Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

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11th Computer Science Guide Inheritance Text Book Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Part I

Choose The Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the process of creating new classes from an existing class?
a) Polymorphism
b) Inheritance
c) Encapsulation
d) superclass
Answer:
b) Inheritance

Question 2.
Which of the following derives a dass student from the base class school?
a) school: student
b) class student: public school
c) student: public school
d) class school: public student
Answer:
b) class student: public school

Question 3.
The type of inheritance that reflects the transitive nature is
a) Single Inheritance
b) Multiple Inheritance
c) Multilevel Inheritance
d) Hybrid Inheritance
Answer:
c) Multilevel Inheritance

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 4.
Which visibility mode should be used when you want the features of the base class to be available to the derived class but not to the classes that are derived from the derived dass?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Private

Question 5.
Inheritance is the process of creating new class from
a) Base class
b) abstract
c) derived class
d) Function
Answer:
a) Base class

Question 6.
A class is derived from a class which is a derived class itself, then this is referred to as
a) multiple inheritances
b) multilevel inheritance
c) single inheritance
d) double inheritance
Answer:
b) multilevel inheritance

Question 7.
Which amongst the following is executed in the order of inheritance?
a) Destructor
b) Member function
c) Constructor
d) Object
Answer:
b) Member function

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 8.
Which of the following is true with respect to inheritance?
a) Private members of base class are inherited to the derived class with private
b) Private members of base class are not inherited to the derived class with private accessibility
c) Public members of base class are inherited but not visible to the derived class
d) Protected members of base class are inherited but not visible to the outside class
Answer:
b) Private members of base class are not inherited to the derived class with private accessibility

Question 9.
Based on the following dass decoration answer the questions (from 9.1 o 9.5 )

class vehicle
{
int wheels;
public:
void input_data(float,float);
void output_data();
protected:
int passenger;
};
class heavy_vehicle: protected vehicle
{
int diesel_petrol;
protected:
int load;
protected:
int load;
public:
void read_data(float,float)
void write_data(); };
class bus: private heavy_vehicle
{
char Ticket[20];
public:
void fetch_data(char);
void display_data(); >;
};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 9.1.
Which is the base class of the class heavy, vehicle?
a) Bus
b) heavy_vehicle
c) vehicle
d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
c) vehicle

Question 9.2.
The data member that can be accessed from the function displaydata()
a) passenger
b) load
c) Ticket
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 9.3.
The member function that can be accessed by an objects of bus Class is
a) input_data()
b) read_data() ,output_data()write_data()
c) fetch_data(),display_data()
d) All of these
Answer:
c) fetch_data(),display_data()

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 9.4.
The member function that is inherited as public by Class Bus
a) input_data()
b) read_data(),output_data(),write_data()
c) fetch_data(), display_data()
d) None of these
Answer:
d) None of these

Question 10.
class x
{
int a;
public :
x()
{}
};
class y
{
x x1;
public:
y()
{}
};
class z : public y,x
{
int b;
public:
z()
{}
}z1;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

What is the order of constructor for object z to be invoked?
a) z,y,x,x
b) x,y,z,x
c) y,x,x,z
d) x,y,z
e) x,y,x,z
Answer:
e) x,y,x,z

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Part – II

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is inheritance?
Answer:
Inheritance is one of the most important features of Object-Oriented Programming. In object-oriented programming, inheritance enables a new class and its objects to take on the properties of the existing classes.

Question 2.
What is a base class?
Answer:
The class to be inherited is called a base class or parent class.

Question 3.
Why derived class is called a power-packed class?
Answer:

  • Multilevel Inheritance: In multilevel inheritance, the constructors will be executed in the order of inheritance.
  • Multiple Inheritance: If there are multiple base classes, then it starts executing from the leftmost base class.

Question 4.
In what multilevel and multiple inheritances differ though both contains many base class?
Answer:
In case of multiple inheritance derived class have more than one base classes (More than one parent). But in multilevel inheritance derived class have only one base class (Only one parent).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 5.
What is the difference between public and private visibility mode?
Answer:
Private visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with private visibility mode the public and protected members of the base class become ‘private’ members of the derived class.

Public visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with public visibility mode, the protected members of the base class will be inherited as protected members of the derived class and the public members of the base class will be inherited as public members of the derived class.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Part – III

Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the points to be noted while deriving a new class?
Answer:

The following points should be observed for defining the derived class:

  1. The keyword class has to be used.
  2. The name of the derived class is to be given after the keyword class.
  3. A single colon.
  4. The type of derivation (the visibility mode), namely private, public or protected. If no visibility mode is specified, then by default the visibility mode is considered private.
  5. The names of all base classes (parent classes) separated by a comma.

class derivedclass_name :visibility_mode
base_class_name
{
// members of derived class
};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 2.
What is differences between the members present in the private visibility mode and the members present in the public visibility mode?
Answer:
Private visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with private visibility mode the public and protected members of the base class become ‘private’ members of the derived class.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 1
Private visibility members can not be inherited further. So, it can not be directly accessed by its derived classes.
Public visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with public visibility mode, the protected members of the base class will be inherited as protected members of the derived class and the public members of the base class will be inherited as public members of the derived class.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 2
Public visibility members can be inherited by its child and can access in it.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 3.
What is the difference between polymorphism and inheritance though are used for the reusability of code?
Answer:
Polymorphism:

  • Reusability of code is implemented through functions (or) methods.
  • Polymorphism is the ability of a function to respond differently to different messages.
  • Polymorphism is achieved through overloading.

Inheritance:

  • Reusability of code is implemented through classes.
  • Inheritance is the process of creating derived classes from the base class or classes.
  • Inheritance is achieved by various types of inheritances namely single, multiple, multilevel, hybrid and hierarchical inheritances.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 4.
What do you mean by overriding?
Answer:
When a derived class member function has the same name as that of its base class member function, the derived class member function shadows/hides the base class’s inherited function. This situation is called function overriding and this can be resolved by giving the base class name followed by :: and the member function name.

Question 5.
Write some facts about the execution of constructors and destructors in inheritance.
Answer:

  1. Base class constructors are executed first, before the derived class constructors execution.
  2. Derived class cannot inherit the base class constructor but it can call the base class constructor by using Base_class name: :base_class_constructor() in the derived class definition
  3. If there are multiple base classes, then it starts executing from the leftmost base class
  4. In multilevel inheritance, the constructors will be executed in the order of inheritance The destructors are executed in the reverse order of inheritance.

IV. Explain In Brief (Five Marks)

Question 1.
Explain the different types of inheritance.
Answer:
Types of Inheritance;
There are different types of inheritance viz., Single Inheritance, Multiple inheritance, Multilevel inheritance, hybrid inheritance and hierarchical inheritance.

1. Single Inheritance:
When a derived class inherits only from one base class, it is known as single inheritance.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 3

2. Multiple Inheritance;
When a derived class inherits from multiple base classes it is known as multiple inheritance.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 4

3. Hierarchical inheritance:
When more than one derived classes are created from & single base class known as Hierarchical inheritance.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 5

4. Multilevel Inheritance
The transitive nature of inheritance is itself reflected by this form of inheritance. When a class is derived from a class which is a derived class – then it is referred to as multilevel inheritance.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 6

5. Hybrid inheritance:
When there is a combination of more than one type of inheritance, it is known as hybrid inheritance. Hence, it may be a combination of Multilevel and Multiple inheritances or Hierarchical and Multilevel inheritance or Hierarchical, Multilevel and Multiple inheritances.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 2.
Explain the different visibility modes through pictorial representation.
Answer:
Private visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with private visibility mode the public and protected members of the base class become ‘private’ members of the derived class.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 8

Protected visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with protected visibility mode the protected and public members of the base class become ‘protected members’ of the derived class.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 9

Public visibility mode:
When a base class is inherited with public visibility mode, the protected members of the base class will be inherited as protected members of the derived class and the public members of the base class will be inherited as public members of the derived class.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 10

Question 3.
#include<iostream>
#include<string.h>
#include<stdio.h>
using name spacestd;
class publisher
{
char pname[15];
char hoffice[15];
char address[25];
double turnover;
protected:
char phone[3][10];
void register();
public:
publisher();
publisher();
void enter data();
void disp data();
};
class branch
{
char bcity[15];
char baddress[25];
protected:
int no_of_emp;
public:
char bphone[2][10];
branch();
~branch();
void havedata();
void givedata();
};
class author: public branch, publisher
{
int aut_code;
charaname[20];
float income;
public:
author();
~author();
void getdata();
void putdata();
};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Answer The Following Questions Based On The Above Given Program:

3.1. Which type of Inheritance is shown in the program?
3.2. Specify the visibility mode of base classes.
3.3 Give the sequence of Constructor/Destructor Invocation when object of class author is created.
3.4. Name the base class(/es) and derived class (/es).
3.5 Give number of bytes to be occupied by the object of the following class:
(a) publisher
(b) branch
(c) author
3.6. Write the names of data members accessible from the object of class author.
3.7. Write the names of all member functions accessible from the object of class author.
3.8 Write the names of all members accessible from member functions of class author.
Answer:
3.1 Multiple Inheritance
3.2 public
3.3 Constructors branch, publisher and author are executed.
Destructors author, publisher and branch will be executed.
3.4 Base classes : branch and publisher Derived class : author
3.5 a) publisher class object requires 93 bytes
b) branch class object requires 64 bytes
c) author class object requires 181 bytes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 4.
Consider the following C++ code and answer the questions.
class Personal
{
int Class, Rno;
char Section;
protected:
char Name[20];
public:
personal();
void pentry();
void Pdisplay();
};
class Marks:private Personal
{
float M{5};
protected:
char Grade[5];
public:
Marks();
void Mentry();
void Mdisplay();
};
class Result:public Marks
{
float Total,Agg;
public:
char FinalGrade, Commence[20];
Result();
void Rcalculate();
void Rdisplay();
};

4.1. Which type of Inheritance is shown in the program?
4.2. Specify the visibility mode of base classes.
4.3 Give the sequence of Constructor/Destructor Invocation when object of class Result is created.
4.4. Name the base class(/es) and derived class (/es).
4.5 Give number of bytes to be occupied by the object of the following class:
(a) Personal
(b) Marks
(c) Result
4.6. Write the names of data members accessible from die object of class Result.
4.7. Write the names of all member functions accessible from the object of class Result.
4.8 Write the names of all members accessible from member functions of class Result.
Answer:
4.1 Multilevel Inheritance
4.2 For Marks class – private visibility
For Result class – public visibility
4.3 Constructors Personal, Marks and Result be executed.
Destructors Result, Marks and Personal will be executed.
4.4 Base classes : Personal and Marks
Derived classes : Marks and Result

4.5 a) Personal class object requires 28 bytes (using Dev C++)
b) Marks class object requires 53 bytes (using Dev C++)
c) Result class requires 82 bytes (using Dev C++)

4.6 Data members FinalGrade, Commence(Own class members) alone can be accessed.
No members inherited under public, so base class members can not be accessed.

4.7 Member functions
Rcalculate( ), Rdisplay (own class member functions)
Mentry, Mdisplay (derived from Marks class) alone can be accessed.
Personal class public member functions can not be accessed because Marks class inherited under private visibility mode.

4.8 1) Data members

  • Total, Agg, Final Grade and Commence of its own class
  • M, Grade from Marks class can be accessed.

Personal class data members can not be accessed because Marks class inherited under private visibility mode.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

2) Member functions
Mentry and Mdisplay from Marks class can be invoked from Result class member
Personal class member-functions can not be accessed because Marks class inherited under private visibility mode.

Question 5.
Write the output of the following program.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
class A
{
protected:
int x;
public:
void show()
{
cout<<“x = “<<x<<endl;
}
A()
{
cout<<endl<<” I am class A “<<endl;
}
~A()
{
cout<<endl<<” Bye”;
}
};
class B : public A
{
protected:
int y;
public:
B(int x, int y)
{
//this -> is used to denote the objects datamember this->x = x;
//this -> is used to denote the objects datamember this->y = y;
}
B()
{
cout<<endl<<“I am class B”<<endl;
}
~B()
{
cout<<endl<<” Bye”;
}
void show()
{
cout<<“x = “<<x<<endl;
cout<<“y = “<<y<<endl;
}
};
int main()
{
A objA;
B objB(30, 20);
objB.show();
return 0;
}
Output:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance

Question 6.
Debug the following program.
Output:
—————
15
14
13

Program :
%include(iostream.h)
#include<conio.h>
Class A
{
public;
int al,a2:a3;
void getdata[]
{
a1=15;
a2=13;a3=13;
}
}
Class B:: public A()
{
PUBLIC
voidfunc()
{
int b1:b2:b3;
A::getdata[];
b1=a1;
b2=a2;
a3=a3;
cout<<b1<<‘\t'<<b2<<‘t\'<<b3;
}
void main()
{
clrscr()
B der;
derl:func();
getch();
}
Answer:
Modified Error Free Program :
using namespace std;
#include<iostream>
#include<conio.h>
class A
{
public:
int a1,a2,a3;
void getdata()
{
a1=15;
a2=14;
a3=13;
}
};
class B : public A
{
public:
void func()
{
int b1,b2,b3;
A::getdata();
b1=a1;
b2=a2;
b3=a3;
cout<<b1<<‘\n'<<b2<<‘\n'<<b3;
}
};
int main()
{
B der;
der.func();
getch();
return 0;
}
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 16 Inheritance 12

11th Computer Science Guide Inheritance Additional Questions and Answers

Choose The Correct Answer:

Question 1.
When a derived class inherits only from one base class, it is known as ………………
(a) multiple inheritances
(b) multilevel inheritance
(c) hierarchical inheritance
(d) single inheritance
Answer:
(d) single inheritance

Question 2.
_____ enables new class and its objects to take on the properties of the existing classes.
a) Inheritance
b) Encapsulation
c) Overriding
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Inheritance

Question 3.
When more than one derived classes are created from a single base class, it is called ………………
(a) inheritance
(b) hybrid inheritance
(c) hierarchical inheritance
(d) multiple inheritances
Answer:
(c) hierarchical inheritance

Question 4.
A class that inherits from a superclass is called a _______ class.
a) Sub
b) Base class
c) Derived
d) Sub or Derived
Answer:
d) Sub or Derived

Question 5.
The ……………… are invoked in reverse order.
(a) constructor
(b) destructor
(c) pointer
(d) operator
Answer:
(b) destructor

Question 6.
There are ________ types of inheritance,
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer:
d) Five

Question 7.
_________ inheritance is a type of inheritance.
a) Single or Hybrid
b) Multilevel / Hierarchical
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 8.
When a derived class inherits only from one base class, it is known as ________ inheritance.
a) Single
b) Multilevel / Hierarchical
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
a) Single

Question 9.
When a derived class inherits from multiple base classes it is known as _________ inheritance.
a) Single
b) Multilevel / Hierarchical
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
c) Multiple

Question 10.
When more than one derived classes are created from a single base class, it is known
as_________inheritance.
a) Single
b) Hierarchical
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
b) Hierarchical

Question 11.
The transitive nature of inheritance is itself reflected by _____ form of inheritance.
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
b) Multilevel

Question 12.
When a class is derived from a class which is a derived class – then it is referred to as ______ inheritance.
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
b) Multilevel

Question 13.
When there is a combination of more than one type of inheritance, it is known as ________ inheritance.
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Multiple
d) Hybrid
Answer:
d) Hybrid

Question 14.
Hybrid inheritance may be a combination of ________inheritance.
a) Multilevel and Multiple
b) Hierarchical and Multilevel
c) Hierarchical, Multilevel and Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 15.
The order of inheritance by derived class, to inherit the base class is ________
a) Left to Right
b) Right to Left
c) Top to Bottom
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Left to Right

Question 16.
In ________ inheritance the base classes dc not have any relationship between them,
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Hybrid
d) Multiple
Answer:
d) Multiple

Question 17.
In ________inheritance a derived class itself acts as a base class to derive another class.
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Multiple
d) Multiple
Answer:
b) Multilevel

Question 18.
_________ inheritance is similar to relation between grandfather, father and child,
a) Single
b) Multilevel
c) Multiple
d) Multiple
Answer:
b) Multilevel

Question 19.
A class without any declaration will have ________byte size.
a) 1
b) 0
b) 2
d) 10
Answer:
a) 1

Question 20.
class x{}; x occupies
a) 1
b) 0
b) 2
d) 10
Answer:
a) 1

Question 21.
In inheritance, which member of the base class will be acquired by the derived class is done by using ________ .
a) Visibility modes
b) Data members
c) Member functions
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Visibility modes

Question 22.
The accessibility of base class by the derived class is controlled by ________
a) Visibility modes
b) Data members
c) Member functions
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Visibility modes

Question 23.
_______ is a visibility modes.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 24.
The default visibility mode is ________
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) All the above
Answer:
a) private

Question 25.
When a base class is inherited with ________ visibility mode the public and protected members of the base class become ‘private’ members of the derived class.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) All the above
Answer:
a) private

Question 26.
When a base class is inherited with ________ visibility mode the protected and public members of the base class become ‘protected members’ of the derived class,
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) All the above
Answer:
c) protected

Question 27.
When a base class is inherited with ________ visibility mode, the protected members of the base class will be inherited as protected members of the derived class and the public members of the base class will be inherited as public members of the derived class.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) All the above
Answer:
b) public

Question 28.
When classes are inherited with ________the private members of the base class are not inherited they are only visible.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
d) Either A or B or C

Question 29.
When classes are inherited with ________ the private members of the base class are continue to exist in derived classes, and cannot be accessed.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
d) Either A or B or C

Question 30.
________inheritance should be used when you want the features of the base class to be available to the derived class but not to the classes that are derived from the derived class.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
a) private

Question 31.
________ inheritance should be used when features of base class to be available only to the derived class members but not to the outside world.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
c) protected

Question 32.
_____ inheritance can be used when features of base class to be available the derived class members and also to the outside world.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
b) public

Question 33.
When an object of the derived class is created, the compiler first call the ________class constructor.
a) Base
b) Derived
c) Either Base or Derived
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Base

Question 34.
When the object of a derived class expires first the ________class destructor is invoked.
a) Base
b) Derived
c) Either Base or Derived
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Derived

Question 35.
The ________ are executed in the order of inherited class.
a) Constructors
b) Destructors
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Constructors

Question 36.
The ________ are executed in the reverse order.
a) Constructors
b) Destructors
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Destructors

Question 37.
If there are multiple base classes, then it starts executing from the ________base class.
a) Leftmost
b) Rightmost
c) Compiler decided
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Leftmost

Question 38.
________ members of the base class can be indirectly accessed by the derived class using the public or protected member function of the base class.
a) private
b) public
c) protected
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
a) private

Question 39.
________ member function has the access privilege for the private members of the base class.
a) public
b) protected
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 40.
________ functions can access the private members.
a) Member
b) Non-member
c) Destructor
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Member

Question 41.
In case of inheritance there are situations where the member function of the base class and derived classes have the same name. The ________operator resolves this problem.
a) Conditional
b) Membership
c) Scope resolution
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Scope resolution

Question 42.
When a derived class member function has the same name as that of its base class member function, the derived class member function ________the base class’s inherited function.
a) Shadows
b) Hides
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 43.
When a derived class member function has the same name as that of its base class member function, the derived class member function shadows/hides the base class’s inherited function is called function ________
a) Overriding
b) Overloading
c) Shadowing
d) Either A or C
Answer:
d) Either A or C

Question 44.
________ pointer is a constant pointer that holds the memory address of the current object.
a) this
b) void
c) new
d) None of these
Answer:
a) this

Question 45.
________pointer is useful when the argument variable name in the member function and the data member name are same.
a) this
b) void
c) new
d) None of these
Answer:
a) this

Very Short Answers (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Write a short note on hierarchical inheritance.
Answer:
When more than one derived class is created from a single base class, it is known as Hierarchical inheritance.

Question 2.
What are the types of inheritance?
Answer:
There are different types of inheritance viz., Single Inheritance, Multiple inheritance, Multilevel inheritance, hybrid inheritance and hierarchical inheritance.

Question 3.
Give the syntax of deriving a class.
Answer:
Syntax:
class derived_dass_name :visibility_mode base_dass_name
{
// members of derivedclass
};

Question 4.
Write note on this pointer.
Answer:
‘this’ pointer is a constant pointer that holds the memory address of the current object. It identifies the currently calling object. It is useful when the argument variable name in the member function and the data member name are same. To identify the data member it will be given as this->data member name.

Short Answers (3 Marks)

Question 1.
What are inheritance and access control?
Answer:
When you declare a derived class, a visibility mode can precede each base class in the base list of the derived class. This does not alter the access attributes of the individual members of a base class but allows the derived class to access the members of a base class with restriction.

Classes can be derived using any of the three visibility modes:

  1. In a public base class, public and protected members of the base class remain public and protected members of the derived class.
  2. In a protected base class, public and protected members of the base class are protected members of the derived class.
  3. In a private base class, public and protected members of the base class become private members of the derived class.
  4. In all these cases, private members of the base class remain private and cannot be used by the derived class.
  5. However, it can be indirectly accessed by the derived class using the public or protected member function of the base class since they have the access privilege for the private members of the base class.

Question 2.
Write a program for the working of constructors and destructors under inheritance.
Program
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
class base
{
public:
base()
{
cout<<“\nConstructor of base class…”;
}
~base()
{
cout<<“\nDestructor of base class….”;
}
};
class derived:public base
{
public :
derived()
{
cout << “\nConstructor of derived …”;
}
~derived()
{
cout << “\nDestructor of derived…”;
}
};
class derived 1 :public derived
{
public :
derived 1()
{
cout << “\nConstructor of derived! //, …”;
}
~derived1()
{
cout << “\nDestructor of derived …”;
}
};
int main()
{
derivedl x;
return 0;
}

Output:
Constructor of base class…
Constructor of derived …
Constructor of derived …
Destructor of derived …
Destructor of derived …
Destructor of base class….

Question 3.
What about access control in a publicly derived class?
Answer:
From a publicly derived class, public and protected members of the base class remain public and protected members of the derived class. The public members can be accessed by the object of the derived class similar to its own members in public.

Question 4.
What about access control in the privately derived class?
Answer:
From a privately derived class, public and protected members of the base class become private members of the derived class. Hence it is not possible to access the derived members using the object of the derived class. The Derived members are invoked by calling it from the publicly defined members.

Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write a program to implement single Inheritance.
Program
# include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class student //base class
{
private :
char name[20];
int rno;
public:
void acceptnameO
{
cout<<“\n Enter roll no and name ..”;
cin>>rno>>name;
}
void displayname()
{
cout<<“\n Roll no :-“<<rno;
cout<<“\n Name :-“<<name<<endl;
}
};
class exam : public student
//derived class with single base class
{
public:
int markl, mark2 ,mark3,mark4,marks, mark6, total;
void acceptmark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter lang, eng, phy, che, esc, mat marks..
cin>>mark1>>mark2>>mark3>>
mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
{
cout<<“\n\t\t, Marks Obtained
cout<<“\n Language.. “<<mark1;
cout<<“\n English .. “<<mark2;
cout<<“\n Physics .. “<<mark3;
cout<<“\n Chemistry.. “<<mark4;
cout<<“\n Comp.sci.. “<<mark5;
cout«”\n Maths .. “<<mark6;
}
};
int main()
{
exam e1;
el.acceptname();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1.acceptmark();
e1.displayname();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1l.displaymark();
return 0;
}
Output
Enter roll no and name . . 1201
KANNAN
Enter lang,eng,phy,che,esc,mat
marks.. 100 100 100 100 100 100
Roll no:-1201
Name:-KANNAN
Marks Obtained
Language.. 100
English .. 100
Physics .. 100
Chemistry.. 100
Comp.sci.. 100
Maths .. 100

Question 2.
Write a program to implement multiple inheritance.
Program :
# include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class student //base class
{
private :
char name[20];
int rno;
public:
void acceptname()
{
cout<<“\n Enter roll no and name.. “;
cin>>rno>>name;
}
void displayname()
{
cout<<“\n Roll no :-“<<rno;
cout<<“\n Name:-” << name << endl;
}
};
class detail //Base class
{
int dd,mm,yy;
char cl[4];
public:
void acceptdob()
{
cout<<“\n Enter date,month,year in digits and class ..”;
cin>>dd>>mm>>yy>>cl;
}
void displaydob()
{
cout<<“\n class:-“<<cl;
cout<<“\t\t DOB : “<<dd«” –
“<<mm<<“-” <<yy<<endl;
}
};
//derived class with multiple base class
class exam: public student, public detail
{
public:
int mark1, mark2 ,mark3,mark4,mark5, mark6, total;
void acceptmark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter lang, eng, phy, che, esc, mat marks..”;
cin>>mark1>>mark2>>mark3>> mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
{
cout<<“\n\t\t Marks Obtained
cout<<“\n Language.. “<<markl;
cout<<“\n English .. “<<mark2;
cout<<“\n Physics .. “<<mark3;
cout<<“\n Chemistry.. “<<mark4;
cout<<“\n Comp.sci.. “<<mark5;
cout<<“\n Maths .. “<<mark6;
}
};
int main()
{
exam e1;
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1.acceptname();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1.acceptdob();
e1.acceptmark();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1.displayname();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
e1.displaydob();
e1.displaymark();
return 0;
}
Output:
Enter roll no and name . . 1201 MEENA
Enter date, month, year in digits and
class .. 7 12 2001 XII
Enter lang, eng, phy, che, esc, mat
marks.. 96 98 100 100 100 100
Roll no:-1201
Name MEENA
class:-XII
DOB : 7 – 12 -2001
Marks Obtained
Language..96
English .. 98
Physics .. 100
Chemistry.. 100
Comp.sci.. 100
Maths .. 100

Question 3.
Write a program to implement multilevel inheritance.
Program
# include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class student //base class
{
private :
char name[20];
int rno; public:
void acceptname()
{
cout<<“\n Enter roll no and name.. “;
cin>>rno>>name;
}
void displayname()
{
cout<<“\n Roll no :-“<<rno;
cout<<“\n Name << name <<
endl;
}
};
//derived class with single base class class
exam: public student
{
public:
int mark1, mark2, mark3, mark4, mark5, mark6;
void accept mark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter
lang,eng,phy,che,esc,mat marks..’; cin>>mark1>>mark2>>mark3>> mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
{
cout<<“\n\t\t Marks Obtained
cout<<“\n Language… “<<markl;
cout<<“\n English… “<<mark2;
cout<<“\n Physics… “<<mark3;
cout<<“\n Chemistry… “<<mark4;
cout<<“\n Comp.sci… “<<mark5;
cout<<“\n Maths… “<<mark6;
}
};
class result: public exam
{
int total;
public:
void showresult()
{
total=markl+mark2+mark3+mark 4+mark5+mark6;
cout<<“\nTOTAL MARK SCORED : “<<total;
}
};
int main()
{
result r1;
//calling base class function using derived
class object
r1.acceptname();
//calling base class function which itself is a derived
r1.acceptmark();
// class function using its derived class object
r1.displayname();
//calling base class function
using derived class //object
//calling base class function which itself is a derived
r1.displaymark();
//class function using its derived class object
r1.showresult();
//calling the child class
function
return 0;
}

Output :
Enter roll no and name .. SARATHI
Enter lang,eng,phy,che,csc,mat
marks.. 96 98 100 100 100 100
Roll no:-1201
Name:-SARATHI
Marks Obtained
Language… 96
English… 98
Physics… 100
Chemistry… 100
Comp.sci… 100
Maths… 100
TOTAL MARK SCORED: 594

Question 4.
Write a program to implement hierarchical inheritance.
Program
# include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class student //base class
{
private :
char name[20];
int rno;
public:
void acceptname()
{
cout<<“\n Enter roll no and name..”;
cin>>rno>>name;
}
void displayname()
{
cout<<“\n Roll no :-“<<rno;
cout<<“\n Name :-” <<name <<
endl;
}
};
//derived class with single base class
class qexam: public student
{
public:
int mark1, mark2, mark3, mark4, marks, mark6;
void accent mark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter lang, eng, phy, che, esc, mat marks for quarterly exam”;
cin>>markl>>mark2>>mark3>>mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
cout< <“\n\t\t Marks Obtained in quarterly”;
cout< <“\n Language.. “<<marki;
cout<<”\n English .. “<<mark2;
cout< <“\n Physics .. “<<mark3;
cout< <“\fl Chemistry.. “<<mark4;
cout<<“\n Comp.sci.. “<<mark5;
cout< <“\n Maths .. “<<mark6;
}
};
//derived class with single base class
class hexam : public student
{
public:
int mark1, mark2, mark3, mark4, marks, mark6;
void acceptmark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter lang, eng, phy, che, esc, mat marks for half/early exam..”;
cin>>markl>>mark2>>mark3>>mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
{
cout<<“\n\t\t Marks Obtained in Halfyearly”;
cout<<“\n Language., “<< mark1;
coutcc”\n English .. “<< mark2;
coutcc”\n Physics .. “<< mark3;
coutcc”\n Chemistry.. “<< mark4;
coutcc”\n Comp.sci.. “<< mark5;
coutcc”\n Maths .. “<< mark6;
}
};
int main()
{
qexam q1;
hexam hi;
//calling base class function using derived class object
q1.acceptname();
//calling base class function
q1. acceptmark();
//calling base class function using derived
class object
h1.acceptname();
//calling base class function using derived class object
h1.displayname(); .
h1,acceptmark();
//calling base class- function using its // derived class object
h1.displaymark();
return 0
}
Output:
Enter roll no and name . . 1201
KANNAN
Enter lang,eng,phy,che,esc,mat
marks for quarterly exam. .
95 96 100 98 100 99
Roll no :-1201
Name :-KANNAN
Marks Obtained in quarterly
Language.. 95
English .. 96
Physics .. 100
Chemistry.. 98
Comp.sci.. 100
Maths .. 99
Enter roll no and name . . 1201
KANNAN
Enter lang,eng,phy,che,esc, mat marks for the half-yearly exam.
96 98 100 100 100 100
Roll no:-1201
Name:-KANNAN
Marks Obtained in Halfyearly
Language.. 96
English .. 98
Physics .. 100
Chemistry.. 100
Comp.sci.. 100
Maths .. 100

Question 5.
Write a program to implement hybrid inheritance.
Program
# include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class student //base class
{
private :
char name[20];
int rno; public:
void acceptname()
{
cout<<“\n Enter roll no and name.. cin>>rno>>name;
}
void displayname()
{
cout<<“\n Roll no :-“<<rno;
cou<<“\n Name name <<
endl;
}
};
//derived class with the single base class
class exam: public student
{
public:
int mark1, mark2, mark3, mark4, marks, mark6;
void accept mark()
{
cout<<“\n Enter larig, eng, phy, che, esc,mat marks..”;
cin>>markl>>mark2>>mark3>> mark4>>mark5>>mark6;
}
void displaymark()
{
cout<<“\n\t\t Marks Obtained “;
cout<<“\n Language.. “<<markl;
cout<<“\n English .. “<<mark2;
cout<<“\n Physics .. “<<mark3;
cout<<“\n Chemistry.. “<<mark4;
cout<<“\n Comp.sci.. “<<mark5;
cout<< “\n Maths .. “<<mark6;
}
};
class detail //base classs 2
{
int dd,mm,yy;
char cl[4];
public:
void acceptdob()
{
cout<<“\n Enter date,month,year in digits and class ..”;
cin>>dd>>mm>>yy>>cl;
}
void displaydob()
{
cou<<“\n class :-“<<cl;
cou<<“\t\t DOB : “<<dd<<” – ”
<<mm<<“-” <<yy<<endl;
}
};
//inherits from the exam, which itself is a //derived
class and also from class detail
class result: public exam, public detail
{
int total;
public:
void showresuit()
{
total=markl+mark2+mark3+ mark4+mark5+mark6;
cout<<“\nTOTAL MARK SCORED: ” <<total;
}
};
class detail //base classs 2
{
int dd,mm,yy;
char cl[4];
public:
void acceptdob()
{
cout<<“\n Enter date,month,year in digits and class ..
cin>>dd>>mm>>yy>>cl;
}
void displaydob()
{
cout<<“\n class :-“<<cl;
cout<<“\t\t DOB : “<<dd<<” – ”
<<mm<<“-” <<yy<<endl;
}
};
//inherits from the exam, which itself is a //derived class and also from class detail class result: public exam, public detail
{
int total;
public:
void showresuit()
{
total = markl + mark2-i-mark3 + mark4+mark5+mark6;
cout<<“\nTOTAL MARK SCORED : ” <<total;
}
};
int main()
{
result r1;
//calling base class function using derived class object
r1.acceptname();
//calling base class which itsel is a derived class function using its derived class object
r1.acceptmark();
r1.acceptdob();
cout<<“\n\n\t\t MARKS STATEMENT”; //calling base class function using derived class object
r1.displayname();
r1.displaydob();
//calling base class which itsel is a derived class function using its derived class object
r1.displaymark();
//calling the child class function
r1.showresuit();
return 0;
>
Output:
Enter roll no and name .. 1201 RAGU
Enter lang,eng,phy,che,esc,mat
marks.. 96 98 100 100 100 100
Enter date,month,year in digits and class .. 7 12 2001 XII
MARKS STATEMENT
Roll no :-1201
Name :-RAGU
class : -XII
DOB : 7 – 12 -2001
Marks Obtained
Language..96
English .. 98
Physics .. 100
Chemistry.. 100
Comp.sci.. 100
Maths .. 100
TOTAL MARK SCORED: 594

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Thermodynamics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

11th Chemistry Guide Thermodynamics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Questions:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is given by the quantity
(a) ∆E
(b) ∆H
(c) ∆S
(d) ∆G
Answer:
(b) ∆H

Question 2.
All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to
(a) decrease in entropy
(b) increase in enthalpy
(c) increase in free energy
(d) decrease in free energy
Answer:
(d) decrease in free energy

Question 3.
In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?
(a) q = w
(b) q = 0
(c) ∆E = q
(d) P∆V = 0
Answer:
(b) q = 0

Question 4.
In a reversible process, the change in entropy of the universe is
(a) > 0
(b) ≥ 0
(c) <0
(d) = 0
Answer:
(d) = 0

Question 5.
In an adiabatic expansionof an ideal gas
(a) w = – ∆U
(b) w = ∆U + ∆H
(c) ∆U = 0
(d) w = 0
Answer:
(a) w = – ∆U

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
The intensive property among the quantities below is
(a) mass
(b) volume
(c) enthalpy
(d) mass/volume
Answer:
(d) mass/volume

Question 7.
An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 × 10-3 m3 to 1 × 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure at 1 × 105 Nm-2. The work done is
(a) -900 J
(b) 900 kJ
(c) 270 kJ
(d) – 900 kJ
Answer:
(a) -900 J

Question 8.
Heat of combustion is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) either positive or negative
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 9.
The heat of formation of CO and CO2 are -26.4 kCal and -94 kCal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be
(a) + 26.4 kcal
(b) – 67.6 kcal
(c) – 120.6 kcal
(d) + 52.8 kcal
Answer:
(b) – 67.6 kcal

Question 10.
C(diamond) → C(graphite), ∆H = -ve, this indicates that
(a) graphite is more stable than diamond
(b) graphite has more energy than diamond
(c) both are equally stable
(d) stability cannot be predicted
Answer:
(a) graphite is more stable than diamond

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 11.
The enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Cr2O3 are – 1596 kJ and – 1134 kJ, respectively.
∆H for the reaction 2Al + Cr2O3 → 2Cr + Al2O3 is
(a) – 1365 kJ
(b) 2730 kJ
(c) – 2730 kJ
(d) -462 kJ
Answer:
(d) -462 kJ

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function?
(a) internal energy
(b) enthalpy
(c) entropy
(d) frictional energy
Answer:
(d) frictional energy

Question 13.
If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then
(a) ∆H > ∆U
(b) ∆H – ∆U = 0
(c) ∆H + ∆U = 0
(d) ∆H < ∆U
Answer:
(d) ∆H < ∆U

Question 14.
Change in internal energy, when 4 kJ of work is done on the system and 1 kJ of heat is given out by the system is
(a) +1 kJ
(b) -5 kJ
(c) +3 kJ
(d) -3 kJ
Answer:
(c) +3 kJ

Question 15.
The work is done by the liberated gas when 55.85 g of iron (molar mass 55.85 g mol-1) reacts with hydrochloric acid in an open beaker at 25°C
(a) -2.48 kJ
(b) -2.22 kJ
(c) +2.22 kJ
(d) +2.48 kJ
Answer:
(a) -2.48 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 16.
The value of ∆H for cooling 2 moles of an ideal monatomic gas from 1250°C to 250°C at constant pressure will be [given Cp = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R]
(a) – 250 R
(b) – 500 R
(c) 500 R
(d) + 250 R
Answer:
(b) – 500 R

Question 17.
Given that C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ∆H° = – a kJ;
2 CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) ∆H° = -b kJ; Calculate the ∆H° for the reaction C(g) + ½O2(g) → CO(g)
(a) \(\frac{b+2 a}{2}\)
(b) 2a – b
(c) \(\frac{2 a-b}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{b-2 a}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{b-2 a}{2}\)

Question 18.
When 15.68 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane are fully combusted at 0° C and 1 atmosphere, 32 litres of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure are consumed. The amount of heat released from this combustion in kJ is (∆HC(CH4)) = – 890 kJ mol and ∆HC(C3H8) = -2220 kJ mol-1)
(a) -889 kJ
(b) -1390 kJ
(c) -3180 kJ
(d) -632.68 kJ
Answer:
(d) -632.68 kJ

Question 19.
The bond dissociation energy of methane and ethane are 360 kJ mol-1 and 620 kJ mol-1 respectively. Then, the bond dissociation energy of the C-C bond is
(a) 170 kJ mol-1
(b) 50 kJ mol-1
(c) 80 kJ mol-1
(d) 220 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(c) 80 kJ mol-1

Question 20.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is
(a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
(b) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
(c) ∆H > 0 and ∆S = 0
(d) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
Answer:
(a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 21.
The temperature of the system decreases in an
(a) Isothermal expansion
(b) Isothermal Compression
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) adiabatic compression
Answer:
(c) adiabatic expansion

Question 22.
In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign of q, ∆S and w are respectively
(a) +, -, –
(b) -, +, –
(c) +, -, +
(d) -, -, +
Answer:
(d) -, -, +

Question 23.
Molar heat of vapourisation of a liquid is 4.8 kJ mol-1 If the entropy change is 16 J mol-1 K-1. the boiling point of the liquid is
(a) 323 K
(b) 27°C
(c) 164 K
(d) 0.3 K
Answer:
(b) 27°C

Question 24.
∆S is expected to be maximum for the reaction
(a) Ca(S) + 1/2 O2(g) → CaO(S)
(b) C(S) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(c) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
(d) CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g)
Answer:
(d) CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g)

Question 25.
The values of ∆H and ∆S for a reaction are respectively 30 kJ mol-1 and 100 JK-1 mol-1. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is
(a) 300 K
(b) 30 K
(c) 100 K
(d) 20°C
Answer:
(a) 300 K

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

II. Write brief answers to the following questions:

Question 26.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The first law of thermodynamics states that “the total energy of an isolated system remains constant though it may change from one form to another”
(or)
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but may be converted from one form to another.

Question 27.
Define Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Answer:
The heat changes in chemical reactions are equal to the difference in internal energy (∆U) or heat content (∆H) of the products and reactants, depending upon whether the reaction is studied at constant volume or constant pressure. Since ∆U and ∆H are functions of the state of the system, the heat evolved or absorbed in a given reaction depends only on the initial state and final state of the system and not on the path or the steps by which the change takes place.

Question 28.
Explain intensive properties with two examples.
Answer:
The property that is independent of the mass or size of the system is called an intensive property.
e.g., Refractive index and surface tension.

Question 29.
Define the following terms:
(a) isothermal process
(b) adiabatic process
(c) isobaric process
(d) isochoric process
Answer:
(a) isothermal process: It is defined as one in which the temperature of the system remains constant, during the change from its initial to final states.

(b) Adiabatic process: It is defined as one in which there is no exchange of heat (q) between the system and surrounding during operations.

(c) Isobaric process: It is defined as one in which the pressure of the system remains constant during its change from the initial to the final state.

(d) Isochoric process: It is defined as one in which the volume of the system remains constant during its change from initial to the final stage of the process.

Question 30.
What is the usual definition of entropy? What is the unit of entropy?
Answer:
Entropy is a measure of the molecular disorder (randomness) of a system.
The thermodynamic definition of entropy is concerned with the change in entropy that occurs as a result of a process.
It is defined as, dS = dqrev /T

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 31.
Predict the feasibility of a reaction when

  1. both ∆H and ∆S positive
  2. both ∆H and ∆S negative
  3. ∆H decreases but ∆S increases

Answer:

  1. When both ∆H and ∆S are positive, the reaction is not feasible.
  2. When both ∆H and ∆S are negative, the reaction is not feasible.
  3. When ∆H decreases but ∆S increases, the reaction is feasible.

Question 32.
Define is Gibb’s free energy.
Answer:
Gibbs free energy is defined as the part of the total energy of a system that can be converted (or) available for conversion into work.
G = H -TS,
where G = Gibb’s free energy
H = enthalpy
T = temperature
S = entropy

Question 33.
Define enthalpy of combustion.
Answer:
The heat of combustion of a substance is defined as “The change in enthalpy of a system when one mole of the substance is completely burnt in excess of air or oxygen”. It is denoted by ∆HC.

Question 34.
Define molar heat capacity. Give its unit.
Answer:
The heat capacity for 1 mole of substance, is called molar heat capacity (cm). It is defined as “The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of the substance to raise its temperature by 1 kelvin”.
The SI unit of molar heat capacity is JK-1 mol-1

Question 35.
Define the calorific value of food. What is the unit of calorific value?
Answer:
The calorific value is defined as the amount of heat produced in calories (or joules) when one gram of the substance is completely burnt. The SI unit of calorific value is J kg-1. However, it is usually expressed in cal g-1.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 36.
Define enthalpy of neutralization.
Answer:
The enthalpy of neutralization is defined as the change in enthalpy of the system when one gram equivalent of an acid is neutralized by one gram equivalent of a base or vice versa in dilute solution.
H+(aq) + OH(aq) → H2O(l) = 57.32 kJ.

Question 37.
What is lattice energy?
Answer:
Lattice energy is defined as the amount of energy required to completely remove the constituent ions from its crystal lattice to an infinite distance. It is also referred as lattice enthalpy.

Question 38.
What are state and path functions? Give two examples.
Answer:

  • The variables like P. V, T, and ‘n’ that are used to describe the state of the system are called state functions. e.g. pressure, volume, temperature, internal energy, enthalpy, and free energy.
  • A path function is a thermodynamic property of the system whose value depends on the path or manner by which the system goes from its initial to the final state. e.g., work (w) and heat (q).

Question 39.
Give Kelvin a statement of the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Kelvin-Planck statement: It is impossible to take heat from a hotter reservoir and convert a cyclic process heat to a cooler reservoir.

Question 40.
The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 10, what will be the sign of ∆G? Will this reaction be spontaneous?
Answer:
∆G = -2.303 RT logKeq
Substituting the known values of R, T and Keq
R = 8.314(JK-1 mol-1)
T = 300 K
Keq = 10
∆G = –2.303 8.314(JK-1) 300(K) log 10
= -5744.14 J/mol
= -5.744 KJ/mol
∆G < 0, then it is spontaneous.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 41.
Enthalpy of neutralization is always a constant when a strong acid is neutralized by a strong base: account for the statement.
Answer:

  1. Enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is always a constant and it is equal to -57.32 kJ irrespective of which acid or base is used.
  2. Because strong acid or strong base means it is completely ionized in solution state. For e.g., NaOH (strong base) is neutralized by HCl (strong acid), due to their complete ionization, the net reaction takes place is only water formation.

So the enthalpy of neutralization is always constant for strong acid by a strong base.
H+Cl + Na+OH → Na+Cl + H2O
H+NO3+ + K+OH → K+NO3++ H2O
(Net reaction) H+ + OH → H2O ∆H = -57.32 kJ

Question 42.
State the third law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is zero. Otherwise, it can be stated as it is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero in a finite number of steps. Mathematically,
limT→0 S = 0 for a perfectly ordered crystalline state.

Question 43.
Write down the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl2.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 1
Step 1:
Solid calcium is converted to gaseous state (Enthalpy of atomization)
Ca(S) → Ca(g) Ca(g)                         ∆H°a = 178 KJ/mol
Step 2:
The calcium is converted to ionic form
(divalent cation): (Ionisation enthalpy)
Ca → Ca+ + e                          ∆H°IE = 590 kJ
Ca → Ca2+ + e                        ∆H°IE = 590 KJ
Step 3:
Atomisation of chlorine molecule to chlorine atom: (Atomisation enthalpy)
\(\frac{1}{2}\)Cl2 → Cl               ∆H°Cl-Cl = 121 KJ
For two chlorine atoms required, atomistion energy = 2 × 121 = 242 KJ/mol
Step 4:
Convrsion of chlorine atom into ion:(Electron affinity)
Cl + e → Cl;                           ∆H°ea = – 364KJ
Step 5:
Finally the two ions join together by lattice energy as: (here two Cl ions are involved)
Ca2+ + 2Cl → CaCl2

Hence Lattice energy = Heat of formation – heat of atomization – dissociation energy – (sum of ionization energies) – (sum of electron affinities)
Since, heat of formation (i.e standard enthalpy of formation ) of CaCl2 = – 796KJ/mol
Lattice energy = -796 -178 -242 -(590 + 1145) – (2 × – 364) = -2223KJ/mol

Question 44.
Identify the state and path functions out of the following: (a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy (c) Heat (d) Temperature (e) Work (f) Free energy.
Answer:
State function:
Enthalpy, Temperature, Free energy, Entropy
Path function:
Work, Heat.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 45.
State the various statements of the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
1. Entropy statement:
Whenever a spontaneous process takes place, it is accompanied by an increase in the total entropy of the universe”.

