Category: Class 8

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 4 My Reminiscence Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Prose Chapter 4 My Reminiscence

8th English Guide My Reminiscence Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 92)

Read the quote and observe the picture.

Complete this graphic organiser.
Remember to use suitable adjectives.

Textual Exercise

A. Fill in the blanks.

1. The author speaks about the river ……………. .
Answer:
Ganges

2. The author’s brother’s name is ……………. .
Answer:
Jyotirindra

3. The ……………. glimmered over the smooth flowing stream.
Answer:
moonlight

4. The beauty of Bengal and the Ganges served as ……………. and ……………. to the author.
Answer:
food, drink

B. Answer the following in one or two sentences. (Text Book Page No. 95)

1. Quote the expressions from the text when the author sees the Ganges again.
Answer:
“The Ganges again! Again those ineffable days and nights, languid with joy, sad with longing, attuned to the plaintive babbling of the river along with the cool shade of its wooded banks”.

2. In what ways the river and its bank have changed?
Answer:
The surrounding greenery has been replaced by mills. The noise and smoke of the mills are referred to as changes.

3. How were the rooms arranged in his house?
Answer:
A flight of stone-flagged steps led to a long broad verandah. The rooms were not regularly arranged. All the rooms were not on the same level. Some rooms had to be reached by short flights of stairs. The big sitting room faced the landing steps.

C. Answer the following in a paragraph.

1. How does the author spend his afternoon? Explain
Answer:
On rainy afternoons, the author spends his time singing old Vaishnava songs to his own tunes, with the harmonium. On other afternoons, he goes boating with his brother. His brother plays the violin. They engage themselves in music. When the sun sets they return home.

2. Describe how the river looks when he rows back.
Answer:
On the west side of the river, the sun rays declined. On the east side of the river, the moon rises over the fringe of trees. A silver streak was formed where the land and water met. Boats were hardly seen. The trees bordering the river banks appeared like a dark shadow and the moonlight glowed over the smooth flowing stream.

3. Draw the images in the box after reading the text carefully.
Answer:

Vocabulary (Text Book Page No. 96)

Clipped Words:
Find out the clipped words for the following. (Text Book Page No. 96)

1. aeroplane – plane
2. microphone – mike
3. exhibition – exhibit
4. kilogram – kilo
5. cafeteria – cafe

b. Find and use the clipped words in your own sentence.

1. photograph – photo
I showed my mother’s photo with my friend.

2. gymnasium – gym
I used to go to the gym every day to get a well-built body.

3. luncheon – lunch
I share my lunch with my friends.

4. advertisement – ad
It is a common ad we see in between the serials.

5. zoological park – zoo
We went to the zoo last week.

Blends:
a. Find out the blended words for the following. (Text Book Page No. 97)

1. international + police – Interpol
2. helicopter + pad – helipad
3. motor+hotel – motel
4. education + satellite – educate
5. electronic + commerce – e-commerce

b. Use the blended words in your own sentences.

1. electrocute
Electrocution is the mode of the death penalty in foreign countries.

2. Spanglish
Spaniards employed in ships speak Spanglish.

3. moped
Moped is a vehicle liked by many women in our country.

4. brunch
I took my brunch at 11.00 a.m. today.

5. smog
Due to the smog, the plane was canceled yesterday.

Idioms:

Match with the meanings for the following Idioms. (Text Book Page No. 99)

1. a piece of cake –	a) Moving very slowly
2. on cloud nine	b) easy
3. perfect ten	c) Blissfully happy
4. at a snail’s pace	d) someone who is cherished above all others
5. apple of my eye	e) completely perfect

Answer:

1. a piece of cake	b) easy
2. on cloud nine	c) Blissfully happy
3. perfect ten	e) completely perfect
4. at a snail’s pace	a) Moving very slowly
5. apple of my eye	d) someone who is cherished above all others

Fill in the blanks with the meanings for the following Idioms.

1. take five _________
Answer:
for a break

2. pieces of eight _________
Answer:
treasure

3. black and blue _________
Answer:
severely

4. wild goose chase _________
Answer:
wasteful

5. seventh heaven _________
Answer:
very happy

6. a couch potato _________
Answer:
lazy person

7. the lion’s share _________
Answer:
biggest share

8. in black and white _________
Answer:
written

9. drop the ball _________
Answer:
making a mistake

10. cat’s meow _________
Answer:
excellent

Listening (Text Book Page No. 99)

Listen to the passage carefully and answers the following
Note: The listening passage is given on page no. 228

Questions.
1. The Nobel Committee has been called a conservative body because
a) it is conservative in the choice of subjects.
b) its members believe in conservative ideology
c) its members are old fashioned
d) it awards prizes only to those people who adopt a conservative approach.
Answer:
a) it is conservative in the choice of subjects

2. In the beginning, the Nobel Committee ignored the great advances in theoretical physics because
a) they were different from other branches of physics.
b) they were concerned with the theory and did not suggest its application.
c) the Committee felt that the discovery and invention in the field did not contribute to the benefit of mankind.
d) they proved to be merchants of death and hence dangerous to mankind.
Answer:
c) the Committee felt that the discovery and invention in the field did not contribute to the benefit of mankind.

3. The noble prize would not be given to
a) a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement
b) a doctor who discovered a vaccine
c) a composer who composed a symphony
d) an author who wrote a novel
Answer:
c) a composer who composed a symphony

4. Alfred Nobel left his colossal fortune to the cause of progress in human knowledge because he
a) was Europe’s richest vagabond
b) were a chemist, engineer, and an aspiring poet
c) felt guilty for having invented highly destructive things
d) felt guilty for having earned so much money
Answer:
c) felt guilty for having invented highly destructive things

Writing (Text Book Page No. 101)

Exercise: (Text Book Page No. 102)

1. Your school is going to organize an inter-school dance competition. Write a notice for your school notice board inviting all the interested students.

HOLY ANGELS HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, Palani. NOTICE September 8, 2019 INTERSCHOOL DANCE COMPETITION Our school is hosting the Inter-School Dancing Competition for classes 6 to 12 on September 30, 2019, at school auditorium. All the talented students in dancing may appear for the audition to be conducted in the presence of famous cine dancer on October 1, 2019, at 9 a.m. For further detail s, contact the undersigned. Bamila, Secretary, (Cultural in-charge).

2. You are Santhosh, Secretary, Housing Board, Officer’s colony, Thiruvarur. Water supply will be suspended for ten hours (10 a.m. to 8 p.m.) on 5th 0f October for cleaning of the water tank. Write a notice in about 50 words advising the residents to store water for a day.

HOUSING BOARD, Officer’s Colony, Thiruvarur. NOTICE September 10, 2019. SUSPENSION OF WATER SUPPLY Water supply will be suspended for ten hours between 10 a.m. and 8 p.m. on September 18, 2019, in our colony, due to the cleaning of the water tank. The residents are kindly asked to store water on September 17, 2019, itself. For further details, contact the undersigned. Santhosh, Secretary, Housing board. Officer’s Colony, Thiruvarur.

3. You are the head girl/boy of a Govt. High School. Your school is soon going to publish the annual magazine next month. Write a notice for the notice board of your school inviting students to submit write-ups.

GOVERNMENT HIGH SCHOOL, Nagapattinam. NOTICE September 18, 2019 PUBLICATION OF THE ANNUAL MAGAZINE Our school will be publishing an annual magazine next month. All the students are invited to contribute your own write-ups for the annual magazine. For further details, contact the undersigned. S. Prabhu, Secretary, (Magazine in-charge).

Grammar

Conjunction: (Text Book Page No. 105)

a. Underline the conjunctions in the following sentences:

1. Revathy and Rohini are friends.
Answer:
And

2. If you say so I will believe it.
Answer:
so

3. Shekar is intelligent but careless.
Answer:
but

4. The bus was overcrowded so Arun avoided travelling in it.
Answer:
so

5. Though Vinay is ill, he doesn’t skip the class.
Answer:
Though

b. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with suitable conjunctions from the box:
after, unless, until, and, fill, although, so, because, but.

1. I returned home ………….. the bus had started.
Answer:
after

2. I respect him ………….. he is very strict.
Answer:
although

3. Sudharshan will succeed ………….. he works hard.
Answer:
because

4. Aravinth ………….. Arun is classmates from their childhood.
Answer:
and

5. You can’t have your fruits ………….. you take your food.
Answer:
until

C. Choose the correct conjunctions from the options given in the brackets:

1. Everyone likes him ………….. he is very helpful, (because/for)
Answer:
because

2. ………….. it was cloudy, we decided to take an umbrella, (so/as)
Answer:
as

3. Rathi found her watch ………….. she had left it. (wherever/where)
Answer:
where

4. I don’t know ………….. I can afford to buy a new dress or not. (whether/why)
Answer:
whether

5. ………….. he was ill, he did not go to the doctor, (as/though)
Answer:
though

Sentence Pattern: (Text Book Page No. 107)

1. Choose the right pattern.

1. The wall collapsed.
a) SV
b) SVO
c) SVIODO
Answer:
a) SV

2. During the war, many people lost their homes.
a) SVO
b) SVIODO
c) ASVO
Answer:
c)ASVDO

3. I promised the children a trip to the zoo.
a) SVO
b) SVDOIO
c) SVIODO
Answer:
c) SVIODO

4. In 1998, Frank moved to London.
a) ASVA
b) ASVO
c) SVIODO
Answer:
a)ASVA

5. Pooja hired a bicycle.
a) SV
b) SVO
c) SVA
Answer:
b) SVO

2. Write two sentences for each pattern.

Answer:

SV	Birds fly.	They returned.
SVO	I bought a pen.	She gave a bale.
SVC	She is a dancer.	He is a painter.
SVA	They came here.	They will come now.
SVOC	Raju wrote a letter neatly.	I wrote the exam well.
SVIODO	They gave him a shock.	The teacher taught him a lesson.
ASV	Tomorrow she leaves.	Yesterday I came.
SVAA	My dog swam in the pool yesterday.	I went to Ooty by bus last week.

My Reminiscence Summary in English

The author returned from England. He visited his brother Jyotirindra and his wife at Chandemagore. The lovely days he spent with them in boating, singing, and writing poems from the villa called Moran’s Garden had been memorable days. He describes his stay there in this lesson.

My Reminiscence Summary in Tamil

ஆசிரியர் இங்கிலாந்திலிருந்து திரும்பினார். தன் சகோதரர் ஜியோதிந்ரா மற்றும் அவரது மனைவி தங்கியிருந்த சந்திரநாகூர் என்ற இடத்தில் சென்று தங்கினார். அந்த நாட்களை படகில் ஏறிச் செல்வதும், மோரன்ஸ் கார்டன் என்ற அவர்கள் வீட்டில் பாடுவதிலும் கவிதை எழுதுவதிலும் செலவழித்த நாட்கள் எப்போதும் தன் நினைவில் நிற்க கூடிய நாட்கள் என்று கூறுகிறார்.

My Reminiscence About the Author in English

Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941), Nobel prize-winning Bengali poet, author, philosopher, artist, and educator wrote “Gitanjali” (1912); “My Reminiscences” was written and published in his fiftieth year, shortly before he started on a trip to Europe and America for his failing health in 1912. It was in the course of this trip that he wrote for the first time in the English language for publication.

My Reminiscence About the Author in Tamil

ரவிந்திரநாத் தாகூர் (1861-1941) நோபல் பரிசு பெற்ற பெங்காலி புலவர், எழுத்தாளர், தத்துவஞானி, கலைஞர் மற்றும் கல்வியாளர் ஆவார். கீதாஞ்சலி எழுதியது 1912ம் ஆண்டு ஆகும். அவர் ஐரோப்பா, அமெரிக்கா நாடுகளுக்கு உடல் நலக்குறைவு இருந்ததை சீர் செய்ய சென்று வந்தார். திரும்பி வந்ததும் தனது 50ஆம் வயதில் கடந்த காலத்தின் கதை என்ற புத்தகத்தை வெளியிட்டார். இந்தப் பயணத்தின் போதுதான் இவர் முதன் முதலாக, தம் புத்தகத்தை ஆங்கிலத்தில் வெளியிட்டார்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. After the Second World War ……………….. has taken several measures to protect the human rights.
a) UNO
b) Supreme Court
c) International Court of Justice
d) none
Answer:
a) UNO

2. In 1995 women from all over the world gathered at ………………..
a) Beijing
b) New York c) Delhi
d) none
Answer:
a) Beijing

3. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted in ………………..
a) 1990
b) 1993 c) 1978
d) 1979
Answer:
b) 1993

4. The UNO declared 1979 as the International year of ………………..
a) Girl Child b) Children c) women
d) none
Answer:
b) Children

5. When is Human Rights Day observed?
a) 9th December
b) 10th December .
c) 11th December
d) 12th December
Answer:
b) 10th December

6. Which one is known as modern International Magna Carta of Human rights?
a) UDHRC
b) NHRC
c) SHRC
d) International year for women
Answer:
a) UDHRC

7. Who can be appointed as the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) Retired judge of high court
b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court,
c) Any person appointed by the President.
d) Retired Chief Judge of any court.
Answer:
c) Any person appointed by the President

8. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer:
b) 30

9. What is the tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) 5 years or upto 62 years of age
b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
Answer:
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age

10. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Ahmedabad
d) Kolkata
Answer:
a) New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Each individual has ……………….. to lead a dignified life.
Answer:
the right

2. Human Rights are ……………….. rights.
Answer:
basic

3. The State Human Rights commission was formed on ………………..
Answer:
17th April 1997

4. Article 24 of Indian Constitution prohibits ………………..
Answer:
Child Labour

5. United Nations Organisation was established in the year ………………..
Answer:
24th October,; 1945

III. Match the Following

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	a) world’s first charter of human rights
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	b)1997
3. Eve Teasing Act	c) freedom from slavery
4. Child help line	d) Human Rights Commission
5. Civil right	e) right to vote
6. Political right	f) 1098

Answer:

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	d) Human Rights Commission
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	a) world’s first charter of human rights
3. Eve Teasing Act	b) 1997
4. Child helpline	f) 1098
5. Civil right	c) freedom from slavery
6. Political right	e) right to vote

IV. State true or false.

1. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
Answer:
False

2. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was proclaimed in India.
Answer:
True

3. The Human Right Act of 1993 provides the creation of National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:
True

4. National Human Rights Commission has empowered to give punishment to the victims.
Answer:
False

5. Human Rights Commission was empowered to setup commission for the promotion of Human rights
at National and State level. ,
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. Find the wrong statement
a) National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
c) National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
d) National Human Rights Commission is a multilateral institution.
Answer:
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

2. Which of the following statement is not correct about the National Human Rights Commission?
a) It was established in 1993.
b) In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no rights to punish the culprit.
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.
d) The Commission Sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Governments.
Answer:
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.

