteroiogy

3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is ……………..
Answer:
56.7°C in in USA

4. …………. is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
Answer:
Humidity

5. …………. and ………….. are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
Answer:
Wind direction and wind speed

6. ………… are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.
Answer:
Isotherms

III. Match the following

1. Climate	a) Locating and Tracking Storms
2. Isonif	b) Cyclone
3. Hygrometer	c) Equal Snowfall
4. Radar	d) Long Term Changes
5. Low Pressure	e) Humidity

Answer:

1. Climate	d) Long Term Changes
2. Isonif	c) Equal Snowfall
3. Hygrometer	e) Humidity
4. Radar	a) Locating and Tracking Storms
5. Low Pressure	b) Cyclone

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.
Answer:
True

2. The scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
Answer:
False

3. Isohel refers equal sunshine.
Answer:
True

4. Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answer:
False

V. Answer in brief:
1. Define ‘weather’.
Answer:
Weather is the day today conditions(state) of the atmosphere at any place as regards sunshine, temperature, cloud cover. Wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and such other elements.

2. What is insolation?
Answer:
Incoming solar radiation are called Insolation.

3. What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of air above a given area on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure or air pressure.

4. Write a short note on “Planetary winds”
Answer:

• Planetary winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
• So, they are called as planetary winds.

5. What are “Isolines”?
Answer:
The distribution of weather elements is shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are lines which join the places of equal values of weather elements.

VI. Distinguih the following:
1. Weather and climate.

Weather	Climate
1. Weather is the day today conditions of the atmosphere like sunshine, temperature humidity and such other elements.	Climate is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of place or a region.
2. Weather is cool in .winter and hot in summer.	The Climate does not change often like weather.

2. Absolute and relative humidity.

Absolute Humidity	Relative Humidity
1. It is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.	It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at given temperature.
2. These expressed usually in grams per cubic meter of air.	It is expressed as a percentage.

3. Permanent and seasonal winds.

Permanent wind	Seasonal wind
1. Permanent winds, are also called planetary winds.	Monsoon winds are also called as seasonal winds.
2. These winds blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.	These winds are blowing from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

VII. Give reasons:
1. The Weather and climate in different regions vary.
Answer:
The angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds, and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

2. Temperature decreases with an increase in altitude.
Answer:
It is known as the Lapse rate which is 6.5-degree Celcius per 1000 meters is the troposphere.

3. Mountain climbers carry Oxygen cylinders while ascending peaks.
Answer:
With decreasing air pressure, the availability of oxygen to breathe also decreases. At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. How is temperature measured?
Answer:
Measuring Temperature:
1. The temperature of a unit volume of air at a given time is measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin. Meteorologist measures the temperature by the Thermometer, Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum Thermometer.

2. The energy received by the earth through insolation is lost by outgoing radiation.

3. Atmosphere is mainly heated by outgoing radiation from 2 to 4 pm. So the maximum temperature is recorded between 2 and 4 pm regularly and the minimum temperature is recorded around 4 am before sunrise.

Mean Temperature:
1. The average of the maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature [(87°F + 73°F)/2=80°F].

2. Diurnal range of temperature is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. The annual range of temperature is the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year.

2. Write about the wind and its types.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air is called wind. The wind systems are broadly categorized into three as follows.

• Planetary winds
• Seasonal winds
• Local winds

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds. Trade winds, Westerlies, and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

2. Seasonal winds are those which change their direction according to the season in a year. They are called as monsoon winds. These winds blow from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

3. Local winds are the winds that blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or a short period of a year. Land and sea breezes are examples of these winds.

3. List out the weather elements and associated measuring instruments.
Answer:

Weather elements	Measuring instruments
Temperature	Celsius, Fahrenheit, Kelvin
Rainfall	Rain gauge
Air Pressure	Aneroid Barometer
Humidity	Hygrometer
Wind	Anemometer

IX. Give any three suggestions to reduce global warming:

1. Plant trees.
2. Recycle the used things.
3. Composite wasted food and biodegradables.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:
1. The word Klimo is derived from the language.
a) Greek
b) Latin
c) Arab
d) English
Answer:
a) Greek