2. Kelvin-Planck statement:
it is impossible to take heat from a hotter reservoir and convert it completely into work by a cyclic process without transferring a part of heat to a cooler reservoir.

3. Efficiency statement:
Even an ideal, frictionless engine cannot convert 100% of its input heat into work.
Efficiency = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\)
% Efficiency = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100
% Efficiency = \(\left[\frac{\text { Output }}{\text { Input }}\right]\) x 100
% Efficiency < 100%

4. Clausius statement:
Heat flows spontaneously from hot objects to cold objects and to get it to flow in the opposite direction, we have to spend some work.

Question 46.
What are spontaneous reactions? What are the conditions for the spontaneity of a process?
Answer:

  1. A reaction that occurs under the given set of conditions without any external driving force is called a spontaneous reaction.
  2. The spontaneity of any process depends on three different factors.
  3. If the enthalpy change of a process is negative, then the process is exothermic and may be spontaneous. (∆H is negative)
  4. If the entropy change of a process is positive, then the process may occur spontaneously. (∆S is positive)
  5. The gibbs free energy which is the combination of the above two (∆H – T∆S) should be negative for a reaction to occur spontaneously, i.e. the necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous is ∆H – T∆S < 0
  6. For spontaneous process,
    ∆Stotal > 0, ∆G < 0, ∆S < 0

Question 47.
List the characteristics of internal energy.
Answer:

  • The internal energy of a system is an extensive property. It depends on the number of substances present in the system.
  • The internal energy of a system is a state function. It depends only upon the state variables (T, P, V. n) of the system.
  • The change in internal energy is as ∆U = U2 – U1
  • In a cyclic process, there is no energy change. ∆U(cyclic) = 0.
  • If the internal energy of the system at the final state (Uf) is less than the internal energy of the
    system at its initial state (Ui), then ∆U would be negative.
  • if Uf < Ui ∆U = Uf – Ui = -ve
  • if Uf > Ui ∆U = Uf – Ui = +ve

Question 48.
Explain how heat absorbed at constant volume is measured using a bomb calorimeter with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The calorimeter is used for measuring the amount of heat change in a chemical or physical change. In calorimetry, the temperature change in the process is measured which is directly proportional to the heat capacity. By using the expression C = \(\frac{q}{m \Delta T}\), we can calculate the amount of heat change in the process. Calorimetric measurements are made under two different conditions
(i) At constant volume (qV)
(ii) At constant pressure (qp)
(A) ∆U Measurements:
For chemical reactions, heat evolved at constant volume, is measured in a bomb calorimeter.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 2

The inner vessel (the bomb) and its cover are made of strong steel. The cover is fitted tightly to the vessel by means of metal lid and screws.

A weighed amount of the substance is taken in a platinum cup connected with electrical wires for striking an arc instantly to kindle combustion. The bomb is then tightly closed and pressurized with excess oxygen. The bomb is immersed in water, in the inner volume of the calorimeter. A stirrer is placed in the space between the wall of the calorimeter and the bomb, so that water can be stirred, uniformly. The reaction is started by striking the substance through electrical heating.

A known amount of combustible substance is burnt in oxygen in the bomb. Heat evolved during the reaction is absorbed by the calorimeter as well as the water in which the bomb is immersed. The change in temperature is measured using a Beckman thermometer. Since the bomb is sealed its volume does not change and hence the heat measurements is equal to the heat of combustion at a constant volume (∆U)c.

The amount of heat produced in the reaction (∆U)c is, equal to the sum of the heat abosrbed by the calorimeter and water.
Heat absorbed by the calorimeter
q1 = k.∆T
where k is a calorimeter constant equal to mc Cc ( me is mass of the calorimeter and Cc is heat capacity of calorimeter)
Heat absorbed by the water q2 = mw Cw ∆T
where mw is molar mass of water
Cw is molar heat capacity of water (4,184 kJ K-1 mol-1)
Therefore ∆Uc = q1 + q2
= k.∆T + mw Cw ∆T
= (k + mw Cw)∆T

Calorimeter constant can be determined by burning a known mass of standard sample (benzoic acid) for which the heat of combustion is known (-3227 kJ mol-1). The enthalpy of combustion at constant pressure of the substance is calculated from the equation
∆H°c (pressure) = ∆U°c (Vol) + ∆ngRT

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 49.
Calculate the work involved in expansion and 1 compression process.
Answer:
Work involved in expansion and compression processes:
In most thermodynamic calculations we are dealing with the evaluation of work involved in the expansion or compression of gases. The essential condition for expansion or compression of a system; is that there should be difference between external pressure (Pext) and internal pressure (Pint).

For understanding pressure-volume work, let us consider a cylinder which contains V moles of an ideal gas fitted with a frictionless piston of cross sectional area A. The total volume of the gas inside is V and pressure of the gas inside is Pint. If the external pressure Pext is greater than Pint, the piston moves inward till the pressure inside becomes equal to Pext. Let this change be achieved in a single step
and the final volume be Vf.In this case, the work is done on the system (+w). It can be calculated as follows
w = -F.∆x ……….(1)
where dx is the distance moved by the piston during the compression and F is the force acting on the gas.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 3

F = PextA ……….(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)
w = – Pext. A. ∆x
A .∆x = change in volume = Vf – Vi
w = -Pext.{Vf – Vi) ……….(3)
w = -Pext. (-∆V) …………(4)
= Pext.∆V

Since work is done on the system, it is a positive quantity.
If the pressure is not constant, but changes during the process such that it is always infinitesimally greater than the pressure of the gas, then, at each stage of compression, the volume decreases by an infinitesimal amount, dV. In such a case we can calculate the work done on the gas by the relation
Wrev = – \(\int_{V_{i}}^{v_{f}}\) pext dV.
In a compression process, Pext the external pressure is always greater than the pressure of the system.
i.e., Pext = (Pint + dP)
In an expansion process, the external pressure is always less than the pressure of the system
i.e., Pext = (Pint – dP)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 4

When pressure is not constant and changes in infinitesimally small steps (reversible conditions) during compression from Vi to Vf. the P-V plot looks like in figure. Work done on the gas is represented by the shaded area.
In general case we can write,
Pext = (Pint ± dP). Such processes are called reversible processes. For a compression process work can be related to internal pressure of the system under reversible conditions by writing equation
Wrev = – \(\int_{V_{i}}^{v_{f}}\) Pint dV
For a given system with an ideal gas
Pint V = nRT
pint = \(\frac{n R T}{V}\)
Wrev = – \(\int_{V_{i}}^{v_{f}}\) \(\frac{n R T}{V}\) dV
Wrev = – nRTln(\(\frac{V_{f}}{V_{i}}\))
Wrev= -2.303nRTlog\(\frac{V_{f}}{V_{i}}\) ………….(5)

If Vf > Vi (expansion), the sign of work done by the process is negative.
If Vf < Vi (compression) the sign of work done on the process is positive.

Question 50.
Derive the relation between ∆H and ∆U for an ideal gas. Explain each term involved in the equation.
Answer:
1. When the system at constant pressure undergoes changes from an initial state with H1, U1, V1 and P parameters to a final state with H2, U2, V2 and P parameters, the change in enthalpy ∆H, is given by
AH = U + PV

2. At initial state H1 = U1 + PV1 ………(1)
At final state H1 = U1 + PV1 ……..(2)
(2) – (1) ⇒ (H2 – H1) = (U2 – U1) + P(V2 – V1)
∆H = ∆U + P∆V …………(3)
Considering ∆U = q + w ; w = -P∆V
∆H = q + w + P∆V
∆H = qp – P∆V+ P∆V
∆H = qp …………(4)
qp is the heat absorbed at constant pressure and is considered as heat content.

3. Consider a closed system of gases which are chemically reacting to produce product gases at constant temperature and pressure with V. and as the total volumes of the reactant and product gases respectively, and n1 and nf are the number of moles of gaseous reactants
and products. Then,
For reactants: P Vi = ni RT
For products: P Vf = nf RT
Then considering reactants as initial state and products as final state,
P (Vi – Vi) = (ni – ni) RT
P∆V = ∆ng RT
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT ……….(5)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 51.
Suggest and explain an indirect method to calculate lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride crystal.
Answer:
The formation of NaCl can be considered in five steps. The sum of the enthalpy changes of these steps is equal to the enthalpy change for the overall reaction from which the lattice enthalpy of NaCl is calculated.
Let us calculate the lattice energy of sodium chloride using Bom-Haber cycle
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 5
∆H = heat of formation of sodium chloride = -411.3 kJmol-1
∆H1 = heat of sublimation of Na(s) = 108.7 kJmol-1
∆H2 = ionisation energy of Na(s) = 495. kJ mol-1
∆H3 = dissociation energy of Cl2(g) = 244 kJ mol-1
∆H4 = Electron affinity of Cl(g) = -349 kJ mol-1
U = lattice energy of NaCl
∆Hf = ∆H1 + ∆H2 + ∆H3 + ∆H4 + U
∴ U = (∆Hf ) – (∆H1 + ∆H2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∆H3 + ∆H4)
=» U = (-411.3) – (108.7 + 495.0 + 122 – 349)
U = (-411.3) – (376.7)
∴ U = -788kJ mol-1

Question 52.
List the characteristics of Gibbs free energy.
Answer:
Characteristics of Gibbs free energy:
1. Gibbs free energy is defined as the part of the total energy of a system that can be converted (or) available for conversion into work.
G = H – TS ………..(1)
Where
H = enthalpy, T = temperature and S = entropy

2. G is a state function and is a single value function.

3. G is an extensive property, whereas ∆G becomes intensive property for a closed system. Both G and ∆G values correspond to the system only.

4. ∆G gives criteria for spontaneity at constant pressure and temperature.

  • If ∆G is negative (∆G < O), the process is spontaneous.
  • If ∆G is positive (∆G > O), the process is non-spontaneous.
  • If ∆G is zero (AG = O), the process is equilibrium.

5. For any system at constant pressure and temperature,
∆G = ∆H – T∆S ……….. (2)
We know AH = ∆U + P∆V
∆G = ∆U + P∆V – T∆S ………(3)

6. For the first law of thermodynamics, ∆U = q + w
∆G= q+ w+P∆V – T∆S …………(4)

For second law of thermodynamics, ∆S = \(\frac {q}{T}\)
∆G = q + w + P∆V – T\(\frac {q}{T}\)
∆G = w + P∆V …………(5)
∆G = – w – P∆V ……….(6)

7. – P∆V represent the work done due to expansion against constant external pressure. Therefore, it is clear that the decrease in free energy (-∆G) accompanying a process taking place at constant temperature and pressure is equal to the maximum work obtainable from the system other than the work of expansion.

8. Unit of Gibb’s free energy is J mol-1

Question 53.
Calculate the work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 500 ml to a volume of 2 L at 25°C and normal pressure.
Solution:
Given
n = 2 moles
Vi = 500 ml = 0.5 lit
Vf = 2 lit
T = 25°C = 298 K
w = -2303 nRTIog (\(\frac{V_{f}}{V_{i}}\))
w = -2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 298 × log (4)
w = -2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 298 × 0.6021
w = -6871 J
w = -6.871 kJ.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 54.
In a constant-volume calorimeter, 3.5 g of gas with molecular weight 28 was burnt in excess oxygen at 298 K. The temperature of the calorimeter was found to increase from 298 K to 298.45 K due to the combustion process. Given that the calorimeter constant is 2.5kJ K-1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of the gas in kJ mol-1.
Solution:
Given,
Ti = 298 K
Tf = 298.45 K
k = 2.5 kJ K
m = 3.5g
Mm = 28
heat evolved = k∆T
∆HC = k (Tf – Ti)
∆HC = 2.5 kJ K’ (298.45 – 298) K-1
∆HC = 1.125 kJ
∆HC = \(\frac {1.125}{3.5}\) x 28 kJ mol-1
∆HC = 9 kJ mol-1

Question 55.
Calculate the entropy change in the system, and surroundings, and the total entropy change in the universe during a process in which 245 J of heat flow out of the system at 77°C to the surrounding at 33°C.
Solution:
Given
Tsys = 77° C = (77 + 273) = 350 K
Tsurr = 33°C = (33 + 273) = 360 K
q = 245J

∆Ssys = \(\frac{q}{T_{s y}}=\frac{-245}{350}\) = -0.7 JK-1

∆Ssurr = \(\frac{q}{T_{s \mathrm{sr}}}=\frac{+245}{306}\) = +0.8 JK-1

∆Suniv = ∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr

∆Suniv = -0.7 JK-1 + 0.8 JK-1

∆Suniv = 0.1 JK-1

Question 56.
1 mole of an ideal gas, maintained at 4.1 atm and at a certain temperature, absorbs heat 3710/and expands to 2 liters. Calculate the entropy change in the expansion process.
Solution:
Given
n = 1 mole
P = 4.1 atm
V = 2 Lit
T = ?
q = 3710 J
∆S = \(\frac{q}{T}\)

∆S = \(\frac{q}{\frac{p v}{n R}}\)

∆S = \(\frac{n R q}{P V}\)

∆S = \(\frac{1 \times 0.082 \text { lit atm } K^{-1} \times 3710 J}{4.1 \text { atm } \times 2 \text { lit }}\)

∆S = 37.10 JK-1

Question 57.
30.4 kJ is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride. The entropy change during melting is 28.4 JK-1 mol-1. Calculate the melting point of sodium chloride.
Answer:
Given,
∆Hf(NaCl) = 30.4 kJ = 30400 J mol-1
∆Sf(NaCl) = 28.4 JK-1 mol-1
∆S-1 = \(\frac{\Delta H_{f}}{T_{f}}\)

Tf = \(\frac{\Delta H_{f}}{\Delta S_{f}}\)

Tf = \(\frac{30400 J m o l^{-1}}{28.4 J K^{-1} m o l^{-1}}\)

Tf = 1070.4 K

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 58.
Calculate the standard heat of formation of propane, if its heat of combustion is -2220.2 kJ mol-1. The heats of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(1) are -393.5 and -285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Solution:
Given:
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
∆H°C = 2220.2kJ mol-1 ……………..(1)
C + O2 → CO2
∆H°f = -393.5 kf mol-1 ……….(2)
H2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2 → H2O
∆H°f = -285.8 kJ mol-1 ……………(3)
3C + 4H2 → C3H8
∆H°c =?
(2) × (3)
⇒ 3C + 3O2 → 3CO2
∆H°f = -1180.5 kJ ………..(4)
(3)× (4)
⇒ 4H2 + 2O2 → 4H2O
∆H°f = 1143.2 kJ ……..(5)
(4) + (5) – (1)
⇒ 3C + 3O2 + 4H2 + 2O2 + 3CO2 + 4H2O → 3CO2 + 4H2O + C3H8 + 5O2
∆H°f = -1180.5 – 1143.2 – (-2220.2) kJ
3C + 4H2 → C3H8
∆H°f = -103.5 kJ
Standard heat of formation of propane is ∆H°f(C3H8) = -103.5 kJ

Question 59.
You are given normal boiling points and standard enthalpies of vapourisation. Calculate the entropy of vapourisation of liquids listed below.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 6
Answer:
For ethanol
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 7

Question 60.
For the reaction Ag2O(s) → 2Ag(s)+12O2(g) ∆H = 30.56 kJ mol-1 and ∆S = 6.66JK-1 mol-1 (at 1 atm). Calculate the temperature at which G is equal to zero. Also predict the direction of the reaction (I) at this temperature and (ii) below this temperature.
Solution:
Given,
∆H = 30.56 kJ mol-1
∆S = 6.66 x 10-3 kJK-1 mol-1
T = ? at which ∆G =0
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
0 = ∆H – T∆S
T = \(\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\)

T = \(\frac{30.56 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{66.6 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kJ} K^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
T = 4589 K

(i) At 4589K;
∆G = 0 the reaction is in equilibrium.
(ii) at temperature below 4598 K
∆H > T∆S
∆G = ∆H – T∆S > 0, the reaction in the forward direction, is non spontaneous. In other words the reaction occurs in the backward direction.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 61.
What is the equilibrium constant Keq for the following reaction at 400K.
2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g), given that ∆H° = 77.2 kJ mol-1 ∆S° = 122 JK-1 mol-1
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 8

Question 62.
Cyanamide (NH2CN) is completely burnt in excess oxygen in a bomb calorimeter, ∆U was found to be -742.4 kJ mol-1, calculate the enthalpy change of the reaction at 298K.
NH2CN(s) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O (l) ∆H = ?
Solution:
Given,
T = 298K ; ∆U = -742.4 kJ mol-1
∆H = ?
∆H = ∆U + ∆n(g)RT
∆H = ∆U + (np – nr) RT
∆H = – 742.4 +[2 – \(\frac {3}{2}\)] x 8.314 x 10-3 x 298
∆H = -742.4 + (0.5 x 8.314 x 10-3 x 298)
∆H = -742.4 + 1.24 .
∆H = -741.16 kJ mol-1

Question 63.
Calculate the enthalpy of hydrogenation of ethylene from the following data. Bond energies of C – H, C – C, C = C and H – Hare 414, 347, 618 and 435 kJ mol-1.
Solution:
Given
EC-H= 414 kJ mol-1
EC-C= 347 kJ mol-1
EC-C= 6l8 kJ mol-1
EH-H = 435 kJ mol-1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 9
∆Hr = Σ(Bond energy)r – Σ(Bond energy)p
∆Hr = (EC=C + 4EC-H + EH-H) – (EC-C + 6EC-H)
∆Hr = (618 + (4 × 414) + 315) – (347 + (6 ×414))
∆Hr = 2709 – 2831
∆Hr = -122 kJ mol-1

Question 64.
Calculate the lattice energy of CaCl2 from the given data
Ca(s) + Cl2(g) → CaCl2(s) ∆H°f = – 795 kJ mol-1
Atomisation:
Ca(s) → Ca(g) ∆H°1 = -795 kJ mol-1

Ionisation:
Ca(g) → Ca2+(g) + 2e-1
∆H°2 = 2422 kJ mol-1

Dissociation:
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g)
∆H°3 = + 242.8 kJ mol-1

Electron Affinity:
Cl(g) + e → Cl-1
∆H°4 = -355 kJ mol-1
Answer:
∆Hf = ∆H1 + ∆H2 + ∆H3+∆H4 + u
-795 = 121 + 2422 + 242.8 + (2 × -355) + u
-795 = 2785.8 – 710 + u
-795 = 2075.8 + u
u = -795 – 2075.8
u = -2870.8 kJ mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 65.
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction Fe203 + 3C0 – 2Fe + 3C02 from the following data.
2Fe + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2 → Fe2O3; ∆H = -741 kJ
C + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2 → CO; ∆H=-137kJ
C + O2 → CO2; ∆H = – 394.5 kJ
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 10

Question 66.
When 1-pentyne (A) is treated with 4N alcoholic KOH at 175°C, it is converted slowly into an equilibrium mixture of 1.3% 1-pentyne(A), 95.2% 2-pentyne(B), and 3.5% of 1,2 pentadiene (C) the equilibrium was maintained at 175°C, calculate ∆G° for the following equilibria.
B ⇌ A; ∆G°1 =?
B ⇌ C; ∆G°2 =?
Solution:
T = 175°C = 175 + 273 = 448 K
Concentration of 1 – pentyne [A] = 1.3%
Concentration of 2 – pentyne [B] = 95.2%
Concentration of 1, 2 – pentadiene [C] = 3.5%
At equiLibrium
B ⇌ A
95.2% 1.3% ⇒ K1 = \(\frac{3.5}{95.2}\) = 0.0 136
B ⇌ C
95.2% 3.5% ⇒ K1 = \(\frac{1.3}{95.2}\) = 0.0367
⇒ ∆G1° = -2.303 RT log K1
∆G1° = – 2.303 x 8.3 14 x 448 x log 0.0136
∆G1° = + 16010 J
∆G1° = + 16 kJ
⇒ ∆G2°= – 2.303 RT log K2
∆G2° = -2.303 x 8.314 x 448 x log 0.0367
∆G2° = + 12312 J
∆G2° = +12.312 kJ.

Question 67.
At 33K, N2O4 is fifty percent dissociated. Calculate the standard free energy change at this temperature and at one atmosphere.
Solution:
Given
T= 33 K
N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2
Initial concentration: 100%  0
Concentration dissociated 50% – Concentration remaining at equilibrium 50% 100%
Keq = \(\frac{100}{50}\) = 2
∆G° = -2.303 RT log Keq
∆G°= -2.303 × 8.314 × 33 × log 2
∆G° = -190.18 Jmol-1

Question 68.
The standard enthalpies of formation of SO2 and SO3 are – 297 kJ mol-1 and – 396 kJ mol-1 respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the reaction: SO +4-0 — SO
Solution:
Given,
∆Gf°(SO2) = – 297 KJ mol-1
∆Gf°(SO2) = – 297 KJ mol-1
SO2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2 → SO3 ∆Hr° = ?
∆Hr° = (∆Hf°)compound – ∑(∆Hf°)elements
∆Hr° = ∆Hf° (SO3) – [∆Hf° (SO2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∆Hf° (O2)]
∆Hr° = – 396 kJ mol-1 – (- 297 kJ mol-1 + 0)
∆Hr° = – 396 kJ mol-1+297
∆Hr° = – 99 kJmol-1

Question 69.
For the reaction at 298 K: 2A + B → C
∆H = 400 Jmol-1; ∆S = 0.2 JK∆ mol-1 Determine the temperature at which the reaction would be spontaneous.
Solution:
Given,
T = 298 ∆T
∆H = 400 J mol-1 = 400 J mol-1
∆S = 0.2 JK-1 mol-1
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
if T = 2000 K
∆G = 400 – (0.2 × 2000) = 0
if T > 2000 K
∆G will be negative. The reaction would be spontaneous only beyond 2000 K

Question 70.
Find out the value of equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298K,
2NH3 + CO2 ⇌ NH2CONH2 (aq) + H2O (l) Standard Gibbs energy change, ∆G°r at the given temperature is -13.6 kJ mol-1.
Solution:
Given:
T = 298 K
∆G°r = -13.6 kJ mol-1
= – 13600 J mol-1
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log Keq
log Keq = \(\frac{-\Delta G^{0}}{2.303 R T}\)

log Keq = \(\frac{13.6 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{2.303 \times 8.314 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{JK}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \times 298 \mathrm{~K}}\)

log Keq = 2.38
Keq = antilog (2.38)
Keq = 239.88

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 71.
A gas mixture of 3.67 lit of ethylene and methane on complete combustion at 25°C and at 1 atm pressure produces 6.11 lit of carbon dioxide. Find out the amount of heat evolved in kJ, during this combustion. (∆HC(CH4)) = -890 kJmol-1 and ∆HC(C2H4) = -1423 kJ mol-1
Solution:
Given
∆HC(CH4) = – 890 kJ mol-1
∆HC(C2H4) = -1423 kJ mol-1
Let the mixture contain x lit of CH4 and (3.67 – x) lit of ethylene.
CH4 + 2O2 → CO + 2H2O
x lit               x lit
C2H4 + 3O2 → 2 CO2 + 2H2O
(3.67 -x) lit 2 (3.67 -x) lit
Volume of Carbondioxide formed = x + 2(3.67 – x) = 6.11 lit
x + 7.34 – 2x = 6.11
7.34 – x = 6.11
x = 1.23 lit
Given mixture contains 1.23 lit of methane and 2.44 lit of ethylene, hence
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 11

11th Chemistry Guide Thermodynamics Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
When a liquid boils, there is ……….
(a) increase in entropy
(b) a decrease in entropy
(c) increase in heat of vaporization
(d) an increase in free energy
Answer:
(a) Increase in entropy

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a closed system?
(a) Hot water in a closed beaker
(b) Hot water in a thermos flask
(c) Hot water in an open beaker
(d) Chemical reactions
Answer:
(a) Hot water in a closed beaker

Question 3.
In which of the following process. the process is always non-feasible?
(a) ∆H >O, ∆S>O
(b) ∆H<O, ∆S>O
(c) ∆H >O, ∆S<O
(d) ∆H<O, ∆S>O
Answer:
(c) ∆H >O, ∆S<O

Question 4.
Which of the following is/are intensive properties?
1. refractive index
2. density
3. number of moles
4. molar volume
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1, 3 and 4

Question 5.
Which of the following process is feasible at all temperatures?
(a) ∆H>O.∆S>O
(b) ∆H>O.∆S<O
(c) ∆H<O.∆S>O
(d) ∆H<O.∆S<O
Answer:
(c) ∆H<O.∆S>O

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
Which of the following is/are state functions?
1. Pressure
2. work
3. internal energy
4. Free energy
5. heat
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(e) 1, 2 and 3
(d)2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1, 3 and 4

Question 7.
Calculate the entropy change of a process H2O(l) → H2O(g) at 373K. Enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40850 J Mole-1.
(a) 120 J K-1 mol-1
(b) 9.1 x 10 J K-1 mol-1
(c) 9.1 x 10 J K-1 mol-1
(d) 109.52 J K-1 mol-1
Answer:
(d) 109.52 J K-1 mol-1
Solution:
EnthaLpy of vaporization of water is = ∆H = 40850 J mol-1
Boiling point = 373 K = Tb
∆S = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{b}}}\) = \(\frac{40850}{373}\) = 109.517 = 109.52 JK-1  mol-1

Question 8.
Which is correct about internal energy, U?
(a) It is an extensive property
(b) It is a state function
(c) For a cyclic process. ∆U = 0.
(d) Change in internal energy is ∆U = Ui – Uf
Answer:
(a) It is an extensive property

Question 9.
Work done by’ a given system with an ideal gas in a reversible process is wrev =
(a) – nRln (Vf/Vi)
(b) – nRTln (Vi/Vf)
(c) – nRTln (Vf/Vi)
(d) – nTln (Vf/Vi)
Answer:
(c) – nRTln (Vf/Vi)

Question 10.
For a cyclic process involving isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
(a) ∆U = 0
(b) ∆U = q
(c) ∆U = q + w
(d) ∆U = q – w
Answer:
(a) ∆U = 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 11.
Choose the correct statement about enthalpy
(a) Enthalpy is a path function
(b) Enthalpy change ∆H = ∆U + V∆P
(c) In an endothermic process, ∆H = 0.
(d) In an exothermic process. ∆H is negative
Answer:
(d) In an exothermic process. ∆H is negative

Question 12.
Which ofthc following reactions correctly indicates the process of atomization?
(a) CH4 → CH3(g) + H(g)
(b) CH4(g) → CH(g) + 4H(g)
(c) CH(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NN3(g)
Answer:
(b) CH4(g) → CH(g) + 4H(g)

Question 13.
A reaction has both H and S negative. The rate of reaction
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) increases with decrease of temperature
(e) remains unaffected by change of temperature
(d) cannot be predicted for change in temperature
Answer:
(b) increases with decrease of temperature

Question 14.
Evaporation of water is
(a) an exothermic change
(b) an endothermic change
(e) a process where no heat changes occur
(d) a process accompanied by chemical reaction
Answer:
(b) an endothermic change

Question 15.
The entropy change for a non spontaneous reaction is 140 JK-1 mol at 298 K. The reaction is
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) exothermic
(d) endothermic
Answer:
(d) endothermic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 16.
The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction: Br2(l) +Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 kJ mol-1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in
equilibrium is
(a) 300 K
(b) 285.7 K
(c) 273 K
(d) 450 K
Answer:
(b) 285.7 K

Question 17.
Three moles ofan ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vaccum. The work done will be
(a) Infinite
(b) 3 JouIes
(c) 9 Joules
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) zero

Question 18.
If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be
(a) 10 J mol-1K-1
(b) 1.0 J mol-1K-1
(c) 0.1 J mol-1K-1
(d) 100 J mol-1K-1
Answer:
(d) 100 J mol-1K-1

Question 19.
Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H(g) → 2H2(g) is – 869.6 kJ
The dissociation energy of H-H bond is
(a) -434.8 kJ
(b) -869.6 kJ
(c) + 434.8 kJ
(d) +217.4 kJ
Answer:
(c) + 434.8 kJ

Question 20.
Which of the following will have the highest ∆Hvap Value?
(a) Acetone
(b) Ethanol
(c) Carbon tetrachloride
(d) Chloroform
Answer:
(b) Ethanol

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 21.
The total entropy change for a system and its surroundings increases, if the process is
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) exothermic
(d) endothermic
Answer:
(b) irreversible

Question 22.
∆S is positive for the change
(a) mixing of two gases
(b) boiling of liquid
(c) melting of solid
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 23.
If w1, w2, w3 and w4 are work done in isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric and isochoric reversible processes, the correct order (for expansion) will be
(a) w1 > w2 > w3 > w4
(b) w3 > w2 > w1 > w4
(c) w3 > w2 > w4 > w1
(d) w3 > w1 > w2 > w4
Answer:
(d) w3 > w1 > w2 > w4

Question 24.
The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ-1 mol-1 and the entropy of vaporization is 75 JK mol-1 The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is ……….
(a) 250 K
(b) 400 K
(c) 450 K
(d) 600 K
Answer:
(b) 400 K
Solution:
∆Hvap = 30 kJ mol-1 x 1000 = 30000 J mol-1
∆Svap = 75 J mol-1
Tb = Boiling point = ?
∆Svap = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{vap}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{b}}}\)
∴ Tb = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{vap}}}{\Delta \mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{vap}}}\) = \(\frac {30000}{75}\) = 400K
Tb = 400 K
Tb = 400 K

Question 25.
A hydrogen bond is very useful in determining the structures and properties of compounds. Its energy varies between
(a) 12 – 20 kJ /mol
(b) 50 – 100 kJ/mol
(c) 10 – 100 kJ/mol
(d) 75 – 200 kJ/mol
Answer:
(c) 10 – 100 kJ/mol

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 26.
In which of the enlisted cases, Hess’s law is not applicable?
(a) Determination of lattice energy
(b) Determination of resonance energy
(c) Determination of enthalpy of transformation of one allotropic form to another
(d) Determination of entropy
Answer:
(d) Determination of entropy

Question 27.
The amount of energy required to completely remove the constituent ions from its crystal lattice to an infinite distance is called
(a) lattice energy
(b) ionization energy
(c) internal energy
(d) free energy
Answer:
(a) lattice energy

Question 28.
Statement -1:
The allotropes of carbon, namely, graphite and diamond differ each other.
Statement -2:
They possess different internal energies and have different structures.
In the above statement/s
(a) 1 alone is correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Answer:
(c) both 1 and 2 are correct

Question 29.
Which of the following statement is incorrect? According to thermodynamics, work
(a) is a path function
(b) appears only at the boundary of the system
(c) appears during the change in the state of the system.
(d) surroundings is so large that macroscopic changes occurs in the surroundings
Answer:
(d) surroundings is so large that macroscopic changes occurs in the surroundings

Question 30.
The work done by a force of one Newton through a displacement of one meter is called
(a) joule
(b) calorie
(c) erg
(d) tesla
Answer:
(a) joule

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 31.
The enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid vs strong base is approximately equal to ________(in kJ).
(a) 57.32
(b) – 57.32
(c) 5.98
(d) – 5.98
Answer:
(b) – 57.32

Question 32.
The maximum efficiency of an automobile engine working between the temperatures 816°C and 21°C is
(a) 73 %
(b) 45%
(c) 67%
(d) 78%
Answer:
(b) 45%

Question 33.
A reaction that occurs under the given set of conditions without any external driving force is called a reaction.
(a) Reversible
(b) spontaneous
(c) irrversible
(d) cyclic
Answer:
(b) spontaneous

Question 34.
Which one of the following spontaneous reaction is endothermic?
(a) combustion of methane
(b) dissolution of ammonium nitrate
(c) acid-base neutralization reaction
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dissolution of ammonium nitrate

Question 35.
The available energy in the system to do work is called
(a) Gibbs free energy
(b) internal energy
(c) potential energy
(d) kinetic energy
Answer:
(a) Gibbs free energy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 36.
Which one of the following is incorrect about Gibbs free energy?
(a) Extensive property
(b) path function
(c) ∆G < 0 for a spontaneous process (d) ∆G > 0 for a non-spontaneous process
Answer:
(b) path function

Question 37.
Match the following:

(A) Adiabatic (i) dp = 0
(B) Isothermal (ii) dV = 0
(C) Isobaric (iii) dq = 0
(D) Isochoric (iv) dT = 0

(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
(b) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(c) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(d) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
Answer:
(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii

Question 38.
For a cyclic process involving isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, q =
(a) 0
(b) P∆V
(c) w
(d) – w
Answer:
(d) – w

Question 39.
In Calorimeter, the expression used to calculate the amount of heat change in the process is
(a) C = qm∆T
(b) C = m/q∆T
(c) C = q/m∆T
(d) C = q∆T/m
Answer:
(c) C = q/m∆T

Question 40.
“It is impossible to transfer heat from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir without doing some work”. This statement is given by
(a) Clausius
(b) Kelvin
(c) Gibbs
(d) Joule
Answer:
(a) Clausius

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

II. Very short question and answers (2 Marks):

Question 1.
What is the aim of the study of chemical thermodynamics?
Answer:
The main aim of the study of chemical thermodynamics is to learn

  • Transformation of energy from one form into another form.
  • Utilization of various forms of energies.
  • Change in the properties of system produced by chemical or physical effects.

Question 2.
What is a homogeneous system? Give an example.
Answer:
A system is called homogeneous if the physical state of all its constituents is the same. Example: a mixture of gases.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of thermodynamics?
Answer:

  • Thermodynamics suggests the feasibility of reaction but fails to suggest the rate of reaction. It is concerned only with the initial and the final states of the system. It is not concerned with the path by which the change occurs.
  • It does not reveal the mechanism of a process.

Question 4.
Define irreversible process.
Answer:
The process in which the system and surrounding cannot be restored to the initial state from the final state is called an irreversible process. All the processes occurring in nature are irreversible processes.

Question 5.
Define standard entropy change.
Answer:
The absolute entropy of a substance at 298 K and one bar pressure is called the standard entropy S°.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
What is Zeroth law of thermodynamics?
Answer:
The law states that’ If two systems are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they tends to be in thermal equilibrium with themselves’.

Question 7.
What is meant by open system? Give example.
Answer:

  • A system which can exchange both matter and energy with its surroundings is called an open system.
  • Hot water contained in an open beaker is an example for open system.
  • In this system, both water vapour and heat is transferred to the surroundings through the imaginary boundary.
  • All living things are open systems because they continuously exchange matter and energy with the surroundings.

Question 8.
Define the specific heat capacity of a system.
Answer:
The heat absorbed by one kilogram of a substance to raise its temperature by one Kelvin at a specified temperature.

Question 9.
What is a reversible process?
Answer:
The process in which the system and surrounding can be restored to the initial state from the final state without producing any changes in the thermodynamic properties of the universe is called a reversible process.

Question 10.
What is a thermodynamic process? Give two examples.
Answer:
The method of operation which can bring about a change in the system is called thermodynamic process.
Examples: Heating, Cooling, expansion.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 11.
Distinguish between state function and path function.
Answer:
A state function is a thermodynamic property of a system, which has a specific value for a given state and does not depend on the path by which the particular state is reached. A path function is a thermodynamic property of the system whose value depends on the path by which the system changes from its initial to final states.

Question 12.
Write any two characteristics of internal energy.
Answer:

  1. The internal energy of a system is an extensive property.
  2. The internal energy of a system is a state function.

Question 13.
Write the importance of internal energy.
Answer:
The internal energy possessed by a substance differentiates its physical structure. For example, the allotropes of carbon, namely, graphite C (graphite) and diamond C (diamond), differ from each other because they possess different internal energies and have different structures.

Question 14.
Write notes on heat.
Answer:
The heat (q) is regarded as an energy in transit across the boundary separating a system from its surrounding. Heat changes lead to temperature differences between system and surrounding. Heat is a path function.

Question 15.
Write the thermodynamic significance of work.
Answer:
The work

  1. is a path function.
  2. appears only at the boundary of the system.
  3. appears during the change in the state of the system.
  4. in thermodynamics, surroundings is so large that macroscopic changes to surroundings do not happen.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 16.
What is meant by pressure-volume work?
Answer:
In elementary thermodynamics the only type of work generally considered is the work done in expansion (or compression) of a gas. This is known as pressure-volume work, PV work or expansion work.

Question 17.
What is specific heat capacity of a system?
Answer:
The heat absorbed by one kilogram of a substance to raise its temperature by one Kelvin at a specified temperature is called specific heat capacity of a system.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Cv and Cp.
Answer:
The molar heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) is defined as the rate of change of internal energy with respect to temperature at constant volume. The molar heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp) can be defined as the rate of change of enthalpy with respect to temperature at constant pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

III. Short Question and Answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
What is internal energy?
Answer:
The internal energy of a system is equal to the energy possessed by all its constituents namely atoms, ions and molecules. The total energy of all molecules in a system is equal to the sum of their translational energy (Ut), vibrational energy (Uv), rotational energy (Ur), bond energy (Ub), electronic energy (Ue) and energy due to molecular interactions (Ui).
Thus:
U = Ut + Uv + Ur + Ub + Ue + Ui
The total energy of all the molecules of the system is called internal energy.

Question 2.
Give applications of bomb calorimeter.
Answer:

  1. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the amount of heat released in combustion reaction.
  2. It is used to determine the calorific value of food.
  3. Bomb calorimeter is used in many industries such as metabolic study, food processing, explosive testing etc.

Question 3.
What is Molar heat of fusion?
Answer:
The molar heat of fusion is defined as “the change in enthalpy when one mole of a solid substance is converted into the liquid state at its melting point”.
For example, the heat of fusion of ice
H2O(s) → H2O(l)
∆H(fusion) = +5.98 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 4.
Write any three statements of first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:

  1. Whenever an energy of a particular type disappears, an equivalent amount of another type must be produced.
  2. The total energy of a system and surrounding remains constant (or conserved)
  3. “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but may be converted from one form to another”.

Question 5.
Describe the need for the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
From the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is conserved. Let us consider the following processes:
A glass of hot water over time loses heat energy to the surrounding and becqmes cold.
When you mix hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide, it forms sodium chloride and water with evolution of heat.

In both these processes, the total energy is conserved and are consistent with the first law of thermodynamics. However, the reverse process i.e. cold water becoming hot water by absorbing heat from surrounding on its own does not occur spontaneously even though the energy change involved in this process is also consistent with the first law. However, if the heat energy is supplied to cold water, then it will become hot. i.e. the change that does not occur spontaneously and an be driven by supplying energy.

Question 6.
Write notes on entropy statement of second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The second law of thermodynamics can be expressed in terms of entropy, i.e “the entropy of an isolated system increases during a spontaneous process”.
For an irreversible process such as spontaneous expansion of a gas,
Stotal > 0
Stotal > Ssystem + Ssurrounding
i.e., Suniverse > Ssystem + Ssurrounding
For a reversible process such as melting of ice,
Ssystem = Ssurrounding
Suniverse = 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

IV. Long Question and Answers(5 Marks):

Question 1.
Explain steps to write thermochemical equations.
Answer:
A thermochemical equation is a balanced stoichiometric chemical equation that includes the enthalpy change (∆H). The following conventions are adopted in thermochemical equations:

  1. The coefficients in a balanced thermochemical equation refer to number of moles of reactants and products involved in the reaction.
  2. The enthalpy change of the reaction ∆Hr has to be specified with appropriate sign and unit.
  3. When the chemical reaction is reversed, the value of ∆H is reversed in sign with the same magnitude.
  4. The physical states (gas, liquid, aqueous, solid in brackets) of all species are important and must be specified in a thermochemical reaction, since ∆H depends on the physical state of reactants and products.
  5. If the thermochemical equation is multiplied throughout by a number, the enthalpy change is also multiplied by the same number.
  6. The negative sign of ∆Hr indicates that the reaction is exothermic and the positive sign of ∆Hr indicates an endothermic reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Hydrogen Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

11th Chemistry Guide Hydrogen Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Questions:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
(a) Hydrogen ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution.
(b) Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent.
(c) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
(d) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
Answer:
(c) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.

Question 2.
Water gas is
(a) H2O(g)
(b) CO + H2O
(c) CO + H2
(d) CO + N2
Answer:
(c) CO + H2

Question 3.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to ortho and para dihydrogen ?
(a) They are nuclear spin isomers
(b) Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin
(c) The para isomer is favoured at low temperatures
(d) The thermal conductivity of the para isomer is 50% greater than that of the ortho isomer.
Answer:
(b) Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin

Question 4.
Ionic hydrides are formed by
(a) halogens
(b) chalogens
(c) inert gases
(d) group one elements
Answer:
(d) group one elements

Question 5.
Tritium nucleus contains
(a) 1p + 0n
(b) 2p + 1n
(c) 1p + 2n
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) 1p + 2n

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 6.
Non-stoichiometric hydrides are formed by
(a) palladium, vanadium
(b) carbon, nickel
(c) manganese, lithium
(d) nitrogen, chlorine
Answer:
(b) carbon, nickel

Question 7.
Assertion:
Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
Reason:
Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 8.
If a body of a fish contains 1.2 g hydrogen in its total body mass, if all the hydrogen is replaced with deuterium then the increase in body weight of the fish will be
(a) 1.2 g
(b) 2.4 g
(c) 3.6 g
(d) \(\sqrt{4.8}\) g
Answer:
(a) 1.2 g

Question 9.
The hardness of water can be determined by volumetrically using the reagent
(a) sodium thiosulphate
(b) potassium permanganate
(c) hydrogen peroxide
(d) EDTA
Answer:
(d) EDTA

Question 10.
The cause of permanent hardness of water is due to
(a) Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Mg(HCO3)2
(c) CaCl2
(d) MgCO3
Answer:
(c) CaCl2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 11.
Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is, hydrated
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate
(b) Calcium aluminium silicate
(c) Zinc aluminium borate
(d) Lithium aluminium hydride
Answer:
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate

Question 12.
A commercial sample of hydrogen peroxide marked as 100 volume H2O2, it means that
(a) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP
(b) 1 L of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP
(c) 1 L of H2O2 will give 22.4 L O2
(d) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 1 mole of O2 at STP
Answer:
(a) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP

Question 13.
When hydrogen peroxide is shaken with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of
(a) Cr2O3
(b) CrO42-
(c) CrO(O2)2
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) CrO(O2)2

Question 14.
For decolourisation of 1mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

(c) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

(d) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 15.
Volume strength of 1.5 NH2O2 is
(a) 1.5
(b) 4.5
(c) 16.8
(d) 8.4
Answer:
(d) 8.4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 16.
The hybridisation of oxygen atom is H2O and H2O2 are, respectively
(a) sp and sp3
(b) sp and sp
(c) sp and sp2
(d) sp3 and sp3
Answer:
(d) sp3 and sp3

Question 17.
The reaction H3PO2 + D2O → H2DPO2 + HDO indicates that hypo-phosphorus acid is
(a) tribasic acid
(b) dibasic acid
(c) monobasic acid
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) monobasic acid
Solution:
Hypophosphorous acid on reaction with D2O, only one hydrogen is replaced by deuterium and hence it is monobasic.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 1

Question 18.
In solid ice, the oxygen atom is surrounded by
(a) tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms
(b) octahedrally by 2 oxygen and 4 hydrogen atoms
(c) tetrahedrally by 2 hydrogen and 2 oxygen atoms
(d) octahedrally by 6 hydrogen atoms
Answer:
(a) tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 2

Question 19.
The type of H-bonding present in ortho nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol are respectively
(a) intermolecular H-bonding and intra molecular f H-bonding
(b) intramolecular H-bonding and intermolecular H-bonding
(c) intramolecular H – bonding and no H – bonding
(d) intramolecular H -bonding and intramolecular H-bonding
Answer:
(b) intramolecular H-bonding and intermolecular H-bonding
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 3                          Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 4

Question 20.
Heavy water is used as
(a) the modulator in nuclear reactions
(b) coolant in nuclear reactions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Solution:
(c) Heavy water is used as a moderator as well as coolant in nuclear reactions.

Question 21.
Water is a
(a) basic oxide
(b) acidic oxide
(c) amphoteric oxide
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) amphoteric oxide
Solution:
Water is an amphoteric oxide.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 22.
Explain why hydrogen is not placed with the halogen in the periodic table.
Answer:

  • Hydrogen resembles alkali metals as well as halogens.
  • Hydrogen resembles more alkali metals than halogens.
  • The electron affinity of hydrogen is much less than that of halogen atoms. Hence the tendency to form hydride ion is low compared to that of halogens.
  • In most of its compounds hydrogen exists in a +1 oxidation state. Therefore it is reasonable to place the hydrogen in group 1 along with alkali metals as shown in the latest periodic table published by IUPAC.

Question 23.
A cube at 0°C is placed in some liquid water at 0°C, the ice cube sinks – Why?
Answer:
In ice, each atom is surrounded tetrahedrally by four water molecules through hydrogen bonds. That is, the presence of two hydrogen atoms and two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen atoms in each water molecule allows the formation of a three-dimensional structure.

This arrangement creates an open structure, which accounts for the lower density of ice compared with water at 0°C. While in liquid water, unlike ice where hydrogen bonding occurs over a long-range, the strong hydrogen bonding prevails only in a short-range and therefore the denser packing. Hence, the ice cube sinks in water.

Question 24.
Discuss the three types of Covalent hydrides.
Answer:

  1. They are the compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing electrons.
  2. The most common examples of covalent hydrides are methane, ammonia, water, and hydrogen chloride.
  3. Molecular hydrides of hydrogen are further classified into three categories,
    • Electron precise (CH4, C2 H6, SiH4, GeH4 )
    • Electron-deficient (B2 H6 ) and
    • Electron-rich hydrides (NH3 , H2O)
  4. Since most of the covalent hydrides consist of discrete, small molecules that have relatively weak intermolecular forces, they are generally gases or volatile liquids.

Question 25.
Predict which of the following hydrides is gas on a solid (a) HCl (b) NaH. Give your reason.
Answer:
Sodium hydride (NaH) is gas on a solid. NaH is prepared by direct reaction of hydrogen gas with liquid sodium and it has a NaCl crystal structure. It is a tendency of deprotonating in many organic reactions. NaH is used in fuel cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 26.
Write the expected formulas for the hydrides of 4th-period elements. What is the trend in the formulas? In what way the first two numbers of the series different from the others?
Answer:
The expected formulas for the hydrides of 4th-period elements MH4 (electron precise). M2H6 (electron-deficient) and MH3 (electron-rich).
The trend in the formula is

  • Electron precise hydrides – CH4 C2H6, SiH4, GeH4
  • Electron deficient hydrides – B2H6
  • Electron rich hydrides – NH3, H2O

The first two members of the series KH, CaH2 are ionic hydrides whereas the other members of the series CH4, C2H6, SiH4, B2H6, NH3 are covalent hydrides.

Question 27.
Write the chemical equation for the following reactions.
Answer:
(i) the reaction of hydrogen with tungsten (VI) oxide NO3 on heating.
(ii) hydrogen gas and chlorine gas.
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen can be used to reduce metal oxide into metal. Hydrogen reduces tungsten(VI) oxide into tungsten.
WO3 + 3H2 → W + 3H2O

(ii) Hydrogen reacts with chlorine at room temperature under light gives hydrogen chloride.
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

Question 28.
Complete the following chemical reactions and classify them into (a) hydrolysis (b) redox (c) hydration reactions.

  1. KMnO4 + H2O2
  2. CrCl3 + H2O →
  3. CaO + H2O →

Answer:

  1. 2KMnO4 + 3H2O2 → 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 3H2O + 3O2(g)
    This reaction is a redox reaction.
  2. CrCl3 + 6H2O2 → [Cr(H2O)6)] Cl3
    This reaction is a hydration reaction.
  3. CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
    This reaction is a hydrolysis reaction.

Question 29.
Hydrogen peroxide can function as an oxidizing agent as well as a reducing agent. Substantiate this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide can act both as an oxidizing agent and a reducing agent. Oxidation is usually performed in an acidic medium while the reduction reactions are performed in a basic medium.

In acidic conditions:
H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e → 2H2O (E° = +1.77 V)
For example
2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + H2O2 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2H2O

In basic conditions:
HO2 + OH → O2 + H2O + 2e (E° = + 0.08V)

For Example,
2 KMnO4(aq) + 3H2O2(aq) → 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 2H2O + 3O2(g)

Question 30.
Do you think that heavy water can be used for drinking purposes?
Answer:

  • Heavy water (D2O) contains a proton and a neutron. This makes deuterium about twice as heavy as protium, but it is not radioactive. So heavy water is not radioactive.
  • If you drink heavy water, you don’t need to worry about radiation poisoning. But it is not completely safe to drink, because the biochemical reaction in our cells is affected by the difference in the mass of hydrogen atoms.
  • If you drink an appreciable volume of heavy water, you might feel dizzy because of the density difference. It would change the density of the fluid in your inner ear. So it is unlikely to drink heavy water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 31.
What is the water-gas shift reaction?
Answer:
The carbon monoxide of the water gas can be converted to carbon dioxide by mixing the gas mixture with more steam at 400°C and passed over a shift converter containing iron/copper catalyst. This reaction is called as water-gas shift reaction.
CO + H2O → CO2 + H2
The CO2 formed in the above process is absorbed in a solution of potassium carbonate.
CO2 + K2CO3 + H2O → 2KHCO3

Question 32.
Justify the position of hydrogen in the periodic table?
Answer:
Hydrogen resembles alkali metals in the following aspects.

  1. Electronic configuration 1s1 as alkali metals have ns1.
  2. Hydrogen forms unipositive H+ ion like alkali metals Na+, K+.
  3. Hydrogen form halides (HX), oxides (H2O) peroxide (H2O2) like alkali metals (NaX. Na2O, Na2O2).
  4. Hydrogen also acts as a reducing agent like alkali metals. Hydrogen resembles halogens in the following aspects.
  5. Hydrogen has a tendency to gain one electron to form hydride ion (H) as halogens to form halide ion. (X).
  6. Comparing the properties of hydrogen with alkali metals and with halogens, we can conclude that hydrogen resembles more alkali metals. In most of the compounds, hydrogen exists in a +1 oxidation state.
  7. Therefore, it is reasonable to place the hydrogen in group 1 along with alkali metals as shown in the latest periodic table published by IUPAC.

Question 33.
What are isotopes? Write the names of isotopes of hydrogen.
Answer:
Atoms of the same element having same atomic number and different mass number are called isotopes.
Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes, viz., protium (1H1 or H), deuterium (1H2 or D) and tritium (1H3 or T). Protium 1H1 is the predominant form (99.985 %) and it is the only isotope that does not contain a neutron. Deuterium, also known as heavy hydrogen, constitutes about 0.015 %. The third isotope, tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen which occurs only in traces (~1 atom per 1018 hydrogen atoms). Due to the existence of these isotopes naturally occurring hydrogen exists as H2, HD, D2, HT, T2, and DT.

Question 34.
Give the uses of heavy water.
Answer:

  1. Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors as it can lower the energies of fast-moving neutrons.
  2. D2O is commonly used as a tracer to study organic reaction mechanisms and the mechanism of metabolic reactions.
  3. It is also used as a coolant in nuclear reactors as it absorbs the heat generated.

Question 35.
Explain the exchange reactions of deuterium.
Answer:
When compounds containing hydrogen are treated with D2O, hydrogen undergoes an exchange for deuterium. This reaction is known as the exchange reaction of deuterium.
2NaOH + D2O → 2NaOD + HOD

HCl + D2O → DCl + HOD

NH4Cl + 4D2O → ND4Cl + 4HOD

These exchange reactions are useful in determining the number of ionic hydrogens present in a given compound. For example, when D2O is treated with hypo-phosphorus acid only one hydrogen atom is exchanged with deuterium. It indicates that it is a monobasic acid.
H3PO2 + D2O → H2DPO2 + HDO
It is also used to prepare some deuterium compounds:

Al4C3 + 12D2O → 4Al(OD)3 + 3CD4
CaC2 + 2D2O → Ca(OD)2 + C2D2
Mg3N2 + 6D2O → 3Mg(OD)2 + 2ND3
Ca3P2 + 6D2O → 3Ca(OD)2 + 2PD3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 36.
How do you convert parahydrogen into ortho hydrogen?
Answer:
Para hydrogen can be converted into ortho hydrogen in the following ways:

  • By treating with catalysts platinum or iron.
  • Bypassing an electric discharge
  • By heating > 800°C.
  • By mixing with paramagnetic molecules such as O2, NO, NO2.
  • By treating with nascent/atomic hydrogen.

Question 37.
Mention the uses of deuterium.
Answer:

  1. Deuterium is used to prepare heavy water which is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
  2. Deuterium exchange reactions are useful in determining the number of ionic hydrogens present in a given compound.
  3. It is also used to prepare some deuterium compounds.

Question 38.
Explain the preparation of hydrogen using electrolysis.
Answer:
High purity of hydrogen (>99.9%) is obtained by the electrolysis of water containing traces of acid or alkali or electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide using a nickel anode and iron cathode. This process is not economical for large-scale production.
At anode : 2OH → H2O + ½ O2 + 2e
At cathode : 2H2O + 2e → 2OH + H2
Overall reaction : H2O → H2 + 14 O2

Question 39.
A group-1 metal (A) which is present ¡n common salt reacts with (B) to give compound (C) in which hydrogen is present in -1 oxidation state. (B) on reaction with gas to give universal solvent (D). The compound (D) reacts with (A) to give (B), a strong base. Identify A, B, C, D, and E. Explain the reactions.
Answer:
The metal that belongs to Group-1 which is present in common salt is Sodium(A).
The metal reacts with (B) to give compound (C) in which hydrogen is present in a -1 oxidation state.
2Na + H2 → 2NaH
Hence, the (B) is hydrogen, and (C) is sodium hydride. (B) on reaction with gas to give universal solvent (D).
H2 + O2 → 2NaOH
The universal solvent (D) is water. The compound (D) on reaction with (A) to give (E) which is a strong base.
H2O + 2Na → 2NaOH
The Compound (E) is Sodium hydroxide.
A – Sodium (Na)
B – Hydrogen (H2)
C – Sodium Hydride (NaH)
D – Water (H2O)
E – Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)

Question 40.
An isotope of hydrogen (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element which occupies group number 16 and period number 2 to give compound (B) is used as a moderatorin nuclear reaction. (A) adds on to a compound (C), which has the molecular formula C3H6 to give (D). Identify A, B, C and D.
Answer:
An isotope of hydrogen (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element which occupies group number 16 and period number 2 to give compound (B) is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction.
2D2 + O2 → 2D2O
The isotope of hydrogen is deuterium(A), diatomic element is oxygen and the compound (B) is heavy water.
(A) adds on to a compound (C), which has the molecular formula C3H6 to give (D).
CH3 – CH = CH2 + D2 → CH3 – CHD – CH2D
(C)                                     (D)
The compound (C) is propene and (D) is 1, 2 deutropropane.
A – Deuterium (D2)
B – Heavy water (D2O)
C – Propene (CH3 – CH = CH2)
D – 1, 2 deutero propene (CH3 – CHD – CH2D)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 41.
NH3 has an exceptionally high melting point and boiling point as compared to those of the hydrides of the remaining element of group 15- Explain.
Answer:
When a hydrogen atom is covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom such as nitrogen, the bond is polarized. Due to this effect, the polarized hydrogen atom is able to form a weak electrostatic interaction with another electronegative atom present in the vicinity.

This interaction is called hydrogen bonding. Hence, NH3 has an exceptionally high melting point and boiling point as compared to those of the hydrides of the remaining element of group 15 due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 42.
Why interstitial hydrides have a lower density than the parent metal?
Answer:

  • d block elements form metallic or interstitial hydrides, on heating with dihydrogen under pressure.
  • Hydrogen atoms being small in size occupy some in the metallic lattice producing distortion without any change in its type.
  • The densities of these hydrides are lower than those of metals from which they are formed since the crystal lattice expands due to the inclusion of dihydrogen.

Question 43.
How do you expect the metallic hydrides to be useful for hydrogen storage?
Answer:
Metallic hydrides are usually obtained by hydrogenation of metals and alloys in which hydrogen occupies the interstitial sites (voids). Most of the hydrides are non-stoichiometric with variable composition (TiH 1.5 – 1.8 and PdH0.6 – 0.8), some are relatively light, inexpensive, and thermally unstable which makes them useful for hydrogen storage applications.

Question 44.
Arrange NH3, H2O, and HF in the order of increasing magnitude of hydrogen bonding and explain the basis for your arrangement.
Answer:

  • The increasing magnitude of hydrogen bonding among NH3, H2O, and HF is HF > H2O > NH3
  • The extent of hydrogen bonding depends upon electronegativity and the number of hydrogen atoms available for bonding.
  • Among N, F, and O the increasing order of their electronegativities are N < O, H2O > NH3.

Question 45.
Compare the structures of HO and HO.
Answer:
Both in gas-phase and liquid-phase, the molecule adopts a skew confirmation due to repulsive interaction of the OH bonds with lone-pairs of electrons on each oxygen atom. Indeed, it is the smallest molecule known to show hindered rotation about a single bond.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 5
H2O2 has a non-polar structure. The molecular dimensions in the gas phase and solid phase differ as shown in the figure. Structurally, H2O2 is represented by the dihydroxyl formula in which the two OH-groups do not lie in the same plane.

One way of explaining the shape of hydrogen peroxide is that the hydrogen atoms would lie on the pages of a partly opened book, and the oxygen atoms along the spine. In the solid phase of the molecule, the dihedral angle reduces to 90.2° due to hydrogen bonding and the O-O-H angle expands from 94.8° to 101.9°. Water has a bent structure and the H-O-H bond angle is 104.5°.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

11th Chemistry Guide Hydrogen Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following elements mostly present in the sun and the stars?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Lithium
(c) Helium
(d) Beryllium
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen

Question 2.
Hydrogen has similarities with
(a) Alkali metals and halogens
(b) Alkaline earth metals and halogens
(c) Alkalimetals and noble gases
(d) Halogens and noble gases.
Answer:
(a) Alkali metals and halogens

Question 3.
At room temperature normal hydrogen consists of …………….
(a) 25% ortho form + 75% para form
(b) 50% ortho form + 50% para form
(c) 75% ortho form + 25% para form
(d) 60% ortho form + 40% para form
Answer:
(c) 75% ortho form + 25% para form

Question 4.
Ionization energy of hydrogen is (in kJ mol-1)
(a) 377
(b) 520
(c) 1413
(d) 1314
Answer:
(d) 1314

Question 5.
Consider the following statements:
(i) In the ortho form of the hydrogen molecule, the nuclear spins are opposed to each other
(ii) The magnetic moment of para-hydrogen is twice that of ortho hydrogen
(iii) By passing an electric discharge, para-hydrogen can be converted into ortho hydrogen. Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 6.
The predominant isotope of hydrogen is
(a) deuterium
(b) protium
(c) tritium
(d) heavy hydrogen
Answer:
(b) protium

Question 7.
The magnetic moment of para-hydrogen is ……………
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) twice
(d) maximum
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 8.
The number of naturally occurring hydrogens due to the existence of isotopes is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 9.
The half-life period of tritium is ……………..
(a) 123.3 year
(b) 12.33 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 1600 years
Answer:
(a) 12.33 years

Question 10.
The correct order of melting point of isotopes of hydrogen is
(a) H < D < T
(b) T < D < H
(c) H < T < D
(d) D < H < T
Answer:
(a) H < D < T

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 11.
Which one of the following is used to study the movements of groundwater?
(a) Deuterium
(b) Protium
(c) Tritium
(d) HD
Answer:
(a) Deuterium

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is correct about ortho-para hydrogen?
(a) The magnetic moment of para-hydrogen is twice that of a proton.
(b) Ortho form is more stable than para form
(c) Ortho form can be catalytically converted into the para form using platinum.
(d) At room temperature, normal hydrogen consists of 75% para form.
Answer:
(b) Ortho form is more stable than para form

Question 13.
Which of the following is produced by the bombardment of neutrons with lithium?
(a) Deuterium
(b) Protium
(c) Tritium
(d) Beryllium
Answer:
(c) Tritium

Question 14.
During electrolysis of water containing traces of acid, hydrogen is liberated at
(a) cathode
(b) anode
(c) both anode and cathode
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) cathode

Question 15.
Which of the following mixture of gases is called water gas?
(a) CO2(g)  + H2(g)
(b) CO2(g) + N2(g)
(c) CO(g) + H2(g)
(d) N2(g) + H2(g)
Answer:
(c) CO(g) + H2(g)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 16.
The catalyst used in the water gas shift reaction is
(a) Copper
(b) Nickel
(c) Platinum
(d) Palladium
Answer:
(a) Copper

Question 17.
The products formed during the cracking long chain hydrocarbon C6H12 are
(a) CO2 + H2O
(b) CO + H2
(c) C6H10 + H2
(d) C6H6 + 3H2
Answer:
(d) C6H6 + 3H2

Question 18.
The percentage of heavy water in normal water is
(a) 1.6 × 104
(b) 1.6 × 10-4
(c) 1.6 × 10-3
(d) 1.6 × 102
Answer:
(b) 1.6 × 10-4

Question 19.
Hydrogen combines with carbon monoxide in the presence of copper catalyst will synthesize
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methane
(c) Methanol
(d) Methanal
Answer:
(c) Methanol

Question 20.
Lithium Aluminium Hydride is
(a) [LiAlH3]
(b) Li[Al2H4]
(c) Li[AlH2]
(d) Li[AlH4]
Answer:
(d) Li[AlH4]

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 21.
Deuterium oxide is called
(a) hard water
(b) soft water
(c) heavy water
(d) heavy hydrogen
Answer:
(c) heavy water

Question 22.
Ammonia is synthesized by ______ process.
(a) Haber’s
(b) Bergius
(c) Decon’s
(d) Solvay
Answer:
(b) Bergius

Question 23.
Which of the following process is important in the food industry?
(a) Dehydration
(b) Dehalogenation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Carboxylation
Answer:
(c) Hydrogenation

Question 24.
The high melting and boiling points of water is due to
(a) Covalent bonding
(b) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Ionic bonding
(d) co-ordinate bonding
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen bonding

Question 25.
Which of the following is used for cutting and welding?
(a) Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches
(b) Liquid hydrogen
(c) Calcium hydride
(d) Sodium boro hydride
Answer:
(a) Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 26.
Water is an ______ oxide.
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) amphoteric
(d) neutral
Answer:
(a) acidic

Question 27.
Which one of the following is a universal solvent?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Ether
(c) CCl4
(d) Water
Answer:
(d) Water

Question 28.
In CuSO4.5H2O, the number of water molecules forms co-ordinate bonds is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 29.
Water does not react with
(a) Sodium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Beryllium
(d) Calcium
Answer:
(c) Beryllium

Question 30.
The number of water molecules in a hydrated crystal of Chromium chloride salt is
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 31.
Which set of metals does not have any effect on water?
(a) Ag, Au, Pt
(b) Na, Mg, Al
(c) Fe, Ca, Zn
(d) Fe, Pb, Na
Answer:
(a) Ag, Au, Pt

Question 32.
Temporary hardness of water is removed by ______ method.
(a) Dewar
(b) Clark’s
(c) Leibeg
(d) Haber
Answer:
(b) Clark’s

Question 33.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Silver, Gold, Mercury, and Platinum do not have any effect on water.
(ii) Carbon, Sulphur, and Phosphorous do not react with water.
(iii) Beryllium reacts with waterlessness violently.
Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 34.
The ion exchange bed used for the softening of hard water is
(a) Borates
(b) Zeolites
(c) Fluorides
(d) Phosphates
Answer:
(b) Zeolites

Question 35.
Water is an/a oxide.
(a) neutral
(b) acidic
(c) basic
(d) amphoteric
Answer:
(d) amphoteric

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 36.
________ reactions are useful in determining the number of ionic hydrogens present in a given compound.
(a) Oxygen exchange
(b) Metal exchange
(c) Deuterium exchange
(d) Deuterium decomposition
Answer:
(c) Deuterium exchange

Question 37.
Which one of the following is used as water softener?
(a) Zeolites
(b) lime
(c) washing soda
(d) bleaching powder
Answer:
(a) Zeolites

Question 38.
Autoxidation of 2-alkyl anthraquinol gives
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Heavy water
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 39.
Which of the following is used to remove toxic and heavy metals from water?
(a) zeolites
(b) magnesia
(c) Bleaching agent
(d) lime
Answer:
(a) zeolites

Question 40.
Hydrogen peroxide solutions are stored in ______ container
(a) glass
(b) alkali metal
(c) plastic
(d) wooden
Answer:
(c) plastic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 41.
Consider the following statements.
(i) H2O2 is a powerful oxidising agent.
(ii) H2O2 is stored in dark coloured bottles
(iii) H2O2 is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 42.
Disproportionation of hydrogen peroxide gives
(a) oxygen and hydrogen
(b) hydrogen and water
(c) hydrogen and ozone
(d) oxygen and water
Answer:
(d) oxygen and water

Question 43.
Which one of the following is prepared in the industry by the auto-oxidation of 2-alkylanthraquional?
(a) Heavy water
(b) Deuterium
(c) Hydrogen peroxide
(d) Tritium
Answer:
(c) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 44.
White pigment is
(a) Pb2(OH)2(C03)3
(b) Pb3(OH)2(C03)2
(c) Pb3(OH)(CO3)2
(d) Pb2(OH)(CO3)3
Answer:
(b) Pb3(OH)2(C03)2

Question 45.
Which one of the following is an electron-deficient hydride?
(a) C2H6
(b) B2H6
(c) GeH4
(d) CH4
Answer:
(b) B2H6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 46.
Compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing of electrons are called _________ hydrides.
(a) Interstitial
(b) Molecular
(c) Saline
(d) Metallic
Answer:
(b) Molecular

Question 47.
Which one of the following is not a covalent hydride?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Methane
(c) Lithium hydride
(d) water
Answer:
(e) Lithium hydride

Question 48.
Each water molecule is linked to ______ other molecules through hydrogen bonds.
(a) five
(b) four
(c) six
(d) two
Answer:
(b) four

Question 49.
Which one of the following is used for hydrogen storage applications?
(a) Saline hydrides
(b) Interstitial hydrides
(c) covalent hydrides
(d) molecular hydrides
Answer:
(b) Interstitial hydrides

Question 50.
Hypo-phosphorus is a ______ acid.
(a) dibasic
(b) tribasic
(c) monobasic
(d) tetrabasic
Answer:
(c) monobasic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

II. Very Short Question and Answers (2 Marks):

Question 1.
What are the isotopes of hydrogen?
Answer:
Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes, viz., protium (1H1 or H), deuterium (1H2 or D) and tritium (1H3 or T).

Question 2.
What is the nuclear reaction that takes place in the sun and other stars?
Answer:
The sun and other stars are composed mainly of 85 – 95% hydrogen which generates their energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium.

Question 3.
How is tritium prepared?
Answer:
Tritium is artificially prepared by bombarding lithium with slow neutrons in a nuclear fission reactor. The nuclear transmutation reaction for this process is as follows.
\({ }_{3}^{6} L i\) + \({ }_{0}^{1} n\) → \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\) + \({ }_{1}^{3} T\)

Question 4.
What are ortho and para hydrogens?
Answer:
In the hydrogen atom, the nucleus has a spin. When molecular hydrogen is formed, the spins of two hydrogen nuclei can be in the same direction or in the opposite direction as shown in the figure. These two forms of hydrogen molecules are called ortho and para hydrogens respectively.

Question 5.
Write the different forms of naturally occurring hydrogen?
Answer:
Due to the existence of three isotopes of hydrogen, Protium (H), Deuterium (D) and Tritium(T), naturally occurring hydrogen exists as H2, HD, D2, HT, T2, and DT.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 6.
Why hydrogen gas is used as fuel?
Answer:
Hydrogen burns in the air, virtually free from pollution, and produces a significant amount of energy. This reaction is used in fuel cells to generate electricity.
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) + energy

Question 7.
How is pure hydrogen prepared?
Answer:
High purity hydrogen (> 99.9 %) is obtained by the electrolysis of water containing traces of acid or alkali or the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide using a nickel anode and iron cathode. However, this process is not economical for large-scale production.
At anode:
2OH → H2O + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2 + 2e

At cathode:
2H2O + 2e → 2OH + H2

Overall reaction:
H2O → H2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2

Question 8.

how ¡s methanol synthesized from hydrogen? Give the uses of methanol.
Answer:

  • Huge quantities of hydrogen are used for the synthesis of methanol from carbon monoxide in presence of a copper catalyst.
    CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(l)
  •  Methanol is an industrial solvent and a starting material for the manufacture of formaldehyde used in making plastics.

How is hydrogen prepared by steam reforming reaction?
Answer:
Hydrogen is produced on large scale by steam-reforming of hydrocarbons. In this method, a hydrocarbon such as methane is mixed with steam and passed over a nickel catalyst in the range 800- 900°C and 35 atm pressure.
CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2

Question 9.
What is water gas? How is it prepared?
Answer:
The mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen is called water gas. When steam is passed over a red-hot coke to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The mixture of gases produced in this way is known as water gas (CO + H2).
C + H2O → (CO + H2)Water gas /Syngas

Question 10.
How is hydrogen used in metallurgy? Prove it with an example.
Answer:
In metallurgy, for the extraction of pure metals from their mineral sources, hydrogen is used to reduce many metal oxides to metals at high temperatures.
CuO(s) +H2(g) → Cu(s) +H(2)O(g)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 11.
How is Deuterium prepared?
Answer:
Normal water contains 1.6 × 10-4 percentage of heavy water. The dissociation of protium water (H2O) is more than heavy water (D2O). Therefore, when water is electrolysed, hydrogen is liberated much faster than D2. The electrolysis is continued until the resulting solution becomes enriched in heavy water. Further electrolysis of the heavy water gives deuterium.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 6

Question 12.
What happens when steam is passed over red hot iron?
Answer:
When steam is passed over a red hot iron, the iron oxide will be formed with the release of hydrogen.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(l) → Fe3O + 4H4(g)

Question 13.
Write the physical properties of hydrogen.
Answer:
Hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, lightest, and highly flammable gas. It is a non-polar diatomic molecule. It can be liquefied under low temperature and high pressure. Hydrogen is a good reducing agent.

Question 14.
What is the temporary hardness of water? How is it removed?
Answer:
Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium. By heating/boiling, these salts decomposed into insoluble carbonate and hydroxide, respectively. The resulting precipitates can be removed by filtration.
Ca (HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(l)
Mg(HCO3)2(aq) → Mg(OH)2(s) + CO2(g)

Question 15.
Write the physical properties of water.
Answer:
Water is a colourless and volatile liquid. The peculiar properties of water in the condensed phases are due to the presence of inter molecular hydrogen bonding between water molecules. Hydrogen bonding is responsible for the high melting and boiling points of water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 16.
How would you prepare Hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide can be prepared by adding a metal peroxide to dilute acid.
BaO2(s)+ H2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + H3O2(aq)

Question 17.
What is hard water? Give its types.
Answer:
Hard water contains high amounts of mineral ions. The most common ions found in hard water are the soluble metal cations such as magnesium & calcium, though iron, aluminium, and manganese may also be found in certain areas. The presence of these metal salts in the form of bicarbonate, chloride, and sulphate in water makes water ‘hard’.

Question 18.
What is meant by the temporary hardness of water?
Answer:
Temporary hardness is primarily due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium.

Question 19.
Why the bond angle in the solid phase of H2O2 is reduced when compared to the gas phase of H2O2?
Answer:
Both the gas phase and solid phase, H2O2 adopt a skew configuration due to the repulsive interaction of the OH bonds with lone pairs of electrons on each oxygen atom. Indeed, it is the smallest molecule known to show hindered rotation about a single bond. In the solid phase, the dihedral angle is sensitive and hydrogen bonding decreases from 111.50 in the gas phase to 90.2 in the solid phase.

Question 20.
What are zeolites? Give its use.
Answer:
Zeolites are hydrated sodium alumino-silicates with a general formula, NaO.Al2O3 .xSiO2 .yH2O (x = 2 to 10, y = 2 to 6). Zeolites have a porous structure in which the monovalent sodium ions are loosely held and can be exchanged with hardness-producing metal ions (M = Ca or Mg) in water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 21.
Prove that Hydrogen peroxide is a vigorous oxidizing agent and the solution of H2O2 is slightly acidic.
Answer:
H2 O2(aq) + 2 H2O(l) ⇌ H3 O+(aq) + HO+2(aq)

H3O+ Hydronium ion formation proves that solution of H2O2 is acidic. Because it donates H+ to H2O to form H3O+ ion.
H2O2 oxidizes Ferrous sulphate to Ferric sulphate in an acidic medium.
2FeSO4(aq) + H2SO4(aq) + H4O2(aq) ⇌ Fe2(SO4)3(aq)( + 2H2O(l)

Question 22.
What is the effect of shielding on ionization energy?
Answer:
As we move down a group, the number of inner shell electron increases which in turn increases the repulsive force exerted by them on the valence electrons, i.e., the increased shielding effect caused by the inner electrons decreases the attractive force acting the valence electron by the nucleus. Therefore, the ionization energy decreases.

Question 23.
What are ternary hydrides? Give example?
Answer:
Ternary hydrides are compounds in which the molecule is constituted by hydrogen and two types of elements, e.g., LiBH4 or LiAlH4.

Question 24.
How is hydrogen peroxide prepared?
Answer:
It can be prepared by treating metal peroxide with dilute acid.
BaO2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + H2O2

Na2O2 + H2SO2 → Na2SO4 + H2O2

Question 25.
What are hydrides? How are they classified?
Answer:
Hydrogen forms binary compounds with many electropositive elements including metals and non¬metals are called hydrides. It also forms ternary hydrides with two metals. E.g., LiBH4 and LiAlH4. The hydrides are classified as ionic, covalent and metallic hydrides according to the nature of bonding.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 26.
Write a note about gas hydrates.
Answer:
Gas hydrates are a kind of inclusion compound, where gas molecules are trapped in the crystal lattice having voids of the right size, without being chemically bonded. An interesting hydrate is that of the hydronium ion (H2O) in the gas phase, similar to methane hydrate. Each water molecule is bonded to three others in the dodecahedron.

Question 27.
What are intra and inter-molecular hydrogen bonding?
Answer:
Hydrogen bonds can occur within a molecule is called intramolecular hydrogen bonding whereas between two molecules of the same type or different type is called intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

III. Short Questions and Answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
Write notes on water-gas shift reaction?
Answer:
The carbon monoxide of the water gas can be converted to carbon dioxide by mixing the gas mixture with more steam at 400°C and passed over a shift converter containing iron/copper catalyst. This reaction is called as water-gas shift reaction.
CO + H2O → CO2 + H2

The CO4 formed in the above process is absorbed in a solution of potassium carbonate.
CO2 + K2CO3 + H2O → 2KHCO3

Question 2.
Can we use concentrated sulphuric acid and pure zinc in the preparation of dihydrogen?
Answer:
Cone. H2SO4 cannot be used because it acts as an oxidizing agent also and gets reduced to SO2
Zn + 2H2SO4 (Conc.) → ZnSO4 + 2H2O + SO2
Pure Zn is not used because it is non-porous and the reaction will be slow. The impurities in Zn help in the constitute the electrochemical couple and speed up the reaction.

Question 3.
Write notes on isotopes of hydrogen.
Answer:
Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes, viz., protium (1H1 or H), deuterium (1H2 or D) and tritium (1H3 or T). Protium (1H1) is the predominant form (99.985 %) and it is the only isotope that does not contain a neutron.
Deuterium, also known as heavy hydrogen, constitutes about 0.015%. The third isotope, tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen which occurs only in traces (~1 atom per 1018 hydrogen atoms). Due to the existence of these isotopes naturally occurring hydrogen exists as H2, HD, D2, HT, T2, and DT.

Question 4.
What are ortho and para hydrogen? How will you convert one form into another?
Answer:
In the hydrogen atom, the nucleus has a spin. When molecular hydrogen is formed, the spins of two hydrogen nuclei can be in the same direction or in the opposite direction as shown in the figure. These two forms of hydrogen molecules are called ortho and para hydrogens respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 7

At room temperature, normal hydrogen consists of about 75% ortho-form and 25% para-form. As the ortho-form is more stable than para-form, the conversion of one isomer into the other is a slow process. However, the equilibrium shifts in favour of para hydrogen when the temperature is lowered.

The para-form can be catalytically transformed into ortho-form using platinum or iron. Alternatively, it can also be converted by passing an electric discharge, heating above 800°C and mixing with paramagnetic molecules such as O2, NO, NO2 or with nascent/atomic hydrogen.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 5.
Discuss the methods of preparation of hydrogen.
Answer:
High purity hydrogen (> 99.9%) is obtained by the electrolysis of water containing traces of acid or alkali or the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide using a nickel anode and iron cathode. However, this process is not economical for large-scale production.
At Anode:
2OH → H2O + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2 + 2e

At Cathode:
2H2O + 2e → 2OH + H2

Overall Reaction:
H2O → H2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2
Hydrogen is conveniently prepared in the laboratory by the reaction of metals, such as zinc, iron, tin with dilute acid.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 8
Laboratory preparation of Hydrogen

Question 6.
Write the chemical reactions to show the amphoteric nature of water.
Answer:
Water is amphoteric in nature and it behaves both as an acid as well as the base. With acids stronger than themselves (e.g., H2S) it behaves as a base, and with bases stronger than themselves (e.g., NH3) it acts as an acid.

  1. As a base : H2O(l) + H2S(aq) → H3 O(aq) + HS(aq)
  2. As an acid : H2O(l) + NH3(aq) → OH(aq) + NH+4(aq)

Question 7.
Write the reaction of halogens with water.
Answer:
The halogens react with water to give an acidic solution. For example, chlorine forms hydrochloric acid and hypo chlorous acid. It is responsible for the antibacterial action of chlorine water, and for its use as bleach.
Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl
Fluorine reacts differently to liberate oxygen from water.
2F2 + 2H2O → 4HF + O2

Question 8.
Discuss the nature of hydrated salts with suitable examples.
Answer:
Many salts crystallized from aqueous solutions form hydrated crystals. The water in the hydrated salts may form a co-ordinate bond or just present in interstitial positions of crystals.
Examples: Cr(H2O6) Cl3) – All six water molecules form a coordinate bond. BaCl2.2H2O – Both the water molecules are present in interstitial positions.
CuSO4 .5H2O – In this compound four water molecules form co-ordinate bonds while the fifth water molecule, present outside the coordination, can form an intermolecular hydrogen bond with another molecule. [Cu(H2O)4]SO4. H2O.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 9.
Distinguish between Hard water and Soft water.
Answer:
Hard water:

  • The presence of magnesium and calcium in the form of bicarbonate, chloride, and sulfate in water makes hard water.
  • The cleaning capacity of soap is reduced when used in hard water.
  • When hard water is boiled deposits of insoluble carbonates of magnesium and calcium are obtained.

Soft water:

  • The presence of soluble salts of calcium and magnesium in water makes it soft water.
  • The cleaning capacity of soap is more when used in soft water.
  • When soft water is boiled, there is no deposition of salts.

Question 10.
How is the temporary hardness of water removed by Clark’s method?
Answer:
In Clark’s method, the calculated amount of lime is added to hard water containing magnesium and calcium, and the resulting carbonates and hydroxides can be filtered off.
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
Mg(HCO3) + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3+ Mg(OH)2 + 2H2O

Question 11.
Describe ion exchange method of softening water (or) Explain Zeolite (or) Permutit process.
Answer:

  1. Hardness can be removed by passing through an ion-exchange bed like zeolites or resin-containing column. Thus, the zeolites work as a water softeners.
  2. Zeolites are hydrated sodium alumini-silicates with a general formula, NaO.Al2O3.xSiO2.yH2O (x = 2 – 10, y = 2 – 6). They have high ion exchange capacity.
  3. The complex structure can represent Na2 – Z with sodium as exchangeable cations. This method is called zeolite or permit process.
  4. Zeolites have a porous structure in which the monovalent sodium ions are loosely held and can be exchanged with hardness producing divalent metal ions (Ca or Mg) in water.
    Na2 – Z(s) + M2+(aq) → M-Z(s) + 2Na+(aq)
  5. When exhausted, the materials can be regenerated by treating them with aqueous sodium chloride. Hard minerals caught in the zeolite are released and they get replenished with sodium ions.
    M-Z(s) + 2NaCl(aq) → Na(s)-Z(s) + MCl2(aq)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 12.
Write the uses of heavy water.
Answer:

  1. Heavy water is widely used as a moderator in nuclear reactors as it can lower the energies of fast neutrons
  2. It is commonly used as a tracer to study organic reaction mechanisms and mechanism of metabolic reactions
  3. It is also used as a coolant in nuclear reactors as it absorbs the heat generated.

Question 13.
What are metallic hydrides? Explain about it.
Answer:

  • Metallic hydrides are obtained by hydrogenation of metals and alloys in which hydrogen occupies the interstitial sites (voids). Hence, they are called interstitial hydrides.
  • The hydrides show properties similar to parent metals and hence they are also known as metallic hydrides.
  • They arc mostly non-stoichiometric with variable composition (TiH1.5-1.818 and PdH0.6-0.8).
  • Some are relatively light, inexpensive, and thermally unstable which makes them useful for hydrogen storage applications. Example, TiH2, ZrH2, ZnH2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

IV. Long Question and Answers (5 Marks):

Question 1.
Justify the position of hydrogen in the periodic table.
Answer:
The hydrogen has the electronic configuration of 1s1 which resembles with ns1 general valence shell configuration of alkali metals and shows similarity with them as follows:
(i) It forms unipositive ion (H+) like alkali metals (Na+, K+, Cs+)
(ii) It forms halides (HX), oxides (H2O), peroxides (H2O2) and sulphides (H2S) like alkali metals (NaX, Na2O, Na2O2, Na2S)
(iii) It also acts as a reducing agent.

However, unlike alkali metals which have ionization energy ranging from 377 to 520 kJ mol-1, the hydrogen has 1,314kJ mol-1 which is much higher than alkali metals.

Like the formation of halides (X) from halogens, hydrogen also has a tendency to gain one electron to form hydride ion (H) whose electronic configuration is similar to the noble gas, helium. However, the electron affinity of hydrogen is much less than that of halogen atoms. Hence, the tendency of hydrogen to form hydride ion is low compared to that of halogens to form the halide ions as evident from the following reactions:

\(\frac{1}{2}\) H2 + e → H                                 ∆H = + 36 kcalmol-1
\(\frac{1}{2}\) Br2 + e → Br                                 ∆H = -55 kcalmol-1

Since, hydrogen has similarities with alkali metals as well as halogens; it is difficult to find the right position in the periodic table. However, in most of its compounds hydrogen exists in+1 oxidation state. Therefore, it is reasonable to place the hydrogen in group 1 along with alkali metals as shown in the latest periodic table published by IUPAC.

Question 2.
What do you understand by –

  1. Electron-deficient
  2. Electron-precise
  3. Electron-rich compounds of hydrogen? Provide justification with suitable examples.

Answer:

  1. Electron deficient hydrides:
    Compounds in which central atom has an incomplete octet, are called electron-deficient hydrides. For example, BeH2 , BH3  are electron deficient hydrides
  2. Electron precise hydrides:
    Those compounds in which exact number of electrons are present in a central atom or the central atom contains complete octet are called precise hydrides e.g., CH4 , SiH4, GeH4 etc. are precise hydrides.
  3. Electron rich hydrides:
    Those compounds in which central atom has one or more lone pair of excess electrons are called electron-rich hydrides. e.g., NH3, H2O.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 3.
Explain the uses of hydrogen.
Answer:
1. Over 90 % hydrogen produced in the industry is used for synthetic applications. One such process is the Haber process which is used to synthesis ammonia on large scales. Ammonia is used for the manufacture of chemicals such as nitric acid, fertilizers and explosives.
N2 + 3HSamacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 9 2NH
2. It can be used to manufacture the industrial solvent, methanol from carbon monoxide using copper as a catalyst.
CO + 2H2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 11 CH3OH
3. Unsaturated fatty oils can be converted into saturated fats called Vanaspati (margarine) by the reduction reaction with \(\frac{P_{t}}{H_{2}}\)
4. In metallurgy, hydrogen can be used to reduce many metal oxides to metals at high temperatures.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

WO3 + 3H2 → W + 3H2O
5. Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches are used for cutting and welding.
6. Liquid hydrogen is used as a rocket fuel.
7. Hydrogen is also used in fuel cells for generating electrical energy. The reversible uptake of hydrogen in metals is also attractive for rechargeable metal hydride battery.

Question 4.
What is the permanent hardness of water? How is it removed?
Answer:
The permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble salts of magnesium and calcium in the form of chlorides and sulphates in it. It can be removed by adding washing soda, which reacts with these metal {M = Ca or Mg) chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.

MCl2 + Na2CO3 → MCO3+ 2NaCl
MSO4 + Na2CO3 → MCO3 + Na2SO4

In another way to soften the hard water is by using a process called ion-exchange. That is, hardness can be removed by passing through an ion-exchange bed like zeolites or a column containing ion-exchange resin. Zeolites are hydrated sodium alumino-silicates with a general formula, NaO . Al2O3. xSiO2. yH2O (x = 2 to 10, y = 2 to 6).

Zeolites have porous structure in which the monovalent sodium ions are loosely held and can be exchanged with hardness producing metal ions (M= Ca or Mg) in water. The complex structure can conveniently be represented as Na2 – Z with sodium as exchangeable cations.
Na2 – Z + M2+ → M – Z + 2Na+

When exhausted, the materials can be regenerated by treating with aqueous sodium chloride. The metal ions (Ca2 and Mg2+) caught in the zeolite (or resin) are released and they get replenished with sodium ions.
M – Z + 2NaCl → Na2 – Z + MCl2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 5.
Discuss the reaction of hydrogen with (i) Oxygen (ii) Halogens (iii) Alkali metals.
Answer:
(i) Reaction of hydrogen with oxygen.
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to give water. This is an explosive reaction and releases lot of energy. This is used in fuel cells to generate electricity.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

(ii) Reaction of hydrogen with halogens.
Similarly, hydrogen also reacts with halogens to give corresponding halides. Reaction with fluorine takes place even in dark with explosive violence while with chlorine at room temperature under the light. It combines with bromine on heating and reaction with iodine is a photochemical reaction.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
In the above reactions, the hydrogen has an oxidation state of +1.

(iii) Reaction of hydrogen with alkali metals:
It also has a tendency to react with reactive metals such as lithium, sodium, and calcium to give corresponding hydrides in which the oxidation state of hydrogen is -1.
2Li + H2 → 2 LiH
2Na + H2 → 2NaH

These hydrides are used as reducing agents in synthetic organic chemistry. It is used to prepare other important hydrides such as lithium aluminium hydride and sodium borohydride.
4 LiH + AlCl3 → Li[AlH4] + 3LiCl
4 NaH + B(OCH3)3 → Na[BH4] + 3CH3ONa

Question 6.
Explain the structure of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:
Both in gas-phase and liquid-phase, the molecule adopts a skew confirmation due to repulsive interaction of the OH bonds with lone-pairs of electrons on each oxygen atom. Indeed, it is the smallest molecule known to show hindered rotation • about a single bond.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen 10

H2O2 has a non-polar structure. The molecular dimensions in the gas phase and solid phase differ as shown in figure 4.5. Structurally, H2O2 is represented by the dihydroxyl formula in which the two OH groups do not lie in the same plane.

One way of explaining the shape of hydrogen peroxide is that the hydrogen atoms would lie on the pages of a partly opened book, and the oxygen atoms along the spine. In the solid phase of molecule, the dihedral angle reduces to 90.2° due to hydrogen bonding and the O-O-H angle expands from 94.8° to 101.9°.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 7.
Explain the uses of hydrogen compounds.
Answer:

  • The hydrogen compounds such as sodium borohydride (NaBH4) and lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH4) are commonly used as reducing agents in organic chemistry.
  • Hydrides such as sodium hydride (NaH) and potassium hydride (KH) are used as strong bases in organic synthesis.
  • Calcium hydride is used as a desiccant to remove moisture from organic solvents.
  • Hydride complexes are catalysts.
  • Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches for cutting and welding.
  • Hydrogen is used in fuel cells for generating electrical energy.
  • Liquid hydrogen is used as a rocket fuel as well as in space research.
  • Metallic hydrides are used in battery applications.

Question 8.
Write notes on intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
Answer:
Intermolecular hydrogen bonds occur between two separate molecules. They can occur between any number of like or unlike molecules as long as hydrogen donors and acceptors are present in positions which enable the hydrogen bonding interactions. For example, intermolecular hydrogen bonds can occur between ammonia molecule themselves or between water molecules themselves, or between ammonia and water.

Water molecules form strong hydrogen bonds with one another. For example, each water molecule is linked to four others through hydrogen bonds. The shorter distances (100 pm) correspond to covalent bonds (solid lines), and the longer distances (180 pm) correspond to hydrogen bonds (dotted lines).

In ice, each atom is surrounded tetrahedrally by four water molecules through hydrogen bonds. That is, the presence of two hydrogen atoms and two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen atoms in each water molecule allows the formation of a three-dimensional structure. This arrangement creates an open structure, which accounts for the lower density of ice compared with water at 0°C. While in liquid water, unlike ice where hydrogen bonding occurs over a long-range, the strong hydrogen bonding prevails only in a short-range and therefore the denser packing.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 9.
What is hydrogen bonding? Discuss its properties and applications.
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding is one of the most important natural phenomena occurring in chemical and biological sciences. These interactions play a major role in the structure of proteins and DNA. When a hydrogen atom (H) is covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom such as fluorine (F) or oxygen (O) or nitrogen (N), the bond is polarized.

Due to this effect, the polarized hydrogen atom is able to form a weak electrostatic interaction with another electronegative atom present in the vicinity. This interaction is called a hydrogen bond (20 – 50 kJ mol-1) and is denoted by dotted lines (………).

It is weaker than the covalent bond (> 100 kJ mol-1) but stronger than the vander Waals interaction (< 20 kJ mol-1). Hydrogen bond has a profound effect on various physical properties including vapour pressure (H2O and H2S), boiling point, miscibility of liquids (H2O and C2H5OH), surface tension, densities, viscosity, heat of vaporization and fusion, etc. Hydrogen bonds can occur within a molecule (intramolecular hydrogen bonding) and between two molecules of the same type or different type (intermolecular hydrogen bonding).

A hydrogen bond occurs not only in simple molecules but also in complex biomolecules such as proteins, and they are crucial for biological processes. For example, hydrogen bonds play an important role in the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), since they hold together the two helical nucleic acid chains (strands).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

11th Computer Science Guide Arrays and Structures Text Book Questions and Answers

Book Evaluation

Part I

Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
which of the following is the collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name ?
a) int
b) float
c) Array
d) class
Answer:
c) Array

Question 2.
Array subscripts is always starts with which number ?
a) -1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
b) 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
int age[ ]={6,90,20,18,2}; How many elements are there in this array?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 6
d) 4
Answer:
b) 5

Question 4.
cin>>n[3]; To which element does this statement accepts the value?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
c) 4

Question 5.
By default, the string end with which character?
a) \0
b) \t
c) \n
d) \b
Answer:
a) \0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Part – II

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Traversal in an Array?
Answer:
Accessing each element of an array at least once to perform any operation is known as “Traversal”. Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of “traversal”.

Question 2.
What is Strings?
Answer:
A string is defined as a sequence of characters where each character may be a letter,’ number or a symbol.
Every string is terminated by a null (\0) character which must be. appended at the end of the string.

Question 3.
What is the syntax to declare two – dimensional array? ‘
Answer:
The declaration of a 2-D array is
datatype array_name[row – size] [col – size];
In the above declaration, data-type refers to any valid C++ data – type, array _ name refers to the name of the 2 – D array, row – size refers to the number of rows and col-size refers to the number of columns in the 2 – D array.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Part – III

Short Answers

Question 1.
Define an Array. What are the types?
Answer:
An array is a collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name.
There are different types of arrays used in C++. They are:

  • One-dimensional arrays
  • Two-dimensional arrays
  • Multi-dimensional arrays

Question 2.
With note an Array of strings.
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first Index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, an array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2-D array has the declaration:
char name [7][10];
In the above declaration,
No. of rows = 7;
No. of columns = 10;
We can store 7 strings each with a maximum length of 10 characters.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to accept and print your name?
Answer:
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
char str[100];
cout<< “Enter your name :”;
cin.get(str,100);
cout<< “You name is : ” << str <<endl;
return 0;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 1

Part – IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
write a c++ program to find the difference between two matrix.
Answer:
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
#include<conio.h>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
int row, col, m1[10][10], m2[10][10], sum[10][10];
cout<<“Enter the number of rows : “;
cin>>row;
cout<<“Enter the number of columns :”;
cin>>col;
cout<< “Enter the elements of first matrix: “<<endl;
for (int i = 0;i<row;i++ )
for (int j = 0;j <col;j++ )
cin>>m1[i][j];
cout< < “Enter the elements of second matrix: “<<endl;
for (int i = 0;i<row;i++ )
for (int j = 0;j<col;j++ )
< cin>>m2[i][j];
cout<<“Output: “<<endl;
for (int i = 0;i<row;i++ )
{
for (int j = 0;j<col;j++ )
{
sum[i][j]=m1[i][j] – m2[i][j]); cout<<sum[i][j]<<“”;
}
cout<<endl<<endl;
}
getch( );
return 0;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
How will you pass two dimensional array to a function explain with example.
Answer:
Passing 2″D array to a function:
C++ program to display values from two dimensional array.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
void display (int n[3][2]);
int main( )
{
int num[3][2] = { {3, 4}, {9, 5>, {7, 1} } ;
display(num);
return 0;
}
void display(int n[3][2])
{
cout << “\n Displaying Values” << endl; for (int i=0; i<3; i++)
{
for (int j=0; j<2; j++)
{
cout << n[i][j] << “”;
}
cout << endl << endl;
}
}
Output
Displaying Values
3 4
9 5
7 1
In the above program, the two-dimensional array num is passed to the function display
( ) to produce the results.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

11th Computer Science Guide Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

Choose The Correct Answer (1 Mark)

Question 1.
The size of the array is referred to as its ………………..
(a) dimension
(b) direction
(c) location
(d) space
Answer:
(a) dimension

Question 2.
…………… is an easy way of storing multiple values of the same type referenced by a common name.
a) Variables
b) Literals
c) Array
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Array

Question 3.
Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of ………………..
(a) memory allocation
(b) call by reference
(c) traversal
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) traversal

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
A (n) ………………….. is a collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name.
a) Structures
b) Array
c) Unions
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Array

Question 5.
During ……………….. the array of elements cannot be initialized more than its size.
(a) declaration
(b) initialization
(c) assigning
(d) execution
Answer:
(b) initialization

Question 6.
The …………….. of the array is referred to as its dimension.
a) Elements
b) Size
c) Format
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Size

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Pass an array to a function in C++, the function needs the array name as ………………..
(a) a function
(b) an argument
(c) global object
(d) string
Answer:
(b) an argument

Question 8.
…………………. is a type of arrays used in C++.
a) One-dimensional array
b) Two-dimensional array
c) Multidimensional array
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 9.
A structure without a name tag is called ………………..
(a) homogenous structure
(b) anonymous structure
(c) array of structure
(d) dynamic memory
Answer:
(b) anonymous structure

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 10.
A one-dimensional array represents values that are stored in a single …………….
a) Row
b) Column
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 11.
Array size should be specified with …………………
a) square brackets[ ]
b) Parenthesis ( )
c) Curly braces{ }
d) Angle brackets < >
Answer:
a) square brackets[ ]

Question 12.
In an array declaration, ……………… defines how many elements the array will hold.
a) array_name
b) array_size
c) data_type
d) None of these
Answer:
b) array_size

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 13.
In an array declaration, …………………. declares the basic type of the array, which is the type of each element in the array.
a) array_name
b) array_size
c) data type
d) None of these
Answer:
c) data type

Question 14.
In an array declaration, ……………….. specifies the name with which the array will be referenced
a) array_name
b) array_size
c) data type
d) None of these
Answer:
a) array_name

Question 15.
The array subscript always starts with ………………
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 16.
The subscript always is a(n) ………………value.
a) Integer
b) Unsigned integer
c) Signed integer
d) float
Answer:
b) Unsigned integer

Question 17.
In Turbo C++, int data type requires …………….. bytes of memory.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2
d) 1
Answer:
c) 2

Question 18.
In Dev C++, int data type requires ………………. bytes of memory,
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2
d) 1
Answer:
a) 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 19.
The memory space allocated for an array can be calculated using the -formula.
a) Number of bytes allocated for the type of array + Number of elements
b) Number of bytes allocated for the type of array x Number of elements
c) Number of bytes allocated for the type of array – Number of elements
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Number of bytes allocated for the type of array x Number of elements

Question 20.
An array can be initialized at the time of its ………………
a) Declaration
b) Process
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Declaration

Question 21.
Unless an array is initialized, all the array elements contain ……………..values.
a) Null
b) Default
c) Garbage
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Garbage

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 22.
While declaring and Initializing values In an array, the values should be given within the ……………..
a) square brackets[ ]
b) Parenthesis ()
c) Curly braces{ }
d) Angle brackets < >
Answer:
c) Curly braces{ }

Question 23.
The …………….. of an array may be optional when the array is initialized during declaration.
a) Data type
b) Size
c) Name
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Size

Question 24.
The subscript in the bracket can be a(n) ……………….
a) Variable
b) Constant
c) Expression that evaluates to an integer
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
d) Either A or B or C

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 25.
Accessing each element of an array at least once to perform any operation is known as ………………..
a) Traversal
b) Process
c) Reference
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Traversal

Question 26.
…………………. is a process of finding a particular value present in a given set of numbers.
a) Filtering
b) Searching
c) Seeking
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Searching

Question 27.
The ………………. compares each element of the list with the value that has to be searched until all the elements in the array have been traversed and compared.
a) Linear search
b) Sequential search
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 28.
A ……………. is defined as a sequence of characters where each character may be a letter, number, or a symbol.
a) String
b) Character
c) Literal
d) Identifier
Answer:
a) String

Question 29.
In C++, there is no basic data type to represent a …………….
a) String
b) Character
c) Literal
d) float
Answer:
a) String

Question 30.
How much memory required for the following array?
char country[6];
a) 12 bytes
b) 6 bytes
c) 60 Bytes
d) 24 bytes
Answer:
b) 6 bytes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 31.
…………….. is a way of initializing the character array:
a) char country[6]={T, ‘N’ ‘D’ ‘I’, ‘A’, ‘\0’};
b) char country[ ]=”INDIA”;
c) char country[ ]={T, ‘N’, ‘D’, T, ‘A’ ‘\0’};
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
d) Either A or B or C

Question 32.
Which is a correct statement from the following?
a) At the end of the string, a null character is automatically added by the compiler.
b) If the size of the array is not explicitly mentioned, the compiler automatically calculates the size of the array based on the number of elements in the list and allocates space accordingly.
c) In the initialization of the string, if all the characters are not initialized, then the rest of the characters will be filled with NULL.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 33.
In C++,………………. is used to read a line of text including blank spaces.
a) cin.get( )
b) cin
c) put( )
d) None of these
Answer:
a) cin.get( )

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 34.
………………. function can read the characters till it encounters a newline character or a delimiter specified by the user.
a) getline( )
b) put
c) puts( )
d) None of these
Answer:
a) getline( )

Question 35.
…………………. arrays are a collection of similar elements where the elements are stored in a certain number of rows and columns.
a) One dimensional
b) Two dimensional
c) Multidimensional
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Two dimensional

Question 36.
In two dimensional arrays, …………………. size is compulsory.
a) Column
b) Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Column

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 37.
In two dimensional arrays, …………….. size is optional.
a) Column
b) Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Row

Question 38.
int A[3][4 j; How many elements are there in the array “A”?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 7
d) 12
Answer:
d) 12

Question 39.
The two-dimensional array uses ………………. index values to access a particular element in it.
a) two
b) one
c) three
d) many
Answer:
a) two

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 40.
In a two dimensional array, the first index specifies the …………….. value.
a) Column
b) Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Row

Question 41.
In a two dimensional array, the second index specifies the …………… value.
a) Column
b) Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Column

Question 42.
The two-dimensional array can be viewed as a …………………
a) List
b) Matrix
c) Linear block
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Matrix

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 43.
There are …………… types of 2-D array memory representations.
a) two
b) one
c) three
d) many
Answer:
a) two

Question 44.
……………… is a type of 2-D array memory representation.
a) Row-Major order
b) Column-Major order
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 45.
In row-major order, all the elements are stored ……………… in contiguous memory locations.
a) Column by Column
b) Row by Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Row by Row

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 46.
In column-major order, all the elements are stored ………………. in contiguous memory locations.
a) Column by Column
b) Row by Row
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Column by Column

Question 47.
An array of strings is a ………………. dimensional character array,
a) Two
b) One
c) Multi
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Two

Question 48.
In a two-dimensional character array, the size of the first index (rows) denotes the ……………….
a) Maximum length of each string
b) Number of strings
c) Maximum characters
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Number of strings

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 49.
In a two-dimensional character array, the size of the second index (rows) denotes the ……………….
a) Maximum length of each string
b) Number of strings
c) Maximum characters
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Maximum length of each string

Question 50.
char Name[6][10]; How many strings can be stored in the above array?
a) 10
b) 60
c) 6
d) 16
Answer:
c) 6

Question 51.
To pass an array to a function in C++, the function needs the ………….. as an argument,
a) Array name
b) Array type
c) Dimension
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Array name

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Very Short Answers (2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is the formula to calculate the memory space allocated for an array?
Answer:
A number of bytes allocated for the type of array x Number of elements.

Question 2.
What are the types of arrays?
Answer:
There are different types of arrays used in C++. They are:

  1. One-dimensional arrays
  2. Two-dimensional arrays
  3. Multi-dimensional arrays

Question 3.
Write about returning structures from functions.
Answer:
A structure can be passed to a function through its object. Therefore, passing a structure to a function or passing a structure object to a function is the same because the structure object represents the structure. Like a normal variable, a structure variable(structure object) can be passed by value or by references/addresses. Similar to built-in data types, structures also can be returned from a function.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Write the syntax and example for one-dimensional declaration and initialization.
Answer:
Syntax:
[size] = {value-1,value-2,………….,value-n};
Example:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 3

Question 5.
What is a global object?
Answer:
Objects declared along with structure definition are called global objects.

Question 6.
Write a note on strings.
Answer:
strings:
A string is defined as a sequence of characters where each character may be a letter, number or symbol. Each element occupies one byte of memory. Every string is terminated by a null C\0′ ASCII code 0) character which must be appended at the end of the string.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Differentiate array and structure.
Answer:
Array:

  • An array is a collection of variables of the same data type.
  • Array data are accessed using index.
  • Array allocates static memory
  • Array element access takes lesser time.

Structure:

  • A structure is a collection of variables of different data type.
  • Structure elements are accessed using operator.
  • Structures allocate dynamic memory.
  • Structure elements take more time.

Short Answers (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Write about the initialization of 2 – D array.
Answer:
The array can be initialized in more than one way at the time of 2-D array declaration.
For example
int matrix[4][3] = {
{10,20,30},// Initializes row 0
{40,50,60},// Initializes row 1
{70,80,90},// Initializes row 2
{100,110,120}// Initializes row 3
};
int matrix[4][3] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, 120};
Array’s row size is optional but column size is compulsory.

Question 2.
What is subscript? Give its rules,
Answer:
subscript:
Each element has a unique index number starting from 0 which is known as a subscript.
Rules for subscript:

  • The subscript always starts with 0.
  • It should be an unsigned integer value.
  • Each element of an array is referred to by its name with a subscript index within the square bracket.

For example:
num[3] refers to the 4th element in the array.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
How memory locations are allocated to a one-dimensional array?
Answer:
Memory representation of a one-dimensional array:
The amount of storage required to hold an array is directly related to type and size.
The following figure shows the memory allocation of an array with five elements.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 4
The above figure clearly shows that the array num is an integer array with 5 elements. Here, there is a total of 5 elements in the array, where for each element, 4 bytes in Dev C++ (or)2 bytes in Turbo C++ will be allocated. Totally 20 bytes will be allocated for this array (In Turbo C++ 10 Bytes).

Question 4.
Tabulate the memory requirement of data type in Turbo C++ and Dev C++.
Answer:

Data type

Turbo C++

Dev C++

char 1 1
int 2 4
float 4 4
long 4 4
double 8 8
long double 10 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
Explain character Array (String) creation with syntax and example.
Answer:
To create any kind of array, the size (length) of the array must be known in advance, so that the memory locations can be allocated according to the size of the array. Once an array is created, its length is fixed and cannot be changed during run time, This is shown in the following figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 5
Syntax of array declaration is:
char array_name[size];
In the above declaration, the size of the array must be an unsigned integer value.

For example,
char country[6];
Here, the array reserves 6 bytes of memory, for storing’ a seqi characters. The length of the string cannot be more than 5 characters and one location is reserved for the null character at the end.

Question 6.
What is an array of strings?
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, an array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2 – D array has the declaration: char Name[6][10];
In the above declaration, the 2 – D array has two indices which refer to the row size and column size, that is 6 refers to the number of rows, and 10 refers to the number of columns.

Question 7.
Write note on getline( ) function.
Answer:
In C++, getline( ) is also used to read a line . of text from the input stream. It can read the characters tilt it encounters a newline character or a delimiter specifier’ by the user. This function is available in the header.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 8.
How memory represented for a 2-D array?
Answer:
There are two types of 2-D array memory representations. They are:

  • Row Major order
  • Column Major order

For example:
int A[4][3]={ { 8,6,5}, { 2,1,9}, {3,6,4}, {4,3,2} };
Row Major order:
In row-major order, all the elements are stored row by row in continuous memory locations, that is, ail the elements in first row, then in the second row and soon. The memory representation of row-major order is as shown below.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 6

Question 9.
How 2-D character array initialized and stored in memory? Explain.
Answer:
2D char array initialization:

For example:
char Name[6][10] = {“Mr. Bean’; “Mr.Bush”
“Nicole”, “Kidman” “Arnold”, “Jodie”};
In the above’ example, the 2-D array is initialized with 6 strings, where the string is a maximum of 9 characters long since the last character is null. The memory arrangement of a 2-D array is shown below and ail the strings are stored in continuous locations.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 10.
What is called nested structure? Give example.
Answer:
The structure declared within another structure is called a nested structure. Nested structures act as members of another structure and the members of the child structure can be accessed as parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name, struct dob
{
int date;
char month[3];
int year;
} ;
Values can be assigned to this structure as follows.
dob = {25, “DEC”, 2017}

Question 11.
Write a program to pass an array as an argument to a function.
Answer:
In C++, arrays can be passed to a function as an argument.
To pass an array to a function in C++, the function needs the array name as an argument.
C++ program-to display marks of 5 students (one-dimensional array)
#indude<iostream>
using namespace std;
void display (int m[5]);
int main( )
{
int marks[5]={88, 76, 90, 61, 69};
display(marks);
return 0;
}
void’ display (int m[5])
{
cout << “\n. Display Marks: ” << end!; for (int i=0; i<5; i++)
{
cout <-< “Student” << i+1 << ” << m[i]<<endl;
}
}
Output
Display Marks:
Student 1: 88
Student 2: 76
Student 3: 90
Student 4: 61
Student 5: 69

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 12.
Write a C++ program to pass a 2-D array to a function.
Answer:
C++ program to display values from two dimensional array:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
void display (int n[3][2]);
int main( )
{
int num[3][2] = { {3, 4}, (9, 5}, {7,1} };
display(num);
return 0; ‘
}
void display(int n[3][2])
{
cout << “\n Displaying Values” << endl;
for (int i=0; i<3; i++)
{
for (int j=0; j<2; j++)
{
cout << n[i][j] << ”
}
cout << endl << endl;
}
}
Output
Displaying Values
3 4
9 5
7 1

Question 13.
Write a user-defined function to return the structure after accepting value through the keyboard. The structure definition is as follows: struct Item{int item no; float price;};
Answer:
item accept (item i)
{

cout << “\n Enter the Item No:”; cin >> i.no;
cout << “\n Enter the Item Price:”; cin >> i.price;
return i;

}

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Explain in Detail (5 Marks)

Question 1.
How will you search an element in a one-dimensional array? Explain linear search.
Answer:
Searching in a one-dimensional array:
Searching is a process of finding a particular value present in a given set of numbers. The linear search or sequential search compares each element of the list with the value that has to be searched until all the elements in the array have been traversed and compared.

Program for Linear Search
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int Search(int arr[ ], int size, int value)
{
for (int i=0; <size; i++)
{
if (arr[i] == value)
return i; // return index value
}
return -1;
}
int main( )
{
int num[10], val, id;
for (int i=0; i< 10; i++) .
{
cout<<“\n Enter value” << i+1 <<“=”;
cin>>num[i];
}
cout<< “\n Enter a value to be searched: “;
cin>>val;
id=Search(num,10,val);
if(id==-1) .
cout<< “\n Given value is not found in the array..”;
else
cout<< “\n The value is found at the position” << id+1;
return 0;
}
The above program reads an array and prompts for the values to be searched. It calls the Search() function which receives array, size and value to be searched as parameters. If the value is found, then it returns the array index to the called statement; otherwise, it returns -1.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
Explain two-dimensional array with syntax and example.
Answer:
Two-dimensional array:
Two-dimensional (2D) arrays are collections of similar elements where the elements are stored in a certain number of rows and columns. An example m x n matrix where m denotes the number of rows and n denotes the number of columns is shown in the following figure, int arr[3][3];
2D array conceptual memory representation
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 8

The array arr can be conceptually viewed in matrix form with 3 rows and columns. point to be noted here is since the subscript starts with 0 arr [0][0] represents the first element.

The syntax for declaration of a 2-D array is:
data-type array_name[row-size][col-size];
In the above declaration, data-type refers to any valid C++ data-type, array_name refers to the name of the 2-D array, row-size refers to the number of rows and col-size refers to the number of columns in the 2-D array.

For example:
int A[3][4];
In the above example, A is a 2-D array, 3 denotes the number of rows and 4 denotes the number of columns. This array can hold a maximum of 12 elements.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Case Study

Question (1)
Write a program to accept the marks of 10 students and find the average, maximum and minimum marks.
Answer:
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
int marks[10], sum=0,max,min;
float avg;
cout<< “\n Enter Mark 1” << “=”;
cin>> marks[0];
max=marks[0];
min=marks[0];
for(int i=1; i< 10; i++)
{
cout<< “\n Enter Mark” << i+1 << “=”;
cin>> marks[i];
sum=sum+marks[i];
if (marks[i]>max)
max = marks[i];
if (marks[i]<min)
min = marks[i];
}
avg=sum/10.0;
cout<< “\n The Total Marks: ” << sum;
cout<< “\n The Average Mark: ” <<avg;
cout<< “\n The Maximum Mark: ” <<max;
cout<< “\n The Minimum Mark: ” <<min;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 9

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question (2)
Write a program to accept rainfall recorded in four metropolitan cities of India and find the city that has the highest and lowest rainfall.
Answer:
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
#include<string.h>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
int rate[10],min,n;
char shop[5][20];
char minshop[20];
cout<<“\nHow many Shops
cin>>n;
for(int i=0;i<n;i++)
{
cout<<“\nEnter Name of the Shop “<<i+1<<” :”;
cin> >shop[i];
cout<<“\nEnter price of Product-X at “<<shop[i]<<” :”;
cin>>rate[i];
}
min=rate[0];
strcpy(minshop,shop[0]);
for(int i=l;i<n;i++)
{
if (rate[i]<min)
{
min = rate[i];
strcpy(minshop,shop[i]);
}
}
cout< < “\n The Lowest cost of the Proudct=X at the” “<<minshop <<“is”<<min;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question (3)
Survey your neighboring shops and find the price of any particular product of interest and suggest where to buy the product at the lowest cost.
Answer:
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
#include<string.h>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
int rate[10],min,n;
char shop[5][20];
char minshop[20];
cout<<“\nHow many Shops “;
cin>>n;
for(int i=0;i<n;i++)
{
cout<<“\nEnter Name of the Shop “<<i+l<<” :”;
cin>>shop[i];
cout<<“\nEnter price of Product-X at “<<shop[i]<<“:”;
cin> >rate[i];
}
min=rate[0];
strcpy(nninshop,shop[0]);
for(int i=l;i<n;i++)
{
if (rate[i]<min)
{
min = rate[i];
strcpy(minshop,shop[i]);
}
}
cout< < “\n The Lowest cost of the Proudct=X at the ” <<minshop <<“is”<<min;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

STRUCTURES

Book Evaluation

Part -I

Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The data elements in the structure are also known as ……………..
a) objects
b) members
c) data
d) records
Answer:
b) members

Question 2.
Structure definition is terminated by ……………..
a) :
b) }
c) ;
d) ::
Answer:
c) ;

Question 3.
What will happen when the structure is declared?
a) it will not allocate any memory
b) it will allocate the memory
c) it will be declared and initialized
d) it will be only declared
Answer:
b) it will allocate the memory

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
What is the out of this program?
#include<iostream>
#include<string.h>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
struct student
{
int n;
char name[10];
};
students;
s.n = 123;
183
strcpy(s.name, “Balu”);
cout<<s.n;
co
ut<< s.name <<endl;
return 0;
}
a) 123Balu
b) BaluBalu
c) Balul23
d) 123 Balu
Answer:
a) 123Balu

Question 5.
A structure declaration is given below.
struct Time
{
int hours;
int minutes;
int seconds;
}t;
Using the above declaration which of the following refers to seconds.
a) Time.seconds
b) Time::seconds
c) seconds
d) t. seconds
Answer:
d) t. seconds

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 6.
What will be the output of this program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
struct ShoeType
{
string name; double price;
>; , ‘ ‘
int main()
184 {
ShoeType shoe1, shoe2;
shoe1.name = “Adidas”;
shoe1.price = 9.99;
cout<< shoe1.name<< ” #. “<< shoe1.
price<<endl;
shoe2 = shoe1;
shoe2.price = shoe2.price / 9;
cout<< shoe2.name<< ” # “<< shoe2.price;
return 0;

a) Adidas # 9.99 Adidas #1.11 b) Adidas # 9.99 Adidas # 9.11
c) Adidas # 9.99 Adidas # 11.11 d) Adidas #9.11 Adidas # 11.11

Answer:
a) Adidas # 9.99 Adidas #1.11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Which of the following is a properly defined structure?
a) struct {int num;}
b) struct sum {int num;}
c) struct sum int sum;
d) struct sum {int num;};
Answer:
d) struct sum {int num;};

Question 8.
A structure declaration is given below.
struct employee
{
int empno;
char ename[10];
} e[5];
Using the above declaration which of the following statement is correct.
a) cout<<e[0].empno<<e[0].ename;
b) cout<<e[0].empno<<ename;
c) cout< <e[0]->empno< <e[0]->ename;
d) cout<<e.empno<<e.ename;
Answer:
a) cout<<e[0].empno<<e[0].ename;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 9.
Which of the following cannot be a structure member?
a) Another structure
b) Function
c) Array
d) variable of double datatype
Answer:
b) Function

Question 10.
When accessing a structure member, the identifier to the left of the dot operator is the name of
a) structure variable
b) structure tag
c) structure member
d) structure-function
Answer:
a) structure variable

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Part – II

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Define structure. What is its use?
Answer:
Definition:
The structure is user-defined which has the combination of data items with different data types. This allows to a group of variables of mixed data types together into a single unit.
Use: The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other.

Question 2.
To store 100 integer numbers which of the following is good to use?
Answer:
Array or Structure State the reason.
In any situation when more than one variable is required to represent objects of uniform data types, an array can be used. If the elements are of different data types, then the array cannot support them.
The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other. So, to store 100 integer numbers Array is good.

Question 3.
What is the error in the following structure definition.
Answer:
struct employee {inteno; charename[20]; char dept;}
Employee e1,e2;

Error:
In the above code objects for employee strcture is created at the end of structure definition. So,structure name is not needed. It may written as:
struct employee
{
int eno;
char ename[20];
char dept;
}e1,e2;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Write a structure definition for the structure student containing exam no, name and an array for storing five subject marks.
Answer:
Structure definition:
struct student
{
int examno;
char sname[30];
int mark [5];
};

Question 5.
Why for passing a structure to a function call by reference is advisable to us?
Answer:
In call by reference, any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function. Otherwise changes in the structure content within the function will not implement in the structure content.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 6.
What is the size of the following highlighted variable in terms of byte if it is compiled in dev C++
Answer:
struct A{ float f[3]; char ch[5];long double d;>;
struct B{ A a; int arr[2][3];}b[3]
struct A {float f[3]; char ch[5]; long double d;>;
Memory requirements (Using Dev C++):

Variable

Memory requirement

float f(3); 12 Bytes
char ch[5];   , 5 Bytes
double d; 8 Bytes

Using Turbo C++ also the same memory is needed. (Only int data type requirement is differ. Here no int members. So, no change in the requirement.)
struct B { A a; int arr[2][3];}b[3];
Memory requirements (Using Dev C++):

Variable

Memory requirement

A a; (Which is a structure variable) 25 Bytes
int arr[2][3]; 24 Bytes
b[3] which is a structure variable of structure B 49 Bytes for each element of b. So, Total requirement of b[3] is 147 Bytes.

Memory requirements (Using Turbo C++):

Variable

Memory requirement

A a; (Which is a structure variable) 25 Bytes
int arr[2][3]; 12 Bytes
b[3] which is a structure variable of structure B 37 Bytes for each element of b. So, Total requirement of b[3] is 111 Bytes.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Is the following snippet is fully correct. If not identify the error.
Answer:
struct sum1{ int n1,n2;}s1;
struct sum2{int n1,n2}s2;
cin>>s1.n1>>s1.n2;
s2=s1;
No. It is not fully correct. The following errors are there.
Errors:

Statement

Error

struct sum1 {int n1,n2;}sl; No Error
struct sum2 {int n1,n2}s2; Semicolon missing at the end of declaration statement;
cin>>s1.n1>>s1. n2; No Error
s2-s1; Objects of different structures can not be directly copied.

Question 8.
Differentiate array and structure.
Answer:
In any situation when more than one variable is required to represent objects of uniform data¬types, array can be used. If the elements are of different data types, then array cannot support. If more than one variable is used, they can be stored in memory but not in adjacent locations. It increases the time consumption while searching.

The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 9.
What are the different ways to initialize the structure members?
Answer:
Values can be assigned to structure elements similar to assigning values to variables.
Example:
Consider the following structure: struct Student
{
long int rollno;
int age;
float weight;
}
balu ;
We can initialize as given below:
balu.rollno= 702016;
balu. age=18; ‘
balu.weight= 48.5;
Also, values can be assigned directly as similar to assigning values to Arrays.
balu={702016, 18, 48.5};

Question 10.
What is wrong with the following C++ declarations?
Answer:
A. struct point ( double x, y)
B. struct point { double x, double y >;
C. struct point { double x; double y >
D. struct point { double x; double y; };
E. struct point { double x; double y; >

Errors:
A. struct point (double x, y)
Structure definition must be terminated with;. It is missing. Members must be enclosed in { }. So it may be written as
struct point { double x, y };

B. struct point {double x, double y>;
Structure member declaration must be terminated with; It is missing. So, it may corrected as
struct point {double x; double y;>; or struct point {double x, y;>;

C. struct point {double x; double y>
Structure member declaration and definition must be terminated with ; It is missing. So, it may corrected as
struct point {double x; double y;>; or
struct point { double x, y; >;

D. struct point {double x; double y;};,
No error .
E. struct point {double x; double y;>
– Structure definition must be terminated with ; it is missing. So, it may be corrected as
struct point {double x; double y;>;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Part – III

Short Answers

Question 1.
How will you pass a structure to a function ?
Answer:
A structure variable can be passed to a function in a similar way of passing any argument that is of built-in data type,

  1. If the structure itself is an argument, then it is called “call by value”.
  2. If the reference of the structure is passed as an argument then it is called, “call by reference”.

Call by value
When a structure is passed as argument to a function using call by value method,any change made to the contents of the structure variable inside the function to which it is passed do not affect the structure variable used as an argument.

Call by reference
In this method of passing the structures to functions, the address of a structure variable / object is passed to the function using address of(&) operator. So any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
The following code sums up the total of all students name starting with ‘S’ and display it. Fill in the blanks with required statements.
Answer:
struct student {int exam no, lang, eng, phy, che, mat, esc, total; char name[15];>;
int main( )
{
student s[20];
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
…………………. //accept student details
}
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
……………. //check for name starts with’ letter “S”
…………….. // display the detail of the checked name
}
return 0;
}
MODIFIED PROGRAM
using namespace std;
#include<iostream>
struct student
{
int exam_.no,lang,eng,phy,che,mat,esc,total; char name[15];
};
int main( )
{
student s[20];
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
//accept student details
cout<<“\nEnter student name”;
cin>>s[i].name;
cout<<“\nEnter student exam number”;
cin>>s[i].exam_no;
cout<<“\nEnter Languge Mark”;
cin>>s[i].lang;
cout<<“\nEnter Engjish Mark”;
cin>>s[i].eng;
cout<<“\nEnter Physics Mark”;
cin>>s[i].phy;
cout<<“\nEnter Chemistry Mark”;
cin>>s[i].che;
cout<<“\nEnter Maths Mark”;
cin>>s[i].mat;
cout<<“\nEnter Computer Science Mark”;
cin>>s[i].csc;
s[i].total = s[i].lang + s[i].eng + s[i]. phy+s[i].che+s[i].mat+s[i]. csc;
}
cout<<“\nDetails of student name starts with letter S “<<endl;
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
//check for name starts with letter “S” if(s[i].name[0] == ‘S’)
{
// display the detail of the checked name

cout<<“\nName : “<<s[i].
name<<“Total Mark”<<s[i].
total <<endl;
}
}
return 0;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 12

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
What is called nested structure. Give example
Answer:
The structure declared- within another structure is called a nested structure.
Example:
struct Student
{
int age;
float height, weight;
struct dob
{
int date;
char month[4];
int year;
};
}mahesh;
The nested structures act as members of another structure and the members of the child structure can be accessed as parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name.
Example:
mahesh. dob. date
Here

  • mahesh is a parent structure name.
  • dob is a child structure name
  • date is a member of child structure

Question 4.
Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any.
Answer:
Underline each correction.
struct movie
{
charm_name[10];
charm-Lang[10];
float ticket cost =50;};
Movie;
void main( )
{
gets(m_name);
cin>>m-lang;
return 0; ,
}
MODIFIED PROGRAM
PROGRAM (USING DEV C++)
#include<iostream>
#include<conio.h>
#include<stdio.h>
struct movie
{
char m_name[10];
char m_lang[10];
float ticket_cost;
} Movie;
int main( )
{
std::cout<<“\nEnter Move! Name ;
gets(Movie.m_name);
std::cout<<:”\nEnter Movie Language ,:
std: :cin>>Movie.m -lang;
std::cout<<“\nEnter Ticket Cost: “;
std::cin>>Movie.ticket_cost;
std::cout<<“\nMovie name is : “<
std::cout< <“\nMovie Language is : “<<Movie.m-lang;
std::cout<<“\nTicket cost is : “<<Movie.ticket_cost;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 13

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
What ¡s the difference among the following two programs?
a) #include<iostream.h>
struct point
{
double x;
double y;
};
int main()
{
struct point test;
testx = .25; test.y = .75;
cout< <test.x< ctest.y;
return 0;
}
b) #include
struct .
{
double x;
double y;
} Point;
int main(void)
{
Point test={.25,.75>;
return 0;
}
Answer:
The method of structure initialisation is different.

Question 6.
How to access members of a structure? Give f example.
Answer:
Once the two objects of student structure type are declared, their members can be accessed directly. The syntax for that is using a dot (.) between the object name and the member name.
Syntax is :
Object name. Member

For example:
struct Student
{
longrollno;
int age;
float weight;
}balu, frank;
The elements of the structure Student can be accessed as follows: balu.rollno balu.age balu. weight frank, rollno frank.age frank.weight
balu.rollno
balu.age
balu.weight
frank.rollno
frank.age
frank.weight

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Write the syntax and an example for structure.
Answer:
Structure is declared using the keyword ‘struct’. The syntax of creating a structure is given below.
struct structure_name
{
type member_name1;
type member_name2;
} reference_name;
An optional field reference_name can be used to declare objects of the structure type directly.

Example:
struct Student
{
longrollno;
int age;
float weight;
}balu, frank;

Question 8.
For the following structure, definition writes the user-defined function to accept data through the keyboard.
struct date
{
int dd,mm,yy
};
struct item
{
int item id;
char name[10];
float price;
date date_manif;
}
Answer:
USER DEFINED FUNCTION
item accept( )
{
item obj;
cout<<“\n Enter Item Id “;
cin> > obj. item id;
cout<<“\nEnter Name “;
cin>obj.name;
cout<<“\nEnter Price “;
cin>>obj.price;
cout<<“\nEnter Date: date, month and year
cin>>obj.date_manif.dd >> obj.date_manif. mm >> obj.date_manif.yy;
return(obj);
}

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 9.
What is called an anonymous structure? Give an example.
Answer:
A structure without a name/tag is called anonymous structure, struct
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
} student;
The student can be referred to as a reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like
student, roll no
student.age and
student.weight.

Question 10.
Write a user-defined function to return the structure after accepting value through the keyboard. The structure definition is as follows:
struct Item{int item no;float price;};
Answer:
USER DEFINED FUNCTION
Item accept( )
{
Item obj; ,
cout<<‘AnEnter Item Number and Price “; cin>>obj.item_no>>obj, price.
return(obj);
}

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Part-IV

Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the array of structures with examples.
Answer:
A class may contain many students. So, the definition of structure for one student can also be extended to all the students. If the class has 20 students, then 20 individual structures are required. For this purpose, an array of structures can be used.
An array of structures is declared in the same way as declaring an array with built-in data types like int or char.
The following program reads the details of 20 students and prints the same.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
struct Student
{
int age;
float height, weight;
char name[30];
};
void main()
{
Student std[20];
int i;
cout<< ” Enter the details for 20 students”<<endl;
for(i=0;i<20;i++)
{
cout<< ” Enter the details of student”<<i+1<<endl;
cout<< ” Enter the age:”<<endl; cin>>std[i].age;
cout<< “Enter the height:”<<endl; cin>>std[i].height;
cout<< “Enter the weight:”<<endl; cin>>std[i].weight;
}
cout<< “The values entered for Age, height and weight are”<<endl;
for(i=0;i<20;i++)
cout<< “Student “<<i+l<< “\t”< <std[i]. age<< “\t”<<std[i].height<< “\t”<<std[i]. weight;
}
Output
Enter the details of 20 students
Enter the details for student1
Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
160.5
Enter the weight:
46.5
Enter the details for student2
Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
164.5
Enter the weight:
61.5
………………………………….
…………………………
The values entered for Age, height and weight are
Student 1 18 160.5 46.5
Student 2 18 164.5 61.5
………………………

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
Explain call by value with respect to structure.
Answer:
A structure variable can be passed to a function in a similar way of passing any argument that is of built-in data type. If the structure itself is an argument, then it is called “call by value”.

Call by value
When a structure is passed as argument to a function using call by value method,any change made to the contents of the structure variable inside the function to which it is passed do not affect the structure variable used as an argument.
Example:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
struct Employee
{
char name[50]; ,
int age;
float salary;
};
void printData(Employee); // Function declaration
int main( )
{
Employee p;
cout<< “Enter Full name: “;
cin>>p.name;
cout<< “Enter age: “;
cin>>p.age;
cout<< “Enter salary: “;
cin>>p.salary;
// Function call with structure variable as an argument
printData(p);
return 0;
}
void printData(Employee q)
{
cout<< “\nDisplaying Information.” <<endl;
cout<< “Name: ” << q.name <<endl;
cout<<“Age: ” <<q.age<<endl;
cout<< “Salary:” <<q.salary;
}
Output
Enter Full name: Kumar
Enter age: 55
Enter salary: 34233.4
Displaying Information.
Name: Kumar
Age: 55
Salary: 34233.4
In the above example, a structure named Employee is declared and used. The values that are entered into the structure are name, age and salary of a Employee are displayed using a function named printData( ).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
How call by reference is used to pass structure to a function .Give an Example
Answer:
Call by reference
In this method of passing the structures to functions ,the address of a structure variable / object is passed to the function using address of(&) operator. So any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function
Example:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
struct Employee
{
char name[50];
int age;
float salary;
};
void readData(Employee &);
void printData(Employee);
int main()
{
Employee p;
readData(p);
printData(p);
return 0;
}
void readData(Employee &p)
{
cout<< “Enter Full name: “;
cin.get(p.name, 50);
cout<< “Enter age:
cin>>p.age; ,
cout<< “Enter salary:
cin>>p. salary;
}
void printData(Employee p)
{
cout<< “\nDisplaying Information.” <<endl;
cout<< “Name: ” << p.name <<endl;
cout<<“Age:” <<p.age<<endl;
cout<< “Salary:” <<p.salary;
}
Output
Enter Full name: Kumar
Enter age: 55
Enter salary: 34233.4
Displaying Information.
Name: Kumar
Age: 55
Salary: 34233.4
Structures are usually passed by reference method because it saves the memory space and executes faster.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to add two distances using the following structure definition
Answer:
struct Distance
{
int feet;
float inch;
}d1, d2, sum;
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
struct Distance
{
int feet;
float inch;
} d1, d2, sum;
int main( )
{
cout<<“\nEnter distance 1: feet and inch : “;
cin>>d1.feet>>d1.inch;
cout<<“\nEnter distance 2: feet and inch :
cin>>d2.feet>>d2.inch;
sum.feet = d1.feet + d2.feet;
sum.inch =(d1.inch + d2.inch) – (int) (d1.inch + d2,inch) / 12 * 12;
sum.feet = sum.feet + (d1.inch + d2.inch)/12;
cout<<“\nDitance 1: Feet = “<<d1.feet<<”
Inch = “<<d1.inch;
cout<<“\nDitance 2: Feet = “<<d2.feet<<”
Inch = “<<d2.inch;
cout<<“\nSum of Distance 1 and 2 : Feet = “<<sum.feet<<” Inch = “<<sum.inch;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 14

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
Write a C++ Program to Add two Complex Numbers by Passing Structure to a Function for the following structure definition
Answer:
struct complex
{
float real;
float imag;
};
The prototype of the function is complex add Complex Numbers(complex, complex);
PROGRAM
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
struct complex
{
float real;
float imag;
};
complex add Complex Numbers (complex obj1,complex obj2)
{
complex obj3;
obj3.real = obj1.reai+obj2,real;
obj3.imag = obj1.imag + obj2.imag;
return(obj3);
}
int main( )
{
complex c1,c2,c3;
cout<<“\nEnter First complex number real and imaginary :”;
cin>>c1,real>>c1.imag;
cout<<“\nEnter Second complex number real and imaginary :”;
cin>>c2.real>>c2.imag;
c3 = addComplexNumbers(c1,c2);
cout<<“\nFirst Complex Number is : “< }
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 15

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 6.
WrIte a C++ Program to declare a structure book containing name and author as character array of 20 elements each and price as Integer. Declare an array of book. Accept the name, author, price detail for each book. Define a user defined function to display the book details and calculate the total price. Return total price to the calling function.
Answer:
PROGRAM
using namespace std;
#include<iostream>
#include<iomanip>
#include<istdio.h>
struct book
{
char bname[20],author[20];
int price;
};
int display(book x[5])
{
int total;
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
total = total + x[i].price;
cout<<“\nBook name : “<<x[i].
bname;
cout<<“\nAuthor name : “<<x[i].
author;
cout<<“\nPrice of the book: “<<x[i].
price;
}
return(total);C++C
}
int main( )
{
book. b[5];
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
cout<<“\nEnter Book name “;
cin>>b[i].bname;
cout<<“\nEnter Author name “;
cin>>b[i].author;
cout<<“\nEnter Book Price “;
cin > > b[i]. price;
}
cout<<“\nDetails of Books”<<endl;
cout<<“\nTotal cost of the book is : Rs.”<<display(b);
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 16

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Write a C++ program to declare and accept an array of professors. Display the details of the department=”COMP.SCI” and the name of the professors start with ‘A’. The structure “college” should contain the following members.
prof-id as integer ,
name and Department as character array
Answer:
PROGRAM
using namespace std;
#include<iostream>
#include<iomanip>
#include<string.h>
struct college .
{
char pname[20],department[20]; int prof-id;
};
void display(college x[5])
{
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
if((strcmp(x[i]. department,”COMP. SCI”)==0) && x[i].pname[0]==’A’)
cout<<x[i].pname«endl;
}
return;
}
int main( )
{
college c[5];
for(int i=0;i <5;i++)
{
cout<<“\nEnter Professor Name “;
cin>>c[i].pname; ,
cout<<“\nEnter Department Name “;
cin> >c[i] .department;
cout< <“\nEnter Professor Id
cin>>c[i].prof-id;
}
cout<<“\nDetails of Comp. Sci. . Dept, Professors whose name starts. with A “<<endl; . display(c);
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 17

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 8.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:
#incluçle<iostream>
#include<stdio>
#include<string>
#include<conio>
using namespace std;
struct books
{
char name[20), author[20];
} a[50];
int main ( )
{
clrscr( );
cout<< “Details of Book No ” << 1 << “\n”;
cout<< “———————\n”;
cout<< ‘Book Name :”<<strcpy(a[0].
name,”Programming “)<<endl;
cout<< “Book Author :”<<strcpy(a[0].
author,”Dromy”)<<endl;
cout<< “\nDetails of Book No ” << 2 <<”\n”;
cout<< ” ——————- \n”;
cout<<- “Book Name :”<<strcpy(a[l].
name,”C++programming” )<<endl;
cout<< “Book Author :”<<strcpy(a[l].
author,”BjarneStroustrup “)< <endl;
cout<<“\n\n”;
cout<< “======================
============================
\n”; ‘
cout<< ” S.No\t| Book Name\t|author\n”;
cout<< “=======================
=============================
for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++)
{
cout<< “\n ” << i + 1 << “\t|” << a[i].name << “\t| ” << a[i],author;
}
cout<< “\n=========-==========
===========================
==”;
return 0;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 18

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 9.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:
#include<iostream>
#include<string>
using namespace std;
struct student
{
introll_no;
char name[10];
long phone_number;
};
int main() .
{
student p1 = {1,”Brown”,123443};
student p2, p3;
p2.roll_no = 2;
strcpy(p2.name,”Sam”);
p2.phone_number = 1234567822;
p3.roll_no = 3;
strcpy(p3.name,”Addy”);
p3.phone_number = 1234567844;
cout<< “First Student” <<endl;
cout<< “roll no : ” << p1.roll_no <<endl;
cout<< “name : ” << p1.name <<endl;
cout<< “phone no ; ” << p1.phone_number <<endl;
cout<< “Second Student” <<endl;
cout<< “roll no : ” << p2.roll_no <<endl;
cout<< “name : ” << p2.name <<endl;
cout<< “phone no : ” << p2.phone_number <<endl;
cout<< “Third Student” <<endl;
cout<< “roll no : ” << p3.roll_no <<endl;
cout<< “name : ” << p3.name <<endl;
cout<< “phone no : ” << p3.phone_number <<endl;
return0;
}
Output
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 19

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 10.
Debug the error in the following program.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 20
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 21
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 22
MODIFIED PROGRAM
#include<iostream.h>
struct PersonRec
{
char lastName[10];
char firstName[10];
int age;
}
Person Rec PeopleArrayType[ 10];
void LoadArray(PeopleRec peop[10]);
void main( )
{
PersonRec people [10];
for (i = 0; i < 10; i++)
{
cout< < people[i].firstName< < ” <<peopie[i].lastName <<setw(10) <<people[i].age;
}
}
LoadArray(PersonRec peop[10])
{
for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++)
{
cout<< “Enter first name: “;
cin<<peop[i].firstName;
cout<< “Enter last name: “;
cin>>peop[i].lastName;
cout<< “Enter age: “;
cin>> peop[i].age;←
}

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

11th Computer Science Guide Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

Choose The Correct Answer 1 mark

Question 1.
…………….. is a user-defined which has the combination of data items with different data types.
a) Structure
b) Class
c) Union
d) Array
Answer:
a) Structure

Question 2.
…………………. allows to group of variables of mixed data types together into a single unit.
a) Structure
b) Class
c) Union
d) Array
Answer:
a) Structure

Question 3.
If the elements are of different data types,then ……………… cannot support.
a) Structure
b) Class
c) Union
d) Array
Answer:
d) Array

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Structure is declared using the keyword …………………
a) Structure
b) struct
c) Stru
d) STRUCT
Answer:
b) struct

Question 5.
Identify the structure name from the following; struct Student balu;
a) balu
b) struct
c) Student
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Student

Question 6.
Identify the structure variable (object) from the following: struct Student balu;
a) balu
b) struct
c) Student
d) None of these
Answer:
a) balu

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
How much of memory is required for the object of the following structure in Dev C++.
struct Student
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
}balu, frank;
a) 12 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 10 Bytes
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 12 Bytes

Question 8.
How much of memory is required for the object of the following structure in Turbo C++.
struct Student
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
}balu, frank;
a) 12 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 10 Bytes
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 10 Bytes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 9.
If the members are pointer types then ……………….. is used to access the structure members.
a) →
b) ←
c) .(dot)
d) None of these
Answer:
a) →

Question 10.
A structure without a …………….. is called an anonymous structure.
a) Name
b) Tag
c) Name/Tag
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Name/Tag

Question 11.
…………………… operator is used to accessing structure member.
a) ::
b) @
c) .(dot)
d) $
Answer:
c) .(dot)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 12.
The structure declared within another structure is called a …………….. structure.
a) Nested
b) Group
c) Block
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Nested

Question 13.
……………. structures act as members of another structure.
a) Nested
b) Group
c) Block
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Nested

Question 14.
The members of the child structure can be accessed as …………………….
a) Child structure name. Parent structure name. Member name
a) Parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name
a) Parent structure name. Member name. Child structure name
a) Member name. Parent structure name. Child structure name
Answer:
a) Child structure name. Parent structure name. Member name

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 15.
A structure variable can be passed to a function in a similar way of passing any argument that is of ……………………. data type.
a) Derived
b) User-defined
c) Built-in
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Built-in

Question 16.
If the structure itself is an argument to a function, then it is called ………………..
a) Call by value
b) Call by Reference
c) Call by Expression
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Call by value

Question 17.
If the reference of the structure is passed as an argument then it is called ……………….
a) Call by value
b) Call by Reference
c) Call by Expression
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Call by Reference

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 18.
When a structure is passed as an argument to a function using ……………… method, any change made to the contents of the structure variable inside the function to which it is passed do not affect the structure variable used as an argument.
a) Call by value
b) Call by Reference
c) Call by Expression
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Call by value

Question 19.
In ……………….method of passing the structures to functions, any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function.
a) Call by value
b) Call by Reference
c) Call by Expression
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Call by Reference

Question 20.
Structures are usually passed by reference method because ……………..
a) It saves the memory space
b) Executes faster
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 21.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) A structured object can also be assigned to another structure object only if both the objects are of the same structure type.
b) The structure elements can be initialized either by using separate assignment statements or at the time of declaration by surrounding its values with braces.
c) Array of structure variable can also be created.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Very Short Answers (2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is the drawback of an array?
Answer:
In any situation when more than one variable is required to represent objects of uniform data-types, array can be used. If the elements are of different data types, then array cannot support.
If more than one variable is used, they can be stored in memory but not in adjacent locations. It increases the time consumption while searching.

Question 2.
What is the advantage of structure?
Answer:
The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other.

Question 3.
What are global objects?
Answer:
Objects declared along with structure definition are called global objects

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Write note on the anonymous structure.
Answer:
A structure without a name/tag is called an anonymous structure.

Example:
struct
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
} student;
The student can be referred to as a reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like a student, roll no, student.age and student.weight

Question 5.
Define Nested structure.
Answer:
The structure declared within another structure is called a nested structure.

Question 6.
Give an example of nested structure.
Answer:
struct Student
{
int age;
float height, weight;
struct dob
{
int date;
char month[4];
int year;
};
}mahesh;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
How to access nested member structure?
Answer:
The nested structures act as members of another structure and the members of the child structure can be accessed as
parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name
Example:
mahesh. dob. date

Short Answers 3 Marks

Question 1.
Write the syntax of defining a structure? Give an example.
Answer:
Structure is declared using the keyword ‘struct’. The syntax of creating a structure is given below.
struct structure_name
{
type member-name1;
type member_name2;
} reference_name;
An optional field reference_name can be used to declare objects of the structure type directly.
Example:
struct Student
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
How memory is allocated for a structure?
Answer:
Consider the following structure :
struct Student
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
};
In the above declaration of the struct, three variables rollno, age and weight are used. These variables (data element) within the structure are called members (or fields). In order to use the Student structure, a variable of type Student is declared and the memory allocation is shown in the following figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 23

Question 3.
How will you refer structure elements?
Answer:
Referencing Structure Elements
Once the two objects of student structure type are declared, their members can be accessed directly.
The syntax for that is using a dot (.) between the object name and the member name. For example, the elements of the structure Student can be accessed as follows:
balu.rollno
frank, rollno
balu.age
frank.age
balu.weight
frank.weight

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Explain In Detail 5 Marks

Question 1.
Explain structure assignments in detail.
Answer:
Structure Assignments
Structures can be assigned directly instead of assigning the values of elements individually.
Example:
If Mahesh and Praveen are same age and same height and weight then the values of Mahesh can be copied to Praveen struct Student
{
int age;
float height, weight;
}mahesh;
The age of Mahesh is 17 and the height and weights are 164.5 and 52.5 respectively.The following statement will perform the assignment.
mahesh = {17, 164.5, 52.5};
praveen = mahesh;
will assign the same age, height and weight to Praveen.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Waves Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 11 Waves

11th Physics Guide Waves Book Back Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A student tunes his guitar by striking a 120 Hertz with a tuning fork, and simultaneously plays the 4th string on his guitar. By keen observation, he hears the amplitude of the combined sound oscillating thrice per second. Which of the following frequencies is the most likely the frequency of the 4th string on his guitar?
(a) 130
(b) 117
(c) 110
(d) 120
Answer:
(b) 117

Hint:
Frequency of the fourth string can be derived from harmonic series generated by the strings.
Frequencies of first 4 strings are 120, 119, 118, 117 Hz.
f4 = 117Hz

Question 2.
A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In medium A, the velocity of the transverse wave is 500 ms-1 and the wavelength is 5 m. The frequency and the wavelength of the wave in medium B when its velocity is 600 ms-1, respectively are:
(a) 120 Hz and 5 m
(b) 100 Hz and 5 m
(c) 120 Hz and 6 m
(d) 100 Hz and 6 m
Answer:
(d) 100 Hz and 6 m

Hint:
vA = 500 ms-1; λA = 5 m
∴ Frequency in medium B
fB = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{A}}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{A}}}\) = \(\frac { 500 }{ 5 }\) = 100 Hz
Wavelength in medium B is
λB = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{B}}}{f_{\mathrm{B}}}\) = \(\frac { 600 }{ 100 }\) = 6m

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 3.
For a particular tube, among six harmonic frequencies below 1000 Hz, only four harmonic frequencies are given: 300 Hz, 600 Hz, 750 Hz and 900 Hz. What are the two other frequencies missing from this list?
(a) 100 Hz, 150 Hz
(b) 150 Hz, 450 Hz
(c) 450 Hz, 700 Hz
(d) 700 Hz, 800 Hz
Answer:
(b) 150 Hz, 450 Hz

Hint: Fundamental frequency f0 = 150 Hz
From the series of frequencies we get
f1 = 2f0
f2 = 3f0
= 3 x 150
= 450 Hz

Question 4.
Which of the following options is correct?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 1
Options for (1), (2) and (3), respectively are:
(a) (b), (c) and (a)
(b) (c), (a) and (b)
(c) (a), (b) and (c)
(d) (b), (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) (b), (c) and (a)

Question 5.
Compare the velocities of the wave forms given below, and choose the correct option.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 2
where, vA, vB, vC and vD are velocities given in (a), (b), (c) and (d), respectively.
(a) vA > vB > vD > vC
(b) vA < vB < vD < vC
(c) vA = vB = vD = vC
(d) vA > vB = vD > vC
Answer:
(c) vA = vB = vD = vC

Hint:
The amplitude of the velocity waves is same in all four cases.

Question 6.
A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then hits the water surface. The ratio of its wavelengths in water and air is:
(a) 4.30
(b) 0.23
(c) 5.30
(d) 1.23
Answer:
(a) 4.30

Hint:
Frequency = 5000 Hz
Speed of sound in air vair = 332 m/s
Speed of sound in water vwater = 1450 m/s
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 3

Question 7.
A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears the first echo after t1 sec and the second echo after t2 sec. The distance between the two hills is:
(a) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}-t_{2}\right)}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1} t_{2}\right)}{2\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}\)
(c) v(t1 + t2)
(d) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}{2}\)

Hint:
For first echo 2d1 = vt1
For second echo 2d2 = vt2
∴ d = d1 + d2 = \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}{2}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 8.
An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end, will be in resonance with the vibrating body of frequency 83 Hz. Then the length of the air column is:
(a) 1.5 m
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 1.0 m
(d) 2.0 m
Answer:
(c) 1.0 m

Hint:
l = \(\frac { λ }{ 4 }\); f = 83 Hz
v = 332 m/s
λ = \(\frac { v }{ f }\)
= \(\frac { 332 }{ 83 }\)
= 4 m
l = \(\frac { λ }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 4m }{ 4 }\) = 1m = 1.0 m

Question 9.
The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x direction is given by y = (2 x 10-3) sin (300t – 2x + \(\frac { π }{ 4 }\)), where x and y are measured in metres and t in second. The speed of the wave is:
(a) 150 ms-1
(b) 300 ms-1
(c) 450 ms-1
(d) 600 ms-1
Answer:
(a) 150 ms-1

Hint:
The given equation is similar to
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 4

Question 10.
Consider two uniform wires vibrating simultaneously in their fundamental notes. The tensions, densities, lengths and diameter of the two wires ,are in the ratio 8:1, 1:2, (x : y) and 4 : 1 respectively. If the note of the higher pitch has a frequency of 360 Hz and the number of beats produced per second is 10, then the value of (x : y) is:
(a) 36 : 35
(b) 35 : 36
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
Answer:
(a) 36 : 35

Hint:
No. of beats = 10
Frequency of higher pitch f1 = 360 Hz
Frequency of lower pitch f2 = 360 – 10 = 350 Hz
x : y = Ratio of length
l ∝ f
l1 : l2 = x : y = f1 : f2
= 360 : 350
= 36 : 35

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 11.
Which of the following represents a wave:
(a) (x – vt)³
(b) x(x + vt)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ (x +vt) }\)
(d) sin(x + vt)
Answer:
(d) sin(x + vt)

Hint:
Wave must have a wave function.
Since y = a sin ωt

Question 12.
A man sitting on a swing which is moving to an angle of 60° from the vertical is blowing . a whistle which has a frequency of 2.0 k Hz. The whistle is 2.0 m from the fixed support point of the swing. A sound detector which detects the whistle sound is kept in front of the swing. The maximum frequency the sound detector detected is:
(a) 2.027 kHz
(b) 1.914 kHz
(c) 9.14 kHz
(d) 1.011 kHz
Answer:
(a) 2.027 kHz

Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 5

Question 13.
Let y = \(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}\) at t = 0 be the amplitude of the wave propagating in the positive x-direction. At t = 2s, the amplitude of the wave propagating becomes y = \(\frac{1}{1+(x-2)^{2}}\). Assume that the shape of the wave does not
change during propagation. The velocity of the wave is:
(a) 0.5 ms-1
(b) 1.0 ms-1
(c) 1.5 ms-1
(d) 2.0 ms-1
Answer:
(b) 1.0 ms-1

Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 6

Question 14.
A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is produced at the lower end. Which of the following plots shows the correct variation of speed v with height h from the lower end?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 7
Answer:

Hint:
Speed varies exponentially with height h.

Question 15.
An organ pipe A closed at one end is allowed to vibrate in its first harmonic and another pipe B open at both ends is allowed to vibrate in its third harmonic. Both A and B are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of A and B is:
(a) \(\frac { 8 }{ 3 }\)
(b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 }\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Hint:
First harmonic of a closed organ pipe
LC = \(\frac { 3 λ }{ 4 }\)
Third harmonic of an open organ pipe
L0 = \(\frac { 3 λ }{ 2 }\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{O}}}\) = \(\frac { 3 π }{ 4 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 3λ }\)
= \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 }\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{O}}}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by waves?
Answer:
The disturbance which carries energy and momentum from one point in space to another point in space without the transfer of the medium is known as a wave.

Question 2.
Write down the types of waves.
Answer:
Waves can be classified into two types –

  • Transverse waves
  • Longitudinal waves

Question 3.
What are transverse waves? Give one example.
Answer:
In transverse wave motion, the constituents of the medium oscillate or vibrate about their mean positions in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation (direction of energy transfer) of waves.
Example: light (electromagnetic waves)

Question 4.
What are longitudinal waves? Give one example.
Answer:
The direction of vibration of particles in a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Example: Sound waves traveling in air.

Question 5.
Define wavelength.
Answer:
For transverse waves, the distance between two neighbouring crests or troughs is known as the wavelength. For longitudinal waves, the distance between two neighbouring compressions or rarefactions is known as the wavelength. The SI unit of wavelength is meter.

Question 6.
Write down the relation between frequency, wavelength and velocity of a wave.
Answer:
Velocity of the wave is v = λf.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 7.
What is meant by the interference of waves?
Answer:
Interference is a phenomenon in which two waves moving in the same direction superimpose to form a resultant wave of greater, lower or the same amplitude.

Question 8.
Explain the beat phenomenon.
Answer:
When two or more waves superimpose each other with slightly different frequencies, then a sound of periodically varying amplitude at a point is observed. This phenomenon is known as beats. The number of amplitude maxima per second is called beat frequency. If we have two. sources, then their difference in frequency gives the beat frequency. Number of beats per second n = |f1 – f2| per second

Question 9.
Define intensity of sound and loudness of sound.
Answer:
“Loudness is defined as the degree of the sensation of sound produced in the ear or the perception of sound by the listener”. The intensity of sound is defined as “the sound power transmitted per unit area placed normal to the propagation of sound wave”.

Question 10.
Explain Doppler Effect.
Answer:
When the source and the observer are in relative motion with respect to each other and to the medium in which sound propagates, the frequency of the sound wave observed is different from the frequency of the source. This phenomenon is called Doppler Effect.

Question 11.
Explain red. shift and blue shift in Doppler Effect.
Answer:
If the spectral lines of the star are found to shift towards red end of the spectrum (called redshift) then the star is receding away from the Earth. If the spectral lines of the star are found to shift towards the blue end of the spectrum (called blue shift) then the star is approaching Earth.

Question 12.
What is meant by end correction in resonance air column apparatus?
Answer:
Since the antinodes are not exactly formed at the open end, we have to include a correction, called end correction e. It is calculated, by assuming that antinode is formed at a small distance above the open end e = 0.3 d.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 13.
Sketch the function y = x + a. Explain your sketch.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 9

Question 14.
Write down the factors affecting velocity of sound in gases.
Answer:
(i) Effect of pressure: Speed of sound is independent of pressure for a fixed temperature.

(ii) Effect of temperature: Speed of sound varies directly to the square root of temperature in kelvin. Speed of sound in air increases by 0.61 ms-1 per degree celcius rise in temperature.

(iii) Effect of density: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas.

(iv) Effect of moisture (humidity): Speed of sound increases with rise in humidity.

(v) Effect of wind: In the direction along the wind blowing, the speed of sound to wind blowing, the speed of sound decreases.

Question 15.
What is meant by an echo? Explain.
Answer:
An echo is a repetition of sound produced by the reflection of sound waves from a wall, mountain or other obstructing surfaces. The minimum distance from a sound-reflecting wall to hear an echo at 20°C is 17.2 meter.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss how ripples are formed in still water.
Answer:
Suppose we drop a stone in a trough of still water, we can see a disturbance produced at the place where the stone strikes the water surface. We find that this disturbance spreads out (diverges out) in the form of concentric circles of ever-increasing radii (ripples) and strikes the boundary of the trough. This is because some of the kinetic energy of the stone is transmitted to the water molecules on the surface.

Actually, the particles of the water (medium) themselves do not move outward with the disturbance. This can be observed by keeping a paper strip on the water surface. The strip moves up and down when the disturbance (wave) passes on the water surface. This shows that the water molecules only undergo vibratory motion about their mean positions.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the difference between traveling waves and standing waves.
Answer:
Progressive waves:

  1. Crests and troughs ate formed in transverse progressive waves. Compression and rarefaction are formed in longitudinal progressive waves. These waves move forward or backward in a medium i.e., they will advance in a medium with a definite velocity.
  2. All the particles in the medium vibrate in such a way that the amplitude of the vibration for all particles is the same.
  3. These waves carry energy while propagating.

Stationary waves:

  1. Crests and troughs are formed in transverse stationary waves. Compression and rarefaction are formed in longitudinal stationary waves. These waves neither move forward nor backward in a medium i.e., they will not advance in a medium.
  2. Except at nodes, all other particles of the medium vibrate such that the amplitude of vibration is different for different particles. The amplitude is minimum or zero at nodes and maximum at antinodes.
  3. These waves do not transport energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 3.
Show that the velocity of a traveling wave produced in a string is v = \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu}}\)
Answer:
Let us consider an elemental segment in the string as shown in the Figure. Let A and B be two points on the string at an instant of time. Let dl and dm be the length and mass of the elemental string, respectively. By definition, linear mass density, μ is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 10
μ = \(\frac { dm }{ dl }\) … (1)
dm = μ dl … (2)
Consider an elemental string AB having a curvature which looks like an arc of a circle with centre at O, radius R and the arc subtending an angle θ at the origin O as shown in Figure. The angle 0 can be written in terms of arc length and radius as \(\frac { dl }{ R }\) = θ. The centripetal acceleration supplied by the tension in the string is
acp = \(\frac{v^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\) … (3)
Then, centripetal force can be obtained when mass of the string (dm) is included in equation (3)
Fcp = \(\frac{(dm)v^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\) … (4)
Experienced by elemental string can be calculated by substituting equation (2) in equation (4) we get the centripetal force as
\(\frac{(dm)v^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{\mu v^{2} d l}{R}\) … (5)
The tension T acts along the tangent of the elemental segment of the string at A and B. Since the arc length is very small, variation in the tension force can be ignored. T can be resolved into horizontal component T cos (\(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\)) and vertical component T sin (\(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\)).

The horizontal components at A and B are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. Hence, they cancel each other. Since the elemental arc length AB is taken to be very small, the vertical components at A and B appears to acts vertical towards the centre of the arc and hence, they add up. The net radial force Fr is
Fr = 2Tsin(\(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\)) … (6)
Since the amplitude of the wave is very small when it is compared with the length of the string, the sine of small angle is approximated
as sin (\(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\)) ≈ \(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\). Hence, equation (6) can be written as,
Fr = 2T x \(\frac { θ }{ 2 }\) = Tθ … (7)
But θ = \(\frac { dl }{ R }\), therefore substituting in equation (7), we get
Fr = T \(\frac { dl }{ R }\) … (8)
Applying Newton’s second law to the elemental string in the radial direction, under equilibrium, the radial component of the force is equal to the centripetal force. By equating equation (5) and equation (8), we get,
T \(\frac { dl }{ R }\) = μv²dl
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mu}}\) measured in ms-1

Question 4.
Describe Newton’s formula for velocity of sound waves in air and also discuss the Laplace’s correction.
Answer:
Newton assumed that when sound propagates in air, the formation of compression and rarefaction takes place in a very slow manner so that the process is isothermal in nature. It is found that, the heat produced during compression (pressure increases, volume decreases), and heat lost during rarefaction (pressure decreases, volume increases) occur over a period of time such in a way that the temperature of the medium remains constant. Hence, by treating the air molecules to form an ideal gas, the changes in pressure and volume obey Boyle’s law, Mathematically
PV= Constant …(1)
Differentiating equation (1), we get
PdV + Vdp = 0
(or) P = – V\(\frac { dp }{ dv }\) = BT … (2)
where, BT is an isothermal bulk modulus of air.
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\rho}}\) … (3)
Substituting equation (2) in equation (3), the speed of sound in air is
vT = \(\sqrt{\frac{\bar{B}_{\mathrm{T}}}{\rho}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\rho}}\)
Since P is the pressure of air whose value at NTP (Normal Temperature and Pressure) is 76 cm of mercury, we have
P = (0.76 x 13.6 x 10³ x 9.8)Nm-2
ρ = 1.293 kg m-3.
Here p is density of air. Then the speed of sound in air at normal temperature and pressure (NTP) is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 11
But the speed of sound in air at 0°C is experimentally observed as 332 ms-1 that is close up to 16% more than theoretical value.

Laplace correction: Laplace satisfactorily corrected this discrepancy by assuming that when the sound propagates through a medium, the particles oscillate very rapidly such that the compression and rarefaction occur very fast. Hence the exchange of heat produced due to compression and cooling effect due to rarefaction do not take place, because, air (medium) is a poor conductor of heat. Since, temperature is no longer considered as a constant here, propagation of sound is an adiabatic process. By adiabatic considerations, the gas obeys Poisson’s law (not Boyle’s law as Newton assumed), that is
PV’ = Constant … (4)
where, γ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{p}}}{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{v}}}\), that is the ratio between specific heat at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume.
Differentiating equation (4) on both the sides, we get
Vγ dP + P (γVγ-1 dV) = 0
or, γP = – V\(\frac { dp }{ dv }\) = BA … (5)
where, BA is the adiabatic bulk modulus of air.
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\rho}}\)
Now, substituting equation (5) in equation (6), the speed of sound in air is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 12
Since air contains mainly, nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen etc, (diatomic gas), we take γ = 1.47. Hence, speed of sound in air is vA = (\(\sqrt{1.4}\))(280ms-1) = 331.30 ms-1, which is very much closer to experimental data.

Question 5.
Write short notes on reflection of sound waves from plane and curved surfaces.
Answer:
When the sound waves hit the plane wall, they bounce off in a manner similar to that of light. When a loudspeaker is kept at an angle with respect to a wall (plane surface), then the waves coming from the source (assumed to be a point source) can be treated as spherical wave fronts. Hence, the reflected wave front on the plane surface is also spherical, such that its centre of curvature can be treated as the image of the sound source (virtual or imaginary loud speaker) that can be assumed to be at a position behind the plane surface. These are shown in figures.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 13
The behaviour of sound is different when it is reflected from different surfaces-convex or concave or plane. The sound reflected from a convex surface is spread out and so it is easily attenuated and weakened. Whereas, if it is reflected from the concave surface it will converge at a point and this can be easily amplified. The parabolic reflector (curved reflector) that is used to focus the sound precisely to a point is used in designing the parabolic mics which are known as high directional microphones.

We know that any surface (smooth or rough) can absorb sound. For instance, the sound produced in a big hall or auditorium or theatre is absorbed by the walls, ceilings, floor, seats etc. To avoid such losses, a curved sound board (concave board) is kept in front of the speaker, in such a way that the board reflects the sound waves of the speaker towards the audience. This method will minimize the spreading of sound waves in all possible direction in that hall it also enhances the uniform distribution of sound throughout the hall. Hence a person sitting at any position in that hall can hear the sound without any disturbance.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 14

Question 6.
Briefly explain the concept of the superposition principle.
Answer:
When two or more waves in a medium overlap, their total displacement is the vector sum of the individual displacements.
Let us consider two functions which characterize the displacement of the waves, for example,
y1 = A1 sin(kx – ωt)
and y2 = A2 sin(kx – ωt)
Since both y1 and y2 satisfy the wave equation (solutions of wave equation) then their algebraic sum
y = y1 + y2
also satisfies the wave equation. It is meant that the displacements are additive.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 7.
Explain how the interference of waves is formed.
Answer:
Interference is a phenomenon in which two waves superimpose to form a resultant wave of greater, lower, or the same amplitude.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 15
Let us consider two harmonic waves having identical frequencies, constant phase difference φ, and same waveform (can be treated as coherent source), but having amplitudes A1 and A2, then
y1 = A1 sin(kx – ωt) … (1)
y2 = A2 sin(kx – ωt) … (2)
Suppose they move simultaneously in a particular direction, then interference occurs (i.e., the overlap of these two waves). Mathematically y = y1 + y2 … (3)
Hence by substituting equation (1) and equation (2) in equation (3), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 16
By squaring and adding equation (5) and (6), we get,
A² = A1² + A2² + 2A1A2cosφ … (8)
Since, intensity is square of the amplitude (I – A²), we get,
I = I1 + I2 + 2\(\sqrt{\mathrm{I}_{1} \mathrm{I}_{2}} \cos \varphi\) … (9)
This means the resultant intensity at any point depends on the phase difference at that point.

Question 8.
Describe the formation of beats.
Answer:
When two or more waves superimpose each other with slightly different frequencies, then a sound having periodically varying amplitude at a point is observed. This phenomenon is known as beats. The number of amplitude maxima per second is called beat frequency. If we have two sources, then their difference in frequency gives the beat frequency.
Number-of beats per second
n = \(\left|f_{1}-f_{2}\right|\) Per second

Question 9.
What are stationary waves? Explain the formation of stationary waves and also write down the characteristics of stationary waves.
Answer:
When the wave hits the rigid boundary it bounces back to the original medium and can interfere with the original waves. A pattern is formed, that is known as standing waves or waves stationary. Let us consider two harmonic progressive waves (formed by strings) that have the same amplitude and same velocity but move in opposite directions. Then the displacement of the first wave (incident wave) is
y1 = A sin(kx – ωt) … (1)
(waves move toward right)
The displacement of the second wave (reflected wave) is
y2 = A sin(kx + ωt) … (2)
(waves move toward left)
both will interfere with each other by the principle of superposition, the net displacement is
y = y1 + y2 … (3)
By substituting equation (1) and equation (2) in equation (3), we get
y = \(\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\mathrm{A} \sin (k x-\omega t) \\
+\mathrm{A} \sin (k x+\omega t)
\end{array}\right.\) … (4)
Using trigonometric identity, we rewrite equation (4) as
y(x, t) = 2A cos(ωt) sin(kx) … (5)
This represents a stationary wave or standing wave, It is meant that this wave does not move either forward or backward, whereas progressive or travelling waves will move forward or backward. In addition, the displacement of the particle in equation (5) can be written in more compact form,
y(x, t) = A’cos(cot)
where, A’ = 2A sin(Ax). It is implied implying that the particular element of the string executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude equals to A’. The maximum of this amplitude occurs at positions for which
sin(kx) = 1
⇒ kx = \(\frac { π }{ 2 }\), \(\frac { 3π }{ 2 }\), \(\frac { 5π }{ 2 }\), … = nπ
where m takes half-integer or half-integral values. The position of maximum amplitude is known as an antinode. Expressing wave number in terms of wavelength, let us represent the anti-nodal positions as
xm = (\(\frac { 2m+1 }{ 2 }\)) \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) … (6)
where, m = 0, 1, 2 ….
For m = 0 we have maximum at
x0 = \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\)
For m = 1 we have maximum at
x0 = \(\frac { 3λ }{ 4 }\)
For m = 2 we have maximum at
x2 = \(\frac { 5λ }{ 4 }\)
and so on.
The distance between two successive antinodes can be computed by,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 17
Similarly, the minimum of the amplitude A’ also occurs at some points in the space, and these points can be determined by setting
sin(kx) = 0
⇒ kx = 0, π, 2π, 3π, … = nπ
where n takes integer or integral values. It is noted that the elements at these points do not vibrate (not move), and the points are called nodes. The nth nodal positions is given by,
xn = n\(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) … (7)
where, n = 0, 1, 2, …
For n = 0 we have minimum at
xo = 0
For n = 1 we have minimum at
x1 = \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\)
For n = 2 we have maximum at
x2 = λ
and so on.
The distance between any two successive nodes can be calculated as
xn – xn-1 – n\(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) – (n-1)\(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\)

Characteristics of stationary waves:

  • Stationary waves are characterized by the confinement of a wave disturbance between two rigid boundaries. It is meant that the wave does not move forward or backward in a medium (does not advance), it remains steady at its place. Hence, they are called “stationary waves or standing waves”.
  • Certain points in the region in which the wave exists have maximum amplitude, called anti-nodes. At certain points, the amplitude is minimum or zero, called nodes.
  • The distance between two consecutive nodes (or) anti-nodes is \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\).
  • The distance between a node and its neighboring anti-node is \(\frac { λ }{ 4 }\).
  • The transfer of energy along the standing wave is zero.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 10.
Discuss the law of transverse vibrations in stretched strings.
Answer:
There are three laws of transverse vibrations of stretched strings that are given as follows:
(i) The law of length: For a given wire with tension T (which is fixed) and mass per unit length µ. (fixed) the frequency varies inversely with the vibrating length. Therefore,
f ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ f }\) ⇒ f = \(\frac { C }{ l }\)
⇒ l x f = C, when C is a constant.

(ii) The law of tension: For a given vibrating length l (fixed) and mass per unit length µ (fixed) the frequency varies directly with the square root of the tension T,
f ∝ \(\sqrt{T}\)
⇒ f = A\(\sqrt{T}\), when A is a constant.

(iii) The law of mass: For a given vibrating length l (fixed) and tension T (fixed) the frequency varies inversely with the square root of the mass per unit length μ,
f ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu}}\) when B is a constant.

Question 11.
Explain the concepts of frequency, harmonics and detail.
Answer:
(i) The fundamental frequency is the lowest natural frequency.

(ii) If natural frequencies are written as integral multiples of the fundamental frequency, then the frequencies are said to be in harmonics. So, the first harmonic is v1 = v1, (the fundamental frequency is called first harmonics), the second harmonics is v2 = 2v1 the third harmonics is v3 = 3v1, and so on.

(iii) The frequency higher than the fundamental frequency can be produced by blowing air strongly at the open end. Such frequencies are called overtones.

First overtone, (f2 = 3f1) since here, the frequency is three times the fundamental frequency it is called third harmonic. Second overtone, (f3 = 5f1) and since n = 5 here, this is called fifth harmonic.

Question 12.
What is a sonometer? Give its construction and working. Explain how to determine the frequency of tuning fork using a sonometer.
Answer:
Sonometer is used for sound-related measurements. Using this device, The following quantities can be determined.
(i) The frequency of the tuning fork or frequency of the alternating current.
(ii) The tension in the string.
(iii) The unknown hanging mass.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 18
Construction: The sonometer is made up of a hollow box that is one meter long with a uniform metallic thin string attached to it. One end of the string is connected to a hook and the other end is connected to a weight hanger through a pulley as shown in Figure. Since only one string is used, it is also known as monochord. The weights are added to the free end of the wire to increase the tension of the wire. Two adjustable wooden knives are put over the board, and their positions are adjusted to change the vibrating length of the stretched wire.

Procedure: A transverse stationary or standing wave is produced. So, at the knife edges P and Q, nodes are formed. In between the knife edges, anti-nodes are formed.
If the length of the vibrating element is l then
l = \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) ⇒ λ = 2l
Let f be the frequency of the vibrating element, T the tension in the string, and p the mass per unit length of the string.
Then using the the equation v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mu}}\) measured in ms-1, we get,
f = \(\frac { v }{ λ }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2l }\)\(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mu}}\) in Hertz.
Let ρ be the density of the material of the string and d be the diameter of the string. Then the mass per unit length μ,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 19

Question 13.
Write short notes on intensity and loudness.
Answer:
The intensity of sound is defined as “the sound power transmitted per unit area taken normal to the propagation of the sound wave”. The intensity of sound is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 20
This is known as the inverse square law of sound intensity. Two sounds with the same intensities need not have the same loudness. For example, the sound heard during the explosion of balloons in a silent closed room is very loud when compared to the same explosion happening in a noisy market.

If the intensity of sound is increased then loudness also increases. Loudness depends on both intensities of the sound wave and sensitivity of the ear.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 14.
Explain how overtones are produced in a,
(a) closed organ pipe
(b) Open organ pipe
Answer:
(a) Closed organ pipes: If one end of a pipe is closed, the wave reflected at this closed-end is 180° out of phase with the incoming wave. So, there is no displacement of the particles at the closed end. Hence, nodes are formed at the closed end and anti-nodes are formed at the open end.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 21
Consider the simplest mode of vibration of the air column called the fundamental mode. Anti-node is formed at the open end and node at the closed end. From the above figure, let L be the length of the tube and the wavelength of the wave produced. For the fundamental mode of vibration, we have,
– L = \(\frac{\lambda_{1}}{4}\) (or)
Wave length λ1 = 4L
The frequency of the note emitted is
f1 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) = \(\frac { v }{ 4L }\)
which is called the fundamental note.
The frequencies higher than the fundamental frequency can be produced by blowing air strongly at the open end. Such frequencies are called overtones.
The second mode of vibration in open pipes is shown in the figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 22
is called the first overtone, since here, the frequency is three times the fundamental frequency it is called third harmonic. The Figure shows the third mode of vibration having three nodes and three anti-nodes.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 22a
is called the second overtone, and since n = 5 here, this is called fifth harmonic. Hence, the closed organ pipe has only odd harmonics and the frequency of the nth harmonic is fn = (2n+l)f1. Hence, the frequencies of harmonics are in the ratio,
f1 : f2 : f3 : f4 = 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : …

(b) Open organ pipes:
The flute is an example of an open organ pipe. It is a pipe with both ends are opened. At both open ends, anti-nodes are formed. Consider the simplest mode of vibration of the air column called fundamental mode. Since anti-nodes are formed at the open end, a node is formed at the mid-point of the pipe.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 22b
From above Figure, if L be the length of the tube, the wavelength of the wave produced is given by
L=\(\frac{\lambda_{1}}{2}\) (or) λ1 = 2L
The frequency of the note emitted is
f1 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) = \(\frac { v }{ 2L }\)
That is called the fundamental note.
The frequencies higher than the fundamental frequency can be produced by blowing air strongly at one of the open ends. Such frequencies are called overtones.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 22c
The second mode of vibration in open pipes is shown in figure. It has two nodes and three anti-nodes,
∴ L = λ2 (or) λ2 = L
The frequency,
f2 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{2}}\) = \(\frac { v }{ L }\) = 2 x \(\frac { v }{ 2L }\) = 2f1
is called first over tone. Since n = 2 here, it is called the second harmonic.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 23
The Figure above shows the third mode of vibration having three nodes and four anti-nodes
∴ L = \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)λ3 (or) λ3 = \(\frac { 2L }{ 3 }\)
The frequency,
f3 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{3}}\) = \(\frac { 3v }{ 2L }\) = 31
is called second over tone. Since n = 3 here, it is called the third harmonic.
Hence, the open organ pipe has all the harmonics, and the frequency of the nth harmonic is fn = nf1.
Hence, the frequencies of harmonics are in the ratio f1 : f2 : f3 : f4 = 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : …

Question 15.
How will you determine the velocity of sound using the resonance air column apparatus?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 24
The resonance air column apparatus is used to measure the speed of sound in air at room temperature.

Construction:
(i) It consists of a cylindrical glass tube of one-meter length whose one end A is open and another end B is connected to the water reservoir R through a rubber tube as shown in Figure.

(ii) This cylindrical glass tube is mounted on a vertical stand with a scale attached to it. The tube is partially filled with water and the water level can be adjusted by raising or lowering the water in the reservoir R.

(iii) The surface of the water will act as a closed-end and others as the open end. Hence, it behaves like a closed organ pipe, forming nodes at the surface of water and antinodes at the closed end.

(iv) When a vibrating tuning fork is brought near the open end of the tube, longitudinal waves are formed inside the air column.

(v) These waves move downward as shown in Figure, and reach the surfaces of water and get reflected and produce standing waves.

(vi) The length of the air column is varied by changing the water level until a loud sound is produced in the air column.

(vii) At this particular length the frequency of waves in the air column resonates with the frequency of the tuning fork (natural frequency of the tuning fork).

(viii) At resonance, the frequency of sound waves produced is equal to the frequency of the tuning fork. This will occur only when the length of the air column is proportional to (\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\))th of the wavelength of the sound waves produced. \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)λ = L1 … (1)
But since the antinodes are not exactly formed at the open end, a Correction is to include. It is called end correction e, by assuming that the antinode is formed at some small distance above the open end. Including this end correction, the first resonance is \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)λ = L1 + e … (2)
Now the length of the air column is increased to get the second resonance. Let L2 be the length at which the second resonance occurs. Again taking end correction into account, we have
\(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)λ = L2 + e … (3)
In order to avoid end correction, let us make the difference of equation (3) and equation (2), we get
\(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)λ – \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)λ = (L2 + e) – (L1 + e)
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)λ = L2 – L1 = ∆L
⇒ λ = 2∆L
The speed of the sound in air at room temperature can be calculated by using the formula
v = fλ = 2f∆L.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 16.
What is meant by the Doppler effect? Discuss the following cases.
(i) Source in motion and Observer at rest

  • Source moves towards the observer
  • Source moves away from the observer

(ii) Observer in motion and Source at rest.

  • The observer moves towards Source
  • Observer resides away from the Source

(iii) Both are in motion

  • Source and Observer approach each other
  • Source and Observer resides from each other
  • Source chases Observer
  • Observer chases Source

Answer:
When the source and the observer are in relative motion with respect to each other and to the medium in which sound is propagated, the frequency of the sound wave observed is different from the frequency of the source. This phenomenon is called Doppler Effect.

(i) Source in motion and the observer at rest:
(a) Source moves towards die observer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 25
Suppose a source S moves to the right (as shown in Figure) with a velocity vs and let the frequency of the sound waves produced by the source be fs. It is assumed that the velocity of sound in a medium is v.

The compression (sound wavefront) produced by the source S at three successive instants of time are shown in the Figure. When S is at position x1 the compression is at C1. When S is at position x2, the compression is at C2 and similarly for x3 and C3.

It is assumed that if C1 reaches the observer’s position A then at that instant C2 reaches point B and C3 reaches point C as shown in the Figure. Obviously it is seen that the distance between compressions C2 and C3 is shorter than the distance between C1 and C2.

It is meant that the wavelength decreases when the source S moves towards the observer O. But frequency is inversely related to wavelength and therefore, frequency increases.
Calculation:
Let λ be the wavelength of the source S as measured by the observer when S is at position x1 and λ’ be the wavelength of the source observed by the observer when S moves to position x2.

Then the change in wavelength is ∆λ = λ – λ’ = vst, where t is the time taken by the source to travel between x1 and x2 Therefore,
λ’ = λ – vst … (1)
But t = \(\frac { λ }{ v }\) … (2)
On substituting equations (2) in equation (1), we get.
λ’ = λ(1 – \(\frac{v_{s}}{v}\))
Since frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength, we have
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 26
Since, \(\frac{v_{s}}{v}\) << 1, by using the binomial expansion and retaining only first order in \(\frac{v_{s}}{v}\), we get
f ‘ = f(1 + \(\frac{v_{s}}{v}\)) … (4)

(b) Source moves away from the observer Since the velocity of the source is opposite in direction when compared to case (a), hence by changing the sign of the velocity of the source in the above case i.e., by substituting (vs → – v ) in equation (1), we get
f ‘= \(\frac{f}{\left(1+\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)}\) … (5)
Using binomial expansion again, we get
f ‘= f(1 – \(\frac{v_{s}}{v}\)) … (6)

(ii) Observer in motion and source at rest:
(a) Observer moves towards Source:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 27
We can assume that the observer O moves towards the source S with velocity vo. The source S is at rest and the velocity of sound waves (with respect to the medium) produced by the source is v.
From the Figure, It is observed that both vo and v are in opposite direction. Then, their relative velocity is vr = v + vo. The wavelength of the sound wave is λ = \(\frac { v }{ f }\), which means the frequency observed by the observer O is f ‘ = \(\frac{v_{r}}{\lambda}\). Then
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 28

(b) Observer recedes away from the Source: If the observer O is moving away (receding away) from the source S, then velocity v0 and v move in the same direction. Hence, their relative velocity is vr = v – v0. Hence, the frequency observed by the observer O is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 29

(iii) Both are in motion:
(a) Source and observer approach each other:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 30
Let vs and vo be the respective velocities of source and observer approaching each other as shown in Figure. In order to calculate the apparent frequency observed by the observer, let us have a dummy (behaving as observer or source) in between the source and observer. Since the dummy is at rest, the dummy (observer) observes the apparent frequency due to approaching source as given in equation f ‘ =\(\frac{f}{\left(1-\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)}\)
fd = \(\frac{f}{\left(1-\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)}\) … (1)
The true observer approaches the dummy from the other side at that instant of time. Since the source (true source) comes in a direction opposite to the true observer, the dummy (source) is treated as a stationary source for the true observer at that instant. Hence, apparent frequency when the true observer approaches the stationary source (dummy source), f’ = f(1 + \(\frac{v_{0}}{v}\)).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 31
Since this is true for any arbitrary time, therefore, comparing equation (1) and equation (2), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 32

(b) Source and observer recede from each other:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 33
It is noticed that the velocity of the source and the observer each point in opposite directions with respect to the case in (a) and hence, we substitute (vs → – vs) and (v0 → – v0) in equation (3), and therefore, the apparent frequency observed by the observer when the source and observer recede from each other is f’ = \(\left(\frac{v-v_{0}}{v+v_{s}}\right)\)f

(c) Source chases the observer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 33a
Only the observer’s velocity is oppositely directed when compared to case (a). Therefore, substituting (v0 → – v0) in equation (3), we get f’ = \(\left(\frac{v-v_{0}}{v-v_{s}}\right)\)f

(d) Observer chases the source:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 34
Only the source velocity is oppositely directed when compared to case (a). Therefore, substituting (vs → – vs) in equation (3), we get f’ = \(\left(\frac{v+v_{0}}{v+v_{s}}\right)\)f

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
The speed of a wave in a certain medium is 900 m/s. If 3000 waves pass over a certain point of the medium in 2 minutes, then compute its wavelength?
Answer:
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 35

Question 2.
Consider a mixture of 2 mol of helium and 4 mol of oxygen. Compute the speed of sound in this gas mixture at 300 K.
Answer:
Number of molecules of helium = 2
Number of molecules of oxygen = 4
When helium and oxygen are mixed, hence the molecular weight of the mixture of gases is given by
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 36
In addition, helium is monoatomic,
\(\mathrm{C}_{v_{2}}\) = \(\frac { 2R }{ 2 }\)
Oxygen is diatomic \(\mathrm{C}_{v_{1}}\) = \(\frac { 5R }{ 2 }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 37
Ratio of specific heat capacitors of a mixture of gases is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 38
According to Laplace, the speed of sound in a gas is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 39
∴ The speed of sound = 400.9 m/s

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 3.
A ship in a sea sends SONAR waves straight down into the seawater from the bottom of the ship. The signal reflects from the deep bottom bedrock and returns to the ship after 3.5 s. After the ship moves to 100 km it sends another signal which returns back after 2 s. Calculate the depth of the sea in each case and also compute the difference in height between two cases.
Answer:
In the first case
time = 3.5s
Velocity sound in sea water = 1450 m/s
Distance 2d = v x t
= 1450 x 3.5 = 5,075 m
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac { 5075 }{ 2 }\) = 2537.5 m
In the second case,
time = 2s
Velocity of sound in water = 1450 m/s
Distance 2d = vt
= 1450 x 2
= 2900 m
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac { 2900 }{ 2 }\) = 1450
Difference ∆d = 2537.5 – 1450 = 1087.5
= 1087.5 m

Question 4.
A sound wave is transmitted into a tube as shown in the figure. The sound wave splits into two waves at point A which recombine at point B. Let R be the radius of the semi-circle which is varied until the first minimum. Calculate the radius of the semi-circle if the wavelength of the sound is 50.0 m.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 40
Path difference = πR – 2R
[Here AB = 2R; Semicircle path = πR]
Formula:
Path difference = (2n – 1)\(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) (for minimum n – 1)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 41

Question 5.
N tuning forks are arranged in order of increasing frequency and any two successive tuning forks give n beats per second when sounded together. If the last fork gives double the frequency of the first (called as octave), Show that the frequency of the first tuning fork is f = (N – 1)n.
Answer:
f,f + n,f+ 2n, … f + (m – 1)n
f + (N – 1)n = 2f
n = \(\frac { f }{ N-1 }\)
(or) f = n(N – 1)

Question 6.
Let the source propagate a sound wave whose intensity at a point (initially) be I. Suppose we consider a case when the amplitude of the sound wave is doubled and the frequency is reduced to one-fourth. Calculate now the new intensity of sound at the same point?
Answer:
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 42

Question 7.
Consider two organ pipes of the same length in which one organ pipe is closed and another organ pipe is open. If the fundamental frequency of closed pipe is 250 Hz. Calculate the fundamental frequency of the open pipe.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 43
Formula:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 44

Question 8.
Police in a siren car moving with a velocity of 20 ms-1 chases a thief who is moving in a car with a velocity v0ms-1. The police car sounds at frequency 300 Hz, and both of them move towards a stationary siren of frequency 400 Hz. Calculate the speed at which the thief is moving.
Answer:
Velocity of sound v = 330 m/s
Velocity of a police siren car vs = 20 m/s
Frequency of a police siren car f = 300 Hz
Let the velocity of the thief be v m/s
The frequency of police siren heard by a thief is
f1 = \(\left(\frac{330-v}{330-20}\right)\) x 300
= \(\left(\frac{330-v}{310}\right)\) x 300 Hz
Frequency of stationary siren = 400 Hz
Frequency of stationaiy siren heard by a thief
f2 = \(\left(\frac{330+v}{330}\right)\) x 400
If there are no beats then
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 45

Question 9.
Consider the following function,
(a) y = x² + 2 α tx
(b) y = (x + vt)²
which among the above function can be characterized as a wave?
Answer:
Given:
Formula:
For the function to be a wave function \(\frac { (dy/dx) }{ (dy/dt) }\) should be a constant.
For function (a):
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves 46
Hence, function
(a) does not describe a wave.
(b) satisfies wave function.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

V. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Why is it that transverse waves cannot be produced in a gas? Can the transverse waves be produced in solids and liquids?
Answer:
They travel in the form of crests and troughs and so involve a change in shape. They can be produced in a medium that has elasticity in shape. As gas has no elasticity of shape, hence transverse waves cannot be produced in a gas. Transverse waves can be produced in solids anion the surface of liquids.

Question 2.
Why is the roar of our national animal different from the sound of a mosquito?
Answer:
The pitch of the sound of our national animal lion is higher than that of mosquitoes. In addition, the frequency of sound waves generated by our national animal is more than the frequency of sound waves generated by mosquitoes.

Question 3.
A sound source and listener are both stationary and a strong wind is blowing. Is there a Doppler effect?
Answer:
When both source and listener are stationary, there is no relative motion between the source and the observer. Hence there is no Doppler effect.

Question 4.
In an empty room, why is it that a tone sounds louder than in the room having things like furniture, etc.
Answer:
When a room has furniture reverberation time can be suitably decreased since furniture has a large absorption coefficient of sound. So a tone sounds with lesser amplitude and intensity. Whereas in an empty room, reverberation time will be more than a room having things like furniture.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 11 Waves

Question 5.
How do animals sense the impending danger of hurricanes?
Answer:
Hurricane produces a shock wave which has a speed greater than the speed of sound. It travels with a supersonic sound that can be easily sensed by animals using the Doppler effect. The multiple reflections of sound can be easily sensed by animals.

Question 6.
Is it possible to realize whether a vessel kept under the tap is about to fill with water?
Answer:
Yes. The frequency of a note generated by an air column is inversely proportional to its length. Consequently, as the length of the air column decreases, the frequency increases, i.e., the note becomes more shrill. In our case, when a vessel kept under the top is about to fill with water, as the water level rises, the length of the air column in the vessel goes on decreasing and the emitted sound becomes more and more shrill. Hence it is realised.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Part -I

Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following deals with procedures, practices and values?
a) piracy
b) programs
c) virus
d) computer ethics
Answer:
d) computer ethics

Question 2.
Commercial programs made available to the public illegally are known as
a) freeware
b) warez
c) free software
d) software
Answer:
b) warez

Question 3.
Which one of the following are self-repeating and do npt require a computer program to attach themselves?
a) viruses
b) worms
c) spyware
d) Trojans
Answer:
b) worms

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 4.
Which one of the following tracks a user visits a website?
a) spyware
b) cookies
c) worms
d) Trojans
Answer:
b) cookies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a malicious program on computer systems?
a) worms
d) Trojans
c) spyware
d) cookies
Answer:
d) cookies

Question 6.
A computer network security that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic is
a) Cookies
b) Virus
c) Firewall
d) worms
Answer:
c) Firewall

Question 7.
The process of Converting cipher text to plain text is called
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) key
d) proxy server
Answer:
b) Decryption

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 8.
e-commerce means
a) electronic commerce
b) electronic data exchange
c) electric data exchange
d) electronic commercialization.
Answer:
a) electronic commerce

Question 9.
Distributing unwanted e-mail to others is called
a) scam
b) spam
c) fraud
d) spoofing
Answer:
b) spam

Question 10.
Legal recognition for transactions are carried out by
a) Electronic Data Interchange
b) Electronic Data Exchange
c) Electronic Data Transfer
d) Electrical Data Interchange
Answer:
a) Electronic Data Interchange

Part – II

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is harvesting?
Answer:
A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others account(s).

Question 2.
What are Warez?
Answer:
Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called warez.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 3.
Write a short note on cracking.
Answer:
Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified. “Cracking” means trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data.

Question 4.
Write two types of cyber attacks.
Answer:
The following are cyber attacks:

  • Virus
  • Worms
  • Spyware
  • Ransomware

Question 5.
What is a Cookie?
Answer:
A cookie (also called HTTP cookie, web cookie, Internet cookie, browser cookie, or simply cookie) is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing the internet.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Part – III

Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the role of firewalls?
Answer:
Role of firewalls:

  • A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules.
  • A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.

Question 2.
Write about encryption and decryption.
Answer:
Encryption and decryption are processes that ensure confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information. Encryption is the process of translating plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data (called ciphertext). Decryption is the reverse process of converting the ciphertext back to plaintext. Encryption and decryption are done by cryptography. In cryptography, a key is a piece of information (parameter) that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 1

Question 3.
Explain symmetric key encryption.
Answer:
SYMMETRIC KEY ENCRYPTION:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.

The main disadvantage of symmetric key encryption is that all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to encrypt the data before they can decrypt it. If anybody intercepts the key information, they may read all messages.
The following Figure depicts the working of symmetric key encryption.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 4.
What are the guidelines to be followed by any computer user?
Answer:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

  1. Honesty: Users should be truthful while using the internet.
  2. Confidentiality: Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
  3. Respect: Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
  4. Professionalism: Each user should maintain professional conduct.
  5. Obey The Law: Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
  6. Responsibility: Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions.

Question 5.
What are ethical issues? Name some of them.
Answer:
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right (ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.

Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

  • Cyber crime
  • Software Piracy
  • Unauthorized Access
  • Hacking
  • Use of computers to commit fraud
  • Sabotage in the form of viruses
  • Making false claims using computers

Part IV

Explain in Detail

Question 1.
What are the various crimes happening using computers?
Answer:
Cyber Crime:
Cyber crime is an intellectual, white-collar crime. Those who commit such crimes generally manipulate the computer system in an intelligent manner. For example – illegal money transfer via the internet.

Examples of some Computer crimes and their functions are listed below in the following Table :

Crime Function
Crime Function Hacking, threats, and blackmailing towards a business or a person.
Cyber stalking Harassing online.
Malware Malicious programs can perform a variety of functions including stealing, encrypting or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions, and monitoring user’s computer activity without their permission.
Denial of service attack Overloading a system with fake requests so that it cannot serve normal legitimate requests.
Fraud Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
Harvesting A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s).
Identity theft It is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
Intellectual property theft Stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.
Salami slicing Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction.
Scam Tricking people into believing something that is not true.
Spam Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet users.
Spoofing It is a malicious practice in which communication is sent from an unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 2.
What is piracy? Mention the types of piracy? How can it be prevented?
Answer:
Software Piracy:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing codes/programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

In simple words, Software Piracy is “unauthorized copying of software*’. The following Figure shows a diagrammatical representation of software piracy.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 3

Types Of Piracy:

Shareware: An entirely different approach to software piracy is called shareware, which acknowledges the futility of trying to stop people from copying software and instead relies on people’s honesty.

Warez: Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called warez.

Prevention Method:

  • Illegal copying and distribution of commercial software should not be practiced.
  • Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly.

Question 3.
Write the different types of cyber attacks.
Answer:
Types Of Cyber Attacks:
Malware is a type of software designed through which criminals gain illegal access to software and cause damage. Various types of cyber-attacks and their functions are given in the following Table.

No. ‘Cyber Attack

Function

1. Virus A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common viruses is Trojan.

Trojan
A Trojan virus is a program that appears to perform one function (for example, virus removal) but actually performs malicious activity when executed.

2. Worms Worms are self-repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
3. Spyware Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.
4. Ransomware Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organization millions each year.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

11th Computer Science Guide Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Additional Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A moral code that is evaluated as right is ………………..
(a) piracy
(b) viruses
(c) cracking
(d) ethics
Answer:
(d) ethics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 2.
Information Technology is widespread through ________
a) Computers
b) Mobile phones
c) Internet
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 3.
Stealing data from a computer system without knowledge or permission is called ………………..
(a) warez
(b) hacking
(c) cracking
(d) phishing
Answer:
(b) hacking

Question 4.
A(n) ________ is a crime which involves computer and network.
a) Cyber-crime
b) Ethics
c) Cyber-law
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Cyber-crime

Question 5.
……………….. is the intermediary between the end-users and a web browser.
(a) Firewall
(b) Proxy server
(c) Cookies
(d) Warez
Answer:
(b) Proxy server

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 6.
________ is a cybercrime.
a) Phishing
b) Hacking
c) Identity thefts
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 7.
________ is a cybercrime.
a) Pharming
b) Piracy
c) Online financial transaction
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 8.
Ethics means________
a) What is wrong
b) What is Right
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 9.
________ is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers,
a) Ethics
b) Cyber-Crime
c) Virus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Ethics

Question 10.
An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as________
a) Ethics
c) Phishing
c) Hacking
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Ethics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 11.
________ refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society,
a) Piracy
b) Morals
c) Virus
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Morals

Question 12.
________ is a cyber world standard.
a) Do not use pirated software
b) Do not hack
c) Do not steal others’ passwords
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Do not hack

Question 13.
________ is a guidelines of computer ethics.
a) Honesty
b) Confidentiality
c) Respect
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 14.
________ is a guidelines of computer ethics.
a) Professionalism
b) Obey the law
c) Responsibility
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 15.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) Ethics is a set of moral principles that govern the behavior of an individual in a society.
b) Computer ethics is set of moral principles that regulate the use of computers by users.
c) An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 16.
Identify the correct statement from the following related to ethics.
a) Users should be truthful while using the internet.
b) Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
c) Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 17.
Identify the correct statement from the following related to ethics.
a) Each user should maintain a professional conduct.
b) Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
c) Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 18.
Cybercrime is a(n) ________ crime.
a) Intellectual
b) White-collar
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 19.
Harassing through online is called ________
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Cyber Harassment
c) Cyber torture
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Cyber Stalking

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 20.
________ are malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions on user’s computer activity without their permission.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Antivirus
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Malware

Question 21.
Malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions including ________ on user’s Computer activity without their permission.
a) Encrypting or Deleting sensitive data
b) Stealing
c) Hijacking core computing functions
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 22.
Overloading a system with fake requests so that it cannot serve normal legitimate requests is called________
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Denial of service attack

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 23.
Manipulating data like changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account is called ________
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
Answer:
d) Fraud

Question 24.
________ means a person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others accounts.
a) Harvesting
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
Answer:
a) Harvesting

Question 25.
________ is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
a) Harvesting
b) Identity theft
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
Answer:
b) Identity theft

Question 26.
________ means stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.
a) Harvesting
b) Identity theft
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
Answer:
c) Intellectual property theft

Question 27.
________ meant tricking people into believing something that is not true.
a) Harvesting
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
Answer:
b) Scam

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 28.
Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction means ________
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
Answer:
a) Salami slicing

Question 29.
Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet is termed as ________
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Spam
Answer:
d) Spam

Question 30.
________ is a malicious practice in which communication is send from unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Spoofing
d) Spam
Answer:
c) Spoofing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 31.
Software________ is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
a) Piracy
b) Fraud
c) Theft
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Piracy

Question 32.
________ includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.
a) Piracy
b) Scam
c) Salami slicing
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Piracy

Question 33.
To prevent unauthorized access ________ is used.
a) Firewalls/ Intrusion Detection Systems
b) Virus and Content Scanners
c) Patches and Hotfixes
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 34.
IDS means.________
a) Intrusion Detection Systems
b) Intrusion Defective Systems
c) Intrusion Direction Systems
d) Intrusion Detach Systems
Answer:
a) Intrusion Detection Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 35.
________ is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge.
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) IDS
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Hacking

Question 36.
Steal a password is________
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) IDS
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Hacking

Question 37.
________ is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified.
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) Cracking
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Cracking

Question 38.
A cracker is called as a ________
a) Black hat
b) Dark side hacker
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 39.
Cracking means trying to get into computer systems in order to________ data.
a) Steal
b) Corrupt
c) Illegitimately view
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 40.
A ________ is someone who breaks into someone else’s computer system, often on a network, bypassing passwords or licenses in computer programs.
a) Cracker
b) Programmer
c) Server
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Cracker

Question 41.
Password cracking can be performed by________
a) Using an automated program
b) Can be manually realized
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 42.
IRC means ________
a) International Relay Chat
b) Internet Relay Chat
c) Internal Relay Chat
d) Internet Ready Chat
Answer:
b) Internet Relay Chat

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 43.
The method that uses social engineering crackers is ________ guessing.
a) Password
b) Username
c) Website name
d) URL
Answer:
a) Password

Question 44.
Identify the correct statement from the following related with cracking.
a) It is a method of getting passwords and information using human weakness.
b) Crackers find your personal information from some persona! data/facts and try to guess a password.
c) Crackers may send official e-mail requesting some sensitive information. It may look like a legitimate e-mail from bank or other official institution.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 45.
________ is a collection of various technologies, processes and measures that reduces the risk of cyber attacks.
a) Cyber Security
b) Cyber Crime
c) Cyber Gateway
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Cyber Security

Question 46.
________ protects organizations and individuals from computer based threats.
a) Cyber Security
b) Cyber Crime
c) Cyber Gateway
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Cyber Security

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 47.
________ is a type of software designed through which the criminals gain iliegal access to software and cause damage.
a) Malware
b) Piracy
c) Cracking
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Malware

Question 48.
A ________ is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file.
a) Virus
b) Piracy
c) Cracking
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Virus

Question 49.
________ is the most common virus.
a) Trojan
b) Melisa
c) Sasser
d) Code Red
Answer:
a) Trojan

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 50.
A ________ is a program that appears to perform one function but actually performs malicious activity when executed.
a) Cracking
b) Trojan virus
c) Piracy
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Trojan virus

Question 51.
________ can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Spyware

Question 52.
________ is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Ransomware

Question 53.
________ type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Ransomware

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 54.
________ is an example of social engineering.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 55.
Phishing is a type of computer crime used to attack, steal user data, including ________
a) Login name
b) Password
c) Credit card numbers
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 56.
________ occurs when an attacker targets a victim into opening an e-maiior an instant text message.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Phishing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 57.
________ is a scamming practice in which malicious code is installed on a personal computer or server, misdirecting users to fraudulent web sites without their knowledge or permission.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Pharming

Question 58.
Pharming has been called________
a) Phishing without a trap
b) Phishing with a trap
c) Illegal access
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Phishing without a trap

Question 59.
________ is a cyber-attack intended to redirect a website’s traffic to a fake site.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Trojan
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Pharming

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 60.
MITM stands for ________
a) Man In The Middle
b) Malware In The Middle
c) Move In The Middle
d) Must In The Middle
Answer:
a) Man In The Middle

Question 61.
________ is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating With each other.
a) Cyber
b) Man-in-the-middle attack
c) Cracking
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Man-in-the-middle attack

Question 62.
MITM is also called as________
a) Janus attack
b) Junk attack
c) Genious attack
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Janus attack

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 63.
A ________ is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet,
a) Cookie
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy .
Answer:
a) Cookie

Question 64.
A ________ cookie is also called as cookie.
a) HTTP or Web
b) Internet
c) Browser
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 65.
________ can be used to remember arbitrary pieces of information that the user previously entered into form fields such as names, addresses, passwords, and credit card numbers.
a) Cookie
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy
Answer:
a) Cookie

Question 66.
An anonymous user is called as________
a) Hacker
b) Malware
c) Cracker
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Hacker

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 67.
Who can access the cookie information and misuse it?
a) Hacker
b) Service provider
c) Cracker
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Hacker

Question 68.
Web sites typically use cookies for the ________ reason.
a) To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
b) Sites often use this information to track how often visitors come to the site and how long they remain on the site.
c) It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Web site.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 69.
________ can help to store personal information about users so that when a user subsequently returns to the site.
a) Cookie
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy
Answer:
a) Cookie

Question 70.
________ do not act maliciously on computer system.
a) Virus
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Cookie
Answer:
d) Cookie

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 71.
________ are merely text files that can be deleted at any time.
a) Cookies
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Virus
Answer:
a) Cookies

Question 72.
________ cannot be used to spread viruses and they cannot access our hard drive.
a) MITM
b) Cookies
c) Cracking
d) Virus
Answer:
b) Cookies

Question 73.
A ________ commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.
a) Firewall
b) Cookie
c) Hacking
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Firewall

Question 74.
Firewall category is ________
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 75.
________ firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LANs [Local Area Network], WANs [Wide Area Network] and intranets.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Network-based

Question 76.
________ firewalls are positioned on the network node itself.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Host-based

Question 77.
The ________ firewall may be a service as a part of the operating system or an agent application such as endpoint security or protection.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Host-based

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 78.
A ________ acts as an intermediary between the end-users and a web server.
a) Proxy server
b) System software
c) Node
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Proxy server

Question 79.
________ typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time.
a) Proxy servers
b) System software
c) Node
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Proxy servers

Question 80.
________ is a process that ensures confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 81.
________ is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Sampling
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Encryption

Question 82.
The encrypted text is called________
a) Cybertext
b) Cipher-text
c) Secured text
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Cipher-text

Question 83.
________ is the process of converting the cipher¬text back to plaintext.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Warping
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Decryption

Question 84.
________ is done by cryptography.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 85.
In cryptography, a ________ is a piece of information that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.
a) Key
b) Parameter
c) Input
d) Output
Answer:
a) Key

Question 86.
Encryption has been used by ________ to facilitate secret communication.
a) Militaries
b) Governments
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 87.
________ now commonly used in protecting information within many kinds of civilian systems.
a) Encryption
b) Sampling
c) Warping
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Encryption

Question 88.
________ is used to protect data in communication system.
a) Encryption
b) Sampling
c) Warping
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Encryption

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 89.
Encryption used in ________
a) Data being transferred via networks
b) Mobile telephones
c) Wireless microphones
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 90.
Encryption used in________
a) Wireless intercom systems
b) Bluetooth devices
c) Bank automatic teller machines
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 91.
Data should be ________ when transmitted across networks in order to protect against the network traffic by unauthorized users.
a) Encrypted
b) Translated
c) Converted
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Encrypted

Question 92.
There are________ types of encryption schemes.
a) three
b) four
c) two
d) five
Answer:
c) two

Question 93.
________ is a encryption scheme.
a) Symmetric Key encryption
b) Public Key encryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 94.
encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Either A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Symmetric Key

Question 95.
In________ encryption all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to encrypt the data before they can decrypt it.
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Either A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Symmetric Key

Question 96.
________ encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Public Key

Question 97.
________ uses the concept of a key-value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process.
a) Symmetric Key encryption
b) Public Key encryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Public Key encryption

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 98.
________ key is used in public key encryption.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 99.
The ________ key is kept secret by the owner.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Private

Question 100.
The ________ key is either shared amongst authorized recipients.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Public

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 101.
The data encrypted with the recipient’s ________ key can only be decrypted with the
corresponding key.
a) Public, Private
b) Private, Public
c) Public, Protected
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Public, Private

Question 102.
A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication is one of the example of________
a) Asymmetric Encryption
b) Symmetric
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Asymmetric Encryption

Question 103.
A________ is a package of information that identifies a user and a server.
a) Signature
b) Signal
c) Certificate
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Certificate

Question 104.
A certificate contains information such as________
a) An organization’s name
b) The organization that issued the certificate
c) The users’ email address and country and user’s public key
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 105.
Digital signatures are can provide ________ .
a) Assurances of evidence to origin
b) Identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message
c) Acknowledging informed by the signer
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 106.
________ law is used to prevent cybercrime.
a) Cyber Law or Cyber Space Law
b) Information Technology Law
c) Internet Law
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
d) Either A or B or C

Question 107.
In India Cyberlaw and IT Act 2000, modified in ________ are being articulated to prevent computer crimes.
a) 2018
b) 2008
c) 1998
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 2008

Question 108.
EDI stands for ________
a) Electronic Data Interchange
b) Electronic Document Interchange
c) Electronic Data Information
d) Electrical Data Interchange
Answer:
a) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 109.
________ is a term that encapsulates the legal issues related to using of the Internet.
a) Cyberlaw
b) Internet law
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 110.
________ of cybercrime remains unsolved.
a) 75%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 10%
Answer:
c) 25%

Question 111.
To protect the information follow________
a) Complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
b) When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
c) Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a) Information security is the immune system in the body of business.
b) Awareness is the key to security.
c) When using anti-virus software, keep it up-to-date.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Part II

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is hacking?
Answer:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents.

Question 2.
What is cyber-crime?
Answer:
A cyber-crime is a crime which involves computer and network. This is becoming a growing threat to society and is caused by criminals or irresponsible actions of individuals who are exploiting the widespread use of the Internet.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 3.
Mention any 2 reasons as to why the websites use cookies?
Answer:

  1. To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
  2. It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Website.

Question 4.
What are the types of Cybercrime?
Answer:
It is depicted in the following diagram:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 4

Question 5.
Define software piracy.
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing codes/programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

Question 6.
What are the standards in the cyber-world?
Answer:
In the cyber-world, there are certain standards such as:

  • Do not use pirated software.
  • Do not use unauthorized user accounts.
  • Do not steal others’ passwords.
  • Do not hack.

Question 7.
What are the core issues in computer ethics?
Answer:
The core issues in computer ethics are based on the scenarios arising from the use of the internets such as privacy, the publication of copyrighted content, unauthorized distribution of digital content, and user interaction with websites, software, and related services.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 8.
What are the changes in society due to the internet?
Answer:

  • With the help of the internet, the world has now become a global village.
  • The Internet has been proven to be a boon to individuals as well as various organizations and businesses.
  • e-Commerce is becoming very popular among businesses as it helps them to reach a wide range of customers faster than any other means;

Question 9.
What are the roles of computer ethics?
Answer:
Computer ethiŒ deals with the proœdures, values, and practices that govern the process of consuming computer technology and its related disciplines without damaging or violating the moral values and beliefs of any individual, organization, or entity.

Question 10.
What is the difference between ethics and computer ethics?
Answer:

  • Ethics is a set of moral principles that govern the behavior of an individual in a society.
  • Computer ethics is set of moral principles that regulate the use of computers by users.

Question 11.
What is cybercrime? Give an example.
Answer:
Cyber Crime
Cybercrime is an intellectual, white-collar crime. Those who commit such crimes generally manipulate the computer system in an intelligent manner.
For example – illegal money transfer via the internet.

Question 12.
How to prevent unauthorized access?
Answer:
To prevent unauthorized access, Firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), Virus and Content Scanners, Patches and Hotfixes are used.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 13.
What is social engineering? Give an example.
Answer:
Social engineering
A misuse of an individual’s weakness, achieved by making them to click malicious links, or by physically accessing the computer through tricks. Phishing and pharming.

Question 14.
What are Cookies?
Answer:
A cookie is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing the internet.

Question 15.
What are the types of encryption?
Answer:
There are two types of encryption schemes as listed below:

  • Symmetric Key encryption
  • Public Key encryption

Question 16.
What is a certificate?
Answer:
A certificate is a package of information that identifies a user and a server. It contains information such as an organization’s name, the organization that issued the certificate, the users’ email address and country, and the user’s public key.

Question 17.
What is a digital certificate?
Answer:

  • A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication.
  • It is one of the examples of Asymmetric Encryption.

Question 18.
What is a digital signature?
Answer:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity, and status of an electronic document, transaction, or message, as well as acknowledging informed by the signer.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 19.
Write a note on Cyberlaw or Internet law.
Answer:
Cyberlaw or Internet law is a term that encapsulates the legal issues related to using the Internet.

Question 20.
Write about IT Act 2000.
Answer:
IT Act 2000 is an act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) and other means of electronic communication.

Part III

Short Answers 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the guidelines of ethics?
Answer:
GUIDELINES OF ETHICS:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

  • Honesty: Users should be truthful while using the internet.
  • Confidentiality: Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
  • Respect: Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
  • Professionalism: Each user should maintain professional conduct.
  • Obey The Law: Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
  • Responsibility: Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions

Question 2.
Write a short note on ethics.
Answer:
Ethics means “What is Wrong and What is Right”. It is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers. An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ethics. Morals refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in society. Similarly, in the cyber world, there are certain standards such as

  1. Do not use pirated software.
  2. Do not use unauthorized user accounts.
  3. Do not steal others’ passwords.
  4. Do not hack.

Question 3.
Write a note on unauthorized access.
Answer:
UNAUTHORIZED ACCESS:
Unauthorized access is when someone gains access to a website, program, server, service, or another system by breaking into a legitimate user account.

For example, if someone tries guessing a password or user name for an account that was not theirs until they gained access, it is considered unauthorized access.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 4.
What are cyber-attack and cybersecurity?
Answer:

  • Cyber attacks are launched primarily for causing significant damage to a computer system or for stealing important information from an individual or from an organization.
  • Cybersecurity is a collection of various technologies, processes, and measures that reduces the risk of cyber-attacks and protects organizations and individuals from computer-based threats.

Question 5.
What is phishing? Explain with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
Phishing:
Phishing is a type of computer crime used to attack, steal user data, including login name, password and credit card numbers. It occurs when an attacker targets a victim into opening an e-mailer an instant text message.

The attacker uses phishing to distribute malicious links or attachments that can perform a variety of functions including the extraction of sensitive login credentials from victims.

Diagrammatic representation of Phishing
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 5

Question 6.
What is Pharming? Explain with suitable diagram.
Answer:
Pharming:
Pharming is a scamming practice in which malicious code is installed on a personal computer or server, misdirecting users to fraudulent web sites without their knowledge or permission.

Pharming has been called “phishing without a trap”. It is another way hackers attempt to manipulate users on the Internet. It is a cyberattack intended to redirect a website’s traffic to a fake site.

Diagrammatic representation of Pharming :
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 7.
What do you mean by Man In The Middle attack or Janus attack? Illustrate in a diagram.
Answer:
Man In The Middle (MITM) :
A man-in-the-middle attack (MITM; also Janus attack) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Example:
Suppose Alice wishes to communicate with Bob. Meanwhile, Mallory wishes to intercept the conversation to overhear and optionally to deliver a false message to Bob.

An illustration of the man-in-the-middle attack :
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 5.
Write down the points to be noted to be safe from cybercrime.
Answer:
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

  1. A complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
  2. When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
  3. Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
  4. When using anti-virus software, keep it up to date.

Question 9.
Explain the working of the Proxy Server.
Answer:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the end-users and a web server. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resources available from a different server.

The proxy server examines the request, checks authenticity, and grants the request based on that. Proxy servers typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in their cache which leads to improved response time.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 8

Question 10.
How to prevent cybercrime?
Answer:
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

  • A complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
  • When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
  • Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
  • When using anti-virus software, keep it up-to-date.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Part IV

Explain in Detail

Question 1.
List the computer crimes and their functions.
Answer:

Crime Function
Crime

Function

Hacking, threats, and blackmailing

towards a business or a person.

Cyberstalking Harassing online.
Malware Malicious programs can perform a variety of functions including stealing, encrypting, or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions, and monitoring user’s computer activity without their permission.
Denial of service attack Overloading a system with fake requests so that it cannot serve normal legitimate requests.
Fraud Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
Harvesting A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s).
Identity theft It is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
Intellectual property theft Stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.
Salami slicing Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction.
Scam Tricking people into believing something that is not true.
Spam Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet users.
Spoofing It is a malicious practice in which communication is sent from an unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.

Question 2.
Explain Hacking in detail.
Answer:
HACKING:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents. It may be done in pursuit of criminal activity or it may be a hobby.
Diagrammatic representation of Hacking
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 9

Question 3.
Write short notes on:

  1. Spam
  2. Fraud
  3. Cyberstalking
  4. Spoofing
  5. Virus
  6. Worms

Answer:

  1. Spam: Distribute unwanted email to a large number of internet users.
  2. Fraud: Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
  3. Cyberstalking: Harassing through online.
  4. Spoofing: It is a malicious practice in which communication is sent from an unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
  5. Virus: A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common viruses is Trojan.
  6. Worms: Worms are self – repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 4.
Explain the working of the Firewall server. Firewall Server:
Answer:
A firewall is a computer network security-based system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.

They are generally categorized as network-based or host-based.

Network-based firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LANs [local area Network], WANs [Wide Area Network], and intranets.

Host-based firewalls are positioned on the network node itself. The host-based firewall may be a service as a part of the operating system or an agent application such as endpoint security or protection.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 10

Question 5.
Explain public key encryption.
Answer:
PUBLIC KEY ENCRYPTION:
Public key encryption is also called asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key-value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process. One of the keys is typically known as the private key and the other is known as the public key.

The private key is kept secret by the owner and the public key is either shared amongst authorized re.dQle.ats. cvr made, available to the public at large.

The data encrypted with the recipient’s public key can only be decrypted with the corresponding private key.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Question 6.
What is a digital signature? Explain the function of the digital signature with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
Digital Signature:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity, and status of an electronic document, transaction, or message, as well as acknowledging informed by the signer.

To create a digital signature, signing software (email) creates a one-way hash of the electronic data to be signed. The user’s private key encrypts the hash, returning a value that is unique to the hashed data.

The encrypted hash, along with other information such as the hashing algorithm, forms the digital signature. Any change in the data, even to a single bit, results in a different hash value. This attribute enables others to validate the integrity of the data by using the signer’s public key to decrypt the hash.

If the decrypted hash matches a second computed hash of the same data, it proves that the data hasn’t changed since it was signed.

If the two hashes don’t match, the data has either been tampered with in some way (indicating a failure of integrity) or the signature was created with a private key that doesn’t correspond to the public key presented by the signer (indicating a failure of authentication).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security 12

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

11th Bio Zoology Guide Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm Lampito mauritii, it is found in?
a. Segments 13-14
b. Segments 14-17
c. Segments 12 -13
d. Segments 14-16
Answer:
b. Segments 14-17

Question 2.
Sexually, earthworms are
a. Sexes are separate
b. Hermaphroditic but not self – fertilizing
c. Hermaphroditic and self – fertilizing
d. Parthenogenic
Answer:
b. Hermaphroditic but not self – fertilizing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 3.
To sustain themselves, earthworms must guide their way through the soil using their powerful muscles. They gather nutrients by ingesting organic matter and soil, absorbing what they need into their bodies. Say whether the statement is True or False: The two ends of the earthworm can equally ingest soil.
Answer:
a. True
b. False

Question 4.
The head region of Cockroach ……………….. pairs of …………….. and …………….. shaped eyes occur.
a. One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped
b. Two pairs, stalked compound and round shaped
c. Many pairs, sessile simple and kidney shaped
d. Many pairs, stalked compound and kidney shaped
Answer:
a. One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 5.
The location and numbers of malpighian tubules in Periplaneta.
a. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150.
b. At the junction of foregut and midgut, about 150.
c. Surrounding gizzard, eight.
d. At the junction of colon and rectum, eight.
Answer:
a. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150.

Question 6.
The type of vision in Cockroach is
a. Three dimensional
b. Two dimensional
c. Mosaic
d. Cockroachdonot have vision
Answer:
c. Mosaic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 7.
How many abdominal segments are present in male and female Cockroaches?
a. 10,10
b. 9,10
c. 8,10
d. 9,9
Answer:
d. 9,9

Question 8.
Which of the following have an open circulatory system?
a. Frog
b. Earthworm
c. Pigeon
d. Cockroach
Answer:
d. Cockroach

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 9.
Buccopharyngeal respiration in frog
a. is increased when nostrils are closed
b. Stops when there is pulmonary respiration
c. is increased when it is catching fly
d. stops when mouth is opened.
Answer:
b. Stops when there is pulmonary respiration

Question 10.
Kidney of frog is
a. Archinephros
b. Pronephros
c. Mesonephros
d. Metanephros
Answer:
c. Mesonephros

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 11.
Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
a. fishes were amphibious in the past
b. fishes involved from frog -like ancestors
c. frogs will have gills in future
d. frogs evolved from gilled ancestor
Answer:
d. frogs evolved from a gilled ancestor

Question 12.
Choose the wrong statement among the following:
a. In earthworm, a pair of male genital pore is present.
b. Setae help in the locomotion of earthworms.
c. Muscular layer in the body wall of an earthworm is made up of circular muscles and longitudinal muscles
d. Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworms.
Answer:
d. Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworm.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 13.
Which of the following are the sense organs of Cockroach?
a. Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci
b. Antennae, compound eye, maxillary palps, and tegmina
c. Antennae, ommatidia, maxillary palps, sternum and anal style.
d. Antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, and tarsus of walking legs and coxa
Answer:
a. Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 14.
What characteristics are used to identify the earthworms?
Answer:
In gardens, earthworms can be traced by their fecal deposits known as worm castings on the soil surface. The earthworms can be identified using the following characteristics:

  • Long and cylindrical narrow body.
  • Bilateral symmetry
  • It is light brown in colour with purple tinge at the anterior end.
  • The division of body into many segments or metameres.
  • The dorsal surface of the body is marked by a dark mid-dorsal line.
  • In mature worms, segments 14-17 may be found swollen with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 15.
What are earthworm casts?
Answer:
The undigested particles along with soil are passed out through the anus as worm castings or vermicasts.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:
In earthworms, respiration takes place through the body wall by the moist skin diffusion, oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuses out.

Question 17.
Why do you call cockroaches a pest?
Answer:
Cockroaches destroy food and contaminate it with their offensive odour. They are carriers of a number of bacterial diseases. The cockroach allergen can cause asthma in sensitive people.

Question 18.
Comment on the functions of alary muscles?
Answer:
Alary muscles are the triangular muscles that are responsible for blood circulation in the cockroach. Each segment has one pair and a pumped anteriorly to sinuses again.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 19.
Name the visual units of the compound eyes of cockroach.
Answer:

  • The photoreceptors of the cockroach consist of a pair of compound eye on the dorsal surface of the head.
  • Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the ommatidia.

Question 20.
How does the male frog attract the female for mating?
Answer:
Male frog has a pair of vocal sacs and a nuptial pad on the ventral side of the first digit of each forelimb. Vocal sacs assist in amplifying the croaking sound of frog. It makes a characteristic sound and attracts the female.

Question 21.
Write the types of respiration seen in frogs.
Answer:
Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods. In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water gets exchanged through the skin by diffusion. On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs. In buccal respiration on land, the mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open.

The floor of the buccal cavity is alternately raised and lowered, so air is drawn into and expelled out of the buccal cavity repeatedly through the open nostrils. Respiration by lungs is called pulmonary respiration. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink coloured sac-like structures present in the upper part of the trunk region (thorax). Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to the lungs. During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 22.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworms.
Answer:

Peristomium Prostomium
1. The mouth is present in the centre of the first segment of the body called peristomium Overhanging the mouth is a small flap called the upperlip or prostomium.

Question 23
Give the location of clitellum and spermathecal openings in Lampito Mauritius.
Answer:
In mature earthworms, 14 – 17th segments are swollen with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum. Permathecal openings are three pairs of small ventrolateral apertures lying intersegmental between the grooves of the segment 6 / 7,  7 / 8 and 8 / 9.

Question 24.
Differentiate between tergum and a sternum.
Answer:

Tergum
1.The scierites of dorsal side of cockroach Sternum
Sternum
 The sclerites of ventral side of cockroach

Question 25.
Head of the cockroach is called hypognathous. Why?
Answer:
The mouthparts of the cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at a right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognathous.

Question 26.
What are the components of blood in frogs?
Answer:
1. Plasma-60%
2. Red blood cells, white blood cells platelets 40 %

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 27.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of the digestives system of frog.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 1

Question 28.
Explain the reproductive system of frog
1. Male reproductive organ:

  • There are pair of testes. Each test is attached to kidney and dorsal body wall with the peritoneal membrane mesorchium.
  • The vasa efferentia arises from each test is opened into the bladder canal and it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 2

2. Female reproductive system:

  • It consists of paired ovaries attached to the kidney and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium.
  • Each oviduct opens into the body cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia and posteriority the oviducts dilated to form ovisac before they open into cloaca.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 3

  • Fertilization is external.
  • The eggs hatch into tadpoles.
  • Tadpole develops three pairs of gills.
  • The tadpole grows into an air-breathing carnivorous adult frog through a process of metamorphosis.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Which of the following is found in the upper layers of the soil?
(a) Perionyx exavatus
(b) Octochaetona thurstoni
(c) Lampito mauritii
(d) Eudrilus eugeniae
Answer:
(c) Lampito mauritii

Question 2.
The region between 14 – 17 segments in earthworm is called…………………
a. Pygidium
b. Prostomium
c. Clitellum
d. Peristomium
Answer:
c. Clitellum

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 3.
The female genital aperture lies on the ventral side in the segment.
(a) 18th
(b) 10th
(c) 14th
(d) 8th
Answer:
(c) 14th

Question 4.
Find the correct pair.
a. First segment -Clitellum
b. Last segment – Peristomium
c. 14-17 -Pygidium
d. Vascular fold -Typhlosole
Answer:
d. Vascular fold -Typhlosole

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 5.
In earthworm, what is present in the 6th segment?
(a) oesophagus
(b) intestine
(c) gizzard
(d) anus
Answer:
(c) gizzard

Question 6.
Find out the correct statement
a. In male cockroach, the reproductive sac lie anteriorily.
b. In female cockroaches chitinous plates gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperture.
c. In male cockroach the sternum of 10th segment have pair of anal cerci.
d. In the 12th segment anal styles are seen.
Answer:
b. In female cockroaches chitinous plates gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperture.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 7.
What is the length of lampito mauritii.
a. 80-210 mm
b. 85-350 mm
c. 80 – 220 mm
d. 80 – 200 mm
Answer:
a. 80-210 mm

Question 8.
The mouthparts of the cockroach are of type.
(a) eating and chewing
(b) chewing and sicking
(c) sucking and chewing
(d) biting and chewing
Answer:
(d) biting and chewing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 9.
In which segments the spermatheca are situated
a. 6-7 segments, 7-8 segments 8-9 segments
b. 6-7 segments, 8-9 segments 9-10 segments
c. 8-9 segments, 9-10 segments 10-11 segments
d. 7-8 segments, 8-9 segments 9-10 segments
Answer:
a. 6-7 segments, 7-8 segments 8-9 segments

Question 10.
Which is responsible for the circulation of blood in cockroaches?
(a) spiracular muscles
(b) alary muscles
(c) haemocytes
(d) ostia
Answer:
(b) alary muscles

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 11.
Whether the following statement is correct or wrong. Justify.
a. In earthworm the digestive tract runs from the mouth to anus.
b. In earthworm the mouth is seen in the first segment.
c. In the second segment lies the buccal cavity.
d. In the 3 – 4th segment lies the pharynx.
a. True, False, False, True
b. True, True, True, True
c. False, False, False, True
d. True, False, True, False
Answer:
b. True, True, True, True

Question 12.
The large complex molecules which consist of organic-rich soil eaten by earthworm with the help of digestive enzymes is converted into the simple absorptive unit is
a. Intestinal digestion
b. Digestion
c. Rectal digestion
d. Enzymatic digestion
Answer:
b. Digestion

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 13.
Find the odd one out.
The earthworm receptors are
a. Photoreceptors
b. Vision receptors
c. Taste receptors
d. Gustatory receptors
Answer:
b. Vision receptors

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a feature of frog?
(a) presence of webbed deet
(b) absence of teeth
(c) smooth and moist skin
(d) slender body
Answer:
(b) absence of teeth

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 15.
Apart from nephridia, there is specialised cell present in the intestinal walls.
a. Chlorogogen
b. Chloricgen
c. Chlorajan
d. Chlorojin
Answer:
a. Chlorogogen

Question 16.
What is the other name for the seminal funnel?
a. Ciliary
b. Ciliary rosettes
c. Ciliary flagella
d. Ciliary antennae
Answer:
b. Ciliary rosettes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 17.
Frogs excrete and hence they are called ……………
(a) urea, urecotelic
(b) uric acid. urecotelic
(c) ammonia, ammonotalic
(d) urea, urotelic
Answer:
(c) ammonia, ammonotalic

Question 18.
What is the fluid manure of earthworm consist of?
a. Vermicomposting
b. Vermiculture
c. Vermiwash
d. Earthworm manure
Answer:
c. Vermiwash

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 19.
Find out the unrelated one
a. Vermi compose
b. Vermin
c. Vermiculture
d. Vermi wash
Answer:
b. Vermin

Question 20.
Match and find out correct
I. Coxa – a. Thick
II. Trochanter – b. Long
III. Femur – c. Small
IV. Tibia – d. Large
a. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
b. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
c. I-a, II-c , III-d ,IV-b
d. I – b, II – a, III – c, IV – d
Answer:
b. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 21.
Find out the wrong pair of cockroaches.
a. Tarsus – Podomeres
b. Genital opening Sclerites – Parametabolus
c. Sclerites of the dorsal side – Tergites
d. Sclerites of the ventral side – Sternites
Answer:
b. Genital opening Sclerites – Parametabolus

Question 22.
Find out the wrong pair of cockroaches.
a. Spiracles – Stigmata
b. Ostia – Colourless coelomic fluid
c. Ostia – Digestive system cockroach
d. Supra oesophageal ganglion – Brain
Answer:
c. Ostia – Digestive system cockroach

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 23.
Which is the ancient organism of insect?
a. Cockroach
b. Cricket
c. Grasshopper
d. Scorpion
Answer:
a. Cockroach

Question 24.
Cockroach belongs to …………………………………………… period about 320 million years ago.
a. Devonian
b. Carboniferous
c. Mississippian
d. Pennsylvanian.
Answer:
b. Carboniferous

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 25.
One of the fastest moving land insect is the cockroach. What is it’s speed?
a. 6.4 km/hr
b. 5.0 km/hr
c. 5.4 km/hr
d. 6.5 km/hr
Answer:
c. 5.4 km/hr

Question 26.
Which makes the wings of insect?
a. Chitin
b. Pecten
c. Cellulose
d. Hemicellulose
Answer:
a. Chitin

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Classify earthworms based on their ecological strategies.
Answer:

  • Earthworms are classified as epigeics, anecics and endogeics based on their ecological strategies.
  • Epigeics are the surface dwellers e.g., Perionyx excavaus and Eudrilus eugeniae.
  • Anecics are found in the upper layers of the soil e.g., Lampiro mauritii, Lumbricus terrestris.
  • Endogeics are found in deeper layers of the soil e.g., Octochaetona thursoni.

Question 2.
What are the regions of clitellum?
Answer:

  • Preclitellar region (1st – 13th segments)
  • Clitellar region (14th – 17th segment)
  • Post – Clitellar region (after 17th segment)

Question 3.
Explain the internal structure of the earthworm.
Answer:
The body wall of the earthworm is very moist, thin, soft, skinny, elastic and consists of the cuticle, epidermis, muscles and coelomic epithelium. The epidermis consists of supporting cells, gland cells, basal cells and sensory cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 4.
What is the composition of the coelom of earthworms?
Answer:
The coelomic fluid is milky and alkaline. It consists of granulocytes or eleocytes amoebocytes, mucocytes and leucocytes.

Question 5.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 6.
What are the mouthparts of the cockroach?
Answer:

  • Labrum (i) pair of mandibles Labrum (ii) pair of maxillae
  • Labium and hypopharynx or tongue.

Question 7.
Give notes on sclerites?
Answer:
In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites, which are joined together by a delicate and elastic articular membrane or arthrodial membrane.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 8.
When is cockroach evolved?
Answer:
The cockroaches are ancient among all groups of insects dating back to the carboniferous period about 320 million years ago.

Question 9.
Name the five segments of the leg of the cockroach?
Answer:

  1. Coxa -Large
  2. Trochanter-Small
  3. Femur -Long and broad
  4. Tibia – Long and thick
  5. Tarsus -has five movable joints

Question 10.
Where are hepatic caeca seen in cockroaches?
Answer:
At the junctional region of the gizzard are eight finger-like tubular blind processes called hepatic caecae.

Question 11.
Trace the air paths of respiration.
Answer:
Spiracle trachea tracheoles Tissues.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 12.
Write a note on the coelom of earthworm.
Answer;
A spacious body cavity called the coelom is seen between the alimentary canal and the body wall. The coelom contains the coelomic fluid and serves as a hydrostatic skeleton, in which the coelomocytes are known to play a major role in regeneration. immunity and wound healing. The coelomic fluid of the earthworm is milky and alkaline, which consists of granulocytes or cicocytes. amoebocytes, mucocytes and leucocytes.

Question 13.
What are the structures that is not present in frog?
Answer:
In frog there is no external ear neck and tail.

Question 14.
Give notes on chyme?
Answer:
Digestion of food takes place by the action of hydrochloric acid and gastric juices secreted from the walls of the stomach. This partially digested food is called as chyme.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 15.
What are the regions of nervous system?
Answer:
Central nervous system peripheral nervous system autonomous nervous system.

Question 16.
A cockroach produces nutritionally dense milk to feed their young ones. It may be considered as a superfood of the future. How?
Answer:

  1. It contains crystalline milk.
  2. It is synthesised by diploptera punctata.

Question 17.
What are the economic importance of frog?
Answer:

  • Frogs feed on insects and helps in reducing insect pest population.
  • Frogs are used in traditional medicine for controlling blood pressure and for antiaging properties.

Question 18.
What are the types of cockroaches?
Answer:

  • American cockroach
  • Brown-banded cockroach
  • German cockroach
  • Oriental cockroach
  • Viviparous cockroach

Question 19.
Name the cells that helps in excretion of cockroach?
Answer:

  • Fat bodies
  • Nephrocytes
  • Cuticle
  • Urecose glands

Question 20.
Define uricotelic organism.
Answer:
The nitrogenous wastes are eliminated through uric acid. (Eg.) Hence cockroach excretes uric acid as a waste it is said to be uricotelic.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 21.
What is typhiosole?
Answer:

  • The dorsal wall of the intestine of earthworm is folded into the cavity as the typhiosole.
  • This fold contains blood vessels and increases the absorptive area of the intestine.

Question 22.
What are the glands seen in male reproductive system ?
Answer:

  • Mushroom-shaped gland
  • conglobate gland.

Question 23.
What is clitellum?
Answer:
In mature worms 14 – 17 segments may be found swollen with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum. This helps in the formation of cocoon.

Question 24.
Where is spermathecal openings seen in the earthworm?
Answer:
They are lying inter-segmentally between the grooves of the segments 6/7,7/S and 8/9.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 25.
Where is genital openings seen in the earthworm?
Answer:

  • The female genital aperture lies on the ventral side in the 14th segment.
  • A pair of male genital apertures are situated latero-ventrally in the 18th segment.

Question 26.
Name the body muscles of earthworm.
Answer:

  • Cuticle
  • Epidermis
  • Coelomic epithelium

Question 27.
Name the cells t at makes the epidermis?
Answer:

  • Supportive cells
  • Glandular cells
  • Basal cells
  • Sensory cells

Question 28.
What are the functions of coelomocytes of an earthworm?
Answer:
Uses of coelomocytes

  1. Regeneration
  2. Immunity
  3. Wound healing

Question 29.
Name the cells of coelom of earthworm
Answer:

  • Granulocytes or eleocytes
  • Amoebocytes
  • Mucocytes
  • Leucocytes

Question 30.
In earthworm, self-fertilization does not take place though it has both male and female reproductive systems. Why?
Answer:
The male and female sex organs mature at different times Sperms develops earlier than the production of ova (protandrous). Hence, self-fertilization does not take place in earthworms.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 31.
Give notes on the nephrostome.
Answer:
The mega nephridium of earthworm has an internal funnel-like opening called the nephrostome which is fully ciliated.

Question 32.
What is a chloragogen cell?
Answer:
Besides nephridia special cells on the coelomic wall of the intestine called chloragogen cells are present. They excrete nitrogenous wastes in the blood.

Question 33.
Whatisprotandrous?
Answer:

  • The two sex organs of earthworm mature at different times and hence self fertilisation are prevented.
  • The sperm develops earlier than the production of ova. This process is known as protandrous.
  • It transmits the diseases like cholera, dysentery, and tuberculosis hence it is known as vectors.

Question 38.
Whatishypognathous?
Answer:
The mouthparts of cockroaches are directed downwards so it is hypognathous.

Question 39.
What are compound eyes?
Answer:
The head of the cockroach bears a pair of large sessile and reniform compound eyes. Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the ommatidia and the vision caused by the ommatidia is mosaic vision.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 40.
Name the segments of the legs of the cockroach?
Answer:
There are five segments in the legs of the cockroach.

  1. Coxa
  2. Trochanter
  3. Femur
  4. Tibia
  5. Tarsus

Question 41.
What are podomeres?
Answer:
The last segment of the leg tarsus has five movable joints called podomeres or tarsomeres.

Question 42.
Give notes on wings of cockroach?
Answer:
Cockroach has two pairs of wing. The first pair of wings protects the hind wings when the rest is called elytra or tegmina. The second pair of wings used in flight.

Question 43.
Name the plates of the abdomen of cockroach?
Answer:
There are 10 segments in the abdomen. The sclerites of the dorsal side are called tergites.
The sclerites on the ventral side are called sternites and the sclerites on the lateral sides are called pleurites.

Question 44.
What are the sensory receptors seen in cockroach?
Answer:

  • Antenna
  • Compound eyes
  • Labrum
  • Mandibles
  • Labialpalps
  • Analcerci

Question 45.
Name the fat bodies of cockroach?
Answer:
Nephrocytes, Cuticle, Urecose glands.

Question 46.
What are the glands seen in the male cockroach?
Answer:

  • Mushroom-shaped gland
  • Conglobate gland.

Question 47.
What is meant by paurometabolous?
Answer:

  • In cockroach the embryonic development occurs in the ootheca for 5-13 weeks.
  • The development of cockroach is gradual through nymphal stages. Hence it is called paurometabolous.

Question 48.
What are pokilotherms?
Answer:
The organisms which change their temperature according to the temperature of the environment is known as pokilotherms.

Question 49.
What is nictitating membrane?
Answer:
The third eyelid of frog is a nictitating membrane. It protects the eye.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 50.
What is cloaca?
Answer:
As the digestive excretory reproductive system opens commonly through a aperture this is called a cloaca.

Question 51.
What is spiracle?
Answer:
In cockroach the trachea open through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles.

Question 52.
What is meant by chordotonal receptor?
Answer:
Chordotonal receptor is found on the anal cerci which are receptive to vibrations in air and land.

Question 53.
How can an earthworm sense its burrow?
Answer:
In the prostomium of earthworms, there are thermal and chemical receptors with the help of this they can find it’s habitat.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 54.
Compare the respiration of human with the respiration of cockroach?
Answer:
In the respiratory system of cockroach there are spiracles and trachea. Each spiracles can open and close. During inspiration spiracles open. This oxygen enters into the haemocoel through spiracles and exchange of gases taking place.

Question 55.
List the very special features of cockroaches.
Answer:

  • A cockroach can survive being submerged underwater for upto 45 minutes.
  • They hold their breath often to help regulate the loss of water.

Question 56.
Cockroach can live without ahead? How?
Answer:
A cockroach can live for a week without its head. There is no connection between head and respiration. There are no nostrils and lungs.
The abdomen has 10 pairs of spiracles. These spiracles are communicated with the tracheoles and hemolymph and exchange of gases taking place.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 57.
Why is a mosaic vision with less resolution in cockroaches?
Answer:
The unit of the compound eye is ommatidium. There are hundreds of ommatidia. Each ommatidium forms an image. Each image formed in all the ommatidia forms a vision. This image is a mosaic vision.

Question 58.
List the characteristic features of order Anura?
Answer:
Frogs and Toads have elongated hindlimbs. This helps in jumping, Frogs can live in water and on trees. Parental care is seen in few species.

Question 59.
Differentiate the compound eyes from the simple eye.
Answer:

Compound eye Simple eye
1. Formed of hundreds of small units Single eye
2. Each ommatidium contains lens cornea retina and optic nerve Only one lens cornea retina and optic nerve
3. Each ommatidium forms a separate image and forms an unclear mosaic vision A single image informed. The image is clear

Question 60.
Why the three-chambered heart of a frog is not as efficient as the four-chambered heart of birds and mammals?
Answer:

  • The heart of birds and mammals have four chambers. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is carried by separate blood vessels and transports to body parts and the purifying organ.
  • The frog has a three-chambered heart. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mixes here. This mixed blood is reaching all the parts.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 61.
What is meant by cloaca a Common digestive and excretory opening?
Answer:

  • In the elasmobranhs amphibians, reptiles egg laying mammals the faeces and urine pass through this opening.
  • This passage is also a genital passage for the deposition of sperm. This is called cloacal aperature.

Question 62.
Give notes on setae of earthworm?
Answer:

  • Earthworm have setae which are small hair like bristles. They are not composed of the same material as human hair.
  • They will be helpful in feeding mating and locomotion.

Question 63.
Give notes on intestinal caeca of earthworm?
Answer:
In 26th segment of metaphire posthuma a pair of cone shaped bulging is seen. It is known as intestinal caecum. This secretes amylolytic enzymes. This helps in starch digestion.

( 3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
Based on their ecological strategies classify the earthworms?
Answer:

Ecological strata Earthworm type
1. Epigeics – up on the earth Perionyx excavatus
2. Anecics – out of the earth Lampito mauritii
3. Endogeics – with in the earth Octohaetona thurstoni

Question 2.
Where is longest earthworm seen?
Answer:

  • Micro chaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet)
  • Drawida nilamburansis is a species of earthworm in Kerala reaches a maximum length upto 1 meter (3 feet).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 3.
What is the significance of coelomic fluid of earthworm?
Answer:

  • In the coelomic fluid coelomocytes are present.
  • It helps in regeneration.
  • It helps in immunity and healing of wounds.

Question 4.
What are the sensory receptors seen in the earthworm?
Answer:

  • Photo receptors – Found on the dorsal surface of the body.
  • Gustatory – Sense of taste are found in the buccal cavity.
  • Tactile receptors Sense of touch
  • Chemo receptors Seen in the prostomium and the bodywall.
  • Thermo receptors

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 5.
Draw the diagram of nephridia of earthworm and name the parts.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 4

Question 6.
What are the other name for sclerites ?
Answer:
On the basis of their location they gets their name.

  • Dorsal sclerites – Tergites
  • Ventral sclerites – Stemites
  • Lateral sclerites – Plurites

Question 7.
The cockroach can survive with out the head. Whether the statement is correct or wrong if it is so give reason?
Answer:
This statement is correct.
Reason:

  • A cockroach can live for a week without its head.
  • Due to their open circulatory system they breath through little holes on each of their body segment hence they are not dependent on the mouth or head to breath.

Question 8.
What are the parts of the nervous system ?
Answer:
Supraoesophagial nerve ganglion or brain sub- oesophagial ganglion – circum oesophageal connectives double ventral nerve cord.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 9.
What are the significance of nervous system.
Answer:

  • Brain or supra oesophageal ganglion or brain.
  • It acts as a sensory and an endocrine centre.
  • Sub – oesophageal ganglion
  • It acts as a motor centre controls the movements of the mouthparts legs and wings.

Question 10.
Give notes on ommatidia?
Answer:

  • The photoreceptors of the cockroach consist of a pair of compound eyes at the dorsal surface of the head.
  • Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called ommatidia.

Question 11.
Give notes on ‘Mosaic vision’?
Answer:

  • The cockroach perceives the vision through each ommatidium. This vision is mosaic vision.
  • Though there is sensitivity but the vision is not a clear one.

Question 12.
Why is sexual dimorphism exhibited clearly during the breeding season in frogs?
Answer:

  • During breeding the sexual dimorphism is seen clearly.
  • The male frog has a pair of vocal sac and a ; nuptial pad on the ventral side of the first digit i of each fore limb.
  • Vocal sacs assist in amplifying the croaking sound of frog.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 13.
How will you classify the earthworm based on their living in relation to ecological strata?
Answer:

  1. Epigeics – Surface living (Eg.) Eudrilus eugeniae
  2. Anecics-Found in upper layers of the soil. (Eg.) Lampito mauritii.
  3. Endogeics – Found in deeper layers of the soil. (Eg.) Octochaetona thurstoni.

Question 14.
Give an account of respiratory system of earthworm?
Answer:

  • Earthworm has no special respiratory organ like lungs or gills.
  • Respiration takes place through the body wall.
  • The outer surface of the skin is richly supplied with blood capillaries which helps in the diffusion of gases.
  • Oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood.
  • Carbondi-oxide from the blood diffuses out.
  • The skin is kept moist by mucous and coelomic j fluid and facilitates exchange of gases.

Question 15.
Give an account of nervous system of earthworm?
Answer:

  • The brain composed of bilobed mass of supra-pharyngeal ganglia. On the third segment j supra-pharyngeal nerve ganglion and on the 4th segment sub-pharyngeal nerve ganglion is seen.
  • The brain and the sub-pharyngeal ganglia are connected by a pair of cirum-pharyngeal connectives.
  • The double ventral nerve cord runs backward from the sub-pharyngeal ganglion.

Question 16.
What is the excretory organ of an earthworm? What is its type?
Answer:
The nephridia is the excretory organ of the earthworm
They are three types.

  1. Pharyngeal or tufted nephridia seen in 5-9 segments
  2. Micro nephridia or Integumentary nephridia seen 14 – 19th -segment.
  3. Mega nephridia or septal nephridia seen from 19th – last segment.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 17.
Give notes on vermiwash.
Answer:

  • Vermi wash is a liquid manure or plant tonic obtained from an earthworm.
  • It is used as a foliar spray and helps to induce plant growth.
  • It is a collection of excretory products, mucus secretion micronutrients from the soil organic molecules.

Question 18.
What is a wormery or worm bin?
Answer:
An earthworm can be used for recycling of waste food leaf litter and biomass to prepare a good fertilizer in container is known as wormery or worm bin. It makes superior compost.

Question 19.
Give the systematic classification of an earthworm?
Answer:

  • Phylum – Annelida
  • Class – Oligocheata
  • Order – Haplotaxida
  • Genus – Lampito
  • Species – Mauriitii

Question 20.
In which part of the cockroach’s body the sensory receptors are seen?
Answer:

Receptors Organs
1. Thigmo receptor Antenna, maxillary paips and anal cerci
2. Olfactory Antennae
3. Gustatory Maxillary paips labium
4. Thermo receptors Tarsal segments on the legs.
5. Chordotonal which responds to air or earth borne vibrations Anal cerci

Question 21.
Give the systematic classification of frog?
Answer:

  • Phylum – Chordata
  • Class – Amphibia
  • Order – Aneura
  • Genus – Rana
  • Species – Hexatacdyla

Question 22.
Give the systematic classification of cockroaches?
Answer:

  • Phylum – Arthropoda
  • Class – Insecta
  • Order – Orthoptera
  • Genus – Periplaneta
  • Species – Americana

Question 23.
Give an account of exoskeleton of cockroach?
Answer:

  • The entire body is covered by a hard chitinous exoskeleton.
  • In each segment exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites which are joined together by a delicate and elastic articular membrane.
  • The sclerites of the dorsal side are called tergites. Ventral side are called sternites lateral side are called pleurites.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 24.
Give an account of the mouthparts of cockroaches?
Answer:

  • The appendages from the mouthparts are of biting and chewing type.
  • These are mandibulate or orthopterus.

Mouthparts

  1. Labrum – Upper lip
  2. A pair of mandibles
  3. Pair of maxillae.
  4. Labium-Lower lip
  5. Tongue – Hypopharynx.

Question 25.
Name the digestive glands of the cockroach.
Answer:

  • Salivary glands.
  • Hepatic caeca or entericcaeca

Question 26.
Draw the male frog with a vocal sac and nuptial pad and marks the parts.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 5

Question 27.
Give an account of buccal cavity of frog.
Answer:

  • The wide mouth opens into the buccal cavity.
  • On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large muscular sticky tongue.
  • The tongue is attached in front and free behind.
  • The free edge of the tongue is forked.
  • A row of small and maxillary teeth is found on the inner region of the upper jaw.
  • Vomerine teeth are present one on each side of the internal nosteils.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 28.
Give an account of blood of frog ?
Answer:
60% of frog’s blood is plasma and 40% is red blood cells. The blood cells composed of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.
White blood cells

  1. Neutrophil
  2. Basophil
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Lymphocytes
  5. Monocytes

 (5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe the external features of the earthworm?
Answer:

  • Earthworm has along and cylindrical body.
  • It is 80-210 mm in length. It is light brown in colour.
  • The body is encircled by a large number of grooves which divides it into a number of compartments called segments ormetameres.
  • The mouth is found in the centre of the first segment of the body called the peristomium.
  • Overhanging the mouth is a small flab called prostomium.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 6

  • The 14 – 17th segments become swollen called clitellum.
  • There are pair of female genital opening in the 14th segment and pair of male genital opening in the 18th segment.
  • In the segments 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 lies the spermatheca.
  • In all the segments of the body except the first last and clitellum there is ring of chitinous body setae. They all involved in locomotion.
  • The last segments bear anus.

Question 2.
Give an account of the digestive system of earthworms?
Answer:
1. The alimentary canal runs as a straight tube throughout the length of the body from the mouth to anus.
2. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity which occupies the 1st and 2nd segments.
3.  The thick muscular pharynx lies in the 3rd and 4th segments and is surrounded by the pharyngeal glands.
4. A small narrow oesophagus lies in the 5th segment and the 6th segment contains muscular gizzards. Which helps in grinding the soil and decaying leaves.
5. The intestine starts from the 7th segment and ’ continues upto the last segment.
6. The dorsal wall of the intestine is folded into the vascular cavity called typhlosole.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 7

Question 3.
Describe the structure of circulatory system of earthworm?
Answer:

  • In earthworm closed type of blood vascular system is seen which contains blood vessels, capillaries and lateral hearts.
  • Two median longitudinal vessels run above and below the alimentary canal as dorsal and ventral vessels of the earthworm.
  • There are paired valves in the dorsal vessels which prevent the backward flow of the blood.
  • From 6 to 13 segments with the 8 pairs of commissural vessels which connects the dorsal and the ventral vessel called lateral hearts.
  • The blood is pumped from the dorsal vessel to the ventral vessel.

The blood glands present in the anterior segments of the earthworm produce blood cells and haemoglobin and gives red colour to the blood.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 8

Question 4.
Describe the structure of the reproductive system of earthworm?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 9
The earthworm is a hermaphrodite organism the male and female reproductive organs are found in the same individual.

Male reproductive system:

  • Two pairs of testes are present in the 10th and 11th segments. The testes give rise to the germ cellor spermatogonia.
  • Two pairs of seminal funnels called ciliary rosettes are situated in the same segments as the testes. Three pairs of spermathecalies in the 7,8,9 segments.
  • The vas deferens arise from the ciliary rosettes run upto the 18th segment and open exterior through the male genital aperture which contains two pairs of penial setae.
  • A pair of prostate glands lie in the 18th and 19th segments.
  • The secretion of the prostate cement the spermatozoa into a bundle of spermatophores.

Female reproductive system:

  • A pair of ovaries lying in the 13th segment. Ovarian funnels are present beneath the ovaries continue as an oviduct and opens in the 14th segment as a female genital opening.
  • There are three pairs of spermathecae lie in the 7th, 8th and 9th segment.
  • They receive spermatozoa during copulation.
  • The two earthworms mate juxtaposition opposite gonadal openings and exchanging sperms mature egg cells in the nutritive fluid are deposited in the cocoons produced by the glands cells of the citellum which also collects the partner’s sperm from the spermathecae.
  • Fertilization and developments occurs in the cocoon.
  • After 3 weeks baby earthworm are released.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 5.
Give an account of locomotion of earthworm?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 10

  • The earthworm normally crawls with the help of their body muscles setae and buccal chamber. The outer circular and inner longitudinal muscle layers lies below the epidermis of the body wall.
  • The contraction of circular muscles make the body long and narrow while the longitudinal muscles make the body short and broad and hence due to the contraction of longitudinal muscle the earthworm moves.
  • The alternate waves of extensions and contractions are aided by the leverage afforded by the buccal chamber and setae.

Question 6.
Describe the morphological features of cockroach?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 11

  • A cockroach is a bilaterally symmetrical segmented animal which is divisible into head thorax and abdomen.
  • The entire body is covered with a chitinous exoskeleton.
  • Each segment consists of sclerites. The head is small and triangular and the mouthparts are directed downwards hence known as hypognathous. The head bears a pair of compound eye. Each compound eye is composed of unit of ommatidia.
  • The mouthparts are of mandibulate type. It consists of labrum pair of mandibles a pair of maxillae labium and a tongue.
  • The thorax consists of prothorax mesothorax and metathorax. Each thoracic segment bears a pair of walking legs.
  • Due to the presence of 3 pairs of leg, they are called Hexapoda. Each leg consists of five segments they are coxa, trochanter femur tibia, and tarsus.
  • It has two pairs of wings. It is called tegmina or elytra. The wings arise from the mesothorax protect the hind wings when at rest. The second pair of wings arise from metathorax and used inflight.

Question 7.
Draw the diagram of mouthparts of cockroach?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 12

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 8.
Describe the structure of the digestive system of cockroach with a diagram?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 13

The alimentary canal is divided into three regions namely foregut midgut and hindgut.

Foregut:

  • It includes pre-oral cavity mouth pharynx oesophagus and the posterior region contains crop.
  • The food is stored in the crop. The crop is followed by gizzard which have chitinous teeth helps in the grinding of the food particles.

Midgut:

  • At the junctional region of the gizzard are eight finger like tubular blind processes called the hepatic caecae or enteric caecae.
  • At the junction of midgut and hind gut lies 100 – 150 yellow coloured malphigian tubules. It excretes the nitrogenous wastes from the haemolymph.

Hindgut:

  • The hind gut is broader than the midgut.
  • It consists of ileum colon andrectum. The rectum opens out through anus.
  • Digestive glands
  • Salivary glands
  • Hepatic caeca

Question 9.
Describe the structure of circulatory system of cockroach ?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 14

Cockroach has an open type of circulatory system.
The coelom is filled with haemolymph. Heart is an elongated tube with muscular wall lying mid dorsally beneath the thorax.
The heart consists of 13 chambers with ostia on either side.
The blood from the sinuses enter the heart through the ostia and is pumped anteriorilly to sinuses again. In each segment there is triangular muscle called alary muscles are seen. It is responsible for blood circulation.
There is a pulsatile vesicle lies at the base of each antenna also pumps blood.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 10.
Give an account of excretory system of cockroach?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 15

  • The malphighian tubules are the main excretory organs of cockroach which help in eliminating the nitrogenous wastes from the body in the form of uric acid. Excretion is uricotelic.
  • In addition fat body, nephrocytes cuticle and urecose glands are also excretory in function. The malpighian tubules are attached at the junction of midgut and hindgut. There are about 100-150 in number present in 6 – 9 bundles.
  • Each tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells and the waste is excreted out through the hindgut.
  • The glandular cells of malpighian tubules absorb water salts and nitrogenous wastes. The cells of the tubules reabsorb water and inorganic salts.
  • By the contraction of the tubules nitrogenous waste is pushed in to the ileum. The remaining waste with solid uric acid is exceeded along with the faecal matter.

Question 11.
Describe the structure of the reproductive system of male cockroach?
Answer:

  • The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes vasa deferentia an ejaculatory duct utricular gland phallic gland and the external genitalia.
  • A pair of 3 lobed testes lies on the 4th and 6th abdominal segments. The vas deferens opens into the male gonopore which lies ventral to anus.
  • The mushroom-shaped gland is a large reproductive gland which opens into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duet.
  • The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles as bundles of spermatophores. Surrounding the male genital opening are few chitinous structures called phallometric or gonopophyses which help in copulation.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 16
Question 12.
Describe the structure of female reproductive system of cockroach?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 17

  • The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries vagina genital pouch collaterial glands speromthecae and the external genitalia.
  • A pair of ovaries lie in the segmetn of 2nd and 6th abdominal segment. Each ovary is formed of eight ovarian tubules. Oviducts of each ovary unite into a common oviduct known as vagina which opens into the genital chamber.
  • A pair of spermathecae is present in the 6th segment and opens in to the genital pouch.
  • During copulation the ova descend to the genital chamber and fertilised by the sperm. The collateral gland secreta a hard case called ootheeca around the egg.
  • The ootheca is dropped to a crack or crevice of high relative humidity near a food source. The nymphs are released from this ootheca and they grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 13.
Describe the morphological features of frog?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 18

The body of frog is streamlined to help in swimming. Body is divided into head and trunk.

Head:

  • The head is triangular and has an apex which forms the snout.
  • The mouth is at the anterior end on the head contains pair of external nostrils, pair of eyes with unmovable upper eyelid movable lower eye lid which protects the eye.
  • The nictitating membrane protects the eye when the frog is underwater.
  • A pair of ear drum lies behind the eyes. There is no external ear neck and tail.

Trunk:

  • It bears a pair of fore limbs and a pair of hind limbs. The hind limbs are longer than the forelimbs. At the posterior end between the hind limbs is the cloacal aperture.
  • Forelimbs help to bear the weight of the body. It consists of upper arm forearm and a hand. The hind limbs consist of thigh shank and foot.
  • Foot bears five long webbed toes and one small spot called the sixth toe cloacal aperture.
  • Forelimbs help to bear the weight of the body. It consists of upper arm forearm anda hand.
  • The hind limbs consist of thigh shank and foot. Foot bears five long webbed toes and one small spot called the sixth toe.

Question 14.
Explain the mode of sex determination in honeybees.
Haplodiploidv in Honeybees:
Answer:
In hymenopteran insects such as honeybees, ants and wasps, a mechanism of sex determination called haplodiploidy mechanism of sex determination is common. In this system, the sex of the offspring is determined by the number of sets of chromosomes it receives. Fertilized eggs develop into females (Queen or Worker) and unfertilized eggs develop into males (drones) by parthenogenesis. It means that the males have half the number of chromosomes (haploid) and the females have double the number (diploid), hence the name haplodiplody for this system of sex determination.

This mode of sex determination facilitates the evolution of sociality in which only one diploid female becomes a queen and lays the eggs for the colony. All other females which are diploid having developed from fertilized eggs help to raise the queen’s eggs and so contribute to the queen’s reproductive success and indirectly to their own, a phenomenon known as Kin Selection. The queen constructs their social environment by releasing a hormone that suppresses fertility of the workers.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 15.
Describe the structure of the heart of frog ?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 19

  • The heart consists of three-chamber. Two auricle and one ventricle. Heart is covered by pericardium. On the dorsal side of the heart is a triangular chamber called sinus venosus.
  • Truncus arteriosus is a thick-walled structure which is obliquely placed on the ventral surface of the heart.
  • It divides into right and left aortic trunk. Each divides into carotid systemic and pulmocutaneous arteries.
  • The systemic trunk of each side is joined posteriorly to form the dorsal aorta. They supply blood to the posterior part of the body. The pulmo-cutaneous trunk supplies blood to lungs and skin.
  • The sinus venosus receives the deoxygenated blood from the pre and post venacava and delivers the blood to the right auricle.
  • The left auricle receives oxygenated blood through the pulmonary vein.

Question 16.
Comment on the methods of Eugenics.
Answer:
Eugenics refers to the study of the possibility of improving the qualities of the human population.
Methods of Eugenics:

  1. Sex education in school and public forums.
  2. Promoting the uses of contraception.
  3. Compulsory sterilization for mentally retarded and criminals.
  4. Egg donation.
  5. Artificial insemination by donors.
  6. Prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders and performing MTP
  7. Gene therapy
  8. Cloning
  9. Egg/sperm donation of healthy individuals.

Question 17.
Describe the structure of the nervous system
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 20

  • The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system and the autonomous nervous system.
  • Peripheral nervous system consists of 10 pairs of cranial nerves and 10 pairs of spinal nerves. The autonomous nervous system is divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
  • CNS consists of brain and spinal cord. Brain is covered with pia mater and dura mater. The brain is divided into the forebrain mid-brain and hindbrain.
  • Forebrain Consists of a pair of olfactory lobes and cerebral hemisphere and diencephalon. The olfactory lobes contain a small cavity called the olfactory ventricle.
  • The midbrain includes two large optic lobes and has cavities called optic ventricles.
  • Hindbrain consists of the cerebellum and medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues as spinal cord.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of buccal cavity of frog and name the parts?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 21

Question 19.
Describe the locomotion of earthworm?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 22

  • The earthworm normally crawl with the help of their body muscles setae and buccal chamber.
  • The outer circular and inner longitudinal muscle layers lies below the epidermis of the body wall.
  • The contraction of circular muscles make the body long and narrow while the longitudinal muscle make the body short and broad and hence due to the contraction of longitudinal muscle the earthworm moves.
  • The alternate waves of extensions and contractions are aided by the leverage afforded by the buccal chamber and setae.

Question 20.
Tabulate the morphological differences between lampito mauritii and metaphire posthuma.
Answer:

Characters Lampito mauritii Metaphor Posthuma
1. Shape and size Cylindrical
80 mm – 210 mm in length 3.5mm – 5.0 mm in width
Cylindrical
115 – 130 mm in length 5 mm in width
2. Colouration Light Brown Dark Brown
3. Segmentation 165-190 Segments About 140 Segments
4. Clitellum 14th – 17th Segments (4) 14th – 16th Segments (3)
5. Intestinal caeca Absent Present in 26th segment
6. Male genital pore 18th segment 18th segment
7. Female genital pore 14th segment 14th segment

Question 21.
Tabulate anatomical differences between lampitomaritii and metaphire posthuma
Answer:

Characters Lampito mauritii Metaphire posthuma
1. Sperma thecal opening Three pairs 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 Four pairs 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9
2. Pharynx 3rd – 4th segment Runs up to 4th Segment
3. Oesophagus 5th segment 8th segment
4. Gizzard 6th segment 8th – 9th segment
5. Intestine 7th segment to anus 15th segment to anus
6. Lateral hearts 8 pairs from 6th  to 13th segments 3 pairs from 7th to 9th segments
7. Pharyngeal  nephridia 5th _ 9th segment 4th – 6th segment
8. Micronephridia 14th to last segment 7th to last segment
9. Meganephridia 19th to last segment 15th to last segment

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 22.
Differentiate the male cockroach from female cockroach.
Answer:

Characters Male cockroach Female cockroach
1. Abdomen Long and narrow Short and broad
2. Segments In the abdomen, nine segments are visible In the abdomen, seven segments are visible
3. Anal styles Present Absent
4. Terga 7th ter gum covers 8 th tergum 7th ter gum covers 8 th and 9th terga
5. Brood pouch Absent Present
6. Antenna Longer in length Shorter in length
7. Wings Extends beyond the tip of abdomen Extends up to the end of abdomen

23. Draw the life cycle of lampito mauritii.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 23

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

Question 24.
Differentiate the frog from toad.
Answer:

Characters Frog Toad
1. Family Ranidae Buforudae
2. Body shape Slender Bulkier
3. Legs Longer Shorter
4. Webbed feet present Absent
5. Skin Smooth and moist skin Dry skin covered with wart-like glands
6. Teeth Maxillary and vomerine teeth. Teeth absent
7. Egg formation Lays eggs in clusters Lays eggs in strings

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

11th Bio Zoology Guide Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Choose the incorrect sentence from the following:
a. Bile juice emulsifies the fat
b. Chyme is a digestive acidic food in stomach
c. Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol
d. Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice
Answer:
d. Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice

Question 2.
What is chyme?
a. The process of conversion of fat into small droplets.
b. The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet.
c. The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.
d. The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.
Answer:
d. The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
a. Angiotensin and epinephrine
b. Gastrin ¿md insulin
c. Cholecystokinin and secretin
d. Insulin and glucagon
Answer:
c. Cholecystokinin and secretin

Question 4.
The sphincter of Oddi guards
a. Hepatopanci’eatic duct
b. Common bile duct
c. Pancreatic duct
d. Cystic duct
Answer:
a. Hepatopanci’eatic duct

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 5.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of
a. Glucose
b. Amino acids
c. Na+
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 6.
Which one is incorrectly matched?
a. Pepsin – stomach
b. Renin – liver
c. Trypsin – intestine
d. Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
b. Renin – liver

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 7.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acid and monoglycerides takes place by
a. Lymph vessels within villi
b. Walls of stomach
c. Colon
d. Capillaries within villi
Answer:
a. Lymph vessels within villi

Question 8.
First step in digestion of fat is
a. Emulsification
b. Enzyme action
c. Absorption by lacteals
d. Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
a. Emulsification

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 9.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of
a. Pepsinogen into pepsin
b. Trypsinogen into trypsin
c. Protein into polypetide
d. Caseinogen into casein
Answer:
b. Trypsinogen into trypsin

Question 10.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?

Column – I Column – II
a. Bilirubin and biliverdin (i) Intestinal juice
b. Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Amylases
c. Digestion of fat (iii) Lipases d Salivary gland
d. salivary gland (iv) Parotid

Answer:
a. Bilirubin and biliverdin – (i) Intestinal juice

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I Column -II
P. Small intestine i. Largest factory
Q. Pancreas ii. Absorption of water
R. Liver iii. Carrying electrolytic solution
S. Colon iv. Digestion and absorption

a. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-i) (S-ii)
b. (P- iii) (Q-ii) (R-i) (S-iv)
c. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-ii) (S-i)
d. (P-ii) (Q-iv) (R-iii) (S-i)
Answer:
a. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-i) (S-ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 12.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I Column -II
P. Small intestine i. 23 cm
Q. Large intestine ii. 4 meter
R. Oesophagus iii. 12.5 cm
S. Pharynx iv. 1.5 meter

a. (P-iv) (Q- ii) (R- i) (S-iii)
b. (P- ii) (Q- iv) (R- i) (S-iii)
c. (P-i) (Q-iii) (R-ii) (S-iv)
d. (P-iii) (Q-i) (R-ii) (S-iv)
Answer:
b. (P- ii) (Q- iv) (R- i) (S-iii)

Question 13.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I Column -II
P. Lipase i) Starch
Q. Pepsin ii) Casein
R. Renin iii) Protein
S. Ptyalin iv) Lipid

a. (P-iv) (Q-ii) (R-i) (S- iii)
b. (P- iii) (Q- iv) (R- ii) (S- i)
c. (P- iv) (Q- iii) (R-ii) (S- i)
d. (P- iii) (Q- ii) (R- iv) (S- i)
Answer:
c. (P- iv) (Q- iii) (R-ii) (S- i)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of the liver?
a. Production of insulin
b. Detoxification
c. Storage of glycogen
d. Production of bile
Answer:
a. production of insulin

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Large intestine also shows the presence of a villi-like small intestine.
Reason (B): Absorption of water takes place in the large intestine
a. Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but B is false
d. A is false but B is true
Answer:
a. Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi?
a. They possess microvilli
b. They increase the surface area
c. They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels
d. They only participate in the digestion of fats
Answer:
d. They only participate in the digestion of fats

Question 17.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?
a. Vitamin D – Rickets
b. Thiamine – Beriberi
c. Vitamin K – Sterlity
d. Miacin – Pellagea.
Answer:
c. Vitamin K – Sterility

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 18.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
In small intestine digestion gets completed and the absorption of digested food materials like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol takes place. The food materials are to be retained in the intestine by increasing the surface area. Hence villi are present in the intestine. Stomach is the temporary storing organ of food. In the stomach, HCl, pepsin, renin and lipase are secreted. These are concerned with digestion. Hence villi are not present in the stomach.

Question 19.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes. yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:

  • The pile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin)
  • The pile pigments are broken down products of hemoglobin of dead RBC’s
  • Bile salts, cholesterol, and phospholipids.
  • Bile has no enzyme.
  • Bile helps in the emulsification of fats.
  • Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules.
  • Bile also activates lipase to digest lipids.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 20.
List the chemical changes that starch molecule undergoes from the time it reaches the small intestine.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 1

Question 21.
How do proteins differ from fats in their energy value and their role in the body?
Answer:

Protein Lipid
1. The caloric value 5.65 Kcal/ gram The caloric value 9.45 Kcal/gram
Q- Physiological fuel value 4 Kcal/gram Physiological fuel value 9 Kcal/ gram

Question 22.
Digestive secretions are secreted only when needed discuss.
Answer:

  • The saliva is secreted by the salivary gland in the mouth Saliva
  • The saliva contains water.
  • Electrolytes – Na+, K+ , Cl, HCo3
  • Salivary amylase (ptyalin)
  • Mucus (a glycoprotein)
  • Polysaccharides, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 2

Stomach

  • The gastric j uice contains HCI and proenzymes
  • Proenzyme pepsinogen on exposure to HCI gets converted into active enzyme pepsin.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 3

  • The HCI provides an acidic medium (pH=1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrification.
  • Proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of Infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 4

Small Intestine

Pancreatic juice:
Enzymes: Trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen, Carboxypeptidases, Pancreatic, Amalyse, Pancreatic Lipase, and Nucleases.

Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 5

Bile Juice:
The bile contains bile pigment (Bilirubin, and biliverdin) as the breakdown product of heamoglobin of dead RBCs, Bile salts, Cholesterol, and phospholipids. But has no enzymes. Bile helps in the emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules, bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Pancreatic juice action:
Trypsin hydrolyses protein into polypeptides and peptones. While chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 7

Succus enterius:
The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus.
Enzymes: Maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 8

Bicarbonate ions from the Pancreas provide an alkaline medium (pH=7.8) for the enzymatic action.
All macromolecules → Micromolecules
Carbohydrate → Monosaccharides
Protein → Aminoacid
Lipids → Fatty acids and Glycerol

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 23.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 9
A – Right hepatic duct of the liver
B – Common bile duct
C – Pancreatic duct (duct of wirsung)
D – Hepatopancreatic duct
E – Cystic duct

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Digestion and Absorption Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is the last phase of the process of digestion?
(a) ingestion
(b) assimilation
(c) eqestion
(d) digestion
Answer:
(c) eqestion

Question 2.
The Hard chewing surface of the teeth is made of ………………………… and helps in the mastication of food.
a) Enamel
b) Crown
c) Denton
d) Plague
Answer:
a) Enamel

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
Plague formed on the teeth are mineral salts of ……………..
(a) sodium
(b) magnesium and manganese
(c) potassium
(d) calcium and magnesium
Answer:
(d) calcium and magnesium

Question 4.
Which is the correct sequence?
a) Gullet → Glottis → Epiglottis
b) Epiglottis → Glottis → Gullet
c) Glottis → Gullet → Epiglottis
d) Gullet → Epiglottis → Glottis
Answer:
a) Gullet → Glottis → Epiglottis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 5.
Which is a false statement?
a) Stomach divided into three region
b) Cardiac, fundic, pyloric regions
c) Pyloric region found between duodenum and jejunum
d) Cardiac region has a sphincter
Answer:
c) Pyloric region found between duodenum and jejunum

Question 6.
Find out the incorrect pair.
a) Starch – Amylase
b) Protein – Pepsin
c) Casein – Trypsin
d) Lipid – Lipase
Answer:
c) Casein – Trypsin

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 7.
Find out the correct pair
a) Duodenum – 25 m
b) Jejunum – 2.4 m
c) Ileum – 3.7 m
d) Oesophagus – 10 m
Answer:
b) Jejunum – 2.4 m

Question 8.
Peyer’s patches produce
(a) monocytes
(b) lymphocytes
(c) basophils
(d) neutrophils
Answer:
(b) lymphocytes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 9.
Where is crypts of Leiberkuhn seen?
a) Small Intestine
b) Oesophages
c) Stomach
d) Rectum
Answer:
a) Small Intestine

Question 10.
The anal column may get enlarged and causes
a) Haemoralds
b) Haemorhoids
c) Elaemorods
d) Elaemorals
Answer:
b) Haemorhoids

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
Find the correct statement
a) Serosa – The outer layer formed of connective tissue
b) Serosa – Connective tissue, epithelial tissue
c) Serosa – Connective tissue, striated cells
d) Serosa – Connective tissue, thin squanmous epithelium
Answer:
d) Serosa – Connective tissue, thin squanmous epithelium

Question 12.
Match the following
1. Parotid gland – i) Pepsin
2. Sub maxillary gland – ii) Stenson’s duct
3. Sublingual gland – iii) Wharton’s duct
4. Stomach – iv) Duct of Rivinis
a) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-iv) (4-i)
b) (1-i) (2-ii) (3-iii) (4-iv)
c) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-i) (4-iv)
d) (1-iii) (2-ii) (3-iv) (4-i)
Answer:
a) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-iv) (4-i)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 13.
Where is castle intrinsic factor secreted?
a) Intestine
b) Digestive passage
c) Stomach
d) Large intestine
Answer:
c) Stomach

Question 14.
The hepatic lobules are covered by …………………….. a thin connective tissue sheath.
a) Glisson’s capsule
b) Cardiac membrane
c) Renal membrane
d) Cystic membrane
Answer:
a) Glisson’s capsule

Question 15.
Find the correct statement. The differentiation of Liver
a) 4-5 week
b) 3-4 week
c) 4-7 week
d) 12-3 week
Answer:
b) 3-4 week

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 16.
Find the wrong statement
a) Saliva – Ptyalin
b) Digestive tract – Mucous membrane
c) Stomach – Pepsin
d) Small intestine – Glucokinase
Answer:
d) Small intestine – Glucokinase

Question 17.
What is pH of food at the time of absorption?
a) 7.3
b) 7.5
c) 7.8
d) 7.7
Answer:
c) 7.8

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 18.
True or false
a) Carbohydrate – Glucose
b) Protein – Aminoacid
c) Fat – Fatty acid
d) Bile – Pepsin
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 32
Answer:-
a) True
b) True
c) False
d) False

Question 19.
Find x-part the diagram
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 10
a) Common bile duct
b) Pancreatic duct
c) Jejunum
d) Gall bladder
Answer:
b) Pancreatic duct

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 20.
Which of the following does not contain any enzyme?
(a) Gastric juice
(b) Bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Succus entericus
Answer:
(b) Bile

Question 21.
Name the vitamin synthesized by bacteria of the large intestine
a) D
b) K
c) C
d) E
Answer:
b) K

Question 22.
Find the correct statement.
a) Unused protein – stored in the liver
b) Unused protein – stored in the muscle
c) Unused protein – excretes as nitrogen
d) Unused protein – excretes through faeces
Answer:
c) Unused protein – excretes as nitrogen

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 23.
What is the nature of food in the stomach?
a) Chyme
b) Fermented
c) Solid
d) Semisolid
answer:
a) Chyme

Question 24.
The calorific value of carbohydrates is ………….
(a) 9.45
(b) 4.1
(c) 3.5
(d) 6.5
Answer:
(b) 4.1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 25.
Where is pyloric muscle present?
a) Junction between oesophagus and stomach
b) Junction between the large intestine and small intestine
c) Junction between small intestine and stomach
d) Junction between large intestine and rectum
Answer:
c) Junction between small intestine and stomach

Question 26.
How much protein is needed for a day?
a) 1 gm per kg
b) 2 gm per kg
c) 1.5gmperkg
d) 2.5gmperkg
Answer:
a) 1 gm per kg

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
What are the uses of food?
Answer:
The food we eat provides energy and organic substances for growth and the replacement of worn-out and damaged tissues. It regulates and coordinates the various activities that take place in the body.

Question 2.
What are the special features that help in absorbing digested food?
Answer:

  • There is an increase in the small intestine surface area.
  • The villi are present in the inner walls of the intestine.
  • The villi is the absorbtive unit
  • The microvilli present in the villi increase the absorptive surface.

Question 3.
Why do we need a digestive system?
Answer:
The food that we eat are macromolecules, and inabsorbable. These are to be broken down . into smaller micro-molecules in absorbable forms. This is done by digestive system.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 4.
How is fat and other nutrients of bile helped in digestion?
Answer:
It helps in emulsifying fat. The bile salt decreases the surface tension of fat molecules and converting it to chilo micron.

Question 5.
What is the function of the digestive system?
Answer:
The function of the digestive system is to bring the nutrients, water, and electrolytes from the external environment into every cell in the body through the circulatory system.

Question 6.
What happens when there is no secretion of HCI in the stomach?
Answer:

  • The HCI in the stomach coverts the inactivated pepsinogen into active pepsin.
  • The activated pepsin acts on protein and converts them into proteases and peptones
  • HCI provides an acidic medium which is optimum for pepsin action.

Question 7.
List out the processes starting from the ingestion of protein and storning in the muscle cells and converting them in to the parts of cytoplasm?
Answer:
Stomach:
The gastric juice contains pepsin. This is the first enzyme that works on protein.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 11

  • Rennin is present in the gastric juice of infants
  • It helps in the digestion of caesinogen and converts into casein.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 12

Pancreas:

  • Trypsin hydrolyses proteins in to polypeptides and peptones.
  • Chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

Succus Entricus
The peptidases present in the intestinal juice convert the di and polypeptides to amino acids.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 13
The end product of digestion the amino acids that are absorbed by the villi and reach the blood.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 8.
What is diphyodont dentition?
Answer:
Human beings and many mammals form two sets of teeth during their lifetime, a set of 20 temporary milk teeth which gets replaced by a set of 32 permanent teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont dentition.

Question 9.
Why the food prepared in the house is better than the food which is prepared by causing preservative and artificial enhancers?
Answer:
The food prepared by using artificial enhancers and preservatives creates so many diseases.
Diseases

  • Heart problems
  • Hypertension
  • Sterility
  • Stomach disorders
  • Attainment of early puberty in girl children.

Question 10.
What is known as the dental formula of human beings?
Answer:
The arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order of I, C, P, and M can be represented by the dental formula. The dental formula of man is 2123 / 2123.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
What are the steps to be taken to care for our alimentary tract?
Answer:

  • We have to take healthy foods.
  • We have to take plenty of water.
  • We have to regulate our stress.
  • We have to take probiotics daily.
  • We have to do exercise daily.

Question 12.
What are the functions of soluble and insoluble fibres?
Answer:
The food contain two types of fibres.
Soluble fibre: It soaks up toxins and waste in the digestive system.
Insoluble fibre: Roughage. It moves bulk through the intestine to help with regular bowel movements.
This upper surface of the tongue has small projections called Papillae.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 13.
What is the function of the tongue?
Answer:
Tongue helps in intake of food, chew and mix food with saliva, to swallow food and also to speak. The upper surface of the tongue has small projections called papillae with taste buds.

Question 14.
What are Oesophages?
Answer:
Oesophages connect the buccal cavity and stomach.

Question 15.
What is gastro oesophagus reflux disorder?
Answer:
If the cardiac sphincter does not contract properly during the churning action of the stomach the gastric juice with acid may flow back into the oesophagus and cause heart bum, resulting in GERD (Gastro Oesophagus Reflex Disorder).

Question 16.
How larger food molecules are converted into small molecules?
Answer:

Large Molecules Small Molecules
1. Carbohydrate Monosaccharides – Glucose fructose Galactose
2. Protein Amino acids
3. Fat Amino acids

Question 17.
What are gastric rugae?
Answer:
The inner wall of the stomach has many folds called gastric rugae which unfolds to accommodate a large meal.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 18.
What is meant by colitis?
Answer:

  • The bacterial infection may cause inflammation of the inner lining of colon called colitis.
  • The most common symptoms of colitis are rectal bleeding abdominal cramps and diarrhea.

Question 19.
What is indigestion?
Answer:

  • It is a digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of the stomach.
  • It may be due to in adequate enzyme secretion anxiety food poisoning overeating and spicy food.

Question 20.
Give notes on vomiting?
Answer:
It is reverse peristalsis. Harmful substances are ejected through the mouth. This action is controlled by the vomit centre located in the medulla oblongata a feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 21.
What is meant by digestion? What are the different processes of digestion?
Answer:
The breakdown of the macromolecules of food into the micro molecules of food is known as digestion.
Stages:

  1. Ingestion
  2. Digestion
  3. Absorption
  4. Assimilation
  5. Elimination of undigested substances digestion

Question 22.
What is Frenulum?
answer:
The tongue is attached at the posterior end to the floor of the buccal cavity by the structure frenulum and the tongue is free in the front.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 23.
What is meant by GERD – GASTERO oesophagus reflex disorder?
Answer:

  • There are two sphincter muscles namely the cardiac sphincter and pyloric sphincter present in the stomach.
  • If the sphineter does not contract properly during the churning action of the stomach of the gastric juice with acid may flow back into the oesophagus and cause heart bum resulting in GERD.

Question 24.
How are piles or haemorrhoides formed?
Answer:

  • The anal mucosa is folded into several vertical folds contains arteries and veins called anal columns.
  • if these anal columns get enlarged and cause piles or haemorrhoides.

Question 25.
Name the enzyme which converts the inactivated enzymes into the active enzyme.
Answer:
1. Enterokinase:
It converts the inactivated Trypsinogen into Trypsin.

2. Trypsin:
The inactive chymotrypsinogen is converted into chymotrypsin
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 25

Question 26.
What are the food components needed for a person for healthy living?
Answer:

  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Lipids
  • Vitamin
  • Minerals
  • Fibre
  • Water

Question 27.
Define Thecodont?
Answer:
Each tooth is embedded in a socket in the jaw bone; this type of attachment is called the thecodont.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 28.
What is meant by assimilation?
answer:
All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substances for their activities and incorporate in to their protoplasm this process is called assimilation.

Question 29.
Define Plaque.
Answer:
Minerals salts like Calcium and Magnesium are deposited on the teeth and form a hard layer of tartar or calculus called plaque.

Question 30.
What is Papillae?
Answer:
This upper surface of the tongue has small projections called Papillae.

Question 31.
What are the parts of Stomach?
Answer:

  • A cardiac portion
  • A fundic portion
  • A pyloric portion

Question 32.
What is the portion of small intestine?
Answer:
Duod enum – 25Cm
Jejunum-2.4m
Ileum-3.5m

Question 33.
What is Gastric rugae?
Answer:
The inner wall of the stomach has much folds called gastric rugae which unfolds to accommodate a large meal.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 34.
What are the parts of large Intestine?
Answer:

  • Caecum
  • Colon
  • Rectum

Question 35.
What are the regions of colon.
Answer:
The colon is divided into four region.

  1. An ascending region
  2. A Transverse region
  3. A Descending region
  4. A Sigmoid region

Question 36.
What are the layers found in the alimentary canal?
Answer:

  • Serosa
  • Muscularis
  • Sub – mucosa
  • Mucosa

Question 37.
What are the elements found in Saliva?
Answer:

  • Water
  • Electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl, HCO3)
  • Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin)
  • Anti-bacterial agent Lysozyme
  • Lubricating agent mucus (glycoprotein).

Question 38.
What are the components present in bile?
Answer:

  • Bilirubin
  • Biliverdin
  • Bile Salts
  • Cholesterol
  • Phospholipids

Question 39.
Name the gastric juices found in the stomach.
Answer:

  • Hydrochloric acid (PH 1.8)
  • Proenzyme – Pepsinogen
  • Pepsin Rennin

Question 40.
What is the function of the Pyloric Sphincter?
Answer:

  • The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the Pyloric Sphincter.
  • It periodically allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and also prevents regurgitation of food.

Question 41.
What is the Calorific value of carbohydrates?
Answer:

  • The caloric value of Carbohydrates is 4.1 calories/gram.
  • The physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal/gram.

Question 42.
A person is suffering from a digestion problem. What may be the reason?
Answer:
This person may be suffering from constipation.
Constipation:
The faeces are retained within the rectum, because of irregular bowel movement due to poor intake of fibre in the diet and lack of physical activities.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 43.
What is oral hydration therapy?
Answer:
If there is more loss of water due to diarrhea dehydration may occur. Treatment is known as oral hydration therapy.
This involves drinking plenty of fluids sipping small amounts of water at a time interval to rehydrate the body.

Question 44.
Define Obesity.
Answer:

  • It is caused due to the storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue.
  • It may induce hypertension, atherosclerotic heart disease, and diabetes.

Question 45.
What is BMI Calculation?
Answer:
BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of height in meter.
\(\mathrm{BMI}=\frac{\text { Body Weight in } \mathrm{Kg}}{\text { (Body Height) }^{2} \text { in meter }}\)
For example :
A person Weight = 50 Kg
Height = 1.6m
\(=50 / 1.6^{2}\)
BMI = 19.5

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
Define Gingivitis?
Answer:
The plaque formed on teeth is not removed regularly, it would spread down the tooth into the narrow gap between the gums and enamel and cause inflammation, called gingivitis.
Symptoms;
It leads to redness and bleeding of gums and leads to bad smells.

Question 2.
What is Heterodont?
Answer:
The permanent teeth are of four different types (heterodont).
Incisors – Chisel like cutting teeth
Caniues – Dogger shaped tearing teeth
Premolar -Grinding Molar – Grinding and Crushing
\(\frac{2123}{2123} \times 2=\frac{16}{16}\)
Upper Jaw – 16 teeth
Lower Jaw – 16 teeth

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
What is the significance of the Liver?
Answer:

  1. Destroy aging and defective blood cells.
  2. Stored glucose in the form of glycogen or disperses glucose into the bloodstream with the help of pancreatic hormones.
  3. Stores fat-soluble vitamins and iron.
  4. Detoxifies toxic substances.
  5. Involves in the synthesis of non – essential aminoacids and urea.

Question 4.
Explain the protein deficiency disease.
Answer:
Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM):

  • Marasmus
  • Kwashiorkor Marasmus:
  • Children are suffering from diarrhea Body becomes lean and weak
  • Reduced fat and muscle tissue with thin and folded skin.

Kwashiorkor:

  • Dry skin
  • Potbelly
  • Edema in the legs and face
  • Stunted growth
  • Changes in hair colour
  • Weakness and irritability

Question 5.
Name the digestive secretions.
Answer:

  • Salivary glands
  • Bile juice
  • Pancreatic juice Gastric juice Small Intestinal juice.

Question 6.
What are the types of Salivary glands and their ducts?
Answer:

Gland Location Ducts
1.Parotids Cheeks Stenson’s duct
2. Submandibular Lower Jaw Wharton’s duct
3. Sublingual Beneath the tonguç Bartholin’s duet (or) ducts of Rivinis
The daily secretion of Saliva from Saliva glands ranges from 1000 to 1500ml.

Question 7.
What are the cells of the gastric gland and their Secretions?
Answer:

Gastric cells of glands Secretion
1. Chief cells (or) Peptic cells (or) Zymogen cells Gastric enzymes
2. Goblet cells Mucus
3. Parietal (or) Oxyntic cells HCI an intrinsic factor responsible for the absorption of vitamin B12 is called castle’s intrinsic factor.

Question 8.
Draw and label the layers of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 14
A – Microvilli
B – Circular muscle
C – Mucous
D – Muscular layer

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 9.
Explain the protein deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Growing children require more amount of protein for their growth and development. Protein deficient diet during the early stage of children may lead to protein-energy malnutrition such as Marasmus and Kwashiorkor. Symptoms are dry skin, pot-belly, oedema in the legs and face, stunted growth, changes in hair colour, weakness, and irritability.

Marasmus is an acute form of protein malnutrition. This condition is due to a diet with inadequate carbohydrates and protein. Such children are suffering from diarrhea, the body becomes lean and weak (emaciated) with reduced-fat and muscle tissue with thin and folded skin.

Question 10.
What are the ill effects of adulteration of food?
Answer:

  • Food adulteration causes harmful effects in the form of head ache palpitations allergies, cancers.
  • It reduces the food quality common adulteration are addict onto citric acid to lemon juice.
  • Papaya seeds to pepper melamine to milk.

Question 11.
A person has diet control in particular time, he takes large amount of rice, curd, buttermilk and onion why? and write about it?
Answer:
Yes the person is suffering from Jaundice.
Jaundice:

  • It is the condition in which liver is affected and the defective liver fails to break down haemoglobulin and to remove bile pigments from the blood.
  • Deposition of these pigments changes the colour of eyes and skin yellow.
  • Jaundice is caused due to hepatitis Viral Infection

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 12.
What is the effects of crystallized cholesterol?
Answer:
The effects of crystallized cholesterol is Gall Stones.

Gall Stones:

  • Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder.
  • The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile.
  • The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct and also hepatopancreatic duct, causing pain, Jaundice and pancreatitis.

Question 13.
What is indigestion?
Answer:
It is a digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach. It may be due to inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating and spicy food.

Question 14.
Writes notes on Peptic Ulcer.
Answer:

  • It refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining (Mucosa) in the stomach or duodenum.
  • A duodenal ulcer occurs in people in the age group of 25-45 years.
  • Gastric ulcer is more common in person above the age of 5üyears.
  • Ulcer mostly due to infections caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylon.
  • It may be due to uncontrolled usage of aspirin or certain anti-inflammatory drugs.
  • It is caused due to smoking, alcohol, caffeine, and psychological stress.

Question 15.
What is a hiatus hernia or diaphragmatic hernia?
Answer:
It is a structural abnormality in which the superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly above the diaphragm. The exact cause of hiatus hernias is not known. In some people, injury or other damage may weaken muscle tissue, by applying too much pressure (repeatedly) on the muscles around the stomach while coughing, vomiting, and straining during bowel movement and lifting heavy objects.

Question 16.
Give notes on the stomach.
Answer:

  • Stomach functions as the temporary storage organ for food.
  • It consists of three parts cardiac fundic and pyloric stomach.
  • The oesophagus opens into a cardiac stomach and guarded by cardiac sphincter.
  • The pyloric stomach opens into duodenum and is guarded by the pyloric sphincter.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 15

  • It allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and prevents regurgitation of food.
  • The inner walls of stomach has many folds which unfolds to accommodate a large meal.

Question 17.
Give short notes on intestinal villi?
Answer:

  • The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi which are involved in the process of absorption.
  • The cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance and increase the surface area enormously.
  • Along with villi the clear mucosa contain mucous secreting goblet cell and peyer patches which produce lymphocytes.
  • The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of villi called crypts of leiberkuhn.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 16

Question 18.
Write a paragraph on peptic ulcers.
Answer:
It refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining (mucosa) in the stomach or duodenum. A duodenal ulcer occurs in people in the age group of 25 – 45 years. Gastric ulcer is more common in persons above the age of 50 years. An ulcer is mostly due to infections caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. It may also be caused due to uncontrolled usage of aspirin or certain anti-inflammatory drugs. An ulcer may also be caused due to smoking, alcohol, caffeine, and psychological stress.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 19.
Give an account of the Pancreas.
Answer:

  • The Pancreatic is the second-largest gland in the digestive system which is a yellow coloured compound organ.
  • It consists of exocrine and endocrine cells.
  • It is situated between the limbs of the ‘U’ shaped duodenum.
  • The exocrine portion secretes trypsin, pancreatic lipase, amylase.
  • The islets of Langerhans cells of the pancreas secrete insulin and glucogen hormone.

Question 20.
Name the alimentary canal parts and the absorptive substance.
Answer:

Organ Substances tube absorbed
1. Mouth Water Simple Sugar
2. Stomach Alcohol, Medicine, Simple Sugar
3. Intestine Simple Sugar, Amino acids, Fatty Acids, Glycerol
4. Colon More Water, Minerals, Vitamins, Medicines

(5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the large intestine with a diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 17

1. The Caecum:

  • It is a small blind pouch-like structure that opens into the colon and it possesses a narrow finger-like tubular projection called vermi form appendix.
  • Caecumand vermiform appendix is large in herbivorous animals and act as an important site for cellulose digestion with the help of symbiotic bacteria.

2. The Colon:
The colon is divided in to four regions an ascending transverse a descending part and a sigmoid Colon. The Colon is lined by dilations called haustra.

3. Sigmoid Colon:

  • ‘S’ shaped sigmoid colon opensinto the rectum.
  • The anus is guarded by two anal sphincter muscles. The anal mucosa is folded in to several vertical folds and contains arteries and veins called anal column.
  • Anal colomn may get enlarged and causes piles.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of liver with a diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 18

  • The liver is the largest gland in our body.
  • It is situated below the diaphragm.
  • The liver consists of two major left and right lobes and two minor lobes.
  • Each lobe has many hepatic lobules called a functional unit of liver and is covered by a thin connective sheath called Glisson’s capsule.
  • Liver cells secrete and are stored in the gall bladder. The duct of gall bladder and the hepatic duct form the common bile duct.
  • The bile duct and the pancreatic duct joined to gether formed a common duct and opens into the duodenum and is guarded by a sphincter of Oddi.
  • Liver has high power of regeneration and liver cells are replaced by new ones every 3-4 weeks.

Question 3.
Describe the process of digestion in the mouth.
Answer:

  • The smell the sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth trigger a reflex action that results in the secretion of saliva.
  • The mechanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of good.
  • The saliva contains water electrolytes like Na, K, Cl, HCO3 salivary amylase or ptyalin antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubrication agent mucus.
  • The saliva moistening lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus.
  • The ptyalin in the saliva hydrolyzes 30% of the poly saccharide into disaccharides.
  • The bolus is passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition.
  • The bolus reaches the stomach by successive waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 4.
Describe the process of digestion in the stomach
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 19

  • The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.
  • The gastric juice contains HCI pepsinogen renin etc.
  • The HCI changes the pepsinogen into pepsin.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 26

  • Pepsin acts on protein and converts into proteoses and peptones.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 27

 

  • The HCI provides an acidic medium that is optimum for pepsin kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrefaction.
  • The mucous and bicarbonates protect the stomach from acidic HCl.
  • The rennin converts the milk protein carcinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 28

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion in the small intestine.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 20
The bile pancreatic juice and intestinal juice the secretions released into the small intestine.

Bile:

  • The bile contains bile pigments bilirubin and biliverdin as the breakdown products of haemoglobin of dead RBCs bile salts.
  • Bile helps in the emulsification of fats Bile salts reduce the surface tension of the fat droplets and break them into small globules.
  • Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Pancreas:

  • The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen.
  • Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme enterokinase into active trypsin.
  • Trypsin activates the chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin.
  • Trypsin hydrolyses protein into polypeptides and peptones.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 21
Chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific aminoacids.
The amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose.
Lipase acts on tri glycerides and hydrolyes them into free fatty acid and mono glycerides.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 22

Succtts entricus:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 23

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 6.
What is meant by absorption? How is digested food absorbed in the digestive system?
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa in to the blood and lymph.
Process of absorption:

  1. Simple Diffusion: Small amounts of glucose amino acids and chloride ions are absorbed by simple diffusion.
  2. Facilitated Transport: Fructose arc absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na.
  3. Active Transport: Aminoacids, Glucose, and Sodium are absorbed by active transport.
  4. Passive Transport: Fatty acids are absorbed by the Lacteals of Villi.

Question 7.
What is the caloric value of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?
Answer:
We obtain 50% of energy from carbohydrates 35 % from fats and 15 % from proteins.
We require about 400 – 500 gm of carbohydrates. 60 – 70 gm of fat 65 to 75 gm of proteins per day.

Carbohydrate:
The caloric valve of a Carbohydrate is 4.1 calories gram and its physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal per gram.

Lipid:
Fat has a caloric valve of 9.45 KCal and a physiological fuel value of 9 KCal per gram.

Protein:
The caloric and physiological fuel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 KCal respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 8.
What is meant by Hiatus hernia or Oesophagus Hernia
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 24

  • It is a structural abnormality in which the superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly above the diaphragm.
  • Applying too much pressure on the muscles around the stomach while coughing, vomiting and straining during bowel movement and lifting heavy object it may weaken the muscle tissues of the stomach.
  • In some people, injury or damage may weaken muscle tissue.
  • Heart burn is common in this disease.
  • The stomach contents travel back into the oesophagus or even into the oral cavity and cause pain in the center of the chest due to the eroding nature of acidity.

Question 9.
Obesity – Explain.
Answer:

  • It is caused due to the storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue.
  • Obesity may be genetic or due to excess intake of food endocrine and metabolic disorders.
  • The degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI).
  • A Normal BMI range for adults is 19 – 25 above 25 is obese.
  • BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg divided by the square of body height in meters.
  • For example, a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 Cms would have a BMI of 19.5.
  • That is BMI \(=50 / 1.6^{2}\) = 19.5

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 29

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 30

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption 31

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 18 Tamil Computing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

11th Computer Science Guide Tamil Computing Text Book Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
List of the search engines supporting Tamil.
Answer:
Google and Bing provide searching facilities in Tamil, which means you can search everything through Tamil. A Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 2.
What are the keyboard layouts used in Android?
Answer:
Sellinam and Ponmadal are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that work on the Android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 3.
Write a short note about Tamil Programming Language.
Answer:
Based on the Python programming language, the first Tamil programming language “Ezhil” (எழில்) is designed. With the help of this programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil.

Question 4.
What TSCII?
Answer:
TSCII (Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange) is the first coding system to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non-English computers.
This encoding scheme was registered in the IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) unit of ICANN.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 5.
Write a short note on Tamil Virtual Academy
Answer:
With the objectives of spreading Tamil to the entire world through the internet, Tamil Virtual University was established on 17th February 2001 by the Govt, of Tamil Nadu. Now, this organisation is functioning with the name “Tamil Virtual Academy”. This organisation offers different courses regarding the Tamil language, culture, heritage, etc., from kindergarten to under graduation level.

11th Computer Science Guide Tamil Computing Additional Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Correct Answer 1 Mark 

Question 1.
Human civilization developed with the innovation of computer in the ……………
(a) 11th century
(b) 13th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 20th century
Answer:
(d) 20th century

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 2.
_______ internet users consider local language digital content to be more reliable than English.
a) 74%
b) 68%
c) 42%
d) 28%
Answer:
b) 68%

Question 3.
Getting government services through the internet is known as ……………
(a) e-library
(b) e-governance
(c) Tamil programming language
(d) Tamil translation applications
Answer:
(b) e-governance

Question 4.
From 2021 onwards, _______of people in India will access the internet using Tamil.
a) 74%
b) 68%
c) 42%
d) 28%
Answer:
a) 74%

Question 5.
The _______are used to search any information from cyberspace.
a) Search Engines
b) Browsers
c) Cookies
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Search Engines

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 6.
In the top ten search engines, _______takes first place.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Google

Question 7.
In the top ten search engines,_______takes second place.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Bing

Question 8.
In the top ten search engines, _______takes third place.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Yahoo

Question 9.
_______search engine provides searching facilities in Tamil.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) Google and Bing
Answer:
d) Google and Bing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 10.
A _______search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) Google and Bing
Answer:
a) Google

Question 11.
Getting Government services through the internet is known as_______
a) e-Services
b) e-Governance
c) Web Governance
d) None of these
Answer:
b) e-Governance

Question 12.
Outside India, the Government of _______provides all their services through the official website in Tamil.
a) Srilanka
b) Canada
c) Nepal
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Srilanka

Question 13.
_______are portal or website of collection of e-books.
a) E-Libraries
b) E-Learning
c) E-Content
d) None of these
Answer:
a) E-Libraries

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 14.
_______ is a familiar Tamil keyboard interface software that is used for Tamil typing which works on Tamil Unicode, using phonetics.
a) NHM Writer
b) E-Kalappai
c) Lippikar
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 15.
_______is a familiar Tamil keyboard layout that works on the Android operating system in Smartphone using phonetics.
a) Sellinam
b) Ponmadal
c) Sellinam and Ponmadal
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Sellinam and Ponmadal

Question 16.
_______ office automation software provides a complete Tamil interface facility.
a) Microsoft Office
b) Open Office
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 17.
_______is office automation software working exclusively for Tamil.
a) Azhagi Unicode Editor
b) Ponmozhi & Menthamiz
c) Kamban and Vani
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 18.
_______ is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equivalent to English words.
a) Thamizpori
b) Sellinam
c) Ponmadal
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Thamizpori

Question 19.
The first Tamil programming language is _______
a) Thamizpori
b) Ezhil
c) Kamban
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Ezhil

Question 20.
With the help of _______ programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil.
a) Thamizpori
b) Ezhil
c) Kamban
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Ezhil

Question 21.
Expand TSCII
a) Telugu Script Code for Information Interchange
b) Total Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange
d) Technical Script Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
c) Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 22.
Computers are handle data and information as a _______ system.
a) Binary
b) Decimal
c) Octal
d) Hexadecimal
Answer:
a) Binary

Question 23.
The ASCII encoding system is applicable only for handling _______ language.
a) English
b) Hindi
c) French
d) Tamil
Answer:
a) English

Question 24.
_______is the first coding System to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non-English computers.
a) ASCII
b) TSCII
c) EBCDIC
d) None of these
Answer:
b) TSCII

Question 25.
IANA means _______
a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
b) Internet Assigned Names Authority
c) Internet Access Numbers Authority
d) Intranet Assigned Numbers Authority
Answer:
a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 26.
Expand ISCII
a) International Script Code for Information Interchange
b) Internet Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Indian Script Code for Information Interchange
d) Instant Script Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
c) Indian Script Code for Information Interchange

Question 27.
_______encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil.
a) ASCII
b) EBCDIC
c) BCD
d) ISCII
Answer:
d) ISCI

Question 28.
_______ is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil.
a) ASCII
b) EBCDIC
c) UNICODE
d) ISCII
Answer:
c) UNICODE

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 29.
Unicode first version 1.0.0 was introduced on _______
a) October 1991
b) October 2001
c) October 1993
d) October 1999
Answer:
a) October 1991

Question 30.
A(n) _______is needed to access electronic systems such as computer and smartphone.
a) Browser
b) Operating system
c) Search Engine
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Operating system

Question 31.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in an understandable form.
b) Windows Tamil Environment interface shows all windows elements such as Taskbar, desktop elements, names of icons, commands in Tamil.
c) Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is suitable to handle Tamil.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 32.
Tamil Virtual University was established on _____ by the Govt, of Tamilnadu.
a) 17th February 1991
b) 17th February 2011
c) 17th February 2001
d) 27th February 2001
Answer:
c) 17th February 2001

Question 33.
_______organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage, etc., from kindergarten to under graduation level.
a) Tamil Virtual Institute
b) Tamil Virtual Academy
c) Tamil Virtual Association
d) Tamil Virtual Organisation
Answer:
b) Tamil Virtual Academy

Question 34.
_______ is an open and voluntary initiative to collect and publish free electronic editions of ancient Tamil literary classics.
a) Project Madurai
b) Project Tamilnadu
c) Project Madras
d) Project Nellai
Answer:
a) Project Madurai

Question 35.
In 1998, Project Madurai released in Tamil script form as per _______ encoding.
a) ASCII
b) TSCII
c) BCD
d) None of these
Answer:
b) TSCII

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Very Short Answers (2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is e-governance?
Answer:
Getting Government services through the internet is known as e-Governance. Govt, of Tamil Nadu, has been giving its services through the Internet. One can communicate with Govt, of Tamil Nadu from any comer of the state. One can get important announcements, government orders, and government welfare schemes from the web portal of Govt. of. Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Which search engine provides an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.
Answer:
The Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 3.
Explain Tamil translation applications.
Answer:
Thamizpori (தமிஸ்ப்பூரி) is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equivalent to English words. Using this application, we can translate small English sentences into Tamil. Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language and vice versa.

Question 4.
Write about the Tamil translation application.
Answer:
Thamizpori (தமிஸ்ப்பூரி) is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equivalent to English words? Using this application, we can translate small English sentences into Tamil. Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language vice versa.

Question 5.
Explain ISCII.
Answer:
Indian Script Code for Information Interchange (ISCII ), is one of the encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil. It was unified with Unicode.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Unicode?
Answer:
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced in October 1991. While the introduction of this scheme can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 2.
List the website address of popular e-Libraries.
Answer:

Tamil e-Library Website address
Tamilnadu School Education and Teacher Education Training Textbooks and Resource Books http://www.textbooksonline.tn.nic.in/
Tamil Virtual Academy http://www.tamilvu.org/library/libindex.htm
Connemara Public Library http://connemarapublic librarychennai.com/ Veettukku_oru_noolagam /index.html
Tamil Digital Library http://tamildigitallibrary.in/
Chennai Library http://www.chennailibrary.com/
Thamizhagam http: //www. thamizhagam.net/parithi/
parithi.html

Question 3.
Write a short note on Tamil on the internet.
Answer:
Internet is the best information technological device, through which we get know everything from the Internet. In 2017 a study conducted by KPMG a Singapore-based organization along with google reported that Tamil topped the list, among the most widely used languages in India where 42% are using the Internet in Tamil. Moreover, in 2021 onwards, 74% of people in India will access the internet using Tamil and it will be in the top usage of the Internet in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Question 4.
Write a note on Unicode.
Answer:
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced in October 1991. While the introduction of this scheme can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 5.
Write a note on the Tamil operating system.
Answer:
An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in an understandable form. Thus, all operating systems used in computers and smartphones offered an environment in Tamil.
Windows Tamil Environment interface should be downloading and install from the internet. It shows all windows elements such as Taskbar, desktop elements, names of icons, commands in Tamil.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Explain in Detail (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Write about Tamil Office Automation Applications.
Answer:
Famous Office automation software like Microsoft Office, Open Office, etc., provides a complete Tamil interface facility. These softwares are downloadable and installed on your computer.

After installation, our office automation software environment will completely change to Tamil. Menu bars, names of icons, dialog boxes will be shown in Tamil. Moreover, you can save files with Tamil names and create folders with Tamil names.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing 1

Apart from that Tamil Libra Office, Tamil Open Office, Azhagi Unicode Editor, Ponmozhi, Menthamiz, Kamban, Vani are office automation software working exclusively for Tamil. These applications are designed to work completely in Tamil.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

11th Computer Science Guide Number Systems Text Book Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Part – I

I. Choose The Correct Answer :

Question 1.
Which is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals?
a) Boolean algebra
b) Gate
c) Fundamental gates
d) Derived gates
Answer:
b) Gate

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
Which gate is called as the logical inverter?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
c) NOT

Question 3.
A + A = ?
a) A
b) O
c) 1
d) A
Answer:
a) A

Question 4.
NOR is a combination of ?
a) NOT(OR)
b) NOT(AND)
c) NOT(NOT)
d) NOT(NOR)
Answer:
a) NOT(OR)

Question 5.
NAND is called as _______ Gate
a) Fundamental Gate
b) Derived Gate
c) Logical Gate
d) Electronic gate
Answer:
b) Derived Gate

Part II

Short Answers:

Question 1.
What is Boolean Algebra?
Answer:
Boolean algebra is a mathematical discipline that is used for designing digital circuits in a digital computer. It describes the relationship between inputs and outputs of a digital circuit.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
Write a short note on NAND Gate.
Answer:
The NAND gate operates an AND gate followed by a NOT gate. It acts in the manner of the logical operation “AND” followed by an inversion. The output is “false” if both inputs are “true” otherwise, the output is “true”. In other words, the output of the NAND gate is 0 if and only if both the inputs are 1, otherwise the output is 1.
The logical symbol of the NAND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 2
The truth table for NAND gate is

Input Output
A ‘ B C
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

Question 3.
Draw the truth table for the XOR gate.
Answer:
The truth table for XOR gate is

In put Output
A ‘ B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

Question 4.
Write the associative laws?
Answer:
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A.(B.C) = (A.B).C

Question 5.
What are derived gates?
Answer:
The logic gates which are derived from the fundamental gates are called derived gates. Ex. NAND, NOR, XOR and XNOR are derived gates.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Part – III

Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write the truth table of fundamental gates.
Answer:
The fundamental logic gates are AND, OR, and NOT gates.
The truth table for AND Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

The truth table for OR gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

The truth table for NOT gate is

Input Output
A C
1 0
0 1

Question 2.
Write a short note on the XNOR gate.
Answer:
The XNOR (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination XOR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if the inputs are the same, and “false” if the inputs are different. In simple words, the output is 1 if the input is the same, otherwise, the output is 0. The logic symbol of the XNOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 3
The truth table for XNOR Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

Question 3.
Reason out why the NAND and NOR are called universal gates?
Answer:
NAND and NOR gates are called Universal gates because the fundamental logic gates can be realized through them.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 4.
Give the truth table of XOR gate.
Answer:
The truth table for XOR Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

Question 5.
Write the De Morgan’s law.
Answer:
De Morgan’s \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) . \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(\(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Part IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Explain the fundamental gates with an expression and truth table.
Answer:
A gate is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an output signal. There are three fundamental gates namely AND, OR and NOT.

AND Gate
The AND gate can have two or more input signals and produce an output signal. The output is “true” only when both inputs are “true” otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words the output will be 1 if and only if both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0.

The logical symbol of the AND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 11

The output of the AND gate is C = A . B or C = AB
The truth table for AND Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

OR Gate
The OR gate gets its name from its behaviour like the logical inclusive “OR”. The output is “true” if either or both of the inputs are “true”. If both inputs are “false” then the output is “false”. In other words, the output will be 1 if and only if one or both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0.
The logical symbol of the OR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 12

The OR gate output is C = A OR B. We use the + sign to denote the OR function. Therefore, C = A + B.
The truth table for OR Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

NOT Gate
The NOT gate, called a logical inverter, has only one input. It reverses the logical state. In other words the output C is always the complement of the input.
The logical symbol of the NOT gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 13

The boolean function of NOT gate is C = NOT A. In boolean algebra, the overbar stands for NOT operation. Therefore, \(C=\bar{A}\)
The truth table for NOT gate is

Input Output
A C
1 0
0 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
How AND and OR can be realized using NAND and NOR gate.
Answer:
NAND and NOR gates are called Universal gates because the fundamental logic gates can be realized through them.
NAND gates can be used to implement the fundamental logic gates NOT, AND, and OR.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 14

NOR gates can also be used to implement NOT, OR and AND gates.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 15

Question 3.
Explain the Derived gates with expression and truth table.
Answer:
The other logic gates like NAND, NOR, XOR, and XNOR are derived gates which are derived from the fundamental gates.

NOR Gate
The NOR gate circuit is an OR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if both inputs are “false” Otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words, the only way to get ‘1’ as output is to have both inputs ‘O’. Otherwise, the output is 0. The logic circuit of the NOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 16

The logic symbol of NOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 17

The output of the NOR gate is C = A + B
The truth table for NOR gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

NAND Gate

The NAND gate operates an AND gate followed by a NOT gate. It acts in the manner of the logical operation “AND” followed by an inversion. The output is “false” if both inputs are “true” otherwise, the output is “true”. In other words, the output of the NAND gate is 0 if and only if both the inputs are 1, otherwise the output is 1. The logic circuit of the NAND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 18

The logical symbol of NAND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 19

The output of the NAND gate is \(C=\overline{A . B}\)
The truth table for NAND gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

XOR Gate
The XOR (exclusive – OR) gate acts in the same way as the logical “either/or.” The output is “true” if either, but not both, of the inputs, are “true”. The output is “false” if both inputs are “false” or if both inputs are “true.” Another way of looking at this circuit is to observe that the output is 1 if the inputs are different, but 0 if the inputs are the same. The logic circuit of the XOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 20

The logical symbol of XOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 21

The output of the XOR gate is
\(\begin{aligned}
C &=A \oplus B \\
&=\bar{A} \cdot B+A \cdot \bar{B}
\end{aligned}\)

The truth table for XOR gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

XNOR Gate
The XNOR (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination XOR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if the inputs are the same, and “false” if the inputs are different. In simple words, the output is 1 if the input are the same, otherwise the output is 0. The logic circuit of XNOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 22

The Logic Symbol is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 23

In boolean algebra, \(\mathrm{A} \odot \mathrm{B}\) or “included dot” stands for the XNOR.
Therefore, C = \(\mathrm{A} \odot \mathrm{B}\)
The truth table for XNOR gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

11th Computer Science Guide Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Correct Answer :

Question 1.
_______ is used for designing digital circuits in a digital computer.
a) Boolean algebra
b) Calculus
c) Iteration
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Boolean algebra

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
_______describes the relationship between inputs and outputs of a digital circuit.
a) Boolean algebra
b) Calculus
c) Iteration
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Boolean algebra

Question 3.
Who proposed the basic principles of boolean algebra?
a) George Boole
b) Charles Babbage
c) John Napier
d) Lady Ada Lovelace
Answer:
a) George Boole

Question 4.
The sentences which can be determined to be True or False are called _______ .
a) Logical Statement
b) Truth Functions
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Logical Statement

Question 5.
The results of a logical statement True or False are called _______
a) Truth Values
b) Constant
c) True value
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Truth Values

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 6.
The truth values depicted by logical constant as_________ .
a) 1
b) 0
c) 1 and 0
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1 and 0

Question 7.
The truth value depicted by logical constant 1 means _______
a) False
b) True
c) Either True or False
d) None of these
Answer:
b) True

Question 8.
The truth value depicted by logical constant 0 means _______
a) False
b) True
c) Either True or False
d) None of these
Answer:
a) False

Question 9.
The variable which can store truth values are called _______ variables.
a) Logical
b) Binary valued
c) Boolean
d) A OR B OR C
Answer:
a) Logical

Question 10.
Boolean algebra makes use of _______
a) variables
b) operations
c) Both A AND B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A AND B

Question 11.
The basic logical operation is _______
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 12.
The basic logical operation AND is symbolically represented by _______.
a) dot (.)
b) plus ( + )
c) over bar / single apostrophe
d) None of these
Answer:
a) dot (.)

Question 13.
The basic logical operation OR is symbolically represented by _______.
a) dot (.)
b) plus ( + )
c) over bar / single apostrophe
d) None of these
Answer:
b) plus ( + )

Question 14.
The basic logical operation NOT is symbolically represented by
a) dot (.)
b) plus ( + )
c) over bar / single apostrophe
d) None of these
Answer:
c) over bar / single apostrophe

Question 15.
_______symbol is called as Logical Operator.
a) dot (.)
b) plus ( + )
c) over bar / single apostrophe
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 16.
A represents all the possible values of logical variables or statements along with all the possible results of a given combination of truth values.
a) Truth table
b) Log table
c) I/O Table
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Truth table

Question 17.
_______boolean operator is similar to multiplication in ordinary algebra.
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
a) AND

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 18.
The AND operator takes _______inputs.
a) only one
b) only two
c) two or more
d) None of these
Answer:
c) two or more

Question 19.
The _______operator output is true only if all the inputs are true.
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
a) AND

Question 20.
The OR operator takes _______ inputs.
a) only one
b) only two
c) two or more
d) None of these
Answer:
c) two or more

Question 21.
The _______ operator output is true if at least one input is true.
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
b) OR

Question 22.
The _______operator has one input and one output
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
c) NOT

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 23.
The ______operator inverts the input.
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
Answer:
c) NOT

Question 24.
Identify the true statements from the following.
a) The NOT operator input is either true or false and the output is always the opposite.
b) Boolean algebra is a mathematical discipline that is used for designing digital circuits.
c) The AND operator will give only one output
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 25.
The_________is the combination of NOT and AND.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) Bubbled AND
Answer:
b) NAND

Question 26.
The _________is generated by inverting the output of an OR operator.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) Bubbled AND
Answer:
b) NAND

Question 27.
The algebraic expression of the NAND function is:
a) \(Y=\overline{A . B}\)
b) \(Y=\overline{A+B}\)
c) \(Y=\overline{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}\)
d) \(Y=\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}\)
Answer:
a) \(Y=\overline{A . B}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 28.
The _________ is the combination of NOT and OR.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) Bubbled AND
Answer:
a) NOR

Question 29.
The ____________ is generated by inverting the output of an AND operator.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) Bubbled AND
Answer:
a) NOR

Question 30.
The algebraic expression of the NOR function is:
a) \(Y=\overline{A . B}\)
b) \(Y=\overline{A+B}\)
c) \(Y=\overline{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}\)
d) \(Y=\bar{A}+\bar{B}\)
Answer:
b) \(Y=\overline{A+B}\)

Question 31.
_________ is a fundamental logic gate.
a) AND
b) NAND
c) NOT
d) Bubbled AND
Answer:
d) Bubbled AND

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 32.
is a derived gate.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 33.
is not a derived gate.
a) BUBBLED AND
b) NAND
c) XNOR
d) NOT
Answer:
d) NOT

Question 34.
A . is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an output signal.
a) logic gate
c) boolean algebra
c) boolean gate
d) None of these
Answer:
a) logic gate

Question 35.
_________gate is called universal gate.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) NAND and NOR
d) None of these
Answer:
c) NAND and NOR

Question 36.
The fundamental logic gates can be realized through _________gate.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) NAND and NOR
d) None of these
Answer:
c) NAND and NOR

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 37.
The _________ gate has only one input.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
c) NOT

Question 38.
A bubbled AND gate produces the same output as a _________gate.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
b) NOR

Question 39.
We can replace e.v H NOR gate by a _________gate.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) Bubbled AND
d) Bubbled OR
Answer:
c) Bubbled AND

Question 40.
The output of NOR gate is _________if both inputs are “false”.
a) true
b) false
c) either true or false
d) None of these
Answer:
a) true

Question 41.
The output of the NAND gate is 0 if and only if both the inputs are _________
a) 0
b) 1
c) false
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 42.
The truth tables of the bubbled OR gate and _________ gates are identical.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) Bubbled AND
d) XOR
Answer:
a) NAND

Question 43.
We can replace each NAND gate by a _________gate.
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) Bubbled AND
d) Bubbled OR
Answer:
d) Bubbled OR

Question 44.
A+B represents _________ gate
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
a) XOR

Question 45.
In XOR gate, the output is _________ if the inputs are different.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1 or 0
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 1

Question 46.
In XOR gate, the output is _________if the inputs are same.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1 or 0
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 47.
The _________gate is a combination XOR gate followed by an Inverter.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
d) XNOR

Question 48.
A ® B represent _________gate.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
d) XNOR

Question 49.
Identify the true statement from the following.
a) Using a combination of logic gates, complex operations can be performed.
b) Arrays of logic gates are found in digital integrated circuits.
c) In boolean algebra, © or “included dot” stands for the XNOR.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 50.
AB + \(\overline{\mathbf{A}} \overline{\mathbf{B}}\) is the equation for gate.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
d) XNOR

Question 51.
\(\bar{A} B+A B\) is the equation for _________gate.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) NOT
d) XNOR
Answer:
a) XOR

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 52.
The logical symbol of XOR gate is _________.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 1
Answer:
a

Part II

Short Answers:

Question 1.
What are the logical operations?
Answer:
The basic logical operations are AND, OR, and NOT, which are symbolically represented by a dot ( . ), plus ( + ), and over bar / single apostrophe respectively. These symbols are also called “Logical Operators”.

Question 2.
What is Truth Table?
Answer:
A truth table represents all the possible values of logical variables or statements along with all the possible results of a given combination of truth values.

Question 3.
Write a note on NOT operator.
Answer:
The NOT operator has one input and one output. The input is either true or false, and the output is always the opposite, that is, the NOT operator inverts the input.
The truth table for a NOT operator where A is the input variable and Y is the output is shown below:

A Y
0 1
1 0

The NOT operator is represented algebraically by the Boolean expression: Y = A.
The truth table for NAND gate is \(\mathbf{Y}=\overline{\mathbf{A}}\)

Question 4.
What are the universal gates? Why it is called so?
Answer:
NAND and NOR gates are called Universal gates because the fundamental logic gates can be realized through them.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 5.
What is logic gate? What are the fundamental logic gates?
Answer:
A gate is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an output signal.
There are three fundamental gates namely AND, OR, and NOT.

Question 6.
Write the commutative theorem of boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + B = B + A
ii) A . B = B . A.

Question 7.
Write the associative theorem of boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
ii) A . (B . C) = (A . B) . C.

Question 8.
Write the distributive theorem of boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A . (B + C) = A . B + A . C
ii) A + (B . C) = (A + B) . (A + C).

Question 9.
Write the absorption theorem of Boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + (A . B) = A
ii) A . (A + B) = A.

Question 10.
Write the 3rd distributive theorem of Boolean algebra.
Answer:
A + A 1 B = A + B

Question 11.
Write the De Morgan’s theorems of Boolean algebra.
\(i) \overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{B}}
ii) \overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 12.
Write the Null element theorem of Boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + 1 = 1
ii) A . 0 = 0

Question 13.
Write the Identity theorem of Boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + 0 = A
ii) A . 1 = A

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 14.
Write the complement theorem of Boolean algebra.
Answer:
i) A + A = 1
ii) A . A = 0.

Part – III

Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write note on AND operator.
Answer:
The AND operator is defined in Boolean algebra by the use of the dot (.) operator. It is similar to multiplication in ordinary algebra. The AND operator combines two or more input variables so that the output is true only if all the inputs are true. The truth table for a 2-input AND operator is shown as follows:

A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0
.1 0 0
1 1 1

The above 2-input AND operation is expressed as:
Y = A . B.

Question 2.
Write note on OR operator.
Answer:
The plus sign is used to indicate the OR operator. The OR operator combines two or more input variables so that the output is true if at least one input is true. The truth table for a 2-input OR operator is shown as follows:

A B y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

The above 2-input OR operation is expressed as Y = A + B.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 3.
Write a note on the NAND operator.
Answer:
The NAND is the combination of NOT and AND. The NAND is generated by inverting the output of an AND operator. The algebraic, expression of the NAND function is: Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}, \mathrm{B}}\)
The NAND function truth table is shown below:

A B y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A NAND B = NOT (A AND B).

Question 4.
Write a note on the NOR operator.
Answer:
The NOR is the combination of NOT and OR. The NOR is generated by inverting the output of an OR operator. The algebraic expression of the NOR function is: Y = \(\overline{A+B}\)
The NOR function truth table is shown below:

A B y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

A NOR B = NOT (A OR B).

Question 5.
Explain AND gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The AND gate can have two or more input signals and produce an output signal. The output is “true” only when both inputs are “true” otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words, the output will be 1 if and only if both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0.

The output of the AND gate is represented by a variable say C, where A and B are two and if input boolean variables. In boolean algebra, a variable can take either of the values ‘0’ or ‘1’. The logical symbol of the AND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 4

One way to symbolize the action of an AND gate is by writing the boolean function.
C = A AND B

In Boolean algebra, the multiplication sign stands for the AND operation. Therefore, the output of the AND gate is
C = A . B or simply C = AB

The truth table for AND Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 6.
Explain OR gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The OR gate gets its name from its behaviour like the logical inclusive “OR”. The output is “true” if either or both of the inputs are “true”. If both inputs are “false” then the output is “false”. In other words, the output will be 1 if and only if one or both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0. The logical symbol of the OR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 5
The OR gate output is C = A OR B
We use the + sign to denote the OR function.
Therefore, C = A + B
The truth table for OR gate is 

Input

Output

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

The boolean function of NOT gate is C = NOT A In boolean algebra, the overbar stands for NOT operation. Therefore, \(C=\bar{A}\)

Question 7.
Explain NOT gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The NOT gate, called a logical inverter, has only one input. It reverses the logical state. In other words, the output C is always the complement of the input. The logical symbol of the NOT gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 6

The boolean function of NOT gate is C = NOT A
In boolean algebra, the overbar stands for NOT operation. Therefore, \(C=\bar{A}\)

The truth table for NOT gate is

Input Output
A C
1 0
0 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 8.
Explain NOR gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The NOR gate circuit is an OR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if both inputs are “false” Otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words, the only way to get ‘1’ as output is to have both inputs ‘O’. Otherwise, the output is 0. The logic circuit of the NOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 7

The Logic Symbol of NOR Gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 8

The output of NOR gate is \(C=\overline{A+B}\)
The truth table for NOR gate is

Input Output
A ‘ B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Question 9.
Explain Bubbled AND gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The Logic Circuit of Bubbled AND Gate
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 9
In the above circuit, inverters on the input lines of the AND gate gives the output as C = A.B.
The Logic symbol of Bubbled AND Gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 10

The truth table of Bubbled AND Gate is

Input Output
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Part IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Explain Bubbled OR gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The logic circuit of bubbled OR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 24
The output of this circuit can be written as \(C=\bar{A}+\bar{B}\)
The Logic symbol of Bubbled OR Gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 25
The truth table for the bubbled OR is

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
Explain the XOR gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The XOR (exclusive – OR) gate acts in the same way as the logical “either/or.” The output is “true” if either, but not both, of the inputs, are “true”. The output is “false” if both inputs are “false” or if both inputs are “true.”
Another way of looking at this circuit is to observe that the output is 1 if the inputs are different, but 0 if the inputs are the same.
The Logic circuit of XOR Gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 26
The output of the XOR gate is
\(C=A \oplus B=\bar{A} B+A B\)
The Logic symbol of XOR Gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 27

The truth table for XOR gate is

Input Output
A ‘ B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Question 3.
Explain the XNOR gate with its symbols and truth table.
Answer:
The XNOR (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination XOR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is
true” if the inputs are the same, and “false” if the inputs are different. In simple words, the output is 1 if the input are the same, otherwise, the output is 0.
The logic circuit of the XNOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 28
The output of the XNOR is NOT of XOR
\(C=(A \oplus B)^{\prime}=A B+\bar{A} \bar{B}\)
In boolean algebra, 0 or “included dot” stands for
the XNOR.
Therefore, C = \(\mathrm{A} \odot \mathrm{B}\)
The logical symbol is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 29
The truth table for the XNOR gate is

Input Output
A ‘ B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 4.
Write all the theorems of boolean algebra.
Answer:
Theorems of boolean algebra.
Identity
A + 0 = A
A • 1 = A

Complement
\(\begin{array}{l}
A+\bar{A}=1 \\
A \cdot \bar{A}=0
\end{array}\)

Commutative
A + B = B + A
A . B = B . A

Associative
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A . (B . C) = (A; B) . C

Distributive
A-(B + C) = A- B + A- C
A + (B . C) = (A + B) . (A + C)

Null Element
A + 1 = 1
A . 0 = 0

Involution
\((\overline{\bar{A}})=A\)

Indempotence
A + A = A
A . A = A

Absorption
A + (A . B) = A
A . (A + B) = A

3rd Distributive
A + A.B = A + B

De Morgan’s
\(\begin{aligned}
\overline{A+B} &=\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B} \\
\overline{A . B} &=\bar{A}+\bar{B}
\end{aligned}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 5.
List all the logic gates with their symbols and truth tables.
Answer:
Logic Gates and their corresponding Truth Tables
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 30 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems II 31