3. Assertion : Human Rights day is observed on 1 Oth December.
Reason : It commemorates Eleanor RooseveTs birthday.
a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct but R does not explain A

4. Consider the following statements
1. The State Human Rights commission is a multi-member body.
2. The State Human Rights Commission consists of a chairperson and three members. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
Answer:
b) 2 only

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. What are Human Rights?
Answer:

• Human Rights are rights inherent to all human beings regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, and religion.
• Human rights include freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion, and education.

2. Bring out the importance of UDHR.
Answer:

• UDHR has been translated into more than 500 languages.
• In the world it is the most translated document.
• It describes all men are bom free and all are equal in status and right.
• It promote the spirit of brotherhood.

3. What does Article 45 of Indian Constitution provide?
Answer:
It provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

4. Write about Right to Education Act.
Answer:
Article 21A provides that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years.

5. State any three legislations passed to safeguard the welfare of women.
Answer:

• The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 – States that the marriageable age for women is 21.
• The Eve Teasing Act 1997 – Gives relief to women.
• The Factory Act 1948 – Protects the women workers.

6. Mention some of the political rights.
Answer:
It includes the freedom of expression, and peaceful assembly, the right to take part in the government of one’s country, the right to vote, the freedom of speech and obtain information.

7. Name the five primary categories of Human Rights.
Answer:
i) Civil Rights
ii) Political Rights
iii) Social Rights
iv) Economic Rights
v) Cultural Rights.

VII. Answer the following.in detail.

1. Distinguish between Human rights and Civil rights.
Answer:

Human rights	Civil Rights
Human rights belong to everyone, everywhere, regardless of nationality, sexuality, gender, race, religion or age.	Civil rights are those rights that one enjoys by virtue of citizenship in a particular nation or state.
Human rights are considered universal to all human beings and universal in all countries.	Civil rights vary greatly from country to the country’s or government to government. It is related to the Constitution.
No nation may rightfully deprive human rights to an individual.	Different nations can grant or deny different civil rights and liberties.
Human rights are basic rights inherent with birth.	Civil rights are creation of the society.

2. Describe any five basic characteristics of Human rights. Basic characteristics of Human Rights:
Answer:

• Inherent – They are not granted by any person or authority.
• Fundamental – They are fundamental rights because without them, the life and dignity of man will be meaningless.
• Inalienable – They cannot be taken away from the individual.
• Indivisible – They can’t be denied even when other rights have already been enjoyed .
• Universal – They are universal. They apply irrespective of one’s origin or status. They are enforceable.

3. What are the measures taken by the government to protect the children?
Answer:
The government has take some measures to protect the children from all kinds of exploitation and abuses. There are lows in India to Protecting the rights of the children.
i) Right to Education Act – Article 21 A.
ii) Child labour Act – Prohibition and Regulation Act 1986
iii) The Juvenile Justice Act 2000- Care and Protection of Children
iv) POCSO Act 2012 – Protection of Children from Sexual abuses
v) 1098 Childline – 24 hours emergency phone service for children.

VIII. Hots.

1. To whom does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights apply? Why is it important to you?

• Because these are based on dignity, justice, and equality.
• They are endowed with intelligence and concience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men.
• Universal Declaration of Human Rights is applicable for all men and women in the world without any discrimination.
• So it is very important.

IX. Project and Activity

1. Make a list of 10 rights that you enjoy, and the responsibilities that you have.
Answer:
Rights:
Article 14 – Equality before law.
Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability.
Article 20 – Freedom of speech, assembly movement, residence and profession.
Article 23 – Prohibition traffic human being and forced labour.
Article 28 – Prohibition of employment of Children in factories etc.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
Article 27 – Freedom from payments of taxes for promotion for any religion.
Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain education institution.
Article 29 – Protection of languages, script and culture of minorities.
Article 31 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Responsibilities:

1. Tolerate all religions.
2. Do not hurt others.
3. To protect the environment.
4. Respect the elders.
5. Follow the rules of government.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The Magna Carta of England released in the year ………………..
a) 1214
b) 1215
c) 1216
d) 1217
Answer:
b) 1215

2. A document of France Stating the Rights of all citizens declared in the year ………………..
a) 1789
b) 1790
c) 1791
d) 1792
Answer:
a) 1789

3. The US Constitution and Bill of Rights declared in the year ………………..
a) 1768
b) 1769
c) 1790
d) 1791
Answer:
d) 1791

4. UNO has declared the year ……………….. as the international year of women.
a) 1970
b) 1978
c) 1979
d) 1980
Answer:
b) 1978

5. The ……………….. is considered as an important national asset.
a) Resources
b) Education
c) Child
d) Welfare
Answer:
c) child

6. The Juvenile Justice Act implemented in the year ………………..
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2010
d) 2012
Answer:
a) 2000

7. The marriageable age for women is ………………..
a) 20
b) 21
c) 18
d) 22
Answer:
c) 18

8. The ……………….. appoints the chairperson and other members of National Human Rights
Commission.
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Minister
d) Vice – President
Answer:
a) President

9. UDHR has been translated into more than ……………….. languages.
a) 500
b) 510
c) 600
d) 610
Answer:
a) 500

10. National Human Rights Commission has ……………….. divisions.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer:
b) 5

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. An act for the better Securing liberty of the subject in England is ………………..
Answer:
The Habeas Corpus Act 1679

2. UNO was established on 24th October of ………………..
Answer:
1945

3. ……………….. is a milestone document in the history of Human rights.
Answer:
UDHR

4. ……………….. the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
Cyrus the Great

5. The decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the ……………….. language in ……………….. Script.
Answer:
Akkadian, Cuneiform

6. ……………….. is the most translated document in the world.
Answer:
UDHR

7. ……………….. is known as modem International Magna carta.
Answer:
UDHR

8. ……………….. provides for children to develop in a healthy manner.
Answer:
Article 39(f)

9. Child helpline number is ………………..
Answer:
1098

10. An International bill of rights of women adopted in the year ………………..
Answer:
1979

11. UNIFEM has worked since ……………….. to implement the Beijing Platform for Action.
Answer:
1995

12. In ……………….. the ……………….. world conference of Women held in Beijing.
Answer:
1995, Fourth

13. ……………….. Protects the women workers.
Answer:
The factory Act

14. ……………….. rights are creations of the Society.
Answer:
Civii

15. ……………….. and ……………….. rights are human rights.
Answer:
Women and girl’s

III. Match the following.

1. The Factory Act	a) 1952
2. The Plantation Labour Act	b) 1961
3. The Mines Act	c) 1948
4. The Maternity benefit Act	d) 2005
5. Domestic violence Act	e) 1951

Answer:

1. The Factory Act	c)1948
2. The Plantation Labour Act	e) 1951
3. The Mines Act	a) 1952
4. The Maternity benefit Act	b) 1961
5. Domestic violence Act	d) 2005

State true or false:

1. UNO has declared 1980 as the International Year of Children.
Answer:
False

2. The Act not ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
Answer:
False

3. A set of basic right and freedoms has deep roots in European and American countries.
Answer:
True

4. Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
True

5. Child help line number is 109.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer;

1. 1) The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act 1856 Legalised widow remarriage.
2) The Hindu Successian Act 1956 ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
3) The plantation Labour Act protects the men workers.
4) The Factory Act 1998, protects the women workers,
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1 and 2 are correct

2. Assertion: One of the greatest achievements of United Nations is the creation of human rights law.
Reason : To advance this goal, the UN established a commision on Human Rights, a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
c) A and R are correct

3. Consider the following statements
1. UNO has declared 1978 as International year of women.
2. UNO has declared 1979 as the International year of children.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both a and b d) None
Answer:
c) Both a and b

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Define the Preamble of UDHR.
Answer:

• All men are bom free and all are equal in status and rights.
• They are endowed with intelligence and conscience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men..

2. Why December 10th is celebrated as Human Rights Day?
Answer:

• Human Rights Day is celebrated annually on 10th December every year.
• It is to honour the United Nations General Assembly for declaring the human rights universally..

3. Explain about The Cyrus Cylinder’.
Answer:

• Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient Persia, free the slaves and declared that all people had the right to choose their own religion and established racial equality.
• These and other decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the Akkadian language in cuneiform script
• It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

4. Write short note on ‘State Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The State Human Rights Commission of Tamil Nadu was formed on 17th April, 1997.
• It functions at the state level. It consists of three members including a Chairperson.
• A state Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects
  covered under State list and Concurrent list. .

5. Write three Non- govermental Organisations.
Answer:
Amnesty International, Children’s Defense Fund, Human Rights Watch.

6. What are the Indian Constitution Articles for children?
Answer:

• Article 24 – prohibits child labour.
• Article 39(f) – provides for children to develop in healthy manner.
• Article 45 – provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

7. Write Short notes on Welfare of parents and Senior citizen Act?
Answer:

• This Act makes it legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents. Protection and support during old age are envisaged as human rights.
  8. What are the Legislations to protect women rights?
• The Factory Act 1948
• The Plantation Labour Act 1951
• ‘ The Mines Act 1952
• The Maternity benefit Act 1961

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain about the written Precursors of Human Rights Documents.
Answer:

• The Magna Carta of 1215 (England) – gave people new rights and made the king subject to the law.
• The Petition of Right 1628 (England) – set out the rights of the people.
• The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 (England) – an act for the better securing liberty of the subject.
• The English Bill of Rights of 1689 – set out certain basic civil rights.
• The French Declaration on the Rights of Man and Citizen 1789 – a document of France, stating that all citizens are equal under the law.
• The US Constitution and Bill of Rights 1791 – safeguards the rights of the citizens..

2. Explain about National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12th October, 1993. It is an independent statutory, and non-constitutional body.
• Its headquarter is located in New Delhi. NHRC is a multi- member body which consists of a Chairperson and other members.
• The President appoints the Chairperson and other members.
• They are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
• NHRC has five divisions. Law Division, Investigation Division, Policy Research & Programmes Division, Training Division and Administrative Division.
  < The National Human Rights Commission is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.

3. Write an essay about women Rights.
Answer:

• Women and girl’s rights are human rights.
• Women are entitled to the full and equal enjoyment of all of their human rights and to be free from all forms of discrimination.
• This is fundamental to achieve human rights, peace and security and sustainable development.
• The Charter of the United Nations guarantees equal rights to both women and men.
• The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), adopted in 1979 by the UN General Assembly, is described as an International bill of rights for women.
• In 1995 the Fourth World Conference of Women, held in Beijing, developed a Platform for Action to * recognise women’s rights and improve women’s livelihood worldwide.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer.

1. Secularism means
a) State is against to all religions
b) State accepts only one religion
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion
d) None of these
Answer:
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful coexistence on the part of citizen belonging any religion

2. India is a land of
a) multi-religious faith
b) multi-cultural beliefs
c) Both(l)&(2)
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both (1) & (2)

3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in
a) 1951
b) 1976
c) 1974
d) 1967
Answer:
b) 1976

4. Which one of the following describes India as a secular state?
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duty
c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Preamble of the Constitution
Answer:
d) Preamble of the Constitution

5. Right to freedom of religion is related to
a) Judiciary b) Parliament
c) Directive principles of State Policy d) Fundamental rights
Answer:
d) Fundamental rights

6. According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state-aided educational institutions?
a) Religious instruction b) Moral education
c) Physical education d) None of the above
Answer:
a) religious instruction

7. The country will be considered as a secular country, if it
a) gives importance to a particular religion.
b) bans religious instructions in the state-aided educational institutions.
c) does not give importance to a particular religion.
d) bans the propagation of any religious belief.
Answer:
c) does not give importance to a particular religion

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Religion does not teach us ……………..
Answer:
animosity

2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants ………………
Answer:
equal rights

3. …………….. is a lack of belief in god and gods.
Answer:
Atheism

4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote …………….. and ………………
Answer:
unity & integrity

5. Article 15 …………….. prohibits on the grounds of religion, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Answer:
discrimination

III. Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	a) coined the word secularism
2. Children	b) social reformer
3. Din-i-Illahi	c) lack of belief in god
4. Constitution	d) future citizen
5. Holyoake	e) Divine faith
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	f) 1950

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	c) lack of belief in god
2. Children	d) future citizen
3. Din-i-Illahi	e) Divine faith
4. Constitution	f) 1950
5. Holyoake	a) coined the word secularism
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	b) social reformer

IV. State true or false.

1. There is a state religion in India.
Answer:
False

2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. Answer:
True

4. Jainism originated in China. –
Answer:
False

5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.
Answer:
True

V, Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious diversity.
ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.
a) i, ii only
b) ii, iii only
c) iv only
d) i, ii, and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but
also for the aliens also.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi-religious and multi-cultural country.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct. ‘
d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Find out the wrong pair.
Answer:
a) Din-i-lllahi – A book
b) Khajuraho – Hindu temple
c) Ashoka – Rock Edict
d) Iqbal – Poet
Answer:
a) Din-i-Allahi – A book

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name some of the Indians who contributed to the spreading of secularism.
Answer:

1. Rajaram Mohan Roy
2. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Mahatma Gandhi and
5. B.R. Ambedkar

2. What does secularism mean?
Answer:
Secularism means an attitude of tolerance towards other religions and the peaceful co-existence of citizens belonging to different faiths.

3. State the objectives of secularism.
Answer:
Objectives of Secularism:

1. One religious group does not dominate another.
2. Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

4. Why is it important to separate religion from the state?
Answer:

• Because there is no state religion in India.
• The state will neither establish a religion of its own nor confer any special patronage upon any particular religion.

5. What are the characteristic features of a secular state?
Answer:

• Principle of Liberty – The state permits the practice of any religion
• Principle of Equality – The state does not give preference to any religion over another.
• Principle of Neutrality – The state remains neutral in religious matters.

6. Mention any three constitutional provisions related to secularism?
Answer:

• Article 15 – prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth, etc.,
• Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Why we need secular education?
Secular education is needed

• to remove narrow mindedness and makes dynamic and enlightened view;
• to develop moral and humanistic outlook;
• to train the youth to be a good citizen;
• to strengthen democratic values like liberty, equality, and fraternity, and co-operative living;
• to give a wider vision towards life;
• to develop an attitude of appreciation and understanding of others point of view;
• to develop the spirit of love, tolerance, co-operation, equality, and sympathy;
• to synthesize materialism and spiritualism.

2. Secularism is necessary for a country like India. Justify.

• Yes, Secularism necessary because India is a land of multi-cultural beliefs. ’
• It is the birthplace of four major religions.
  • Hinduism
  • Jainism
  • Buddhism
  • Sikhism
• The main concept of secularism is aimed at creating a society in which people with religious beliefs or people who do not belong to any religion can live together in harmony and peace.

VIII. HOTS

1. Will the Government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice human sacrifice?
Answer:
The government will definitely intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice in infanticide, Ample reason can be given in support of the answer. No religion teaches us to kill any living being, kindness is the root of all religions. Even the law of our country also declares that killing a human being is illegal. It is also against human rights.

IX. Project and Activity.

1. Look at the holidays of your school calendar. How many of them pertain to different religions? List them based on religions. What does it indicate?
June 5 – Ramzan
Sep. 2 – Ganesh Chaturthi
Dec. 25 – Christmas
It indicates we had so many religion and given as government holidays for the religious ceremonies.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which article provides a ban on discrimination in State-aided educational institution.
a) Article-19
b) Article – 20
c) Article – 29 (2)
d) Article-16
Answer:
b) Article – 29 (2)

2. Which article provides equality of opportunity in public employment.
a) Article – 15
b) Article – 16
c) Article – 17
d) Article – 18
Answer:
b) Article -16

3. Which article guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to process practice, and Propagate religion individually.
a) Article – 25 (1)
b) Article – 29 (2)
c) Article – 28
d) Article – 27
Answer:
a) Article -25(1)

4 is the State Permits the practice of any religion.
a) Liberty
b) Equality
c) Neutrality
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Liberty

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The term Secularism is derived from the Latin word
Answer:
Saeculum

2 coined the term Secularism.
Answer:
George Jacob Holyoake

3. The statement ‘We are Indians and India is our home* illustrated by
Answer:
Poet Iqbal

4 states the Secularism of Ashoka.
Answer:
12th Rock Edict

5. The policy of Akbar which states that ’Peace and harmony among religions’ termed as
Answer:
Sulh-e-kul

6. The freedom of religion is not confined to its citizen alone but extends to aliens also which is pointed in 1954 case.
Islam and Hinduism.
Answer:
Akbar

9. India is the birthplace of four major religions …, and
Answer:
Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, and Sikhism

10. Secularism is the part of
Answer:
Indian Constitution

11. The State will not accord any
Answer:
Preferential treatment any of them.

12. provides the freedom to manage religious affairs.
Answer:
Article 26

13. Secular education needs to train the
Answer:
Youth to be good citizen.

III. Match the following

1. Secularism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
2. Atheism	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
3. Article – 15	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
4. Article -16	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions
5. Article – 29 (2)	e) tolerance towards other religions

Answer:

1. Secularism	e) tolerance towards other religions
2. Atheism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
3. Article – 15	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
4. Article -16	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
5. Article – 29(2)	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions

IV. State true or false

1. The Secular Indian State declares Public Holidays to mark the festivals of all religions.
Answer:
True

2. Article 15 gives equality of opportunity in public employment.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar does not follow the policy of religious toleration.
Answer:
False

4. State Permits the practice of any religion.
Answer:
True

5. Secularism is not the part of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
ii) Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
iii) Article 28 – The State shall not compel any citizen to promote of any particular religion.
iv) Article 29 (2) – A ban discrimination in State-aided educational institution,
a) i, ii only b) ii, iii only
c) iv only d) i, ii and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion: There is no state religion in India.
Reason: The State will neither establish a religion of its own new confer any patronage upon any particular religion.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Write Short notes on – 12th Rock Edict of Ashoka.

• Emperor Ashoka was the first great emperor to announce as early as 3rd century BC (BCE) that the state would not prosecute any religious sect.
• In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect towards them.

2. How Akbar followed religious toleration?

• The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration.
• His propagation of Din-i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-Kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated for religious toleration.

3. What is the importance of the Khajuraho temple?

A 19th-century Hindu temple in Khajuraho, India incorporates a Hindu spire, a Jain cupola, a Buddhist stupa, and Muslim style dome in place of the usual shikara.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain the characteristic features of a secular state.
Answer:

1. A secular state is the one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the country’s official religion and every religion is treated equally.
2. It gives to every citizen not only the equal right to freedom of conscience but also the right to process practice, and propagate any faith of their own choice.
3. The state observes an attitude of neutrally and impartiality towards all religions.
4. In a secular state, no one is given preferential treatment and the state does not discriminate any person on the basis of their religious practices and beliefs.
5. All citizens are eligible to enter government service irrespective of their faith.
6. There should be absolutely no religious instructions in educational institutions and no taxes to support any particular religion.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
a) Birth
b) acquiring property
c) descent
d) naturalization
Answer:
b) acquiring property

2. _____________ of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship.
a) Part II
b) Part II Article 5-11
c) Part II Article 5-6
d) Part I Article 5-11
Answer:
b) Part II Article 5-11

3. Who is called the first citizen of India?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The President
c) The Chief Minister
d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
b) The President

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. of a state enjoy full civil and political rights.
Answer:
Citizen

2. Our Indian Constitution provides for only citizenship.
Answer:
One

3. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport are called
Answer:
Non-Resident Indian

4. All have a right and responsibility to citizens.
Answer:
Civic

5 is an idea enabling young people to access and participate in shaping modem society.
Answer:
Global Citizenship

III. State true or false.

1. the USA has a single citizenship.
Answer:
False

2. OCI cardholder has voting rights in India.
Answer:
False

3. Citizens of India can enjoy Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our constitution.
Answer:
True

4. Nationality can be change and citizenship can not be changed.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if
a) a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
b) a person who has become a citizen through registration.
c) the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
d) a citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during the war.

a) I and II are correct.
b) I and III are correct
c) I, III, IV are correct.
d) I, II, III are correct.
Answer:
d) I, il, ill are correct.

2. Assertion: When Pondicherry becomes a part of India in 1962, the people who lived there became Indian citizens.
Reason: It was done by one of the provisions of the Act of 1955 – by incorporation of Territory.
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name the types of citizens
Answer:
There are two types of citizens, Natural and Naturalised citizens.

1. Natural citizens: are the citizens by birth.
2. Naturalised citizens: are the one who acquires citizenship.

2. What are the Rights that a citizen can enjoy in our country?
Answer:

• Fundamental Rights
• Right to vote in the election to Lok Sabha and the state Legislature.
• Right to become a Member of Parliament and State Legislature.

3. Mention any three qualities of a good citizen.
Answer:

1. Loyalty to the Constitution.
2. Obeys laws.
3. Contributes to society and community and performs civic duty.
4. Quality of goodness and justice.
5. Respecting diversity.

4. Name the five ways of acquiring citizenship
Answer:

• By Birth
• By Descent
• By Registration
• By Naturalisation
• By incorporation of Territory

5. What do you know about the citizenship Act of 1955?
Answer:
This act is to provide for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship. The citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship. They are by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory.

VI. Answer the following

1. On what grounds that the citizenship of a person is cancelled?
Answer:
1. Renunciation:
(is a voluntary act) when a person after acquiring the citizenship of another country gives up his/her Indian citizenship.

2. Termination:
(takes place by operation of law) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country; he/she automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen.

3. Deprivation:
(is a compulsory termination) Citizenship is derived on the basis of an order of the Government of India in cases involving the acquisition of Indian citizenship by fraud, false representation, or being disloyal to the Constitution.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The word citizen is derived from the ………………… word.
a) English
b) Greek
c) Latin
d) German
Answer:
c) Latin

2. In 1962 ………………… became a part of India
a) Nepal
b) Srilanka
c) Pondicherry
d) Bangladesh
Answer:
c) Pondicherry

3. ………………… country has dual citizenship.
a) Canada
b) Switzerland
c) Australia
d) the UK
Answer:
b) Switzerland

4. ………………… are citizens by birth.
a) Natural Citizens
b) Naturalised citizens
c) Artificial Citizens
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Natural citizens

5. The citizenship act of 1955 prescribes ………………… ways of acquires citizenship.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Answer:
b) Five

6. A person who has married a citizen in India and he is Ordinarily resident in India for ………………… years.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
Answer:
c) 7

7. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India is called as …………………
a) NRI
b) PIO
c) OCI
d) VRS
Answer:
a) NRI

8. The Government of India issued the Citizenship order in …………………
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1962
d) 1965
Answer:
c) 1962

9. ………………… is granted to an individual by the government of the country.
a) Nationality
b) Citizenship
c) Religionship
d) Vetics
Answer:
b) Citizenship

10. ………………… Amendment of our constitution a set of fundamental duties for all citizens.
a) 38
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42
Answer:
d) 42

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………… is the study of government and duties of the citizens.
Answer:
Civics

2. ………………… of a person cannot be changed.
Answer:
Nationality

3. Indian Citizen Act passed in the year …………………
Answer:
1955

4. ………………… of 1955 provides for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship.
Answer:
Indian Citizenship Act

5. The knowledge of 22 languages specified in the Schedule ………………… of the constitution.
Answer:
Eighth

6. By a citizen of any country, renounce the citizenship of that country got …………………
Answer:
Naturalisation

7. Dual citizenship has given in …………………
Answer:
USA

8. A foreign citizen of Indian origin getting ………………… card.
Answer:
Overseas Citizen of India

9. The arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa on …………………
Answer:
January 5

10. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on …………………
Answer:
January 9

III. State true or false:

1. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on the 1st of January.
Answer:
False

2. Nationality of a person cannot be changed but citizenship can be changed.
Answer:
True

3. A Naturalised citizenship granted to a person if he is not a citizen of any country.
Answer:
True

4. India will get citizenship by Registration.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship.
2. Part III of the Constitution of India Prescribes loss of citizenship.
3. A person can change Nationality.
4. A person cannot change citizenship.
Answer:
1) The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship

2. Match

1.Non- Resident Indian	a) DCI
2. Person of Indian origin	b) NRI
3. Cardholder to live in India	c) PIO
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	d) Immigrant
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	e) Alien

Answer:

1. Non- Resident Indian	b) NRI
2. Person of Indian origin	c) PIO
3. Cardholder to live in India	a) DCI
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	e) Alien
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	d) Immigrant

V. Answer the following.

1. What is citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status given to the citizens which provides them the right to legally live in a country as long as they want.

2. What is Nationality?
Answer:

• Nationality is the status of belonging to a particular nation by origin, birth basically, it’s an ethnic and racial concept.
• Nationality of a person cannot be changed.

3. Explain the Single Citizenship of India.
Answer:
In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country.

4. Person of Indian Origin – Explain.
Answer:

• A person whose any ancestors was Indian nationals and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship. (other than Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Afghanistan. China and Nepal).
• The PIO scheme was rescinded from 09-01 -2015.

5. Explain Global Citizenship.
Answer:

• Global citizenship is an idea that everyone, no matter where they live is part of a worldwide community rather than as the citizen of a particular nation or place.
• All people have rights and civic responsibilities.

6. Explain – Overseas Indian’s Day.
Answer:

• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Sponsored by the Ministry of External Affairs of the Government of India is celebrated once every two years, to “mark the contributions of Overseas Indian Community in the development of India”.
• The day (January 9) commemorates the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa.

VI. Answer the following.

1. Explain the Acquisition of citizenship by Descent.
Answer:

• A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
• A person born in India on or after st July 1987 is considered a citizen of India only if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
• Those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by
a) President
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
a) President

2. The State Council Ministers is headed by
a) The Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Speaker
d) Home Minister
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
a) Home Minister
b) President
c) Speaker
d) The Governor
Answer:
d) Governor

4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Chief Justice of the High Court
d) President of India
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is
a) 62
b) 64
c) 65
d) 58
Answer:
a) 62

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. ……………. States are there in India at present.
Answer:
29

2. The tenure of the Governor is normally ……………. years.
Answer:
Five

3. The District Judges are appointed by …………….
Answer:
The Governor

4. The Governor is the ……………. Head of the State.
Answer:
Real

5. Minimum age to become an MLA is ……………. years.
Answer:
25

III. Match the Following

1.Governor	a) Lower House
2. Chief Minister	b) Nominal Head
3. Legislative Assembly	c) Upper House
4. Legislative Council	d) Real Head

Answer:

1. Governor	b) Nominal Head
2. Chief Minister	d) Real Head
3. Legislative Assembly	a) Lower House
4. Legislative Council	c) Upper House

IV. State true or false:

1. Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
Answer:
True

2. The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo- Indian Community to the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
False

3. The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement

1. The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice-President
(iii) Rajya Sabha Members
(iv) Members of Legislative Council of the State
a) i, ii & iii are correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i, iii, & iv are correct
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Name the two houses of the State legislature?
Answer:
The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two houses. The upper house is called the Legislative Council while the lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.

2. Write the qualifications of the members of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

• A person has to be at least 25 years old to contest in the election.
• Even if a person does not belong to any political party, he can contest the election and such a candidate is called an independent candidate.

3. How is the Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. He is the head of the State Council of Ministers.

4. How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, there are 234 legislative constituencies.
• The party with more than 118 elected candidates (MLA) are invited by the governor to form the Government.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Powers and functions:

1. The Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State. All major decisions of the State Government are taken under his leadership.

2. The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other Ministers.

3. The Chief Minister supervises the activities of different ministries and advises them accordingly. He also coordinates the activities of different ministries.

4. The Chief Minister plays an important role in making policies of the State Government ensuring public interest. His voice is final in the policy decisions of the State Government.

5. The Governor appoints different higher officials of the State Government on the advice of the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers.

2. Discuss the powers and functions of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The Lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.
Legislative Assembly:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’ (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies.
• For the election of MLA’s the entire State is divided into different constituencies
• One MLA is chosen from each legislative constituency to represent the Legislative Assembly.

Election:

• Different political parties compete in the election by nominating candidates from each constituency.
• One person can stand in more than one constituency at the same time.
• Every party has its own symbol.
• People who are above the age of 18 can cast a vote in the legislative assembly election.
• The meetings of the Assembly are presided over by the Speaker and in his absence, the Deputy Speaker conducts its meetings.

3. Write about the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
1. The High Court has been empowered to issue writs of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for other purposes.

2. Every High Court has a general power of superintendence over all the lower courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.

3. If a case is pending before a subordinate court and the High Court is satisfied that it involves a substantial question of the constitutional law, it can take up the case and decide it itself.

4. The High Court controls all the subordinate courts in the State.

5. Like the Supreme Court, the High Court also acts as a Court of Record.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

1. ………………… is a permanent house of the state legislative.
a) Lok Sabha
b) Legislative assembly
c) Legislative council
d) RajyaSabha
Answer:
c) Legislative council

2. ………………… is the eligible age to cast a vote.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 21
d) 18
Answer:
d) 18

3. ………………… cannot remove the governor from his post.
a) Prime minister
b) State Government
c) Supreme court
d) President
Answer:
State Government

4. Who presides over The Assembly by meeting?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Speaker
d) Law minister
Answer:
c) Speaker

5. If the chief minister is not a member of the state Legislative, he must be so within a period of ………………… month.
Answer:
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 10

6. ………………… stands at the apex of the State Judiciary.
a) District court
b) High court
c) Mobile court
d) Family court
Answer:
b) High court

7. The marriage age for a woman is …………………
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 23
Answer:
b) 18

8. Only ………………… states in India have a legislative council.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 16
Answer:
c) 6

9. A Judge of the high court must have at least ………………… years of experience as an advocate.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
Answer:
a) 10

10. Who plays an important role in making appointments for the state Governments?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Central Minister
d) MLAs
Answer:
b) Chief minister

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The two sets of the government of India are …………………, …………………
Answer:
Central government, State government

2. There are ………………… state Governments in our country.
Answer:
29

3.  ………………… is a chief executive in a state.
Answer:
Governor

4. The age of Governor completed ………………… years.
Answer:
35

5. President impose emergency in the state through ………………… article.
Answer:
356

6. ………………… acts as the chancellor of State Universities.
Answer:
Governor

7. State laws derived by …………………
Answer:
members of the legislative assembly

8. There are ………………… constituency in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
234

9. The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as …………………
Answer:
chief minister

10. The legislative assembly meets ………………… times in a year
Answer:
2 or 3

11. The ………………… has control over the state council of ministers.
Answer:
assembly

12. ………………… is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
Executing

13. The legislative assembly of TamilNadu is located at …………………
Answer:
Chennai

14. The High court stands as the match of the …………………
Answer:
State Judiciary

15. The Chief Justice was appointed by …………………
Answer:
President

III. Match the Following

1. Lower house member	a) 30 years
2. Upper house member	b) 21 years
3. Voting age limit	c) 62 years
4. Men’s marriage age	d) 18 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	e) 25 years

Answer:

1. Lower house member	e) 25 years
2. Upper house member	a) 30 years
3. Voting age limit	d) 18 years
4. Men’s marriage age	b) 21 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	c) 62 years

IV. State true or false

1. The state governor appoints the chief justice of the high court.
Answer:
False

2. Executing laws is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
True

3. The Governor can nominate two members from the Anglo Indian community.
Answer:
False

4. The party which got majority seats in the election forms the government.
Answer:
True

5. Two houses of state legislature is present in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Governor maintaining the relationship between the central government and the state government.
2. Court act as an agent of the central government.
3. The Governor is the Nominal Executive in a State.
4. Chief minister is the head of the state council of Ministers.
a) 1 and 2 c) 2,4
Answer:
d) 3, 4 correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. How the Governor was appointed?
Answer:

• The Constitution provides for the post of the Governor as the head of a state in India.
• He is appointed by the president of India.

2. Who are the Members of the Legislative assembly?
Answer:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’
  (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies. For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.

3. What are the legislative constitution?
Answer:

• For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.
• These constituencies are called the legislative constituencies. One legislative constituency may have one lakh or even more people.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:

• The Governor is the Chief Executive in a state.
• All the executive powers of the state are vested upon him and decisions is taken in his name.
• He appoints the chief minister and council of ministers.
• The President imposes an emergency in a state under Article 356 on the basis of the Governor.
• The Governor also acts as the Chancellor of state universities.
• Money bills can be introduced in the state Legislative Assembly only with the approval of the Governor.
• The annual budget of the state Government inlaid before the legislature with the approval of the

2. How a bill becomes an Act – Explain the states.
Answer:

• A Bill is presented in the Legislative Assembly.
• Debates and discussions take place on it.
• Changes can be made in the Bill.
• If more than half of the MLAs vote in favour of the Bill, it is said to be passed.
• The Bill to get the assent of the Governor to become an Act.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Public and Private Sectors

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The public sector in India owes its origin in the ……………… industrial policy resolution of the Government of India.
a) 1957
b) 1958
c) 1966
d) 1956
Answer:
1956

2. Mixed economy is the mixture of ……………… .
a) Capitalism
b) Socialism
c) a& b are correct
d) A & B are incorrect
Answer:
c) a & b are correct

3. …………………… is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
a) Private Sector
b) Joint Sector
c) Public Sector.
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Joint Sector

4. Public sector is on ……………… motive.
a) Profit Motive
b) Service Motive
c) Speculative Motive
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Service Motive

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The …………………… and …………………… are allotted their respective roles in promoting the economic welfare of all sections of the community.
Answer:
Pubiic sector, Private sector

2. The private sector is on …………………… motive.
Answer:
profit

3. …………………… is the process of social and economic development in a society.
Answer:
Socio-economic development

4. The main function of the private sector is to create …………………… and ……………………
Answer:
innovation, modernisation

5. The government is committed to strengthening …………………… and cooperation among the citizens.
Answer:
Community business

III. Match the Following

1. Think Tank	a) Primary Sector
2. Agriculture	b) Gross Domestic Product
3. Industries	c) NITI Aayog
4. GDP	d) Secondary Sector

Answer:

1. Think Tank	c) NITI Aayog
2. Agriculture	a) Primary Sector
3. Industries	d) Secondary Sector
4. GDP	b) Gross Domestic Product

IV. Which is the Odd one.
1. Which one of the following is not the indicator of Socio-Economic Development.
a) Black Money
b) Life Expectancy
c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
d) Employment
Answer:
a) Black Money

V. Which of the following is a correct answer.
1. i) The Industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are referred to as Schedule-A
ii) The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state sector, with the state taking the sole responsibility for starting new units which are specific in Schedule-B.
iii) The remaining industries which were in the private sector are not mentioned in the Schedule.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) i and ii are correct

VI. Short Answer:
1. Write a short note on public sectors?
Answer:

1. The sector, which is engaged in the activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as the Public Sector.
2. The enterprises, agencies, and bodies are fully owned, controlled, and run by the government whether it is central government, state government, or a local government.

2. What does society want?
Answer:

• Society wants the state to play an extensive role in developing the country.
• The economic growth may be sustained at a maximum rate if the private sector and public sector join hands.

3. Write the objectives of the Public Sector?
Answer:
The objectives of the Public Sector:

1. To promote rapid economic development through the creation and expansion of infrastructure
2. To generate financial resources for development
3. To promote redistribution of income and wealth
4. To create employment opportunities

4. What are the three organs of public sectors?
Answer:
The three organs of the public sector are

• Administration by a government Department.
• The Joint sector companies
• Public corporation

5. Name some indicators that measure socio-economic development.
Answer:
Socioeconomic development is measured with indicators, such as GDP, life expectancy, literacy and levels of employment.

6. Write a short note on the Private sector?
Answer:
The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled, and managed by private individuals or enterprises is known as the Private sector.

7. Name any three Major Private Sector industries?
Answer:

• National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
• Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC)
• Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)

VII. Brief Answer.
1. Explain the organs of public sector.
Answer:
The organs of Public sector are
Administration by a Government Department:

• It is very common in all most countries.
• Eg: Post and Telegraph, Railways.

The Joint Sector companies:

• It is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
• Eg: Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited.

Public Corporation:

• This type of organization is the establishment of public corporation by the state of the Parliament of legislative.
• Eg: LIC, Air India.

2. Write briefly explain the history of public sector?
Answer:
History of Public Sector:

1. When India achieved independence in 1947, it was primarily an agricultural country with a weak industrial base. It is established for their own economic interest and rule the subcontinent with brute force.
2. The first Industrial Policy Resolution announced in 1948 laid down broad contours of the strategy of industrial development.
3. The Planning Commission was formed in March 1950 and the Industrial Act was enacted in 1951.
4. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru believed that the establishment of basic and heavy industry was fundamental to the development and modernisation of the Indian economy.
5. His vision was carried forward by Dr. V. Krishnamurthy and the Indian statistician Mahalanobis.
6. The 1991 industrial policy allowed greater freedom to the private sector and foreign direct investment was invited from business houses outside india.
7. Thus, multinational corporations gained entry into the Indian economy.
8. Thus, we have public sector units, private sector enterprises and multinational Coexisting in Indian economy.

3. Explain any five measured indicators of socio-economic development?
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product:

• GDP supports in developing socio-economic development. The proportion of GDP by the industrial sector both private and public sector has been increased.
• It results in increasing government funds and increase public spending.

Life Expectancy:

• According to Health Ministry statistics, the life expectancy for male is 67. 3 year and 69. 5 for female.
• The government many schemes to serve poor and vulnerable families.
  Literacy:
• Educational Skill plays a vital role in the socio-economic development Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is government of India’s flagsup programme.

Employment:

• A growing number of people moved to urban areas in search of employment.
• It increased urban population, hence government started the ‘Smart city’ scheme which provides the city with many facilities.

Provision of House, Clean Drinking Water, and Sanitation:
Government sector provides housing facilities, clean drinking water facilities, and sanitary facilities under clean India Planning.

4. What are the importance of public sector?
Answer:
Public sector plays a major role in the development of any economy. It has following importance:
1. Public Sector and Capital Formation:

• The role of public sector in collecting, saving and investing them during the planning period has been very important.

2. Economic Development:

• Economic development mainly depends upon industrial development.
• Heavy and basic industries like Iron and steel, shipping, mining, etc. are required for supplying raw materials to small industries.

3. Balanced Regional Development:

• Public enterprises have developed the backward areas thereby bringing about a complete transformation in the socio-economic life of the people in these regions.

4. Employment generation:

• Public sector has created millions of jobs to tackle the unemployment problem in the country.
• The number of persons employed during the year 2011 was 150 lake.

5. Export Promotion and Foreign Exchange Earnings:

• Some public enterprises have done much to promote India’s export.
• The State Trading Corporation (STC). The Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) have done very well in export promotion.

6. Protection to Sick Industries:

• Public sector takes over the sick industries and prevent many people from getting unemployed.
• It also prevents unnecessary locking of capital, land, building, machinery,etc.

7. Import Substitution:

• Some public sector enterprises were started specifically to save foreign exchange.
• The ONGC, the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., the Bharat Electronics Ltd., etc., have saved foreign exchange by way of import substitution.

5. Difference between the public and private sector.
Answer:

Public Sector	Private Sector
1. Ownership of industries is with government.	Ownership of industries is with private individuals.
2. Public revenue depends upon levy of taxes on income and commodities and services.	Issuing shares and debentures or by taking loan.
3. Public sector ensures the proper wage.	Private sector exploits the workers.
4. It does not allow to concentrate huge wealth in few hands or rich people.	It allows concentrated of huge wealth in few hands or rich people.
5. Public sector industries include Police, Army Mining, Health, Manufacturing, Electricity Banking, etc.	Private sector industries include finance, Mining, Transport, Education, etc.
6. No tax evasion.	Tax evasion is high.
7. It is service oriented.	It is purely profit-oriented.
8. Reservations are implemented. Priority is given to the socially backward people.	It does not care the socially backward class people. Reservation is not followed.

6. Write the functions of private sector?
Answer:
Functions of Private Sector are given below:

1. The main function of private sector is to create innovation and modernization.
2. Develop and maintain infrastructure and services.
3. Promote and expand existing businesses.
4. Promote human capital development, to help vulnerable groups.
5. Promote small, micro and medium enterprises (SMME) through supply side measures, and demand side measures and attract investment in the city.
6. The Government has fixed a specific role to the private sector in the field of industries, trade and services sector.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The Industrial act was enacted in ………………..
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1951
d) 1956
Answer:
c) 1951

2. ……………….. is an example for the public sector which serves as a consultancy.
a) MECON
b) Railways
c) Hotel
d) FCI
Answer:
a) MECON

3. What is the full form of GDP?
a) Grain Domestic Product
b) Gross Development Product
c) Gross Domestic Project
d) Gross Domestic Product
Answer:
d) Gross Domestic Product

4. ……………….. supports in developing socio – Economic Development.
a) GDP
b) GST
c) GNP
d) none
Answer:
a) GDP

5. The city which provides the city with many facilities like hospitals, schools, and facilities are called ………………..
a) Clean city
b) White city
c) Smart city
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Smart city

6. The largest public sector employer in India is
a) Indian Railways
b) Infosys
c) WIPRO Limited
d) ICICI bank
Answer:
a) Indian Railways

7. ……………….. removes regional inequality.
a) Employment
b) Literacy
c) GDP
d) none
Answer:
a) Employment

8. Example for export Promotion Earning industry is
a) ONGC
b) Indian oil corporation Ltd
c) The State of Trading corporation
d) None of these
Answer:
c) The State of Trading corporation

9. India’s five year plan emphasized the development of public sector enterprises.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) none
Answer:
b) Second

10. The activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as Sector.
a) Public
b) private
c) both
d) none
Answer:
a) Public

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. ……………….. is the mixture of merits of both capitalism and Socialism.
Answer:
Mixed economy

2. ……………….. is the key of economic development of a country.
Answer:
Rapid industraiisation

3. Nehru’s vision was carried forward by ………………..
Answer:
Dr.VKrishnamurthy

4. NHPS means ………………..
Answer:
National Health Productive Scheme

5. The public sector of the full growth is an ………………..
Answer:
Economy

6. Administration by a Governor Department – Example ………………..
Answer:
Port Trust

7. The Joint sector companies – Example
Answer:
Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited

8. Public corportation – Example ………………..
Answer:
Air India

9. STC is a ………………..
Answer:
State Trading corporation

10. ……………….. save foreign exchange by way of import substitution
Answer:
The oil and Natural Gas commission

III. Match the Following.

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

Answer:

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

IV. Which is the Odd one:
1. Public Sector
2. Balanced Regional Development
3. Import Substitution
4. Life Expectancy
Answer:
4. Life Expectancy

V. Which of the following is the correct Answer.
1. i) The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled and managed by Private sector.
ii) The Private sector is a part of country”s economic system that is run by individuals and companies, rather than the government.
iii) The contribution of the products of cottage, and village industries and the small, scale industries is the major portion of the wholesale and retail trade.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
a) All are Correct

VI. Short Answer.
1. What is mixed economy?

• Mixed economy is the mixture of capitalism and socialism.

2. What is the life expectancy revealed by Health Ministry?

• In India for male life expectancy is 67.3 years and for female it is 69.5 years.

VII. Brief Answer:
1. How are industries classified?
Answer:
Industries are classified as the public sector in India owes its origin in the 1956 industrial policy resolution of the government of India. According to it industries were classified as
Schedule A:
The industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are refered as schedule A.

Schedule B:
The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state taking the responsibility for starting new units are called schedule B.

Schedule C:
The remaining industries which were in the private sector are mentioned as schedule C.

2. How is the Public sector divided?
Answer:
The Public sector is divided into nine categories. They are

• Supply essential infrastructure for economic development called primary public ability.
• Control of the commanding height of the economy.
• Entrepreneurial role or capital intensive industries.
• Under government monopoly exclusive meant for high technology industries.
• Consumer-oriented
• Taking over the sick private units.
• Set up as trade corporation. ,
• Serves as consultancy and engineering services.

3. Give a brief account of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

• NITI Aayog replaced 65 years old planning commission.
• Planning commission has power to allocate funds to ministries and states, this function will be now at finance ministry.
• NITI Aayog was formed on January 1st, 2015.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 1 Money, Savings and Investments Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Money, Savings and Investments

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Money, Savings and Investments Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. Which metals were used for metallic money?
a) gold
b) silver
c) bronze
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

2. Who designed the symbol (₹) of Indian rupee?
a) Udayakumar
b) Amartya Sen
c) Abijith Baneijee
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Udayakumar

3. The value of money is
a) Internal value of money
b) External value of money
c) Botha&b
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both a &b

4. Which is the Bank Money?
a) Cheque
b) Draft
c) Credit and Debit cards
d) All the above
Answer:
d) AH the above

5. Pick out the incorrect one: Investment can be made in different vehicle.
a) Stock
b) bonds
c) Mutual fund
d) Pay tax
Answer:
a) stock

6. Among the following who are responsible for Black Money?
a) Tax evaders
b) Hoaders
c) Smugglers
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) AH of the above

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Online Banking is also known as …….
Answer:
Internet banking 2 is what money does.

2. ………………. is what money does.
Answer:
Money

3. Electronic banking is also known as
Answer:
NEFT

4. Credit cards and Debit cards are Money.
Answer:
Plastic

5. In the year Reserve Bank of India was established.
Answer:
1935

III. Match the Following.

1. Barter system	a) tax evaders
2. Reserve Bank act	b) Electronic Money
3. E. Money	c) Consumer’s disposable income
4. Savings	d) Exchanged goods for goods
5. Black money	e)1935

Answer:

1. Barter system	d) Exchanged goods for goods
2. Reserve Bank act	e) 1935
3. E. Money	b) Electronic Money
4. Savings	c) Consumer’s disposable income
5. Black money	a) tax evaders

IV. Write the One Word Answer.
1. The word Money is derived from?
Answer:
The word Money is derived from the Roman word “Moneta Juno”

2. Who Prints and issues paper currencies in India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India.

V. Choose the Correct Statement:

1. Barter system had many deficiencies like
I. Lack of double coincidence of wants
II. No difficulties of storing wealth
III. Common measure of value
IV. Indivisibility of commodities
a) I and II is correct
b) I and IV is correct
c) I, III and IV is correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
c) I, III and IV is correct

VI. Find out the odd one:

1. Recent forms of money transactions are
a) Credit card
b) Barter system
c) Debit card
d) Online banking
Answer:
b) Barter System

2. Effects of black money on the economy is
a) Dual economy
b) Undermining equity
c) No effects on production
d) lavish consumption spending
Answer:
c) No effects on production

VII. Write Short Answer:

1. What is the Barter System?

• The barter system is exchanging goods for goods without the use of money in the primitive stage.
• It is an old method of exchange.

2. What are the recent forms of money?

• ATM,
• Bank,
• Online Banking
• Mobile Banking

3. Short note on E-Banking and E-Money.
Answer:
E-Money: Electronic Money is money which exists in banking computer systems and is available for transactions through an electronic system.

E-Banking: Electronic banking, also known as National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT), is simply the use of electronic means to transfer funds directly from one account to another rather than by cheque or cash.

4. What are the essentials of Money in your life?
Answer:

• Money is a fundamental need of human beings.
• Money is useful to us to pay for tuition, travel, and communication, to have fun and to buy hundred of different things.
• It also used for transactions, to store wealth etc.

5. What is the Value of Money?
Answer:
The value of money is the purchasing power of money over goods and services in a country.

6. What is Savings and Investment?
Answer:

• Savings represent the part of a person’s income which not used for current consumption rather kept aside for future use.
• Investment refers to the process of investment fund in a Capital asset with the view to generate returns.

7. What is meant by Black Money?
Answer:

1. Savings represents that part of the person’s income which is not used for consumption
2. Investment refers to the process of investing funds in a capital asset, with a view to generating returns

8. What are the effects of black money on the economy?
Answer:
Effects of Black money on Economy are:

• Dual economy.
• undermining equality.
• Effect on production.
• Distribution of scarce resource

VIII. Write Brief Answer.

1. What are the disadvantages of the barter system?
Answer:

1. Lack of double coincidence of wants,
2. Common measure of value
3. Indivisibility of commodities
4. Difficulties of storing wealth

2. Write about the evolution of Money?
Answer:

• The word Money is dervied from Roman word “Moneta Juno”.
• It is the roman godesses and the republic money of roman empire.
• The Indian Rupee is derived from Sanskrit word ‘Rupya’ which means silver coins.
• Today we use paper notes, coins as money.
• But evolution of this stage has not happened overnight.
• It took thousands of year to reach such a stage.
• There are many stages of evolution of money. The earliest and primitive stage is the Barter system.

3. What are the functions of Money? and explain it.
Answer:
Functions of money are classified into Primary or Main function, Secondary function, and Contingent function.

Primary or main functions:
The important functions of money performed in the very economy are classified under main functions:

1. Medium of exchange or means of payment – Money is used to buy goods and services.

2. Measure of value – All the values are expressed in terms of money it is easier to determine the rate of exchange between various type of goods and services.

Secondary functions:
The three important of secondary functions are
1. Standard of deferred payment – Money helps the future payments too. A borrower borrowing today places himself under an obligation to pay a specified sum of money on some specified future date.

2. Store of value or store of purchasing power – Savings were discouraged under barter system as some commodities are perishable. The introduction of money has helped to save it for future as it is not perishable.

3. Transfer of value or transfer of purchasing power – Money makes the exchange of goods to distant places as well as abroad possible. It was therefore felt necessary to transfer purchasing power from one place to another.

Contingent functions:

• Basis of credit
• Increase the productivity of capital
• Measurement and Distribution of National Income

4. Explain the types of Bank Deposits.
Answer:
1. Student Savings Account:
There are savings accounts some banks offer specifically for young people enrolled in high school or college, and they main feature more flexible terms such as lower minimum balance requirements.

2. Savings Deposits:
Savings deposits are opened by customers to save the part of their current income. The customers can withdraw their money from their accounts when they require it. The bank also gives a small amount of interest to the money in the saving deposits.

3. Current Account Deposit:
Current accounts are generally opened by business firms, traders and public authorities. The current accounts help in frequent banking transactions as they are repayable on demand.

4. Fixed Deposits:
Fixed deposits accounts are meant for investors who want their principle to be safe and yield them fixed yields. The fixed deposits are also called as Term deposit as, normally, they are fixed for specified period.

5. What is the difference between savings and investment?
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Savings	Investment
Meaning	Savings represent that part of the person’s income which is not used for consumption.	Investment refers to the process of investing funds in capital asset, with a view to generate returns.
Purpose	Savings are made to fulfill short term or urgent requirements.	Investment is made to provide returns and help in capital formation.
Risk	Low or negligible	Very high
Returns	No or Less	Comparatively high
Liquity	Highly liquid	Less liquid

6. What are the effects of black money on the economy?
Answer:
Effects of Black Money on the economy

1. Dual economy
2. Tax evasion, thereby loss of revenue to the government.
3. Undermining equity
4. Widening gap between the rich and poor
5. Lavish consumption spending
6. Distortion of production pattern
7. Distribution of scarce resource
8. Effects on production.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Money, Savings and Investments Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

1. The word rupee is derived ……………… from
a) Hindi
b) Tamil
c) Malayalam
d) Sanskrit
Answer:
Sanskrit

2. In the sultans period, the gold, silver, and copper coins were known as ………………
a) Panas
b) Karhapanas
c) Tanka
d) Tanka
Answer:
c) Tanka

3. King midas of Lydia invented metal coin in the ……………… century.
a) 5th
b) 6th
c) 7th
d) 8th
Answer:
d) 8th

4. Recent plastic money is ………………
a) Cheques
b) Bondy
c) Paper money
d) Credit card
Answer:
d) credit card

5. Metal coins inverted by ………………
a) Alexander
b) Socrates
c) Midas
d) Ashoka
Answer:
c) Midas

6. The British silver coins were termed as ………………
a) Carolina
b) Angelina
c) Cupperoon
d) tinny
Answer:
b) Angelina

7. The British silver coins were termed as ………………
a) Carolina
b) Angelina
c) Cupperoon
d) tinny
Answer:
c) Cupperoon

8. Credit money or bank money is known as ………………
a) Cheque
b) Near money
c) Plastic money
d) E. money
Answer:
a) cheque

9. Prevention of money laundering act implemented in the year ………………
a) 2002
b) 2004
c) 2006
d) 2008
Answer:
a) 2002

10. Prevention of corporation act implemented in the year ………………
a) 1988
b) 1990
c) 1992
d) 1994
Answer:
a) 1988

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… Indian coins were minted in the 6th century.
Answer:
Puranas, karshapanas, or panas

2. ……………… kings introduced the Greek custom of engraving portraits on the coins.
Answer:
Indo – Greek Kushan

3. Lower valued coins known as ……………… in sultans period.
Answer:
Jittal

4. 178 gms of silver coin were issued by ………………
Answer:
Shershah Suri

5. The meaning of rupia is ………………
Answer:
Silver coin

6. ……………… gave permission to the British to coin Mughal Money.
Answer:
Farrukhsiyarr

7. Mughal money coined at the ……………… mint.
Answer:
Bombay

8. The British gold coins were termed as ………………
Answer:
Carolina

9. The British tin coins were termed as ………………
Answer:
tinny

10. The advantage of the Barter system is not the involvement of ………………
Answer:
money

11. Exchange of goods for goods was known as ………………
Answer:
Barter Exchange

12. On the basis of storage of gold they were issued by the goldsmith.
Answer:
Receipts

13. Paper money regulated and controlled by the ……………… of the country.
Answer:
Central Bank /Reserve Bank

14. Electronic banking is also known………………
Answer:
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)

15. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act implemented in the year ………………
Answer:
2016

III. Match the Following

1. Kushan kings	a) Punch marked coins
2. Delhi Sultans	b) Rupiya
3. Mauryas	c) Puranas
4. Shershah Suri	d) Engraving Portraits
5. Mahajana padas	e) Islamic calligraphy

Answer:

1. Kushan kings	d) Engraving Portraits
2. Delhi Sultans	e) Islamic calligraphy
3. Mauryas	a) Punch marked coins
4. Shershah Suri	b) Rupiya
5. Mahajana padas	c) Puranas

IV. Write the one-word Answer.
1. What is inflation.?
Answer:
Inflation refers to the prices are rising the value of money will fall.

2. What is Deflation?
Answer:
Deflation refers to the prices are falling, the value of money will rise.

V. Choose the Correct Statement
1. a) Dual economy
b) Tax evasion
c) Loss of revenue to government
d) Widening gap between the rich and poor
a) a correct. b) All are correct
c) a,b correct d) d correct
Answer:
b) All are correct

2. Different investment Vehicle
a) Revenue b) Bonds c) Insurance
Answer:
a) Revenue

VI. Write Short Answer:

1. Explain – Savings Deposits.
Answer:
Savings deposits are opened by customers to save part of their current income.

2. Explain – symbol of the Rupee.
Answer:

• The Indian Rupee symbol (₹) designed by Mr.Udayakumar, Villupuram District Tamil Nadu.
• It was approved by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.

3. What are the Benefits of Savings?
Answer:

• We will be financially independent sooner.
• We would not have to worry any unforeseen expenses.
• In the future, we will have a financial backup in place if we lose our job.
• We will be prepared if our circumstances change.

4. What are the intention to save among the students?
Answer:

• Teach them about taxes and accounting.
• Involve them in grown-up money decisions.
• Encourage them to apply for scholarships.
• Help them a budget and apply for student loans.
• Teach them personal savings.
• Encourage them to open a student Sanchayeka Scheme.

VII. Write Brief Answer:

1. Explain the different definitions of money.

• Scitovsky states that “Money is a difficult concept to define, partly because it fulfills not one but three functions, each of them providing a criterion of moneyness those of a unit of account, a medium of exchange, and a store of value”.
• Sir John Hicks, says that “Money is defined by its functions, anything is money which is used as money, “Money is what money does”.
• Some economists define money in legal terms saying that “anything which state declares as money is money”.

2. What are the Laws and steps taken by India Government against Black money.
Answer:
a) Some Legislative Framework in India against to Black Money:

• Prevention of money laundering act 2002.
• Lokpal and Lokayukta act.
• Prevention of corruption act- 1988.
• The undisclosed foreign Income and Asset Bill(Imposition of Tax) 2015.
• Benami transactions prohibition act 1988 amended in 2016.
• The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.

b) Recent steps against Black Money:

• Under pressure from India and other countries, Switzerland has made key changes in its local laws governing assist foreign allegedly stashed in Swiss Banks.
• Special Investigation Team appointed by the government on the directions of Supreme Court on black money.
• Demonetization

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
a) Mahalwari
b) Ryotwari
c) Zamindari
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Zamindari

2. Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal,
a) Lord Hastings
b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord Minto
Answer:
b) Lord Cornwallis

3. What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system?
a) House
b) Land
c) Village
d) Palace
Answer:
c) Village

4. In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed?
a) Maharashtra
b) Madras
c) Bengal
d) Punjab
Answer:
d) Punjab

5. Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system?
a) Lord Hastings
b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord William Bentinck
Answer:
d) Lord William Bentinck

6. In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduce by the British?
a) Bombay
b) Madras
c) Bengal
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Bengal

7. The Indigo revolt was led by whom?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Keshab Chandra Roy
c) DigambarBiswas and BishnuBiswas
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer:
c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas

8. The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom?
a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) DigambarBiswas
d) Keshab Chandra Roy
Answer:
a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the Blanks:
1. ……………. is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
Answer:
Mahalwari Settlement

2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of ……………. .
Answer:
Holt Mackenzie

3. Indigo Revolt took place in ……………. .
Answer:
Bengal

4. Maplah Rebellion was held in ……………. .
Answer:
Malabar

5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in ……………. .
Answer:
May 1918

III. Match the following.

1. Permanent Settlement	a) Madras
2. Mahalwari Settlement	b) Misery of the Indigo cultivators
3. Ryotwari System	c) North west province
4. Nil Darban	d) Bengal
5. Santhal Rebellion	e) First Peasant revolt

Answer:

1. Permanent Settlement	d) Bengal
2. Mahalwari Settlement	c) North west province
3. Ryotwari System	a) Madras
4. Nil Darban	b) Misery of the Indigo cultivators
5. Santhal Rebellion	e) First Peasant revolt

IV. State true or false.
1. Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement.
Answer:
True

2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro.
Answer:
True

3. Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat.
Answer:
False

4. The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the follbwing statement and tick appropriate answer.
1. Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari system?
a) This settlement was introduced in 1793.
b) The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
c) This system secured a fixed stable income for the cultivators.
d) This practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.
Answer:
c) This system secured a fixed stable income for the cultivators.

2. Which of the following statement is correct about Peasants revolt in India?
a) The Santhal rebellion was held in Bengal.
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.
c) The Deccan riots started from a village at Pune in 1873.
d) The Moplah peasants rebellion was held in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. List out any two salient features of the Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Salient features of the Permanent settlement:

1. The Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
2. The Zamindars acted as the agent of the Government for the collection of revenue from the cultivators.

2. What were the salient features of the Ryotwari system?
Answer:

• Revenue settlement was done directly with the ryots.
• Measurement of field and an estimate of the product was calculated.
• The government fixed the demand at 45% to 55% of the produce.

3. Bring out the effects of the Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
Effects of the Mahalwari settlement:

1. The Lambardar enjoyed privileges which were misused for their self – interest.
2. This system brought no benefit to the cultivators.
3. It was a modified version of the Zamindari system and benefited the upper class in villages.

4. What was the cause of the Indigo Revolt in 1859 – 60?
Answer:

• The European indigo planters compelled the tenant farmers to grow indigo at terms highly disadvantageous to the farmers.
• The tenant farmer was forced to sell it cheap to the planter and accepted advances from the planter that benefitted the latter.
• There were also cases of kidnapping, looting, flogging, and burning.
• Led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Charan Biswas, the ryots of the Nadia district gave up indigo cultivation in September 1859.
• Factories were burnt down and the revolt spread.

5. What was the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi on Champaran Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. The European planters of Champaran in Bihar resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which was wholly unjust.
2. The peasants were liable to unlawful extortion and oppression by the planters.
3. Mahatma Gandhi took up their cause. The Government appointed an enquiry commission of which Mahatma Gandhi was a member.
4. The grievances of the peasants were enquired and ultimately the Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918.

6. Mention the role of Vallabhai Patel in Bardoli Satyagraha.
Answer:

• By the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in protest against the government’s proposal to increase land revenue by 30%.
• Women have participated in the campaign.
• All the land return to farmers by Congress in 1937.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Discuss the merits and demerits of the Permanent Settlement.
Answer:
Merits:

• Under this system, many of the wastelands and forests became cultivable lands.
• The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
• The Zamindars were made free from the responsibility of providing justice.
• The Zamindars remained faithful to the British Government.
• This system secured a fixed and stable income for the British Government.

Demerits:

• The British Government had no direct contact with the cultivators.
• The rights of the cultivators were ignored and they were left at the mercy of the Zamindars.
• The peasants were almost treated as serfs.
• This system was made the Zamindars lethargic and luxurious.
• Many conflicts between the zamindars and the peasants arose in rural Bengal.

2. What were the impacts of the British Land Revenue system on the cultivators?
Answer:
Impact of the British land revenue system on the cultivators:

• A common feature of all the settlements was the assessment and the maximize income from land. It resulted in increasing land sales and dispossession.
• The peasants were overburdened with taxation and the peasants to seek moneylenders who became rich and acquired lands from the peasants.
• The money lenders, the Zamindars, and lawyers exploited the poor peasants.
• The stability and continuity of the Indian villages were shaken.
• Cottage industries disappeared.
• The British policy proved advantageous only to the government of a privileged section of the society at the cost of cultivators who were the rightful owners of their lands and claimants of the larger share of the produce.

3. Write a paragraph about the Moplah Rebellion?
Answer:
Moplah Rebellion (1921):
1. The Muslim Moplah (or Moplah) peasants of Malabar (Kerala) were suppressed and exploited by the Hindu zamindars (Jenis) and the British government.

2. This was the main cause of this revolt.

3. The Moplah peasants got momentum from the Malabar District Conference, held in April 1920.

4. This conference supported the tenant’s cause and demanded legislation for regulating landlord-tenant relations.

5. In August 1921, the Moplah tenants rebelled against the oppressive zamindars. In the initial phase of the rebellion, the Moplah peasants attacked the police stations, public offices, communications and houses of oppressive landlords and moneylenders.

6. By December 1921, the government ruthlessly suppressed the Moplah rebellion.

7. According to an official estimate, as a result of government intervention, 2337 Moplah rebels were killed, 1650 wounded and more than 45,000 captured as prisoners.

VIII. HOTS:
1. Apart from the exploiting through taxes, how did the British further exploit the land?
Answer:
Apart from the taxes, the British followed the policy of commercialization of Agriculture which was a major setback for Indian farmers. They were forced to grow the soil fertility deteriorating cash crops such as opium. Jute, Indigo, etc., Agricultural prices shot up by 31%. They were threatened if they failed to grow these crops.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. Permanent settlement introduced in the year ………………
a) 1739
b) 1756
c) 1730
d) 1793
Answer:
d) 1793

2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro and Captain …………….. .
a) Captain Read
b) Captain Hawkins
c) Captain Feral
d) Captain William
Answer:
a) Captain Read

3. Poor peasants exploited by ………………
a) Govt officials
b) Money – Lenders
c) Police
d) Judges
Answer:
b) Money – Lenders

4. Lord Cornwallis Settlement was introduced for how many years?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
Answer:
a) 10

5. Mahalwari system introduced by Lord ………………
a) Sir – Thomas Munro
b) William Bentinck
c) Wellesley
d) Dalhousie
Answer:
b) William Bentinck

6. The Ryotwari system introduced in the year ………………
a) 1800
b) 1810
c) 1815
d) 1820
Answer:
d) 1820

7. Indigo commission formed in the year ………………
a) I860
b) 1855
c) 1865
d) 1862
Answer:
a) 1860

8. The first revolt which can be regarded as peasants revolt was the ………………
a) Indigo Revolt
b) Santhal Rebellion
c) Pabna Revolt
d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
b) Santhal Rebellion

9. Deccan Riots held in …………….. districts.
a) Punjab
b) Bihar
c) Poona
d) Thanjavur
Answer:
c) Poona

10. No tax movement started in the year ………………
a) 1920
b) 1923
c) 1925
d) 1918
Answer:
d) 1918

II. Fill in the Blanks.
1. Indian economy was predominantly an …………….. economy.
Answer:
Agrarian

2. Robert clive obtained the Diwani of Bengal in the year ………………
Answer:
1765

3. Permanent system introduced by ………………
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis

4. Ryotwari system introduced by …………….. and ………………
Answer:
Thomas Munro and Captain Read

5. Permanent settlement system also known as …………….., …………….., …………….., and ………………
Answer:
Zamindari, Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari

6. In Mahalwari settlement, the tax was collected through ………………
Answer:
Lambardar

7. Dina bandu mitra wrote a drama, ……………..
Answer:
Nil – Darpan

8. …………….. Bengali drama to draw the misery of the indigo – cultivators.
Answer:
Siddhu and Kanhu

9. Pabna Revolt led by ………………
Answer:
Keshab Chandra Roy

10. The Punjab land Alienation act was passed in
Ans: 1900

11. …………….. accepted the leadership of Kheda satyagraha.
Answer:
Gandhi

12. The Moplahs are ………………
Answer:
Muslim Peasants

13. Nil – Darpan drama wrote in …………….. Language
Answer:
Bengali

14. The Government set up an Indico commission in ____________
Answer:
1860

15. In the permanent settlement system, the zamindars would grant to the ryots.
Answer:
Patta

III. Match the following.

1. Bihar	a) Kheda
2. Bengal	b) Pabna
3. Deccan	c) Malabar
4. Gujarat	d) Santhal
5. Kerala	e) Poona

Answer:

1. Bihar	d) Santhal
2. Bengal	b) Pabna
3. Deccan	e) Poona
4. Gujarat	a) Kheda
5. Kerala	c) Malabar

IV. State True or False.
1. The Muslim peasants were called Moplah.
Answer:
True

2. Mahalwari settlement system brought benefit to the cultivators
Answer:
False

3. Champaran has situated in the state of Bihar.
Answer:
True

4. The first revolt which can be regarded as a peasants revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 1656.
Answer:
True

5. In 1876, the peasants revolted in the district of Poona in the Deccan Riots.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.
a) Ryotwari Revenue settlement was done indirectly with the ryots.
b) Measurement of field and an estimate of produce was not calculated.
c) Government fixed the demand at 45% to 55 % of the produce.
d) In most areas the land revenue fixed was less.
Answer:
c) Government fixed the demand at 45% to 55 % of the produce.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What are the three major land revenue systems introduced by the British in India? Who made that system.
Answer:

2. What are the salient features of the Mahalwari settlement?
Answer:

• The Lambardar acted as intermediaries between the Government and the villagers.
• It was a village-wise assessment. One person could hold a number of villages.
• The village community was the owner of the village common land.
• The village land belonged to the village community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Explain the Permanent Land Revenue settlement.
Answer:

• When Robert Clive obtained the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1765, there used to be an annual settlement (of land revenue).
• Warren Hastings changed it from annual to quinquennial (five-yearly) and back to annual again.
• During the time of Cornwallis, a ten years’ (decennial) settlement was introduced in 1793 and it was known as Permanent Settlement.
• The permanent settlement was made in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi division of U.P., and Northern Karnataka, which roughly covered 19 percent of the total area of British India.
• It was known by different names like Zamindari, Jagirdari, Malguzari, and Biswedari.

2. Give an account of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
1. The first revolt which can be regarded as a peasants’ revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 56.

2. The land near the hills of Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the Santhals.

3. The landlords and money-lenders from the cities took advantage of their ignorance and began grabbing their lands. This created bitter resentment among them leading to their armed uprising in 1855.

4. Consequently, under the belief of divine order, around 10,000 Santals gathered under two Santhal brothers, Siddhu and Kanhu, to free their country of the foreign oppressors and set up a government of their own.

5. The rebellion assumed a formidable shape within a month. The houses of the European planters, British officers, railway engineers, zamindars, and moneylenders were attacked.

6. The rebellion continued till February 1856, when the rebel leaders were captured and the movement was put down with a heavy hand.

7. The government declared the Parganas inhabited by them as Santhal Parganas so that their lands and identity could be safeguarded from external encroachments.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ………………… .
a) Shuja-ud-daulah
b) Siraj-ud-daulah
c) Mir Qasim
d) Tipu Sultan
Answeer:
b) Siraj-ud-daulah

2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in ………………… .
a) 1757
b) 1764
c) 1765
d) 1775
Answer:
a) 1757

3. Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
a) Treaty of Allahabad
b) Treaty of Carnatic
c) Treaty of Alinagar
d) Treaty of Paris
Answer:
c) Treaty of Alinagar

4. The Treaty of Pondichery brought the ………………… Carnatic war to an end.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third d) None
Answer:
b) Second

5. When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore?
a) 1756
b) 1761
c) 1763
d) 1764
Answer:
b) 1761

6. Treaty of Mangalore was signed between ………………… .
a) The French and Tipu Sultan
b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut
c) The British and Tipu Sultan
d) Tipu Sultan and Marathas
Answer:
c) The British and Tippu Sultan

7. Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo-Mysore War?
a) Robert Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Wellesley
Answer:
c) Lord Cornwallis

8. Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?
a) Bajirao II
b) Daulat Rao Scindia
c) Sambhaji Bhonsle
d) Sayyaji Rao Gaekwad
Answer:
a) Bajirao II

9. Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha empire?
a) Balaji Vishwanath
b) Baji Rao II
c) Balaji Baji Rao
d) BajiRao
Answer:
b) Baji Rao II

10. Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance?
a) Awadh
b) Hyderabad
c) Udaipur
d) Gwalior
Answer:
b) Hyderabad

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ………………… .
Answer:
1756

2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaulah was ………………… .
Answer:
Mir Jafer

3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic war was ………………… .
Answer:
War of Succession

4. …………… adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
Answer:
Dalhousie

5. Tipu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of ………………… .
Answer:
Cord Wellesley

6. After the death of Tipu Sultan Mysore was handed over to ………………… .
Answer:
British

7. In 1800, ………………… established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley

III. Match the follbwing.

1. Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle	a) The First Anglo Mysore War
2. Treaty of Salbai	b) The First Carnatic War
3. Treaty of Paris	c) The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam	d) The First Maratha War
5. Treaty of Madras	e) The Third Anglo Mysore War

Answer:

1. Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle	b) The First Carnatic War
2. Treaty of Salbai	d) The First Maratha War
3. Treaty of Paris	c) The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam	e) The Third Anglo Mysore War
5. Treaty of Madras	a) The First Anglo Mysore War

IV. State True or False.
1. After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj-ud-daulah ascended the throne of Bengal.
Answer:
True

2. Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
False

3. The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War in India.
Answer:
False

4. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
Answer:
True

5. The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis.
Answer:
True

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1. Battle of Adayar – 1748
2. Battle of Ambur – 1754
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
4. Battle of Arcot – 1749
Answer:
3. Battle of Wandiwash -1760

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:
1. Write a short note on Black Hole Tragedy.
Answer:
There was a small dungeon room in the Fort William in Calcutta, where troops of the Nawab of Bengal Siraj – Ud – doula, held 146 British Prisoners of war for one night. The next day morning, when the door was opened 123 of the prisoners found dead because of suffocation.

2. What were the benefits derived by the English after the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:

• The company gained a huge amount of wealth from Bengal. It also got the trade right in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, and 24 Parganas.
• Battle of Plassey marked the initiation of British rule in India for the next two centuries.

3. Mention the causes of the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Mir Qasim the son-in-law of the Nawab of Bengal revolted as he was angry with the British for misusing the de stakes (free duty passes).

4. What were the causes of the First Mysore War?
Answer:
Haider Ali and his friendly relations with the French became a matter of concern for the English East India Company.

5. Bring out the results of the Third Maratha War.
Answer:

1. The Maratha confederacy was dissolved and Peshwaship was abolished.
2. Most of the territory of Peshwa BajiRao II was annexed and became part of the Bombay Presidency
3. The defeat of the Bhonsle and Holkar also resulted in the acquisition of the Maratha kingdoms of Nagpur and Indore by the British.
4. The BajiRao II, the last Peshwa of Maratha was given an annual pension of 8 lakh rupees.

6. Name the states signed into Subsidiary Alliance.
Answer:

• The states signed into Subsidiary Alliance was Hyderabad,
• It was followed by Tanjore, Awadh, Peshwa, Bhonsle, Gwalior, Indore, Jaipur, Udaipur, and Jodhpur.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Write an essay on the Second Carnatic War.
Answer:
In the 18th century, three Carnatic Wars were fought between various Indian rulers, British and French East Indian Company on either side.

Second Carnatic War:
1. The main cause of this war was the issue of succession in Carnatic and Hyderabad. Anwaruddin Khan and Chanda Sahib were the two claimants to the throne of Carnatic, whereas Nasir Jang and Muzaffar Jang were claimants to the throne of Hyderabad.

2. The French supported Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang, while the British supported the other claimants with the objective of keeping their interest and influence in the entire Deccan region.

Battle of Ambur (1749):

1. Finally Dupleix, Chanda Sahib, and Muzaffar Jang formed a grand alliance and defeated and killed Anwar-ud-din Khan, the Nawab of Carnatic, in the Battle of Ambur.

2. Muhammad Ali, the son of Anwar – ud – din, fled to Trichinopoly.

3. Chanda Sahib became the Nawab of Carnatic and rewarded the French with the grant of 80 villages around Pondicherry.

4. In the Deccan, the French defeated and killed Nasir Jang and made Muzaffar Jang the Nizam.

5. The new Nizam gave ample rewards to the French.

6. He appointed Dupleix as the governor of all the territories in the south of the river Krishna. Muzaffar Jang was assassinated by his own people.

7. Salabat Jang, brother of Nasir Jang was raised to the throne by Bussy.

8. Salabat Jang granted the Northern Circars to the French.

9. Dupleix’s power was at its zenith by that time.

Battle of Arcot (1751):

1. In the meantime, Dupleix sent forces to besiege the fort of Trichy

2. Chanda Sahib also joined with the French in their efforts to besiege Trichy. Robert Clive’s proposal was accepted by the British governor, Saunders, and with only 200 English and 300 Indian soldiers, Clive has entrusted the task of capturing Arcot. His attack proved successful.

3. Robert Clive defeated the French at Ami and Kaveripak. With the assistance of Lawrence, Chanda Sahib was killed in Trichy. Muhammad Ali was made the Nawab of Arcot under British protection. The French Government recalled Dupleix to Paris.

Treaty of Pondicherry (1755):

1. Dupleix was succeeded by Godeheu who agreed on the treaty of Pondicherry. According to it, both the powers agreed not to interfere in the internal affairs of the native states. They were to retain their old positions. New forts should not be built by either power. The treaty made the British stronger.

2. The second Carnatic war also proved inconclusive. The English proved their superiority on land by appointing Mohammad Ali as the Nawab of Carnatic. The French were still very powerful in Hyderabad. However, the predominant position of the French in the Deccan peninsula was definitely undermined in this war.

2. Give an account of the Fourth Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
Fourth Anglo – Mysore war:
Tipu Sultan did not forget the humiliating treaty of Srirangapatnam imposed upon him by Cornwallis in 1790.
Causes:

• Tipu sought help from Arabia, Turkey, Afghanistan and the French.
• Tipu was in correspondence with Napolean who invaded Egypt at that time.
• The French officers came to Srirangapatnam and founded the Jacobin club and planted the Tree of Liberty.

Course:

• Wellesley declared war against Tipu in 1799.
• It was well planned.
• Tipu was forced to retreat from his capital Srirangapatnam.
• On 4th may 1799 it was captured.
• Tipu fought bravely but he was killed finally.
• By the end, the whole Mysore lay prostrate before the British.

Result:

• The English occupied Kanara, Wynad, Coimbatore, Darapuram, and Srirangapatinam.
• Krishna Raja Odayar ascended the throne.
• Tipu’s family was sent to the fort of Vellore.

3. Describe the policy adopted by Lord Dalhousie to expand the British empire in India.
Answer:
The doctrine of Lapse:
1. Lord Dalhousie was one of the chief architects of the British Empire in India. He was an imperialist. He adopted a new policy known as the Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire.

2. He made use of this precedent and declared in 1848 that if the native rulers adopted children without the prior permission of the Company, only the personal properties of the rulers would go to the adopted sons and the kingdoms would go to the British paramount power. This principle was called the Doctrine of Lapse.

3. It was bitterly opposed by the Indians and it was one of the root causes for the great revolt of 1857.

4. How did Lord Wellesley expand the British power in India?
Answer:

• Lord Wellesley introduced the system called as Subsidiary Alliance to bring the princely states under the control of the British.
• The princely state was called ‘the protected state’ and the British became ‘Paramount Power’ to maintain internal peace.

Main features:

• All Indian rulers entering into this alliance with the British had to dissolve their own armed forces and accept British forces.
• All the non – English Europeans should be turn out their state.
• The British would undertake to defend the state from internal trouble as well as external attack.

VIII. HOTS
Explain the causes of the success of the English in India.
Answer:

1. Lack of unity among Indian Stats:
Even though there were powerful kings and who ruled Punjab, Mysore, and Maratha region, they lacked unity and fought with each other for various reasons. They failed to perceive the danger arising from the East India Company.

2. Greater Naval Power:
The British came through the sea and established a strong naval power in the Indian Ocean before coming to the Indian mainland. There was no strong naval power in India to challenge the British.

3. Development of textile:
By the beginning of the 19th century English made cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian goods from their traditional markets.

4. Scientific division of labour:
The production and growth of modem science in India was encouraged by the British with a view to further colonial interests.

5. Economic prosperity:
The British had enough funds to pay its shareholders that compelled them to finance the English wars in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The Black Hole tragedy held in the year ………………
a) 1756
b) 1757
c) 1764
d) 1758
Answer:
1756

2. Dual system of Government started in Bengal by ………………
a) Robert Clive
b) Dupleix
c) Sir. Eyre Coote
d) General Joseph Smith.
Answer:
a) Robert Clive

3. Indian Government Act introduced in the year ………………
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1935
d) 193a
Answer:
c) 1935

4. The police system was created in India by ………………
a) Robert Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Sir. Eyre Coote Lord
d) Cornwallis
Answer:
d) Cornwallis

5. The police system established in India as a regular police force in ………………
a) 1790
b) 1791
c) 1792
d) 1793
Answer:
b) 1791

6. The hereditary village police was ………………
a) Chowkidars
b) pabel
c) Jamindhars
d) diwans
Answer:
a) Chowkidars

7. The ’Daroka’ system was extended to Madras in ………………
a) 1801
b) 1802
c) 1803
d) 1805
Answer:
b)1802

8. The Diwani system was ………………
a) Temple in charge
b) Building in charge
c) Tax collection
d) Kuthagai
Answer:
c) Tax collection

9. Who transformed the British Empire in India into the British empire of India?
a) Robert clive
b) Hartings
c) Wellesley
d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
c) Wellesley

10. Indian High Court Act introduced in the year ………………
a) 1855
b) 1857
c) 1860
d) 1861
Answer:
d) 1861

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The Black Hole tragedy led by ………………
Ans: Sira] – ud – daula

2. After the Battle of …………….. the company was granted an undisputed visit to have free trade.
Answer:
Plassey

3. The treaty of …………….. signed at the end of the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Allahabad

4. The treaty of Allahabad signed in the year ………………
Answer:
1765

5. The Battle of Adayar held in the year ………………
Answer:
1746

6. In Europe …………….., …………….. were opposite camps.
Answer:
English, French.

7. The treaty of Aix-la-Chapple was signed at the end of ………………
Answer: First Carnatic war

8. …………….. was called a Hero of Arcot.
Answer:
Robert Clive

9. Treaty of Pondicherry was signed in the year ………………
Answer:
1755

10. The British General …………….. defeated Haider Ali.
Answer:
Sir Eyre Coote

11. …………….. was signed between Lord Cornwallis and Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Treaty of Srirangapatnam

12. The french officers founded a …………….. club in Srirangapatnam.
Answer:
Jacobin

13. …………….. was signed at the end of the first Anglo- Maratha war.
Answer:
The treaty of Saibai

14. BajiRao II made the treaty of …………….. with Lord Wellesley.
Answer:
Bassein

15. The Indian Civil service Act passed in the year ………………
Answer:
1861

III. Match the following.

1. Treaty of Surat	a)1755
2. Treaty of Pondicherry	b)1784
3. Treaty of Saibai	c)1769
4. Treaty of Madras	d)1775
5. Treaty of Mangalore	e)1782

Answer:

1. Treaty of Surat	a)1775
2. Treaty of Pondicherry	b)1755
3. Treaty of Saibai	c)1782
4. Treaty of Madras	d)1769
5. Treaty of Mangalore	e)1784

IV. State True or False
1. After tha Battle of Plassey Siraj-ud-daulah was the Nawab of Bengal.
Answer:
False

2. Dupleix as the governor of all the territories south of the river Krishna.
Answer:
True

3. Count de Lally was deputed from France to conduct the third Carnatic War.
Answer:
True

4. The Indian Civil Service Act passed in the year 1857.
Answer:
False

5. In 1870 Surendra Nath Banerjee became successful in the I.C.S examination.
Answer:
False

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. 1. Treaty of Allahabad – 1757
2. Treaty of Srirangapatinam – 1765
3. Treaty of Ali Nagar – 1792
4. Treaty of Bassein – 1802
Answer:
4. Treaty ofBassein – 1802

b. Choose the correct statement:
a) Sir. Thiruvarar Muthusamy Iyyar was the first Indian Chief Justice of the Madras High Court.
b) The subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
c) Doctrine of Lapse policy introduced in the year 1798.
d) By applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy Delhi was annexed.
Answer:
a) Sir. Thiruvarar Muthusamy was the first Indian Chief Justice of the Madras High Court.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What was the aim of geographical discoveries?
Answer:
The main motive behind those discoveries was to maximize profit through trade and to establish political supremacy.

2. Write short notes on the Battle of Adayar.
Answer:

• The First Carnatic War is remembered for the battle of San Thome (Madras) fought between the French forces and the Carnatic, who appealed to the British for help.
• A small French army under Captain Paradise defeated the strong Indian army under Mahfiiz Khan at Santhome on the banks of the River Adayar.
• This was the first occasion when the superiority of the well-trained and well – equipped European army over the Indian army proved beyond doubt.

3. Write short notes on the Treaty of Paris.
Answer:

• The seven years’ War was concluded by the treaty of Paris.
• The French settlements including Pondicherry were given back to the French.
• But they were forbidden from fortifying those places.
• There were not allowed together armies. The French dominance in India practically came to an end.

4. What are the areas annexed by Dalhousie by applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy?
By applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy, Dalhousie annexed Satara in 1848, Jaipur and Sambalpur in 1849, and Nagpur in 1854.

VII. Answer the following in detail:
1. How the Battle of Plassey marked the initiation of British rule in India?
Answer:

• Alivardi Khan, the Nawab of Bengal died in 1756 and his grandson Siraj-ud-daula ascended the throne of Bengal.
• The British took advantage of the New Nawab’s weakness and unpopularity seized power.
• So, Siraj-ud-daulah decided to teach them (British)a lesson by attacking their political settlement of Calcutta. The Nawab captured their factory at Kasimbazar.
• On 20th June 1756, Fort William surrendered but Robert Clive recovered Calcutta.
• On 9th February 1757, the Treaty of Alinagar was signed, whereby Siraj-ud-daulah conceded practically all his claims.
• British then captured Chandranagore, the French settlement, on March 1757. The battle of Plassey took place between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies.
• It was fought on 23 June 1757. The English East India Company’s forces under Robert Clive defeated the forces of Siraj-ud-daulah. After the collapse of Bengal, the company gained a huge amount of Wealth from the treasury of Bengal and used it to strengthen its military force.
• The beginning of the British political sway over India may be traced from the battle of Plassey. It was the most decisive battle that marked the initiation of British rule in India for the next two centuries.

2. Explain the Judicial system of the English East India company.
Answer:

• In 1772, the Dual Government was abolished and the Company took over the direct responsibility for the collection of revenue as well as the administration of justice.
• Consequently, a Diwani Adalat and Faujdari Adalat were established.
• By the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court was set up in Calcutta.
• This court consisted of a chief justice and three puisne judges who were appointed by the Crown.
• This court decided civil, criminal, ecclesiastical, and admiralty cases.
• On the model of the Supreme Court of Calcutta, a Supreme Court was established in Madras in 1801 and in Bombay in 1823.
• In 1832, William Bentinck started the Jury system in Bengal.
• The Indian Law Commission was established to compile the laws.
• The rule of law was established for the whole empire.
• According to the Indian High Courts Act, 1861, three High Courts were set up in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in place of the old Supreme Courts.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Poem 4 A Thing of Beauty Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Poem 4 A Thing of Beauty

8th English Guide A Thing of Beauty Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm-Up (Text Book Page No. 108)

1. Do you admire the beauty of nature, animals, people, places, or things? Discuss with your partner. (Text Book Page No. 108)
Answer:
Yes, we all admire the beauty of nature, animals, places, and things. Nature provides us trees. Trees provide us oxygen, shade, rainfall. Medicinal plants and herbs are helpful in the medical field. We admire animals. We have pet dogs and pet cats. They are lovely and beautiful. Places like Kuttrallam are very pleasant to visit. Dolls, toys, and play materials are very interesting to the children.

8th English Guide A Thing of Beauty Textual Exercise Questions and Answers

B. Choose the correct answers. (Text Book Page No. 110)

1. According to the poet, a thing of beauty is …………….
a) a joy forever
b) a pain forever
c) suffering forever
d) neglected
Answer:
a) a joy forever

2. Beautiful things never “pass into nothingness ” means that they ……………..
a) Never increases
b) create unpleasantness between friends
c) never fade away
d) always bring unhappiness
Answer:
c) never fade away

3. “Will keep a bower quiet for us” means ……………..
a) Will give us peace and calm
b) will stop unpleasant sound
c) make our beds fit sleep
d) reduces noise
Answer:
a) will give up the peace and calm

4. Of all the unhealthy means ……………..
a) Pain
b) neglect
c) suffering
d) ill-health
Answer:
d) ill-health

5.The sun moon, trees, old and young are the things that ……………..
a) Depress us
b) remove the pall of gloom from our lives
c) makes us laugh
d) give us oxygen
Answer:
d) give us oxygen

C. Answer the following. (Text Book Page. 84)

1. How is a thing of beauty joy forever?
Answer:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever because it is a source of endless joy and its eternal beauty never fades away.

2. Why do we suffer?
Answer:
We suffer because some shape of beauty moves away from the pall From our dark spirits.

3. According to the poet, mention the evil things we possess?
Answer:
The evil things we possess are hatred, greed, and negativity.

8th English Guide A Thing of Beauty Additional Appreciation Questions and Answers

1. Mention the natural objects mentioned in the poem.
Answer:
The sun, the moon, trees, sheep, flowers, clear rills, forest, and fountain are the natural objects mentioned in the poem.

2. Write down the name of the poet?
Answer:
John Keats, a British romantic poet was the author of this poem.

3. Write down the name of the poem from which the except has been taken.
Answer:
Endymion is the poem from which this excerpt has been taken.

4. Who was Endymion?
Answer:
Endymion was the name of a young shepherd.

5. Why did Endymion wander?
Answer:
Endymion had a vision of cynthia, the Moon goddess. He wanted to seek her out. So he wandered away.

6. What does the fountain pour?
Answer:
The fountain pours the immortal drink.

7. Where does the immortal drink come from?
Answer:
The immortal drink comes from heaven.

8. What do you know about the fountain?
Answer:
The fountain is an endless fountain.

9. What kind of sleep is provided by the thing of beauty?
Answer:
A thing of beauty provides us a sleep full of sweet dreams, health and quiet breathing.

10. What is the effect of this ‘immortal drink’ on us?
Answer:
The immortal drink gives us immense joy, a joy that is everlasting, one that will never come to an end.

11. Explain “Some shape of beauty.”
Answer:
Beauty is an abstract idea and has no specific shape. The poet here means beauty in some form or some beautiful object which pleases us.

A Thing of Beauty Summary in English

The poem is based on a Greek legend, in which Endymion, a beautiful young shepherd and poet who lived cm Mount Latmos, had a vision of Cynthia, the Moon Goddess. The enchanted youth resolved to seek her out and so wandered away through the forest and down under the sea.

A Thing of Beauty Summary in Tamil

இந்தக் கவிதை அழகின் வல்லமையைக் கூறுகிறது. அழகு நிரந்தரமானது. நமக்கு ஆரோக்கியத்தையும் மகிழ்வையும் அளிக்கிறது. தீய உணர்வுகளை விரட்டுகிறது. மலர்கள், ஓடைகள், காடுகள், நீருற்றுக்கள், மலைகள் யாவும் நமக்கு சாகாத வரம் தரும் ஜீவ நீரை சொர்க்கத்திலிருந்து வழங்குகிறது.

A Thing of Beauty About the Author in English

John Keats (1795 – 1821) was a British Romantic poet. Although trained to be a surgeon, Keats decided to devote himself wholly to poetry. Keats’ secret, his power to sway and delight the readers, lies primarily in his gift for perceiving the world and living his moods and aspirations in terms of language. A thing of beauty is an excerpt from his poem ‘Endymion: A Poetic Romance’. The poem is based on a Greek legend, in which Endymion, a beautiful young shepherd, and poet who lived on Mount Latmos, had a vision of Cynthia, the Moon Goddess. The enchanted youth resolved to seek her out and so wandered away through the forest and down
under the sea.

A Thing of Beauty About the Author in Tamil

ஜான் கீட்ஸ் (1795 – 1821) வரை வாழ்ந்த பிரிட்டிஷ் ரொமான்டிக் காலப்புலவர். மருத்துவராக இருந்த போதிலும் தன்னை கவிதைக்கு அர்ப்பணித்தார். கீட்ஸின் ரகசியம், என்னவென்றால், நேயர்களை மகிழ்விப்பார். தன் மொழிவளத்தால் தன் மனநிலை ஆசைகள் இவற்றை நேயர்களும் கண்டு மகிழுமாறு செய்வார். ‘என்டிமியான்’ என்ற புத்தகத்தில் உள்ள ஒரு சிறு பகுதி இங்கு தரப்பட்டுள்ளது. இது கிரேக்க புராணத்தை தழுவியது. இந்தக் கவிதை ஒரு கிரேக்க புராணத்தை அடிப்படையாகக் கொண்டது. அதில் லாட்மோஸ் என்ற மலையில் வாழ்ந்த ஓர் அழகான இளம் மேய்ப்பரும் கவிஞருமான எண்டிமியான், சிந்தியா என்னும் சந்திர தேவி மீது பார்வை கொண்டிருந்தார். மந்திரித்த இளைஞர்கள் அவளைத் தேடத் தீர்மானித்தார்கள். அதனால் காடு வழியாகவும் கடலுக்கு அடியிலும் அலைந்து திரிந்தார்கள்.