2. Horizontal movement of air is called
a) Storm
b) Cyclone
c) Mist
d) Wind
Answer:
d) Wind

3. The average wind speed is low in
a) France
b) Canada
c) Argentina
d) Brazil
Answer:
d) Brazil

4. The temperature decreases per 1000 meters height is
a) 5°C
b) 6.5°C
c) 7°C
d) 8.5°C
Answer:
b) 6.5°C

5. …………….. is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day.
a) Diurnal range
b) Heat conduction
c) Heat radiation
d) Heat elevation
Answer:
a) Diurnal range

6. Which Zone is called a Tropical Zone?
a) Torrid zone
b) Temperate zone
c) Frigid zone
d) Polar zone
Answer:
a) Torrid zone

7. Isobar means
a) Equal Sunshine
b) Equal atmospheric pressure
c) Equal temperature
d) Equal rainfall
Answer:
b) Equal atmospheric pressure

8. The name of an Equal amount of rainfall is
a) Isotherm
b) Isohel
c) Isohyet
d) Isollobar
Answer:
c) Isohyet

9. The name of Equal pressure tendency is
a) Isotherm
b) Isohel
c) Isohyet
d) Isollobar
Answer:
d) Isollobar

10. Major element of weather and climate is
a) Temperature
b) Sound
c) Light
d) Latitude
Answer:
a) Temperature

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Heat energy from ………………. is received by the earth through three mechanisms.
Answer:
Solar radiation

2. ……………. and soil are the major factors which affect the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Natural vegetation

3. The distribution of temperature is shown by means of ………………..
Answer:
Isotherms

4. Temperature zone lies between tropic of …………… circle in the Northern Hemisphere and the ………………. circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Arctic, Antarctic

5. Frigid zone is known as …………………
Answer:
polar region

6. ………………… is a major component of the water cycle.
Answer:
Rain

7. Generally rainfall is high in the …………….. region.
Answer:
Equatorial

8. The average of ……………. and ……………. temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature.
Answer:
maximum, minimum

9. …………………. is a diagram used to depict the direction and periods of prevailing winds on a map.
Answer:
Wind rose

10. Weather is the day to day conditions of the ………………………..
Answer:
atmosphere

11. The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is ………………..
Answer:
0.03%

12. The amount of argon in the atmosphere is …………….
Answer:
0.97%

13. The word Klimo means ……………….
Answer:
Inclination

14. Climate is the average atmospheric conditions usually for ………………..
Answer:
35 years

15. The Scientific Study of Climate is called …………….
Answer:
Climatology

III. Match the following:

1. Aniroid	a) Temperature
2. Beaufort	b) diagram
3. Wind rose	c) Wind speed
4. Fahrenheit	d) humidity
5. Hydrometer	e) air pressure

Answer:

1. Aniroid	e) air pressure
2. Beaufort	c) Wind speed
3. Wind rose	b) diagram
4. Fahrenheit	a) Temperature
5. Hydrometer	d) humidity

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is 56.7°C.
Answer:
True

2. The degree of heat present in the sun is termed as temperature.
Answer:
False

3. Rainfall is measured by Raingauge.
Answer:
True

4. Temperature decreases to 8°C per 1000 meters in height.
Answer:
False

5. Al-Balakhi prepared the first climatic Atlas of the world.
Answer:
True

V. Answer in brief:
1. What are the Controlling factors of weather and climate?
Answer:
The angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds, and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

2. What are the factors affecting the distribution of temperature?
Answer:
Latitude, altitude, nature of the land, ocean currents, prevailing winds, slope, shelter, and distance from the sea, natural vegetation, and soil are the major factors which affect the distribution of temperature.

3. What are the Isotherms?
Answer:

• The distribution of temperature is shown by means of Isotherms.
• Isotherms are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places..

VI. Distinguish the following:
1. Torrid zone and Temperature zone.

Torrid zone	Temperature zone
1. It is a region between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.	This zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
2. This region receives the direct rays of the sun and gets the maximum heat from the sun.	This zone gets the slanting rays of the sun
3. This zone is known as the tropical zone.	The angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards the poles.

2. Specific humidity and Relative humidity.

Specific humidity	Relative humidity
1. Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis.	The relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour.
2. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.	It is expressed as a percentage.

VII. Give reasons:
1. Why artificial pressure creates in Aircraft?
Answer:

• At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure can cause decompression sickness.
• Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. Define the types of humidity.
Answer:
The types of humidity are

• Specific humidity
• Absolute humidity
• Relative humidity

Specific humidity:
Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.

Absolute humidity:
Absolute Humidity is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.

Relative humidity:
It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature.