## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Chapter 2 Number Systems

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

### 11th Computer Science Guide Number Systems Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU? .
a) Byte
b) Nibble
c) Word length
d) Bit
c) Word length

Question 2.
How many bytes does 1 KiloByte contain?
a) 1000
b) 8
c) 4
d) 1024
d) 1024

Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII
a) American School Code for Information Interchange
b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 4.
2^50 is referred as
a) Kilo
b) Tera
c) Peta
d) Zetta
c) Peta

Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?.
a) 64
b) 255
c) 256
d) 128
a) 64

Question 6.
For 11012 whai is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
a) F
b) E
c) D
d) B
c) D

Hex calculator for performing addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of hexadecimal numbers.

Question 7.
What is the 1’s complement of 00100110?
a) 00100110
b) 11011001
c) 11010001
d) 00101001
b) 11011001

Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
a) 645
b) 234
c) 876
d) 123
c) 876

Part II

Question 1.
What is data?
The term data comes from the word datum which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places, or some objects.
Example: Rajesh, 16, XI.

Question 2.
Write the l’s complement procedure.
The steps to be followed to find l’s complement of a number:
Step 1: Convert given Decimal number into Binary
Step 2: Check if the binary number contains 8 bits, if less add O at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
Step 3: Invert all bits (i.e. Change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)

Example: Find 1’s complement for (-24)10

Question 3.
Convert (46)10 into a Binary number.

Question 4.
We cannot find l’s complement for (28)10 State reason.
Since it is a positive number. 1’s complement will come only for negative numbers.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters in memory.
There are several encoding systems used for computers. They are

• BCD – Binary Coded Decimal
• EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
• Unicode
• ISCII – Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange

Part III

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example.
Each number system Is uniquely Identified by Its base value or radix. Radix or base Is the count of number of digits In each number system. Radix or base is the general Idea behind positional numbering system. Ex.

 Number system Base / Radix Binary 2 Octal 8 Decimal 10 Hexadecimal 16

Question 2.
Write a note on the binary number system.
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2.

The leftmost bit in the binary number is called the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The rightmost bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Question 3.
Convert (150)10 into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal.
Decimal to Binary conversion 150

Binary to octal conversion
LSB to MSB divide the number into three-digit binary and write the equivalent octal digit

Question 4.
Write a short note on ISCII.
ISCII – Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII) is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This is an 8 – bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. It is recognized by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). It is integrated with Unicode.

This system is formulated by the Department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now, this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

Question 5.
Add : a) -2210 + 1510 b) 2010 + 2510.
a) -2210 + 1510

Answer in 2’s complement form . 11111001 is 2’s complement of 7 which is the answer.

Part IV

Question 1.
a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
Conversion of fractional Decimal to Binary
The method of repeated multiplication by 2 has to be used to convert such kinds of decimal fractions.

The steps involved in the method of repeated multiplication by 2:

Step 1. : Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either 0 or 1.
Step 2: Discard the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2. Repeat Step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3: The resulting integer part forms a sequence of 0’s and 1’s that becomes the binary equivalent of a decimal fraction.
Step 4: The final answer is to be written from the first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.
Integer part (last integer part obtained)

Write the integer parts from top to bottom to obtain the equivalent fractional binary number.
Hence
(0.2)10 = (0.00110011.,.)2 = (0.00110011)2.

b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary.
Convert (98.46)10 to Binary
Procedure: Conversion of an integral part:

(98)10 = (1100010)2 Conversion of fractional part:

Question 2.
Find l’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number.
a) -98
b) -135
a) Conversion of (98)10 into binary

Conversion of (135)10 into binary

Question 3.

b) Subtract 11010112 – 1110102.
Subtract 11010112 – 1110102

Part I

Question 1.
The simplest method to represent a negative binary number is called ………………..
(a) signed magnitude
(b) sign bit or parity bit
(c) binary
(d) decimal
(a) signed magnitude

Question 2.
Computer understand ________________language.
a) High level
b) Assembly
c) Machine
d) All the above
c) Machine

Question 3.
Expansion for BCD ………………..
(a) Binary coded decimal
(b) binary complement decimal
(c) binary computer decimal
(d) binary convert decimal
(a) Binary coded decimal

Question 4.
__________is the basic unit of data in computer.
a) BIT
b) BYTE
c) NIBBLE
d) WORD
a) BIT

Question 5.
The ……………….. operator is defined in boolean algebra by the use of the dot (.) operator.
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) NAND
(a) AND

Question 6.
Binary digit means __________
a) 0
b) 1
c) either 0 or 1
d) None of these
c) either 0 or 1

Question 7.
The convert (65)10 into its equivalent octal number ………………..
(a) (101)8
(b) (101)10
(c) (101)12
(d) (101)4
(a) (101)8

Question 8.
A collection of 8 bits is called __________
a) BIT
b) BYTE
C) NIBBLE
d) WORD
b) BYTE

Question 9.
……………….. is the general idea behind the positional numbering system.
(b) Computer memory
(c) Binary number
(d) Decimal number

Question 10.
__________refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU.
a) Word length
b) Nibble
c) Word size
d) None of these
a) Word length

Question 11.
Bit means ………………..
(a) nibble
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) binary digit
(d) binary digit

Question 12.
__________is a valid word length of a computer.
a) 64
b) 32
c) 16
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 13.
The computer can understand ……………….. languages.
(a) computer
(b) machine
(c) post
(d) pre
(b) machine

Question 14.
1 KiloByte equals to __________bytes.
a) 1024
b) 256
c) 1000
d) 128
a) 1024

Question 15.
How many bytes does 1 zettabyte contain?
(a) 290
(b) 280
(c) 270
(d) 260
(c) 270

Question 16.
1024 MegaBytes equals to _________
a) 1 GigaByte
b) 1 TeraByte
c) 1 YottaByte
d) None of these
a) 1 GigaByte

Question 18.
1-kilo byte represents ……………….. bytes.
(a) 512
(b) 256
(c) 1024
(d) 64
(c) 1024

Question 18.
1Kb equals to _________bytes.
a) 210
b) 220
c) 230
d) 240
a) 210

Question 19.
How many megabytes does 1 GB contain?
(a) 220
(b) 210
(c) 230
(d) 240
(b) 210

Question 20.
1 GB equals to ________ bytes.
a) 210
b) 220
c) 230
d) 240
c) 230

Question 21.
What is the 1’ s complement of 11001?
(a) 11100110
(b) 01010101
(c) 11110000
(d) 100100111
(a) 11100110

Question 22.
1 PetaByte(PB) equals to _________bytes.
a) 250
b) 260
c) 270
d) 280
a) 250

Question 23.
The hexadecimal equivalent of 15 is ………………..
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) F
(d) F

Question 24.
1 ZettaByte (1ZB) equals to _______ bytes.
a) 250
b) 260
c) 270
d) 280
c) 270

Question 25.
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 10
(c) 16

Question 26.
Computer memory is normally represented in terms of ________ bytes.
a) Kilo
b) Mega
c) Kilo or Mega
d) None of these
c) Kilo or Mega

Question 27.
The most commonly used number system is ………………..
(a) binary
(b) decimal
(c) octal
(b) decimal

Question 28.
The most commonly used coding scheme to represent character set and the number is ________
a) BCD
b) ASCII
c) EBCDIC
d) All the above
b) ASCII

Question 29.
What does MSB mean?
(a) Major sign bit
(b) Most sign bit
(c) Minor sign bit
(d) Most significant bit
(d) Most significant bit

Question 30.
The ASCII value for blank space is _________
a) 43
b) 42
c) 32
d) 62
c) 32

Question 31.
The binary equivalent of hexadecimal number B is ………………..
(a) 1011
(b) 1100
(c) 1001
(d) 1010
(a) 1011

Question 32.
The most commonly used numbering system in real life is the _________number system.
b) Octal
c) Binary
d) Decimal
d) Decimal

Question 33.
What is the range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets?
(a) 65 to 90
(b) 65 to 122
(c) 97 to 122
(d) 98 to 122
(c) 97 to 122

Question 34.
_________is the count of number of digits in each number system.
a) base
d) symbols

Question 35.
What is the ASCII value for blank space?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 18
(d) 32
(d) 32

Question 36.
Identify the true statement from the following.
a) In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number.
b) A numbering system is a way of representing numbers.
c) The speed of a computer depends on the number of bits it can process at once.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 37.
Which one of the following bits has the smallest positional weight?
(a) MSB
(b) LSB
(c) UPS
(d) USB
(b) LSB

Question 38.
The rightmost bit in the binary number is called as the __________
a) MSB
b) LSB
c) FSB
d) None of these
b) LSB

Question 39.
Name the person who proposed the basic principles of Boolean Algebra?
(a) Wiliam Boole
(b) George Boole
(c) James Boole
(d) Boolean George
(b) George Boole

Question 40.
_______ numbers are used as a shorthand form of a binary sequence.
b) Octal
c) Decimal
d) None of these

Question 41.
What is the other name for a logical statement?
(a) Truth values
(b) Truth functions
(c) Truth table
(d) Truth variables
(b) Truth functions

Question 42.
In hexadecimal number system letter ‘E’ represents _______
a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
c) 14

Question 43.
The NOT operator is represented by the symbol.
(a) over bar
(b) single apostrophe
(c) a and b
(d) plus
(c) a and b

Question 44.
_______is a method to convert decimal number to binary number.
a) Repeated division by 2
b) Sum of powers of 2
d) Either A or B
d) Either A or B

Question 45.
The output for the AND operator is ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) –
(c) A.B
(d) AB + C
(c) A.B

Question 46.
Computer can handle _______ numbers.
a) signed
b) unsigned
c) signed and unsigned
d) None of these
c) signed and unsigned

Question 47.
Which gate takes only one input?
(a) OR
(b) AND
(c) NOT
(d) XOR
(c) NOT

Question 48.
In the signed magnitude method, the leftmost bit is called _______bit.
a) sign
b) parity
c) sign or parity
d) None of these
c) sign or parity

Question 49.
Which is not a derived date?
(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c) NOR
(d) XOR
(a) AND

Question 50.
The numbers are represented in computers in _______method.
a) Signed magnitude representation
b) 1’s complement
c) 2’s complement
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 51.
The statement “C equal the complement of A or B” means
(a) C = A + B
(b) C = $$\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}$$
(c) C = $$\overline{\mathrm{A}}$$ + $$\overline{\mathrm{B}}$$
(d) C = $$\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}$$
(a) C = A + B

Question 52.
If the number has_______sign, it will be considered as negative in signed magnitude representation.
a) +
b) no
c) –
d) A or B
c) –

Question 54.
What is the output of the XOR gate?
(a) C = A% B
(b) C = A $$\otimes$$ A
(c) C = A $$\odot$$ B
(d) C = A $$\oplus$$ B
(d) C = A $$\oplus$$ B

Question 54.
2’s complement of (0001i000)2 is_______
a) 11100111
b) 00011001
c) 11101000
d) None of these
c) 11101000

Question 55.
Find A + $$\overline{\mathrm{A}}$$ .B = ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) A.B
(c) $$\overline{\mathrm{A}}$$.B
(d) A.$$\overline{\mathrm{B}}$$
(d) A.$$\overline{\mathrm{B}}$$

Question 56.
When two binary numbers are added _______will be the output.
a) sum
b) carry
c) sum and carry
d) None of these
c) sum and carry

Question 57.
When subtracting 1 from 0, borrow 1 from the next _______
a) LSB
b) MSB
c) either A or B
d) None of these
b) MSB

Question 58.
Find the wrong pair from the following:
(a) Null element : A + 1 = 1
(b) Involution : $$\overset { = }{ A }$$ = A
(c) Demorgan’s : $$\overline{\mathrm{A+B}}$$ =$$\overline{\mathrm{A}}$$ . $$\overline{\mathrm{A}}$$
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A

Question 59.
_______ is the character encoding system.
a) BCD and ISCII
b) EBCDIC
c) ASCII and Unicode
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 60.
With 2 inputs in the truth table, how many sets of values will be obtained.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1
(a) 4

Question 61.
EBCDIC stands for _______
a) Extensive Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
c) Extended Binary Coded Digit Interchange Code
d) Extended Bit Coded Decimal Interchange Code.
b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

Question 62.
ASCII stands for _______
a) Arithmetic Standard Code for Information Interchange
b) American Structured Code for Information Interchange
c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
d) American Standard Code for Instant Interchange
c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 63.
ISCII stands for_______
a) International Standard Code for Information Interchange
b) Indian Structured Code for Information Interchange
c) India’s Standard Code for Information Interchange
d) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange
d) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 64.
BCD is _______bit code.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) None of these
a) 6

Question 65.
EBCDIC is_______ bit code
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) None of these
c) 8

Question 66.
ASCII is________ bit code
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) None of these
b) 7

Question 67.
Unicode is _______ bit code
a) 16
b) 7
c) 8
d) None of these
a) 16

Question 68.
ISCII is_______ bit code
a) 16
b) 7
c) 8
d) None of these
c) 8

Question 69.
_______coding system is formulated by IBM.
a) BCD
b) EBCDIC
c) ISCII
d) None of these
b) EBCDIC

Question 70.
IBM stands for_______
b) International Basic Machine

Question 71.
_______is the system of handling the characters of Indian local languages.
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
d) ISCII

Question 72.
ISCII system is formulated fay the _______ in India.
a) Department of Electronics
b) Department of Electricity
c) Department of E-commerce
d) Department of Economics
a) Department of Electronics

Question 73.
SCO system can handle___________characterscharacters.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 65536
a) 64

Question 74.
EBCDIC system can handle _______ characters.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) None of these
c) 256

Question 75.
ASCII system can handle _______characters.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) None of these
c) 256

Question 76.
Unicode system can handle _______ characters.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 65536
d) 65536

Question 77.
ISCII system can handle _______ characters.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 65535
c) 256

Question 78.
__________ language characters are not represented by ASCII.
a) Tamil
b) Malayalam
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 79.
Tamil, Malayalam, Telugu, and Kannada language characters are represented by _______ code.
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
b) Unicode

Question 80.
_______scheme is denoted by hexadecimal numbers
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
b) Unicode

Question 81.
ISCII code was formulated in the year_______
a) 1986 – 88
b) 1984 – 86
c) 1988
d) 1987
a) 1986 – 88

Question 82.
_______coding system is integrated with Unicode.
a) ASCII
b) EBCDIC
c) BCD
d) ISCII
d) ISCII

Question 83.
_______was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages.
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
b) Unicode

Question 84.
The popular coding scheme after ASCII is_______
a) EBCDIC
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
b) Unicode

Question 85.
BCD system is_______bit encoding system.
a) 28
b) 216
c) 26
d) 24
c) 26

Question 86.
EBCDIC system is _______bit encoding system.
a) 28
b) 216
c) 26
d) 27
a) 28

Question 87.
ASCII system is a bit encoding system.
a) 28
b) 216
c) 26
d) 27
d) 27

Question 88.
Unicode system is _________bit encoding system.
a) 28
b) 216
c) 26
d) 27
b) 216

Question 89.
ISCII svstem is _________bit encoding system.
a) 28
b) 216
c) 26
d) 27
a) 28

Question 90.
The input code in ASCII can be converted into _________system.
a) EBCDIC
b) Unicode
c) BCD
d) ISCII
a) EBCDIC

Question 91.
What is ASCII value for ‘A’ in a decimal number,
a) 97
b) 65
c) 98
d) 32
b) 65

Question 92.
What is the ASCII value for ‘A’ in a binary number?
a) 01100001
b) 01000001
c) 01100010
d) 00100000
b) 01000001

Question 93.
What is the ASCII value for ‘A’ in an octal number?
a) 141
b) 101
c) 142
d) 40
b) 101

Question 94.
What is the ASCII value for ‘A’ in hexadecimal numbers?
a) 61
b) 41
c) 62
d) 20
b) 41

Question 95.
Find the false statement in the following.
a) Computers can handle positive and negative numbers.
b) MSB is called a sign bit
c) LSB is called a parity bit
d) All the above
c) LSB is called a parity bit

Question 96.
Match the following.
a) 78 – (1) Binary number
b) linn – (2) Octal number
c) CAFE – (3) Decimal number
d) 71 – (4) Hexadecimal number

a) 3, 1, 4, 2
b) 4, 3, 2, 1
c) 1, 3, 2, 4
d) 3, 1, 2, 4
a) 78 – (1) Binary number

Question 97.
In signed magnitude representation,_________ in the sign bit represents negative number.
a) 0
b) 1
c) No symbol
d) None of these
b) 1

Question 98.
In signed magnitude representation, __________in the sign bit represents positive number.
a) 0
b) 1
c) No symbol
d) None of these
a) 0

Question 99.
The term data comes from the word __________
a) datum
b) date
c) fact
d) None of these
a) datum

Part II

Question 1.
What is nibble?
Nibble is a collection of 4 bits. A nibble is half a byte.

Question 2.
Define information.
Information is a processed fact and obtained from the computer as output. It conveys meaning.

Question 3.
The base value of a number is also known as the radix.

Question 4.
Define Bit and Byte.
Bit: A bit is the short form of a Binary digit which can be ‘0’ or ‘1’. It is the basic unit of data in computers.
Byte: A collection of 8 bits is called Byte. It is the basic unit of measuring the memory size in the computer.

Question 5.
Expand: BCD, EBCDIC, ASCII
BCD – Binary Coded Decimal; EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code; ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange.

Question 6.
What are the different types of coding schemes to represent the character sets?
The different coding schemes are

• BCD – Binary Coded Decimal
• EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
• Unicode
• ISCII – Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange.

Question 7.
What are the methods of converting a number from decimal to binary?

1. Repeated division by two.
2. Sum of powers of 2.

Question 8.
What does base or radix mean?
Radix or base is the count of a number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind the positional numbering system.

Question 9.
What are the various ways for Binary representation of signed numbers?

1. Signed magnitude representation
2. 1’s complement
3. 2’s complement

Question 10.
Write a note on the decimal number system.
It consists of 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9(10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day-to-day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number.
Its base or radix is 10.

Question 11.
Write about the octal number system.
Octal number system uses digits 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8. Its base or radix is 8.

Question 12.
How will you convert decimal to hexadecimal?
To convert Decimal to Hexadecimal, “Repeated division by 16” method can be used) In this method, we have to divide the given number by 16.
Example: Convert (31)10 into its equivalent hexadecimal number.

Question 13.
Give the procedure to Octal to Binary.
Procedure: For each octal digit in the given number write its 3 digits binary equivalent using positional notation.
Example: Convert (6213)8 to equivalent Binary number.

Question 14.
How will you convert Hexadecimal to Binary?
Procedure: Write 4 bits Binary equivalent for each Hexadecimal digit for the given number using the positional notation method.
Example:
Convert (8BC)16 into an equivalent Binary number.

Question 15.
Write short note on Binary Coded Decimal (BCD).
This is 26 bit encoding system. This can handle 26 = 64 characters only. This encoding system is not
in the practice right now.

Question 16.
Write note on EBCDIC encoding system.
Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC) is similar to ASCII Code with 8 bit representation. This coding system is formulated by International Business Machine (IBM). The coding system can handle 256 characters. The input code in ASCII can be converted to EBCDIC system and vice – versa.

Question 17.
Write a note on the ISCII encoding system.
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This is an 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. This system is formulated by the Department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now, this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

Part III

Question 1.
Write about the binary number system.
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2.
The leftmost bit in the binary number is called the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The rightmost bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Question 2.
What is the octal number system?
The octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 (8 digits): Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.
Example: The Octal sequence (547)8 has the decimal equivalent:

Question 3.
Give the procedure to convert decimal to octal.
To convert Decimal to Octal, “Repeated Division by 8” method can be used) In this method, we have to divide the given number by 8.
Example:
Convert (65)10 into its equivalent Octal number.

Question 4.
Give the procedure to convert Octal to Decimal
To convert Octal to Decimal, we can use positional notation method)

• Write down the Octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left (Positional Notation).
• For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
• Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.

Example:
Convert (1265)8 to equivalent Decimal number.

(1265)8 = 512 x 1 + 64 x 2 + 8 x 6 + 1 x 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)8 = (693)10

Question 5.
How will you convert Hexadecimal to Decimal?
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use the positional notation method.

• Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation)
• For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
• Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight
• Add all the values to get one final value.

Example:
Convert (25F)16 into its equivalent Decimal number.

(25F)16 = 2 x 256 + 5 x 16 + 15 x 1
= 512 + 80 + 15 (25F)16
= (607)10

Question 6.
Write about binary representation for signed numbers.
Computers can handle both positive (unsigned) and negative (signed) numbers. The simplest method to represent negative binary numbers is called Signed Magnitude. In signed magnitude method, the leftmost bit is the Most Significant Bit (MSB), which is called the sign bit or parity bit.
The numbers are represented in computers in different ways:

• Signed Magnitude representation
• 1’s Complement
• 2’s Complement

Question 7.
Explain ASCII code in detail.
This is the most popular encoding system recognized by the United States. Most of the computers use this system. Remember this encoding system can handle English characters only. This can handle 27 bit which means 128 characters.

In this system, each character has an individual number. The new edition ASCII -8, has 28 bits and can handle 256 characters are represented from 0 to 255 unique numbers.

The ASCII code equivalent to the uppercase letter ‘A’ is 65. The binary representation of the ASCII (7 bit) value is 1000001. Also 01000001 in ASCII-8 bit.

Question 8.
Explain Unicode in detail.
This coding system is used in most modern computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada, and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII.

Hence, Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is a 16-bit code and can handle 65536 characters. The unicode scheme is denoted by hexadecimal numbers.

Part IV

Question 1.
Explain decimal to binary conversion using Repeated Division by 2 methods.
To convert Decimal to Binary “Repeated Division by 2” method can be used. Any Decimal number divided by 2 will leave a remainder of 0 or 1. Repeated division by 2 will leave a sequence of 0s and Is that become the binary equivalent of the decimal number.

Suppose it is required to convert the decimal number N into binary form, dividing N by 2 in the decimal system, we will obtain a quotient N1 and a remainder Rl, where R1 can have a value of either 0 or 1. The process is repeated until the quotient becomes 0 or 1. When the quotient is ‘0’ or ‘1’, it is the final remainder value. Write the final answer starting from the final remainder value obtained to the first remainder value obtained.

Example:
Convert (65)10 into its equivalent binary number

Question 2.
Explain decimal to binary conversion using Sum of powers of 2 methods.
A decimal number can be converted into a binary number by adding up the powers of 2 and then adding bits as needed to obtain the total value of the number.
a) Find the largest power of 2 that is smaller than or equal to 65.
6510 > 6410

b) Set the 64’s bit to 1 and subtract 64 from the original number
65 – 64 = 1

c) 32 is greater than the remaining total.
Therefore, set the 32’s bit to 0.

d) 16 is greater than the remaining total.
Therefore, set the 16’s bit to 0
.
e) 8 is greater than the remaining total.
Therefore, set the 8’s bit to 0.

f) 4 is greater than the remaining total.
Therefore, set the 4’s bit to 0.

g) 2 is greater than the remaining total.
Therefore, set the 2’s bit to 0.

h) As the remaining value is equivalent to l’s bit, set it to 1.
1 – 1 = 0
Conversion is complete 6510 = (1000001)2

Example:
The conversion steps can be given as follows:
Given Number: 65
Equivalent or value less than the power of 2 is: 64
(1) 65 – 64 = 1
(2) 1 – 1= 0

6510 = (1000001)2.

Question 3.
Explain the procedure to convert fractional decimal to Binary.
The method of repeated multiplication by 2
has to be used to convert such kind of decimal fractions.
The steps involved in the method of repeated multiplication by 2:

Step 1: Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either 0 or 1.
Step 2: Discard the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2. Repeat Step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3: The resulting integer part forms a sequence of Os and Is that becomes the binary equivalent of a decimal fraction.
Step 4: The final answer is to be written from the first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.

Write the integer parts from top to bottom to obtain the equivalent fractional binary number. Hence (0.2)10= (0.00110011…)2 = 0.00110011)2

Question 4.
How will you convert Binary to Decimal?
To convert Binary to Decimal we can use the positional notation method.
Step 1: Write down the Binary digits and list the powers of 2 from right to left (Positional Notation)
Step 2: For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
Step 3; Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight
Step 4: Add all the values.

Example:
Convert (111011)2 into its equivalent decimal number.

32 + 16 + 8 + 0 + 2 + 1 = (59)10
(111011)2 = (59)10

Question 5.
How will you convert Binary to Octal?
Step 1.: Group the given binary number into 3 bits from right to left.
Step 2: You can add preceding O to make a group of 3 bits if the leftmost group has less than 3 bits.
Step 3: Convert equivalent octal value using “2’s power positional weight method”

Example
Convert (11010110)2 into an octal equivalent number

Step 1: Group the given number into 3 bits from right to left.
011 010 110
The left-most groups have less than 3 bits, so 0 is added to its left to make a group of 3 bits.

Step-2: Find the Octal equivalent of each group.

Question 6.
Give the procedure to convert Binary to Hexadecimal.
Step 1: Group the given number into 4 bits from right to left.
Step 2: You can add preceding 0’s to make a group of 4 bits if the leftmost group has less than 4 bits.
Step 3: Convert equivalent Hexadecimal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Example
Step 1: Group the given number into 4 bits from right to left. 1
0011 1101 0110
0’s are added to the leftmost group to make it a group of 4 bits.

Question 7.
Give the procedure to convert fractional Binary to Decimal equivalent.
The steps to convert fractional Binary number to its decimal equivalent:
Step 1 : Convert an integral part of Binary to Decimal equivalent using positional notation method.
Step 2 : To convert the fractional part of binary to its decimal equivalent.
Step 2,1 : Write down the Binary digits in the fractional part.
Step 2,2 : For all the digits write powers of 2 from left to right starting
from 2-1, 2-2, 2-3 2-n, now write the equivalent weight.
Step 2.3 : Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
Step 2.4 : Add all the values which you obtained in Step 2.3.

Step 3 : To get final answer write the integral
part (after conversion), followed by a decimal point(.) and the answer arrived at Step 2.4

Example:
Convert the given Binary number (11.011)2 into its decimal equivalent Integer part (11)2 = 3

Question 8.
Explain the method of representing signed binary numbers in the Signed Magnitude representation.
The value of the whole numbers can be determined by the sign used before it. If the number has a ‘+’ sign or no sign it will be considered as positive. If the number has signed it will be considered negative.

Example:
+ 43 or 43 is a positive number
– 43 is a negative number

In signed binary representation, the leftmost bit is considered as a sign bit. If this bit is 0, it is a positive number and if it 1, it is a negative number. Therefore a signed binary number has 8 bits, only 7 bits used for storing values (magnitude), and 1 bit is used for signs.

Question 9.
Explain the method of representing signed binary numbers in l’s complement representation.
This is an easier approach to represent signed numbers. This is for negative numbers only i.e. the number whose MSB is 1.

The steps to be followed to find l’s complement of a number:

Step 1: Convert given Decimal number into Binary
Step 2: Check if the binary number contains 8 bits, if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
Step 3: Invert all bits (i.e. Change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)

Example: Find 1’s complement for (-24)10

Question 10.
Explain the method of representing signed binary numbers in 2’s complement representation.
The 2’s-complement method for the negative number is as follows:
a) Invert all the bits in the binary sequence (i.e., change every 0 to 1 and every 1 to 0 ie.,l’s complement)
b) Add 1 to the result to the Least Significant Bit (LSB).
Example: 2’s Complement represent of (-24)10

Question 11.
Explain binary addition with a suitable example.
The following table is useful when adding two binary numbers.

In 1 + 1 = 10, is considered as sum 0 and the 1 as carry bit. This carry bit is added with the previous position of the bit pattern.

Example: Perform Binary addition for the following:
2310 + 1210
Step 1: Convert 23 and 12 into binary form

Step 2: Binary addition of 23 and 12:

Question 11.
Explain binary subtraction with a suitable example.
The table for Binary Subtraction is as follows:

When subtracting 1 from 0, borrow 1 from the next Most Significant Bit, when borrowing from the next Most Significant Bit, if it is 1, replace it with 0. If the next Most Significant Bit is 0, you must borrow from a more significant bit that contains 1 and replace it with 0 and 0s upto that point become Is.
Example : Subtract 10010102 — 101002.

Example: Perform Binary addition for the
following:
(-21)10 + (5)10
Step 1: Change -21 and 5 into binary form

Workshop

Question 1.
Identify the number system for the following numbers.

Question 2.
State whether the following numbers are valid or not. If invalid, give a reason.

Question 3.
Convert the following Decimal numbers to their equivalent Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal.
i) 1920
ii) 255
iii) 126
i) 1920

ii) 255

iii) 126

Question 4.
Convert the given Binary number into its equivalent Decimal, Octal, and Hexadecimal numbers.
i)101110101
ii) 1011010
iii) 101011111
i) 101110101
Binary to Decimal (Multiply by positional value and then add)

ii) 1011010
Binary to decimal

iii) 101011111
Binary to decimal

Question 5.
Convert the following Octal numbers into Binary numbers.
a) 472
b) 145
c) 347
d) 6247
e) 645
Procedure: Write three digits binary number for every octal digit that will give the equivalent binary number.

Ans.
(472)8 = (100111010)2

(145)8 = (001100101)2

(347)8 = (011100111)2

(6247)8 = (110010100111)2

(645)8 = (110100101)2.

Question 6.
Convert the following Hexadecimal numbers to Binary numbers
a) A6
b) BE
c) 9BC8
d) BC9
Procedure: Write four digits binary number for every Hexadecimal digit that will give the equivalent binary number.

(A6)16 = (10100110)2.

(BE)16 = (1011 1110)2

(9BC8)16 = (1001101111001000)2

(BC9)16 = (101111001001)2

Question 7.
Write the l’s complement number and 2’s complement number for the following decimal numbers:
Perform the following binary computations:
a) -22
b) -13
c) -65
d) -46
a) -22

Question 8.
a) 1010 + 1510
b) – 1210 + 510
c) 1410 – 1210
d) (-2)10 – (-6)10

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 2 Kinematics

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Kinematics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Kinematics

### 11th Physics Guide Kinematics Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following Cartesian coordinate systems is not followed in physics?

Question 2.
Identify the unit vector in the following _______.

Question 3.
Which one of the following quantities cannot be represented by a scalar?
a) Mass
b) length
c) momentum
d) magnitude of the acceleration
c) momentum

Question 4.
Two objects of masses m1 and m2 fall from the heights h1 and h2 respectively. The ratio of the magnitude of their momenta when they hit the ground is _______. (AIPMT 2012)

Question 5.
If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, it speeds _______.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) zero
a) increases

Question 6.
If the velocity is $$\overline{V}$$ = $$2 \hat{i}+t^{2} \hat{j}-9 \hat{k}$$ then the magnitude of acceleration at t = 0.5s is _______.
a) 1ms-2
b) 2 ms-2
c) zero
d) -1ms-2
a) 1ms-2

Question 7.
If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the ground at t = 4s, then the height of the building is (ignoring air resistance) (g = 9.8ms-2)
a) 77.3m
b) 78.4m
c) 80.5
d) 79.2m
b) 78.4m

Question 8.
A ball is projected vertically upwards with a velocity v. It comes back to the ground in time t. Which v-t graph shows the motion correctly? (NSEP 00-01)

Question 9.
If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is thrown horizontally from the same height, then the ratio of vertical distance covered by both objects at any instant t is _______.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 0.5
a) 1

Question 10.
A bail is dropped from some height towards the ground. Which one of the following represents the correct motion of the ball?

Question 11.
If a particle executes uniform circular motion in the XY plane in a clockwise direction, then the angular velocity is in _______.
a) +y direction
b) +z direction
c) -z direction
d) -x direction
c) -z direction

Question 12.
If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct statement _______. (NEET 2016)
a) The velocity and speed are constant.
b) The acceleration and speed are constant.
c) The velocity and acceleration are constant.
d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant
d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant

Question 13.
If an object is thrown vertically up with the initial speed u from the ground, then the time taken by the object to return back to the ground is _______.
(a) $$\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}$$
(b) $$\frac{u^{2}}{g}$$
(c) $$\frac { u }{ 2g }$$
(d) $$\frac { 2u }{ g }$$
(d) $$\frac { 2u }{ g }$$

Question 14.
Two objects are projected at angles 30° and 60° respectively with respect to the horizontal direction. The range of two objects are denoted as R30° and R60° Choose the correct relation from the following
a) R30° = R60°
b) R30° = 4R60°
c) R30° = R$$\frac { 60° }{ 2 }$$
d) R30° = 2R60°
a) R30° = R60°

Question 15.
An object is dropped in an unknown planet from a height of 50m, it reaches the ground in 2s. The acceleration due to gravity in this unknown planet is _______.
a) g = 20ms-2
b) g = 25ms-2
c) g = 15ms-2
d) g = 30ms-2
b) g = 25ms-2

Question 1.
Explain what is meant by the Cartesian coordinate system?
At any given instant of time, the frame of reference with respect to which the position of the object is described in terms of position coordinates (x,y,z) is called “Cartesian coordinate system”.

If x, y, and z axes are drawn in an anticlockwise direction, then the coordinate system is called a right-handed Cartesian coordinate system.

Question 2.
Define a vector. Give Example.
Vector is a quantity which is described by both magnitude and direction. Geometrically a vector is a directed line segment.
Example – force, velocity, displacement.

Question 3.
Define a Scalar. Give Examples.
Scalar is a property of a physical quantity which can be described only by magnitude.
Example: Distance, Mass, Temperature, Speed, Energy, etc.

Question 4.
Write short note on the scalar product between two vectors.
The Scalar product of two vectors (dot product) is defined as the product of the magnitudes of both the vectors and the cosine of angle between them.
If $$\vec{A}$$ and $$\vec{B}$$ are two vectors having an angle θ between them, then their scalar or dot product is

Example: W = $$\vec{F}$$.$$\vec{dr}$$. Work done is a scalar product of force $$\vec{F}$$ and $$\vec{r}$$

Question 5.
Write a Short note on vector product between two vectors.
The vector product or cross product of two vectors is defined as another vector having a magnitude equal to the product of the magnitudes of two vectors and the sine of the angle between them. The direction of the product vector is perpendicular to the plane containing the two vectors, in accordance with the right hand screw rule or right hand thumb rule. Thus, if$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ and $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ are two vectors, then their vector product is written as $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ × $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ which is a vector C defined by $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}$$ = $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ = (AB sin 0) $$\hat{n}$$
The direction $$\hat{n}$$ of $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ , i.e., $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}$$ is perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ and $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$.

Question 6.
How do you deduce that two vectors are perpendicular?
If the vector product of the two given vectors is having maximum magnitude.
i.e sinθ = 90°, [ ($$\vec{A}$$ x $$\vec{B}$$)Max = AB$$\hat{n}$$ ] then the two vectors are said to be perpendicular.

Question 7.
Define Displacement and distance.
Distance is the actual path length traveled by an object in the given interval of time during the motion. It is a positive scalar quantity. Displacement is the difference between the final and initial positions of the object in a given interval of time. It can also be defined as the shortest distance between these two positions of the object. It is a vector quantity.

Question 8.
Define velocity and speed.
Velocity – Velocity is defined as the rate of change of position vector with respect to time (or) defined as the rate of change of displacement. It Is a vector quantity.

Speed – Speed is defined as the rate of change of distance. It is a scalar quantity.

Question 9.
Define acceleration.
Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.
Acceleration $$\vec{a}$$ = $$\frac{d \vec{v}}{d t}$$
Acceleration is a vector quantity.
Unit – ms-2
Dimensional formula-[LT-2]

Question 10.
What is the difference between velocity and average velocity?

Question 11.
Radian is defined as ratio of length of the arc to radians of the arc. One radian is the angle subtended at the center of the circle by an arc that is equal to in length to the radius of the circle.

Question 12.
Define angular displacement and angular velocity.

1. Angular displacement: The angle described by the particle about the axis of rotation in a given time is called angular displacement.
2. Angular velocity: The rate of change of angular displacement is called angular velocity.

Question 13.
What is non-uniform circular motion?
When an object is moving in a circular path with variable speed, it covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time. Then the motion of the object is said to be a non-uniform circular motion. Here both speed and direction during circular motion change.

Question 14.
Write down the kinematic equations for angular motion.
The Kinematic equations for angular motion are ω = ω0 + αt
θ = ω0t + $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$αt²
ω² = ω0² + 2αθ
θ = $$\left(\frac{\omega_{0}+\omega}{2}\right)$$ x t
ω0 → initial angular velocity
ω → final angular velocity
α → angular acceleration
θ → angular displacement
t → time interval

Question 15.
Write down the expression for angle made by resultant acceleration and radius vector in the non-uniform circular motion.
In the case of non-uniform circular motion, the particle will have both centripetal and tangential acceleration. The resultant acceleration is obtained as the vector sum of both centripetal and tangential acceleration.

This resultant acceleration makes an angle 6 with a radius vector, which is given by

Question 1.
Explain in detail the triangle law of addition.
Let us consider two vector $$\vec{A}$$ and $$\vec{B}$$ as shown In fig.

Law: To find the resultant of two vectors, the triangular law of addition can be applied as follows.
A and B are represented as the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. The resultant is given by the third side of the triangle taken in reverse order.

Magnitude of the resultant vector:
from figure
Let θ be the angle between two vectors.
from ∆ ABN, Sin θ = $$\frac { BN }{ AB }$$ ⇒ ∴ BN = B sinθ
Cos θ = $$\frac { AN }{ AB }$$ ⇒ ∴ AN = B Cos θ

Which is the magnitude of the resultant $$\vec{A}$$ and $$\vec{B}$$.

The direction of the resultant vector:
If $$\vec{R}$$ makes an angle α with $$\vec{A}$$ then

Question 2.
Discuss the properties of scalar and vector products.
Properties of scalar product:
formula : $$\vec{A}$$.$$\vec{B}$$ = ABCosθ

1. The product quantity $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$ is always a scalar. It is positive if the angle between the vectors is acute (θ< 90°) and negative if angle between them is obtuse (90 < θ < 180)

2. The scalar product is commutative $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$ = $$\overline{B}$$.$$\overline{A}$$

3. The scalar product obey distributive law. $$\overline{A}$$.( $$\overline{B}$$ + $$\overline{C}$$ ) = $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$ + $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{C}$$

4. The angle between the vector is θ = Cos-1$$\frac{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}{A B}$$

5. The scalar product of two vectors will be maximum when cos θ = 1 i.e θ = 0 ie when they are parallel.
[ ( $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$ ) max = AB.]

6. The scalar product of two vectors will be minimum when cos θ = -1 ie θ = 180°
( $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$)mm = – AB [the vector are anti-parallel]

7. If two vector $$\overline{A}$$ & $$\overline{B}$$ are perpendicular to each other then $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{B}$$ = O. Because cos 90 = 0. Then vectors A & B are mutually orthogonal.

8. The scalar product of a vector with it self is termed as self or dot product and is given by
( $$\overline{A}$$ )² = $$\overline{A}$$.$$\overline{A}$$ = AA cos θ = A²
Here 0=0
The magnitude or norm of the vector $$\overline{A}$$ is
|A| = A = $$\sqrt{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{A}}$$ = A.

9. Incase of orthogonal unit vectors
$$\hat{n}$$.$$\hat{n}$$ = 1 x 1cos0 = 1
for eg $$\hat{i}$$.$$\hat{i}$$ = $$\hat{j}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ = $$\hat{k}$$.$$\hat{k}$$ = 1

10. Incase of orthogonal unit vectors $$\hat{i}$$, $$\hat{f}$$, $$\hat{k}$$ then $$\hat{i}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ = $$\hat{j}$$.$$\hat{k}$$ = $$\hat{k}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ = 1.1 cos 90 = 0.

11. In terms of components the scalar product of A and B can be written as

Properties of cross product:
Formula $$\vec{A}$$ x $$\vec{B}$$ = ABsinθ

1. The vector product of any two vectors is always an another vector whose direction perpendicular to the plane containing these two vectors, ie. Orthogonal to $$\overline{A}$$ & $$\overline{B}$$ even though $$\overline{A}$$ & $$\overline{B}$$ may not be mutually orthogonal.

2. Vector product is not commutative
$$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ = – $$\overline{B}$$.$$\overline{A}$$
$$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ ≠ $$\vec{B}$$ x $$\vec{A}$$
Here magnitude | $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ | = | $$\overline{B}$$.$$\overline{A}$$ | are equal but opposite direction.

3. The vector product of two vector is maximum when sine = 1, ie θ = 90°
ie. when $$\overline{A}$$ and $$\overline{B}$$ are orthogonal to each other.
( $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ ) max = AB $$\hat{n}$$.

4. The vector product of two non zero vectors is minimum if |sinθ| = 0. ie. θ = 0 or 180°
( $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ ) m in = 0
Vector product of two non zero vectors is equal to zero if they either parallel or anti parallel

5. The self cross product ie product of a vector with itself is a null vector $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ = AA sinθ = 0

6. The self-vector product of the unit vector is zero
i.e. $$\hat{i}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ = $$\hat{j}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ = $$\hat{k}$$.$$\hat{k}$$ = 0

7. In case of orthogonal unit vectors $$\hat{i}$$, $$\hat{j}$$, $$\hat{k}$$ in accordance with right hand cork screw rule $$\hat{i}$$.$$\hat{j}$$ =$$\hat{k}$$, $$\hat{i}$$.$$\hat{k}$$ = $$\hat{i}$$, $$\hat{k}$$.$$\hat{i}$$ = $$\hat{j}$$ also since cross product is not commutative

9. If two vectors $$\overline{A}$$ & $$\overline{B}$$ form adjacent sides of a parallelogram then the magnitude of |$$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$| will give area 0f parallelogram.

10. Since one can divide a parallelogram into two equal triangles, the area of the triangle is $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ |$$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$|.

Question 3.
Derive the kinematic equations of motion for constant acceleration.
Consider an object moving in a straight line with uniform or constant acceleration ‘a’. Let u be the initial velocity at t = 0, and v be the final velocity after a time of t seconds

(i) Velocity time relation:
The acceleration of the body at any instant is given by first derivative of the velocity with time
a = $$\frac { dv }{ dt }$$
integrating both sides

Displacement time relation:

(ii) The velocity of the body is given by the first derivative of the displacement with respect to time
But v = ds/dt
∴ dv = v dt
v = u + at
ds = (u + at)dt
ds = udt + atdt
Integrating both sides

Velocity-displacement relation:

also we can derive from the relation v = u + at
v – u = at
Substituting in equation s = ut + $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$at²

Question 4.
Derive the equations of motion for a particle (a) falling vertically (b) projected vertically.
For a body falling vertically from a height ‘h’:
Consider an object of mass m falling from height h.
Neglecting air resistance, the downward direction as the positive y-axis.
The object experiences acceleration ‘g’ due to gravity which is constant near the surface of the earth.
In kinematic equations of motion $$\vec{a}$$ = g$$\hat{i}$$
By comparing the components ax = 0, ag = 0, ay= g

Case – 1
If the particle is thrown with initial velocity ‘u’ downward then
v = u + gt
y = ut + 1/2gt²
v² – u² = 2gy

Case – 2
Suppose the particle starts from rest,
u = 0
v = gt
y = 1/2gt²
v² = 2gy
For a body projected vertically: Consider an object of mass m thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity u. Ne-glect air friction. The vertical direction as positive y axis then the acceleration,
a = – g
The kinematic equation of motion are v = u – gt
v = u – gt
s = ut – 1/2 gt²

Projectile motion calculator solving for vertical velocity at time given initial vertical velocity, acceleration of gravity and time.

Question 5.
Derive the equations of motion, range, and maximum height reached by a particle thrown at an oblique angle θ with respect to the horizontal direction.
Consider an object thrown with an initial velocity u at an angle θ with horizontal.

Then initial velocity is resolved into two components
ux = u cos θ horizontally and
uy = u sin θ vertically
At maximum height uy = 0 (since acceleration due to gravity is opposite to the direction of the vertical component).
The Horizontal component of velocity
ux = u cos θ remains constant throughout its motion.
hence after the time t the velocity along the horizontal motion
Vx = Ux + axt
= ux = cos θ
The horizontal distance travelled by the projectile in a time ‘t’ is Sx = uxt + 1/2 axt².
Here Sx = x ux = u cos θ
ax = 0
∴ x = u cos θt ____ (1)
∴ t = $$\frac { x }{ u cos θ }$$ ____ (2)
For vertical motion
Vy = uy + ayt
Here vy = vy
uy = u sin θ
ay = – g
vy = u sin θ – gt
The vertical distance travelled by the projectile in the same time ‘t’ is
Sy = Uy t + ay
Sy = y, Uy = u sin θ ay = – g
y = u sin θ t – 1/2 gt² ____ (4)
Substituting the value of t in (4) we get equation:

Which indicates the path followed by the projectile is an inverted parabola.

Expression for Maximum height:
The maximum vertical distance travelled by the projectile during its motion is called maximum height.
We know that
vy² = uy² + 2ays
Here uy = u sin 0, ay = – g, s = hmax
vy = 0

Expression for horizontal range:
The maximum horizontal distance between the point of projection and the point on the horizontal plane where the projectile hits the ground is called horizontal range.
Horizontal range = Horizontal component of velocity x time of flight
R = u cos θ x tf → (1)
Time of flight (tf) is the time taken by the projectile from point of projection to point the projectile hits the ground again
w.k.t = Sy = uy tf + 1/2 ayf)
Here Sy = 0 uy = u sin θ, ay = – g
0 = u sin θ tf – 1/2g t²f
1/2 gt t²f = u sin θ tf

Question 6.
Derive the expression for centripetal acceleration.
In uniform circular motion the velocity vector turns continuously with out changing its magnitude. ie speed remains constant and direction changes. Even though the velocity is tangential to every point is a circle, the acceleration it acting towards the centre of the circle along the radius. This is called centripetal acceleration

Expression:
The centripetal acceleration is derived from a simple geometrical relationship between position and velocity vectors. Let the directions of position and velocity vectors shift through same angle θ in a small time interval ∆t
For uniform circular motion r = $$\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|$$ = $$\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|$$
and v = $$\left|\bar{v}_{1}\right|$$ = $$\left|\bar{v}_{2}\right|$$
If the particle moves from position vector $$\bar{r}_{1}$$ to $$\bar{r}_{2}$$ the displacement is given by $$\overrightarrow{\Delta r}$$ = $$\bar{r}_{2}$$ – $$\bar{r}_{1}$$

and change in velocity from $$\bar{v}_{1}$$ to $$\bar{v}_{2}$$ is given ∆$$\bar { v }$$ = $$\bar{v}_{2}$$ – $$\bar{v}_{1}$$

The magnitudes of the displacement ∆r and ∆v satisfy the following relation

For uniform circular motion v=rω where ω is the angular velocity of the particle about the center
The centripetal acceleration a = ω²r.

Question 7.
Derive the expression for total acceleration in the non-uniform circular motion.
If the velocity changes both in speed and direction during circular motion, then we get non-uniform circular motion. Whenever the speed is not the same in a circular motion then the particle will have both centripetal and tangential acceleration.

The resultant acceleration is obtained by the vector sum of centripetal and tangential acceleration
Let the tangential acceleration be at.
Centripetal acceleration is v²/r.
The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is aR = $$\sqrt{a_{t}^{2}+\left(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\right)^{2}}$$

IV. Exercises:

Question 1.
The position vector particle has a length of 1m and makes 30° with the x-axis what are the lengths of x and y components of the position vector?
Solution:

Question 2.
A particle has its position moved from $$\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|$$ = 3$$\hat{i}$$ + 4$$\hat{j}$$ to r$$\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|$$ = $$\hat{i}$$+ 2$$\hat{j}$$ calculate the displacement vector ( ∆ $$\vec{r}$$ ) and draw the $$\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|$$, $$\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|$$ and ( ∆ $$\vec{r}$$ ) vector in a two dimensional Cartesian co-ordinate system.
Solution:

Question 3.
Calculate the average velocity of the particle whose position vector changes from $$\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|$$ = 5$$\hat{i}$$ + 6$$\hat{j}$$ to $$\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|$$ = 2$$\hat{i}$$ + 3$$\hat{j}$$ in a time 5 seconds.
Solution:

Question 4.
Convert the vector $$\overline{r}$$ = 3$$\hat{i}$$ + 2$$\hat{j}$$ into a unit vector.
Solution:
A vector divided by its magnitude is a unit vector

Question 5.
What are the resultants of the vector product of two given vector given by
$$\overline{A}$$ = 4$$\hat{i}$$ – 2$$\hat{j}$$ + $$\hat{k}$$ and $$\overline{B}$$ = 5$$\hat{i}$$ + 3$$\hat{j}$$ – 4$$\hat{k}$$?
Solution:

Question 6.
An object at an angle such that the horizontal range is 4 times the maximum height. What is the angle of projection of the object?
Solution:
Incase of obliging projection

Question 7.
The following graphs represent velocity-time graph. Identify what kind of motion a particle undergoes in each graph.

Solution:
(a) When the body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration is constant

(b) This graph represents, for a body moving with a uniform velocity or constant velocity. The zero slope of curve indicates zero acceleration.

(c) This v-t graph is a straight line not passing through origin indicates the body has a constant acceleration but greater than fig(i) as slope is more than the first one (more steeper)

(d) Greater changes in velocity (velocity variations are taking place in equal as travels of time. The graph indicates increasing acceleration.

Question 8.
The following velocity-time graph represents a particle moving in the positive x-direction. Analyse its motion from o to 7s calculate the displacement covered and distance traveled by the particle from 0 to 2s.

Solution:
From o to A(o to Is):
At t = os the particle has a zero velocity at t > 0 the particle has a negative velocity and moves in positive x-direction the slope dr/dt is negative. The particle is decelerating. Thus the velocity decreases during this time interval.

From A to B (Is to 2s):
From time Is to 2s the velocity increase and slope dv/dt becomes positive. The particle is accelerating. The velocity increases in this time interval.

From B to C (2s to 5s):
From 2s to 5s the velocity stays constant at 1 m/s. The acceleration is zero.

From C to D (6s to 7s):
From 5s to 6s the velocity decreases. Slope dv/dt is negative. The particle is decelerating. The velocity decreases to zero. The body comes to rest at 6s.

From D to E (6s to 7s)
The particle is at rest during this time interval.

Displacement: in 0 – 2s:
The total area under the curve from 0 to 2s displacement = 1/2bh + 1/2bh
=1/2 x 1.5 x (- 2) + 0.5 x 1
= – 1.5 + 0.25
= – 1.25 m

Distance: is 0 – 2s
The distance covered is = 1.5 + 0.25 = 1.75 m

Question 9.
A particle is projected at an angle of θ with respect to the horizontal direction. Match the following for the above motion.
(a) vx – decreases and increases
(b) Vy – remains constant
(c) Acceleration – varies
(d) Position vector – remains downwards
Solution:
(a) Vx – remains constant
(b) Vy – decreases and increases
(c) Acceleration (a) – remains downwards
(d) Position vector (r) – varies

Question 10.
A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of the water coming out of the fountains is V. Calculate the total area around the fountain that gets wet.
Solution :
Speed of water = V
(Range)max = radius = u2/g = v²/g
This range becomes the radius = (v²/g) of the circle where water sprinkled.
Area covered = Area of circle
= πr² = π$$\left(\frac{v^{2}}{g}\right)$$²
= π $$v^{4} / g^{2}$$

Question 11.
The following table gives the range of the particle when thrown on different planets. All the particles are thrown at the same angle with the horizontal and with the same initial speed. Arrange the planets in ascending order according to their acceleration due to gravity (g value)

Solution:
R = – (sin 2θ)
∵ the initial velocity and angle of projection are constants
R ∝ $$\frac { 1 }{ g }$$
g ∝ $$\frac { 1 }{ R }$$

According to acceleration, due to gravity In ascending order, the solution is. Mercury, Mars, Earth, Jupiter

Question 12.
The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to vector A and its magnitude is equal to half of the magnitude of vector B. Then the angle between A and B is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 150°
(d)120°
Solution:
Let two vectors be A & B

Magnitude of B = B
Magnitude of A = A
∝ = 90°
Given:

Question 13.
Compare the components for the following vector equations.
(a) T$$\hat{j}$$ – mg$$\hat{j}$$ = ma$$\hat{j}$$
(b) $$\overline{T}$$ + $$\overline{F}$$ = $$\overline{A}$$ + $$\overline{B}$$
(c) $$\overline{T}$$ – $$\overline{F}$$ = $$\overline{A}$$ – $$\overline{B}$$
(d) T$$\hat{j}$$ + mg$$\hat{j}$$ = ma$$\hat{j}$$
Solution:
We can resolve all vectors in x, y, z components w.r.t. Cartesian co-ordinate system. After resolving the components separately equate x components on both sides y components on both sides and z components on both side we get.
(a) T$$\hat{j}$$ – mg$$\hat{j}$$ = ma$$\hat{j}$$
T – mg = ma

(b) $$\overline{T}$$ + $$\overline{F}$$ = $$\overline{A}$$ + $$\overline{B}$$
Tx + Fx = Ax + Bx

(c) $$\overline{T}$$ – $$\overline{F}$$ = $$\overline{A}$$ – $$\overline{B}$$
Tx – Fx = Ax – Bx

(d) T$$\hat{j}$$ + mg$$\hat{j}$$ = ma$$\hat{j}$$
T + mg = ma

Question 14.
Calculate the area of the triangle for which two of its sides are given by the vectors $$\overline{A}$$ = 5$$\hat{i}$$ – 3$$\hat{j}$$ $$\overline{B}$$ = 4$$\hat{i}$$ + 6$$\hat{j}$$.
Solution:

Question 15.
If the earth completes one revolution in 24 hours, what is the angular displacement made by the earth in one hour? Express your answer in both radian and degree.
Solution:
ω = θ/t θ = wt
In 24 hours, angular displacement made
θ = 360° (or) 2π rad
In 1 hours, angular displacement
θ = $$\frac { 360° }{ 24 }$$
θ = 15°
In radian θ = $$\frac { 2π }{ 24 }$$ = $$\frac { π }{ 12 }$$ radians.
θ = $$\frac { π }{ 12 }$$ rad.

Question 16.
An object is thrown with initial speed of 5ms-1 with an angle of projection of 30°. What is the height and range reached by the particle?
Solution:
u = 5 m/s
θ = 30°
hmax = ?
R = ?
Height reached

Range:

Question 17.
A football player hits the ball with a speed 20m/s with angle 30° with respect to as shown in the figure horizontal directions. The goal post is at a distance of 40 m from him. Find out whether the ball reaches the goal post.

Solution :
In order to find whether the ball is reaching the goal post the range should be equal to 40m so range

= $$\frac { 692.8 }{ 19.6 }$$
= 35.35 m.
Which is less than the distance of the goal post which is 40 m away so the ball won’t reach the goal post.

Question 18.
If an object is thrown horizontally with an initial speed 10 ms-1 from the top of a building of height 100 m. What is the horizontal distance covered by the particle?
Solution:
u = 10 m/s
h = 100 m
x = ?
x = u x T

x = 45.18 m.

Question 19.
An object is executing uniform circular motion with an angular speed of π/12 radians per second. At t = 0 the object starts at an angle θ = 0. What is the angular displacement of the particle after 4s?
Solution :
ω = θ/t
θ = w x t = π/12 x 4
θ = $$\frac { 180° }{ 3 }$$
= 60°

Question 20.
Consider the x-axis as representing east, the y-axis as north, and the z-axis as vertically upwards. Give the vector representing each of the following points.

(a) 5m northeast and 2m up.
(b) 4m southeast and 3m up.
(c) 2m northwest and 4m up.
Solution:
5m northeast and 2m up.
(a) The vector representation of 5m N-E and 2m up is (5i + 5j) Cos 45° + 2$$\hat{k}$$

(b) 4m south east and 3m up.

The vector representing 4m south east and 3m up is
(4i – 4j) cos 45 + 3$$\hat{k}$$
$$\frac{4(i-j)}{\sqrt{2}}$$ + 3$$\hat{k}$$

(c) 2m north west and 4m up.

The vector representing 2m northwest and 4m up

Question 21.
The moon is orbiting the earth approximately once in 27 days. What is the angle transversed by the moon per day?
Solution :
Angle described in 27 days = 2π rad = 360° days
Angie described in one day = 2π/27 radian
= $$\frac { 360° }{ 27 }$$
θ = 13.3°

Question 22.
An object of mass m has an angular acceleration ∝ = 0.2 rad/s². What is the angular displacement covered by the object after 3 seconds? (Assume that the object started with angle zero with zero angular velocity)
Solution:
θ = ? t = 3s.
w0 = 0
w.k.T θ = ω0t + 1/2 ∝ t²
θ = 0 + 1/2 x 0.2 x 9
θ = 0 = 0.9 x 57.295° = 51°
The magnitude of the resultant vector R is given by

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A particle moves in a circle of radius R from A to B as in the figure.

Question 2.
The branch of mechanics which deals with the motion of objects without taking force into account is –
(a) kinetics
(b) dynamics
(c) kinematics
(d) statics
(c) kinematics

Question 3.
A particle moves in a straight line from A to B with speed v1 and then from B to A with speed v2. The average velocity and average speed are _______.

Question 4.
A particle is moving in a straight line under constant acceleration. It travels 15m in the 3rd second and 31m in the 7th second. The initial velocity and acceleration are _______.
a) 5 m/s, 4 m/s²
b) 4 m/s, 5 m/s²
c) 4 m/s, 4 m/s²
d) 5 m/s, 5 m/s²
a) 5 m/s, 4 m/s²

Question 5.
If an object is moving in a straight line then the motion is known as –
(a) linear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) curvilinear motion
(d) rotational motion
(a) linear motion

Question 6.
A car is moving at a constant speed of 15 m/s. Suddenly the driver sees an obstacle on the road and takes 0.4 s to apply the brake. The brake causes a deceleration of 5 m/s². The distance traveled by car before it stops _______.
a) 6 m
b) 22.5 m
c) 28.5 m
d) 16.2 m
c) 28.5 m

Question 7.
A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate (3 to come to rest. If the total time lapses in ‘t’ seconds, then the maximum velocity reached is _______.

Question 8.
Spinning of the earth about its own axis is known as –
(a) linear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) curvilinear motion
(d) rotational motion
(d) rotational motion

Question 9.
A particle is thrown vertically up with a speed of 40m/s, The velocity at half of the maximum height _______.
a) 20 m/s
b) 20$$\sqrt{2}$$m/s
c) 10 m/s
d) 10$$\sqrt{2}$$m/s
b) 20$$\sqrt{2}$$m/s

Question 10.
The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and the average speed of the body is always _______.
a) unity
b) unity or less
c) unity or more
d) less than unity
b) unity or less

Question 11.
The motion of a satellite around the earth is an example for –
(a) circular motion
(b) rotational motion
(c) elliptical motion
(d) spinning
(a) circular motion

Question 12.
One car moving on a straight road covers one-third of the distance with 20 km/h and the rest with 60 km/h. The average speed is _______.
a) 40 km/h
b) 80km/h
c) 46$$\frac { 2 }{ 3 }$$ km/hr
d) 36 km/h
d) 36 km/h

Question 13.
A 150m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of length 850m is _______.
a) 56s
b) 68s
c) 80s
d) 92s
c) 80s

Question 14.
A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 m/s to 20 m/s while passing through a distance of 135 m in ‘t’ seconds. The value of t is _______.
a) 12s
b) 9s
c) 10s
d) 1.8s
b) 9s

Question 15.
If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u the distance covered during the last ‘t’ seconds of its ascent is _______.
a) 1/2 gt²
b) ut – 1/2gt²
c) (u – gt)t
d) ut
a) 1/2 gt²

Question 16.
A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement ‘s’ at any time ‘t’ is given by s = t3 – 6t² + 3t + 4 meters, t being in second. The velocity when acceleration is zero is _______.
a) 3 m/s
b) -12m/s
c) 42 m/s
d) -9 m/s
d) – 9 m/s

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) Volume
(b) angular momentum
(c) Relative density
(d) time
(b) angular momentum

Question 18.
Vector is having –
(a) only magnitude
(b) only direction
(c) bot magnitude and direction
(d) either magnitude or direction
(c) both magnitude and direction

Question 19.
The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown below.

The instant velocity of the particle is negative at the point
a) D
b) F
c) C
d) E
d) E

Question 20.
If two vectors are having equal magnitude and the same direction is known as –
(a) equal vectors
(b) col-linear vectors
(c) parallel vectors
(d) on it vector
(a) equal vectors

Question 21.
The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown below _______.

Which are of the following represents its acceleration-time graph?

Question 22.
Indicate which of the following graph represents the one-dimensional motion of particle?

Question 23.
The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line is illustrated in the following figure. The distance travelled by the particle in 4s is _______.

a) 60m
b) 55m
c) 25m
d) 30m
b) 55m

Question 24.
An object is moving with a uniform acceleration which is parallel to its instantaneous direction of motion. The displacement (s), velocity (v) graph of this object is _______.

Question 25.
A unit vector is used to specify –
(a) only magnitude
(b) only direction
(c) either magnitude (or) direction
(d) absolute value
(b) only direction

Question 26.
A vector is not changed if _______.
a) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle
b) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scalar
c) It is cross multiplied by a unit vector
d) It is parallel to itself.
d) It is parallel to itself.

Question 27.
Two forces each of magnitude ‘F’ have a resultant of the same magnitude. The angle between two forces
a) 45°
b) 120°
c) 150°
d) 60°
b) 120°

Question 28.
The magnitude of a vector can not be-
(a) positive
(b) negative
(e) zero
(cl) 90
(b) negative

Question 29.
Six vectors $$\vec{a}$$ through $$\vec{f}$$ have magnitudes and directions as indicated in figure. Which of the following statement is true?

a) $$\overline{b}$$ + $$\overline{e}$$ = $$\overline{f}$$
b) 3$$\hat{i}$$ – 2$$\hat{j}$$ + $$\hat{k}$$ $$\hat{b}$$ + $$\hat{c}$$ = $$\hat{f}$$
c) $$\hat{d}$$ + $$\hat{c}$$ = $$\hat{f}$$
d) $$\hat{d}$$ + $$\hat{e}$$ = $$\hat{f}$$
d) $$\hat{d}$$ + $$\hat{e}$$ = $$\hat{f}$$

Question 30.
A force of 3 N and 4 N are acting perpendicular to an object, the resultant force is-
(a) 9 N
(b) 16 N
(c) 5 N
(d) 7 N
(c) 5 N

Question 31.
The figure shows ABCDEF as regular hexagon. What is the value of
$$\overline{AB}$$ + $$\overline{AC}$$ + $$\overline{AD}$$ + $$\overline{AE}$$ + $$\overline{AF}$$?

a) $$\overline{A0}$$
b) 2 $$\overline{A0}$$
c) 4 $$\overline{A0}$$
d) 6 $$\overline{A0}$$
d) 6 $$\overline{A0}$$

Question 32.
One of the two rectangular components of a force is 20N. And it makes an angle of 30° with the force. The magnitude of the other component is _______.
a) 20/$$\sqrt{3}$$
b) 10/$$\sqrt{3}$$
c) 15/V$$\sqrt{3}$$
d) 40$$\sqrt{3}$$
a) 20/$$\sqrt{3}$$

Question 33.
The angle between ($$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ + $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$) and ($$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ – $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$) can be –
(a) only 0°
(b) only 90°
(c) between 0° and 90°
(d) between 0° and 180°
(d) between 0° and 180°

Question 34.
If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector the magnitude of the difference is _______.
a) $$\sqrt{2}$$
b) $$\sqrt{3}$$
c) 1/$$\sqrt{2}$$
d) $$\sqrt{5}$$
b) $$\sqrt{3}$$

Question 35.
If P = mV then the direction of P along-
(a) m
(b) v
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither m nor v
(b) v

Question 36.
If $$\overline{A}$$ = 2$$\hat{i}$$ + $$\hat{j}$$ – $$\hat{k}$$, $$\overline{B}$$ = $$\hat{i}$$ + 2$$\hat{j}$$ + 3$$\hat{k}$$ and $$\overline{C}$$ = 6$$\hat{i}$$ – 2$$\hat{j}$$ – 6$$\hat{k}$$ then angle between $$\overline{A}$$ + $$\overline{B}$$ and $$\overline{C}$$ will be _______.
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
d) 90°

Question 37.
The scalar product $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$.$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$is equal to-
(a) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ +$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$
(b) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$. $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$
(c) AB sin θ
(d) ($$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$
(b) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$. $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$

Question 38.
If $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ = $$\overline{C}$$ then which of the following statement is wrong?
a) $$\overline{C}$$ ⊥$$\overline{A}$$
b) $$\overline{B}$$ ⊥$$\overline{B}$$
c) $$\overline{C}$$ ± ( $$\overline{A}$$ + $$\overline{B}$$ )
d) $$\overline{C}$$ ± ( $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ )
d) $$\overline{C}$$ ± ( $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ )

Question 39.
The scalar product of two vectors will be minimum. When θ is equal to –
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 180°
(d) 60°
(c) 180°

Question 40.
If | $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ |, then value of | $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ | is _______.

d) (A² + B² + AB)$$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$

Question 41.
The angle between vectors $$\overline{A}$$ and $$\overline{B}$$ is A. The value of the triple product $$\overline{A}$$ ( $$\overline{A}$$ x $$\overline{B}$$ ) is _______.
a) A² B
b) zero
c) A² B sinθ
d) A² B cos θ
d) A² B cos θ

Question 42.
Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors $$\hat{i}$$ + 2$$\hat{j}$$ + 3$$\hat{k}$$ and 3$$\hat{i}$$ – 2$$\hat{j}$$ + $$\hat{k}$$. The area parallelogram _______.
a) 8
b) 8$$\sqrt{3}$$
c) 3$$\sqrt{8}$$
d) 192
b) 8$$\sqrt{3}$$

Question 43.
If $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ and $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ are two vectors, which are acting along x, y respectively, then $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ and $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ lies along-
(a) x
(b) y
(c) z
(d) none
(c) z

Question 44.
Galileo writes that for angles of the projectile (45 + θ) and (45 – θ) the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of (if θ ≤ 45)
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:1
d) 2:3
c) 1:1

Question 45.
A projectile is thrown into the air so as to have the minimum possible range equal to 200. Taking the projection point as the origin the Coordinates of the point where the velocity of the projectile is minimum are _______.
a) 200,50
b) 100,50
c) 100,150
d) 100,100
b) 100,50

Question 46.
$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ isequal to –
(a) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$
(b) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ + $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$
(c) –$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$
(d) $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$ – $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$
(c) –$$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$$ x $$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$$

Question 47.
The vector product of any two vectors gives a –
(a) vector
(b) scalar
(e) tensor
(d) col-linear
(a) vector

Question 48.
A 150 m long train is moving the north at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flying towards the south with a speed of 5 m/s crosses the train. The time taken would be _______.
a) 30s
b) 15s
c) 8s
d) 10s
d) 10s

Question 49.
A boat is moving with a velocity of 3i+4j with respect to the ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity of -3i-4j with respect to the ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water _______.
a) 8j
b) -6i -8j
c) 6i + 8j
d) 5$$\sqrt{2}$$
c) 6i + 8j

Question 50.
The vector product of two non-zero vectors will be minimum when O is equal to-
(a) 0°
(b) 180°
(e) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
(e) both (a) and (b)

Question 1.
What are the different types of motion? State one example for each & explain.
The different types of motions are:
a) Linear motion: An object is said to be in linear motion if it moves in a straight line.
Example: An athlete running on a straight tack.

b) Circular motion: It is defined as a motion described by an object traveling a circular path.
Example: The motion of a satellite around the earth

C) Rotational motion: If any object moves in a rotational motion about an axis the motion is rotational motion. During rotation, every point in the object traverses a circular path about an axis.
Example: Spiring of earth about its own axis

D) Vibratory motion: If an object or a particle executes to and fro motion about the fixed point it is said to be in vibratory motion. Sometimes called oscillatory motion.
Example: Vibration of a string on a Guitar.

Question 2.
How will you differentiate motion in one dimension, two dimensions, and in three dimensions?
Motion in one dimension: One-dimensional motion is the motion of a particle moving along a straight line.
Example: An object falling freely under gravity close to the earth.

Motion in two dimensions: If a particle is moving along a curved path in-plane, then it is said to be in two-dimensional motion.
Example: Motion of a coin in a carom board.

Motion in three dimensions: A particle moving in usual three-dimensional space has three-dimensional motion.
Example: A bird flying in the sky.

Question 3.
State and define different types of vectors.
The different types of vectors are:
1. Equal vectors:
Two vectors $$\vec{A}$$ & $$\vec{B}$$ are said to be equal when they have equal magnitude and same direction and represent the same physical quantity.

(a) Coilinear vectors: Collinear vectors are those which act along the same line. The angle between them can be 0° or 180°

(i) Parallel vectors – If two vectors $$\vec{A}$$ & $$\vec{B}$$ act in the same direction along the same line or in parallel lines. Angle between them is equal to zero

(ii) Antiparallel vectors:
Two vectors $$\vec{A}$$ & $$\vec{B}$$ are said to be antiparallel when they are in opposite direction along the same line or in parallel lines. The angle between them is 180°

2. Unit vector:
A vector divided by its own magnitude is a unit vector.
The unit vector of $$\vec{A}$$ is represented as $$\hat{A}$$
Its magnitude is equal to 1 or unity

3. Orthogonal unit vectors:
Let $$\hat{i}$$, $$\hat{j}$$, $$\hat{k}$$ be three unit vectors which specify the direction along positive x-axis, positive y-axis and positive z-axis respectively. These three unit vectors are directly perpendicular to each other
The angle between any two of them is 90°. Then $$\hat{i}$$, $$\hat{j}$$, $$\hat{k}$$ are examples of orthogonal vectors. Two vectors which are perpendicular to each other are called orthogonal vectors.

Question 4.
Explain how two vectors are subtracted when they are inclined to an angle θ.

Let $$\overline{A}$$ and $$\overline{B}$$ be non zero vectors inclined at an angle θ.
The difference $$\overline{A}$$ – $$\overline{B}$$ can be obtained as follows.
First obtain – $$\overline{B}$$
The angle between $$\overline{A}$$ – $$\overline{B}$$
= 180 – θ.
The difference $$\overline{A}$$ – $$\overline{B}$$ is the same as the resultant of $$\overline{A}$$ – – $$\overline{B}$$

[∵ cos 180 – θ = – cos θ]
(cos 180 – θ = – cos θ)
The gives the resultant magnitude. The resultant is inclined by an angle α2 to $$\overline{A}$$

This gives the direction of the resultant. $$\vec{A}$$ – $$\vec{B}$$

Question 5.
Write short notes on relative velocity.
When two objects A and B are moving with uniform velocities then the velocity of one object A with respect to another object B is called the relative velocity of A with respect to B.

Case 1:
Consider two objects A and B moving with uniform velocities $$\overline{V}$$A and $$\overline{V}$$B along straight line in same direction with respect to ground.
The relative velocity of object A with respect to object B is $$\vec{V}$$AB = $$\vec{V}$$A – $$\vec{V}$$B
The relative velocity of object B with respect to object A is $$\vec{V}$$BA = $$\vec{V}$$B –$$\overline{V}$$A
Thus, if two objects are moving it’s the same direction the magnitude of the relative velocity of one object with respect to another is equal to the difference in magnitude of the two velocities.

Case 2:
Consider two objects A and B moving with uniform velocities VA and VB along the same track in the opposite direction

The relative velocity of object A with respect to B is
$$\overline{V}$$AB = $$\overline{V}$$A – ( – $$\overline{V}$$B) = $$\overline{V}$$A + $$\overline{V}$$B
The relative velocity of object B with respect to A is
$$\vec{V}$$BA = – $$\vec{V}$$B – $$\vec{V}$$A) = – ( $$\vec{V}$$A + $$\vec{V}$$B )
Thus if two objects are moving in opposite directions the magnitude of relative velocity of one object with respect to other is equal to the sum of magnitudes of their velocities.

Case 3:
Consider two objects A&B moving with velocities VA and VB at an angle 0 between their directions, then the relative velocity of A with respect to B

tan θ = (β is the angle between $$\overline{V}$$AB and VB)

Special cases:
(i) When θ = 0, the bodies move along parallel straight lines in the same direction.
VAB = (VA – VB) in the direction of VA.
VBA = (VB – VA) in the direction of VB

(ii) When θ = 180° the bodies move along parallel straight lines in opposite direction.
VAB = VA – (- VB) = (VA + VB) in the direction of VA
VBA = ( VB + VA) in the direction of VB

(iii) If the two bodies are moving at right angles to each other, then θ = 90°
VAB = $$\sqrt{V_{A}^{2}+V_{B}^{2}}$$

(iv) Consider a person moving horizontally with velocity $$\vec{V}$$m Let the rain fall vertically with velocity $$\overline{V}$$R.

An umbrella is held to avoid the rain.
Then relative velocity $$\overline{V}$$M of rain with respect to man is

Question 6.
Explain Horizontal projection. Derive the equation for its motion, horizontal range & time of flight.

Consider an object thrown horizontally with an initial velocity u, from atop of a tower of height h. The horizontal velocity remains constant throughout its motion and the vertical component of velocity go on increases. The constant acceleration acting along the downward direction is g. The horizontal distance travelled is x(t) = x and the vertical distance travelled is y(t)=y. since the motion is two-dimensional the velocity will have both horizontal (ux) and vertical (uy) components.

Motion along horizontal direction:
The particle has zero acceleration along the x-direction and so initial velocity ux remains constant throughout its motion.
The distance travelled by projectile in a time’t’ is given by
x = ut+1/2 at²
x = uxt → (1)
Motion along vertical direction
Here uy =0, a = g, s = y
S = ut + $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ at²
y = $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ gt² → (2)
from (1) t = x/ux sub in equation (2)
y = $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ g (x/ux)²
y = k x² Where k = $$\frac{g}{2 u_{x}^{2}}$$ .x²
This equation resemble the equation of a parabola. Thus the path followed by the projectile is a parabola.

Expression for time of flight:
The time taken for the projectile to complete its trajectory is called the time of flight.
Let h be the height of the tower or the vertical distance traversed.
Let T be the time of flight w.k. S = ut + 1/2 at²
here s = y = h, u = uy, t = T, a = g

T depends on height of tower or vertical distance & independent of Horizontal velocity.

Expression for Horizontal Range:
The horizontal distance covered by the projectile from the foot of the tower to the point where the projectile hits the ground it called horizontal range.
w. k. t, S = ut + $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ at²
Here,
t = T, a = 0, S = x = R, u = ux

Hence R ∝ u ∝ & R ∝ $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}$$

Question 7.
Obtain an expression for resultant velocity and the speed of the projectile when it hits the ground in case of a horizontal projection.

At any instant t, the projectile has velocity components along both the x and y-axis.
The velocity component at any time t along with horizontal component Vx = u → (1)

Speed of the projectile when it hits the ground:
When the projectile hits the ground after thrown horizontally from top of tower of height h, the time of flight is T = $$\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}$$
The horizontal component of velocity Vx = u
The vertical component of velocity

Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Can a body have a constant speed and still have varying velocity?
Yes, a particle in uniform circular motion has a constant speed but varying velocity because of the change in its direction of motion at every point.

Question 2.
When an observer is standing on earth appear the trees and houses appear stationary to him. However, when he is sitting in a moving bus or a train all objects appears to move in a backward direction why?
For a stationary observer, the relative velocity of trees and houses is zero. For the observer sitting in the moving train, the relative velocity of houses and trees are negative. So these objects appear to move in the backward direction.

Question 3.
Draw position-time graphs for two objects having zero relative velocity?

As relative velocity is zero the two bodies A and B have equal velocities. Hence their position-time graphs are parallel straight lines, equally inclined to the time axis.

Question 4.
Can a body be at rest as well as in motion at the same time? Explain.
(OR)
Rest and motion are relative terms. Explain.
Yes, the object may be at rest relative to one object and at the same time if maybe in motion relative to another object.

For example, a passenger sitting in a moving train is at rest with respect to his fellow passengers but he is in motion with respect to the objects outside the train. Hence rest and motion are relative terms.

Question 5.
Use integration technique to prove that the distance travelled in-the nth second of motion is Sth =u + $$\frac { a }{ 2 }$$ (2n – 1)
By definition of velocity v = $$\frac { ds }{ dt }$$
ds = Vdt = (u + at) dt → (1)
when t = (n – 1) second, let distance travelled = Sn-1
when t = n, second, let distance travelled = Sn

Question 6.
An old lady holding a purse in her hand was crossing the road. She was feeling difficulty in walking. A pickpocket snatched the purse from her and started running away. Can seeing this incident Suresh decided to help that old lady. He informed the police inspector who was standing nearby the inspector chased the pickpocketed and caught hold of him. He collected the purse from the pickpocket and gave back the purse to the old lady.
a) What were the values displayed by Suresh?
b) A police jeep is chasing with a velocity of 45 km/h. A thief in another jeep is moving at 155 km/hr. Police fire a bullet strike the jeep of the thief?
The values displayed by Suresh are the presence of mind, helping tendency, and also a sense of social responsibility.
Relative velocity of the bullet with respect to thief’s Jeep = (Vb + Vp)-Vt.
= 180 m/s + 45 km/hr – 155 km/hr
= 180 m/s – 110 x 5/18 m/s
= 180 – 30.5
= 149.5 m/s.

Question 7.
A stone is thrown vertically upwards and then it returns to the thrower. Is it projective?
No. It is not a projectile. A projectile should have two-component velocities in two mutually perpendicular directions. But in this case, body has a velocity in only one direction.

Question 8.
Can two non-zero vectors give zero resultant when they multiply with each other?
If yes condition for the same. Yes. for example, the cross product of two non-zero vectors will be zero when θ = 0 or θ = 180°.

Question 9.
Justify that a uniform motion is an accelerated motion.
In a uniform circular motion, the speed of the body remains the same but the direction of motion changes at every point.

Fig. shows the different velocity vectors at different positions of the particle. At each position, the velocity vector V is perpendicular to the radius vector. Thus the velocity of the body changes continuously due to the continuous change in the direction of motion of the body. As the rate of change is of velocity is acceleration a uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion.

Question 10.
State polygon law of vector addition.
If a number of vectors are represented both in magnitude and direction by the sides of an open polygon taken in the same order then their resultant is represented both in magnitude arid direction by the closing side of the polygon taken in the opposite order.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.4

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.4 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.4

Having trouble working out with the Binomial theorem? You’ve come to the right place, our Binomial Expansion Calculator is here to save the day for you.

Question 1.
Expand the following in ascending powers of x and find the condition on x for which the binomial expansion is valid.
(i) $$\frac{1}{5+x}$$

(ii) $$\frac{2}{(3+4 x)^{2}}$$

(iii) (5 + x2)2/3

(iv) $$(x+2)^{-\frac{2}{3}}$$

Question 2.
Find $$\sqrt[3]{1001}$$ approximately. (two decimal places)

Question 3.
Prove that $$\sqrt[3]{x^{3}+6}-\sqrt[3]{x^{3}+3}$$ is approximately equal to $$\frac{1}{x^{2}}$$ when x is sufficiently large.

Question 4.
Prove that $$\sqrt{\frac{1-x}{1+x}}$$ is approximately equal to 1 – x + $$\frac{x^{2}}{2}$$ when x is very small.

Question 5.
Write the first 6 terms of the exponential series
(i) e5x

(ii) e-2x

(iii) ex/2

Question 6.
Write the first 4 terms of the logarithmic series.
(i) log (1 + 4x)
(ii) log (1 – 2x)
(iii) log $$\left(\frac{1+3 x}{1-3 x}\right)$$
(iv) log $$\left(\frac{1-2 x}{1+2 x}\right)$$
Find the intervals on which the expansions are valid.
(i) log ( 1 + 4x )

(ii) log (1 – 2x)

(iii) log $$\left(\frac{1+3 x}{1-3 x}\right)$$

(iv) log $$\left(\frac{1-2 x}{1+2 x}\right)$$

Question 7.

Question 8.

Question 9.
Find the coefficient of x4 in the expansion of $$\frac{3-4 x+x^{2}}{e^{2 x}}$$

Question 10.
Find the value of

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

### 11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A uniform force of (2$$\hat{i}$$ + $$\hat{j}$$) N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces from position (3$$\hat{j}$$ + $$\hat{k}$$ )m to (5$$\hat{i}$$ + 3$$\hat{j}$$) m. The work done by the force on the particle is _______. (AIPMT Model 2013)
a) 9 J
b) 6 J
c) 10 J
d) 12 J
c) 10 J

Question 2.
A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of _______. (AIPMT model 2004)
a) $$\sqrt{2}$$ : 1
b) 1 : $$\sqrt{2}$$
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 2
d) 1 : 2

This online Velocity Calculator is used to find the velocity of water in a pipe with the flow rate and diameter of the pipe.

Question 3.
A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s-1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (Take g= 10ms-2 ) (AIPMT 2009)
a) 20 J
b) 30 J
c) 40 J
d) 10 J
a) 20 J

Question 4.
An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water? (AIPMT 2009)
a) $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ mv3
b) mv3
c) $$\frac { 3 }{ 2 }$$mv²
d) $$\frac { 5 }{ 2 }$$ mv²
a) $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ mv3

Question 5.
A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal speed v. The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is _______. (AIPMT 2014)
a) mv²
b) $$\frac { 3 }{ 2 }$$mv²
c) 2 mv²
d) 4 mv²
b) $$\frac { 3 }{ 2 }$$mv²

Question 6.
The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done _______.
a) by the system against a conservative force
b) by the system against a non-conservative force
c) upon the system by a conservative force
d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
a) by the system against a conservative force

Question 7.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
a) $$\sqrt{2gR}$$
b) $$\sqrt{3gR}$$
c) $$\sqrt{5gR}$$
d) $$\sqrt{gR}$$
c) $$\sqrt{5gR}$$

Question 8.
The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is _______.
a) always negative
b) zero
c) always positive
d) not defined
b) zero

Question 9.
If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy is increased by _______.
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.4%
d) 0.01%
b) 0.2%

Question 10.
If the potential energy of the particle is α – $$\frac { β }{ 2 }$$x², then force experienced by the particle is _______.
a) F = $$\frac { β }{ 2 }$$x²
b) F = βx
c) F = – βx
d) F = – $$\frac { β }{ 2 }$$x²
c) F = – βx

Question 11.
A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
a) v
b) v²
c) v3
d) v4
c) v3

Question 12.
Two equal masses m1 and m2 are moving along the same straight line with velocities 5ms-1 and -9ms-1 respectively. If the collision is elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of m1 and m2, respectively _______.
a) -4ms-1 and 10 ms-1
b) 10ms-1 and 0 ms-1
c) -9ms-1 and 5 ms-1
d) 5 ms-1 and 1 ms-1
c) -9ms-1 and 5 ms-1

Question 13.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F= kx is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If U(0)=0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function) (IIT 2004)

Question 14.
A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F(x) = – kx + ax3. Here, k and a are positive constants. For x > 0, the functional form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is _______. (IIT 2002)

Question 15.
A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the other. Then, the long piece will have a force constant of _______.
a) $$\frac { 2 }{ 3 }$$ k
b) $$\frac { 3 }{ 2 }$$ k
c) 3k
d) 6k
b) $$\frac { 3 }{ 2 }$$ k

Question 1.
Explain how the definition of work in physics is different from general perception.
The term work is used in diverse contexts in daily life. It refers to both physical as well as mental work. In fact, any activity can generally be called work. But in Physics, the term work is treated as a physical quantity with a precise definition. Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied to a body displaces it.

Question 2.
Write the various types of potential energy. Explain the formulate.
The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called potential energy.
The various types of potential energies are
1) Gravitational potential energy :
The energy possessed by the body due gravitational force gives gravitational potential energy
u = mgh.
where
u → Gravitational potential energy
m → Mass of the body
g → acceleration due to gravity
h → displacement produced

2) Elastic potential energy :
The energy due to spring force and other similar forces give rise to elastic potential energy
u = 1/2² Where
U → elastic potential energy
K → spring constant
x → elongation produced

3) Electrostatic potential energy
The energy due to electro static force on charges give rise to electrostatic potential energy
U = K $$\frac{\mathrm{q}_{1} \mathrm{q}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$$ where
K = $$\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}$$ Constant
q1, q2 – magnitude of charges
d – displacement made by any one of the charges or by both charges.

Question 3.
Write the differences between conservative and non-conservative forces. Give two examples each.
Conservative forces:
A Force is said to be a conservative force if work done by or against the force in moving the body depends only on the initial and final positions of the body and net depend on the nature of the path followed between the two positions
Examples:
Elastic spring force, electrostatic force, magnetic force, gravitational force.

Non-conservative force:
A force is said to be non-conservative if the work done by or against the force in moving a body depends on the path between initial and final positions. This means the value of work-done is different in different paths.

Examples:

1. Frictional forces are non-conservative forces as the work done against friction depends on the length of the path moved by the body.
2. The force due to air resistance, viscous forces are also non conservative forces because work done by or against these forces depends upon the velocity of motion.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of elastic and inelastic collision Elastic collision:
In a collision, the total K.E of the bodies before collision is equal to the total K.E. of the bodies after collision, then it is an elastic collision.
Total K.E. before collision = Total K.E. after collision

Inelastic collision:
In a collision, the total K.E. of the bodies before collision is not equal to total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision Even though K.E. is not conserved but total energy is conserved. After collision of the two colliding bodies stick together such collision are called as perfectly inelastic a plastic collision.

Question 5.
Define the following
a) Coefficient of restitution
b) Power
c) Law of conservation of energy
d) Loss of Kinetic energy in inelastic collision
a) Coefficient of restitution :
Coefficient of restitution defined as the ratio of velocity of separation (after collision) to velocity of approach (before collision)
The coefficient of restitution =

b) Power :
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered
P = $$\frac { W }{ t }$$ = $$\vec{F}$$.$$\vec{V}$$

c) Law of conservation of energy :
Law states that “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be transformed from one to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant”

d) Loss of kinetic energy in inelastic collision
The difference in total K.E. before collision and total K.E. after collision’s is equal to loss of K.E. during collision.
∆Q = Total K.E. before collision – Total K.E. after collision.

Question 1.
Explain with graphs the difference between work done by a constant force and by a variable force.
a) Work done by a constant force:
When a constant force ‘F’ acts on a body the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement ‘dr’ is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr.
The total W.D in producing a displacement from initial position ri, to final position rf is,

The graphical representation of the W.D by constant force is shown below

The area under the graph shows the work done by constant force.

b) Work done by a variable force :
When the component of a variable force F acts on a body, the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr [ Here F cos 0 is the component of variable forces]. where F and 0 one variables To total W.D for the displacement from initial position ri to final position rf is given by the relation.

A graphical representation of the work done by a variable force is shown below. The area under the graph gives the W.D. by variable force.

Question 2.
State and explain work energy principle Mention any three examples for it.
Law:
Work done by a force on the body changes the kinetic energy of the body, ie change in K.E. = work done. This is called work energy theorem.
Proof:
Consider a body of mass m at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. The work done (W) done by the constant force (F) for displacement (S) in the same direction is W = FS → (1)
The constant force is given by F = ma → (2)
We know that v² = u² + 2a

W = 1/2 mv² – 1/2 mu²
Here the term 1/2 mv² indicates K.E.
1/2 mv² – 1/2mu² = ∆K (change in K.E.)
∵ W = ∆K
Hence proved

Examples:

1. A moving hammer drives a nail into the wood. Being in motion, it has K.E. or ability to do work.
2. A fast moving stone can break a windowpane. The stone has K.E. due to its motion and so it can do work.
3. The kinetic energy of air is used to run windmills.

Question 3.
Arrive at an expression for power and velocity. Give some examples for the same.
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered. P = $$\frac { w }{ t }$$
Relation between power and velocity:
The work done by a force F for a displacement $$\overline{dr}$$ is dw = $$\overline{F}$$.$$\overline{dr}$$

Examples:
1) A 100 Watt bulb consumes 100 joule of electrical energy in one second
2) Electrical motor supply enough power to bring water from a bore well.

Question 4.
Arrive at an expression for elastic collision in one dimension and discuss various cases.

Consider two elastic bodies of masses m1 and m2 moving in a straight line (along positive direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface. In order to have collision assume m1 moves faster than m2.

Let U1 and 1 be the initial velocities of m1 and m2 respectively. (u1 > u2). After collision let the masses m1 and m2 moves with velocities v1 and v2 respectively.
Incase of elastic collision both linear momentum and kinetic energies are conserved
∴ from law of conservation of linear momentum
Total momentum before (Pi)
collision = Total momentum afer collision (Pf)
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2 → (1)
m1(u1 – v1) = m2(v2 – u2 → (2)
Further
Total K.E. before collision (KEi) = Total K.E. after collision (KEf)

rearranging
u1 – u2 = – (v1 – v2) → (5)
From this it is dear that for any elastic collision, relative speed of two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction.

Rewriting the above equation for v1 & v1
v1 = v2 + u2 – u1 → (6)
(or)
v2 = v1 + u1 – u2 → (7)
To find velocities of v1 & v2
Substituting (7) in (2)
m1(u1 – v1) = m2(v1 + u1 – u2 – u2)
m1(u1 – v1) = m2(v1 + u1 – 2u2)
m1u1 – m1v1 = m2v1 + m2u1 – 2m2u2
m1u1 – m2u1 + 2m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v1
u1(m1 – m2) + 2m2u2 = v1(m1 + m2)

Case 1:
When bodies have same mass is m1 = m2 = m

The velocities get interchanged.

Case 2:
When both bodies have same mass m1 = m2 = m, but second body at rest in u2 = 0
v1 = 0, v2 = u1
After collision the first body comes to rest and the second body moves with the velocity of first body.

Case 3 :
The first body very much lighter than the second body in m1 << m2, $$\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}$$ << 1.
the ratio $$\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}$$ = 0 and also second body at rest, (u2 = 0)
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation 8 by m2

Similarly dividing numerator and denominator of equation 9 by m1

From this, the conclusion arrived is the first body which is lighter returns back (rebounds) in opposite direction with the same initial velocity as it has a negative sign. The second body since it has heavier mars continues to remain at rest even after the collision.

Case 4 :
The second body is very much lighter than the first body.
m2 << m1 then the ratio = 0 $$\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}}$$ and also if the target is at rest ie second body at rest (u2 = 0)
Dividing equation (8) both the numerator and denominator by m1

This shows that the first body which is heavier continues to move with same velocity and the second body which is lighter will move with twice the initial velocity of the first body, ie lighter body is thrown away from the point of collision.

Question 5.
What is inelastic collision? In which way it is different from elastic collision mention few examples in day to day life for inelastic collision.
In a collision, the total K.E. on the bodies before collision is not equal to the total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision, i.e
Total K.E after collision ≠ Total K.E. before collision
Whereas in case of elastic collision Total K.E. before collison is equal to total K.E after collision.
Example: Collision between two vehicles, collision between a ball and floor.

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the work done by a force of 30N in lifting a load of 2kg to a height of 10m (g = 10ms-2)
Solution:
F = 30N
m = 2kg
s = 10 m
g = 10 ms-2
θ = 0
W.D = ?
W.D = $$\overline{F}$$.$$\overline{S}$$ = FS cos θ
W.D = 30 x 10
= 300 J

Question 2.
A ball with a velocity of 5 ms-1 impinges at an angle of 60° with the vertical on a smooth Horizontal plane. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5 find the velocity and direction after the impact.
Solution:

U1 = 5 ms-1
θ = 60°
e = 0.5
v = ?
Initial momentum = final momentum along the original line of m of con.
∵ Coefficient of restitution is 0.5 (less than 1) the collision is inelastic
Applying component of velocities. The x component of velocity is
u sin θ = v sin Φ → (1)
But the magnitude of y component is not same using coefficient of restitution

Question 3.
A bob of mass m is attached to one end of the rod of negligible mass and length r, the other end of which is pivoted freely at a fixed center O as shown in the figure. What initial speed must be given to the object to reach the top of the circle?. (Hint: use law of conservation of energy). Is this speed less or greater than speed obtained in the section 4.2.9?
Solution:

T.E. at lowest point (E1) = Total energy at (E2)
E1 = E2
At the lowest point potential energy = u1 = 0
Kinetic energy = KE1 = 1/2 mv1²
Total energy at lowest point = E1 = u1 + KE1
E1 = 0 + 1/2 mv² → (1)
∴ E1 = mv²1 … (1)
At the top of circle:
Potential energy = u2 = 2mgr
K.E energy at top = 1/2mv2²
Total energy at highest
point = 2mgr + 1/2 mv2² → (2)
According to law of conservation of energy E1 = E2

Question 4.
Two different unknown masses A and B collide. A is initially at rest when B has a speed V. After collision B has a speed V/2 and moves at right angles to its original direction of motion. Find the direction in which A moves after collision.
Solution:

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along x-axis

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along y-axis

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 20g strikes a pendulum of mass 5 kg. The centre of mass of the pendulum rises at a vertical distance of 10 cm. If the bullet gets embedded into the pendulum, calculate its initial speed.
Solution:

mass of bullet m1 = 20 x 10-3kg
mass of pendulum m2 = 5kg
Let the speed of the bullet = u1
∵ The pendulum at rest u2 = 0
h = 10 x 10-2m
Let v be the common velocity after the bullet embedded inside the bob.

This common velocity ‘v’ is the initial velocity of combined bullet and bob.
W.K.T
v² – u² = 2as
Here v = 6; u = 0, a = – g s = h

V. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
A spring which is initially in the unstretched condition is first stretched by a length x and again by a further length x. The work done in the first case w1 is one-third of the work done in the second case w2. True or false?
True, W.D by the first case will be 1/3 of the second W.D

Question 2.
Which is conserved in inelastic collision? Total energy (or) kinetic energy?
In inelastic collision total energy is only conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved. A part of kinetic energy is converted into some other form of energy such as sound, heat energy.
Note: The linear momentum is also conserved.

Question 3.
Is there any network done by external forces on a car moving at a constant speed along a straight road?
Since the car is moving at a constant speed along a straight line, displacement is caused. So work in done by the force.

Question 4.
A car starts from rest and moves on a surface with uniform acceleration. Draw the graph of kinetic energy versus displacement. What information you can get from that graph?

According to work-energy theorem change in K.E = W.D
K.E is Kept constant slope is constant

Question 5.
A charged particle moves towards another charged particle under what conditions the total momentum and the total energy of the system conserved?
Coulomb force is acting in between the charged particles Internal force is a conservative force. If no external forces act or the work done by external forces is zero then the mechanical energy of the system and also total linear momentum also remains constant.

### 11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Thrust and linear momentum
(a) Thrust and linear momentum
(b) Work and energy
(c) Work and power
(d) Power and energy
(b) Work and energy

Question 2.
For the surface μ = 0.4, The work done by applied force, frictional force and net force are
a) 50J, -40J, 10J
b) 50J, -20J, 10J
c) 10J, -50J, 40J
d) 50J, -40J, 20J
a) 50J, -40J, 10J

Question 3.
The system is released from rest. Find the work done by the force if gravity during first 2 seconds of motion.

a) 80J
b) 20J
c) 40J
d) 100J
c) 40J

Question 4.
Dimensional formula for work done is
(a) MLT-1
(b) ML2T2
(c) M-1L-1T2
(d) ML2T-2
(d) ML2T-2

Question 5.
The variation of force acting on a particle along x ax is is shown. The W.D by the force during the displacement x = 0 to x = 25m is _______.

a) 100J
b) 115J
c) 130J
d) 125J
b) 115J

Question 6.
The amount of work done by centripetal force on the object moving in a circular path is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) positive
(d) negative
(a) zero

Question 7.
A ball of mass 200g is attached to a string 50 mm and a force F is applied as shown. The W.D by this force if the string makes an angle 60° with vertical is? [at initial and final positions speed of the ball is zero.]

a) 1J
b) 0.5J
c) 0.05J
d) 0.25J
b) 0.5J

Question 8.
An object of mass 4kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20m and reaches with velocity 10ms-1 on ground. The work done by air friction is .
a) 800J
b) – 800J
c) 600J
d) – 600J
d) – 600J

Question 9.
If the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(c) zero

Question 10.
What is the power of an engine which can lift 600kg of coal per minute from a mine 20m deep?
a) 2000 w
b) 100 w
c) 1000 w
d) 200 w
a) 2000 w

Question 11.
If w1, w2 and w3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along 3 different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively as shown in figure, in the gravitational field of a point mass m. Find the correct relation an between w1, w2 and w3 _______.

a) w1 > w2 > w3
b) w1 = w2 = w3
c) w1 < w2 < w3
d) w2 > w1 > w3
b) w1 = w2 = w3

Question 12.
A position – depends force F = 7 – 2x + 3x² newton acts on a small body of mass 2kg and displacement if from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in Joule is _______.
a) 70
b) 270
c) 35
d) 135
d) 135

Question 13.
The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called as
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) none
(b) kinetic energy

Question 14.
According to the work-energy theorem, the work done by the net force on a particle is equal to change in its _______.
a) kinetic energy
b) potential energy
c) linear momentum
d) angular momentum
a) kinetic energy

Question 15.
A block of 2kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 10N be acting on the block so that it will acquire a K.E of 10J after moving 2m _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) 90°
b) 60°

Question 16.
The K.E acquired by a body of mass m in travelling a certain distance starting from rest under a constant force is _______.
a) directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to $$\sqrt{m}$$
c) inversely proportional to $$\sqrt{m}$$
d) independent of m
b) directly proportional to $$\sqrt{m}$$

Question 17.
1-kilowatt hour is equivalent to
(a) 10-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J

Question 18.
A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to displacement. Its loss of K.E in any displacement x is proportional to _______.
a) x²
b) ex
c) x
d) logex
a) x²

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not a conservative force?
a) gravitational force
b) electrostatic force between the charges
c) Magnetic force between two magnetic dipoles
d) Frictional force
d) Frictional force

Question 20.
A spring of force constant 800 N/M has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is _______.
a) 163
b) 8J
c) 32J
d) 24J
b) 8J

Question 21.
The kinetic energy of the body is always
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) negative
(d) positive
(d) positive

Question 22.
A bullet moving with a speed of 150 m/s strikes a wooden plank. After passing through the plank its speed becomes 125ms-1. Another bullet of the same mass and size strikes the plank with a speed of 90m/s. Its speed after passing through the plank would be _______.
a) 25 m/s
b) 35 m/s
c) 50 m/s
d) 70 m/s
a) 25 m/s

Question 23.
A 2kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4 m/s. It strikes on uncompressed spring and compresses it fill the block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and spring constant is 104N/m. The spring compress by _______.
a) 5.5 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 8.5 cm
a) 5.5 cm

Question 24.
If two objects of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are moving with the same momentum then the kinetic energy will be greater for
(a) m1
(b) m2
(c) m1 or m2
(d) both will have equal kinetic energy
(b) m2

Question 25.
The power of a pump which can pump 200 kg of water to a height if 200m in 10s is _______. (g = 10ms-2)
a) 40 kW
b) 80 Kw
c) 400 Kw
d) 960 Kw
a) 40 Kw

Question 26.
A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to velocity v0 in a time t0. The instantaneous power delivered to the body at any time t is _______.

Question 27.
particle to mass ‘m’ starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is _______.
a) $$\frac{M V^{2}}{T}$$
b)$$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$$$\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}$$
c) $$\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}$$
d) $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$$$\frac{M V^{2}}{T}$$
d) $$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$$$\frac{M V^{2}}{T}$$

Question 28.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is the positive constant). If U (o) = 0, the graph u(x) verses x will be _______. (u=potential energy function)

Question 29.
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as in fig _______.

The body in stable equilibrium at
a) x = x1
b) x = x2
c) both x1, and x2
d) neither x1 nor x2
b) x = x2

Question 30.
Non-conservative force is
(a) frictional force
(b) viscous force
(c) air resistance
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 31.
If the K.E of the body is increased by 300% then for the percentage change in momentum will be _______.
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 265%
d) 73.2%
a) 100%

Question 32.
A particle is projected making an angle 45’ with horizontal having kinetic energy k. The K.E at the highest point will be _______.
a) K/$$\sqrt{2}$$
b) K/2
c) 2K
d) K
b) K/2

Question 33.
The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision is _______.
a) 1
b) 0
c) ∞
d) -1
a) 1

Question 34.
A ball moving with a certain velocity hits another identical ball at rest. If the plane is frictionless and collision is elastic, the angle between the directions in which the balls move after collision will be _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°
c) 90°

Question 35.
Which of the following is zero at the highest point in vertical circular motion?
(a) velocity of the particle
(b) tension of the spring
(c) potential energy
(d) none
(a) velocity of the particle

Question 1.
The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative.
(a) Work done by man lifting a bucket out of the well by means of a rope tied to the bucket
Solution:
Work done is positive, because the bucket moves in the direction of force applied by the man.

(b) work done by gravitational of force in the above case.
Solution:
work done by gravitational force in negative because the bucket is moving upwards against gravitational force.

(c) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
Solution:
Work done is negative, as frictional force is opposite to direction of motion.

(d) work done by the applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
Solution:
Work done is positive because the applied force acts in the direction of motion of the body

(e) Work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Solution:
Work done is negative, because the resistive force of air acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of the vibration pendulum.

Question 2.
Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force an the comet due to sun is not normal to the comet velocity in general. Yet the W.D by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero why?
Solution:
The gravitational force acting on the comet is a conservative force. The work done by the conservative force over any path is equal to the negative of change in potention energy. Over a complete orbit of any shape, there is no change in P.E of the comet. Hence no work is done by the gravitational force on the comet.

Question 3.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. How displacement (S) and time (t) are related?
By work energy theorem
W = Pxt = 1/2 mv²
v² = $$\frac { 2pt }{ m }$$

Question 4.
A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 ms-1 and angle 30° with normal and rebounds with same speed. Is momentum conserved in collision? Is the conserved is elastic or in elastic.
Solution:
Momentum is always conserved, whether collision is elastic or in elastic

Let m be the mars of the molecule and M be the mass of the wall. As the wall is heavy the molecule rebounding with same velocity does not produce any velocity to wall.
K.E. before collision = Ki = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 2 x 104 x 1/2m – 3
K.E. after collision = Kf = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 1/2 x m x 2 x w4
∵ Ki = Kf
Collision is elastic in nature

Question 5.
An elastic spring of force constant K is compressed by a amount x. Show that its potential energy is 1/2 kx².
Consider the plot of spring force Fs versus displacement x of the block attached to free end of a spring.

According to Hookes law Fs = – k xm
The work done by the spring force for an extension xm is
Ws = Area ∆OBA = 1/2 AB x OB
= 1/2 Fs Xm
= 1/2 (-kxm) xm²
Ws = – 1/2 kxm²
In order stretch the spring slowly an external force F equal to and opposite to Fs has to be applied. So work done by the external force F is
W = – Ws = + 1/2 kxm²
This work done is stored as P.E of the spring
u = 1/2 kx²

Question 6.
Obtain the relation between momentum and K.E
Consider an object of mass on moving with velocity v. Then its linear momentum is $$\overline{p}$$ = $$\overline{mv}$$ and its kinetic energy
k.E = 1/2 mv²
multiply and divide by m both numerator and denominator

Question 7.
Explain motion of a body in vertical circle.
Consider a body of mass m attached to one end of marsless and inextensible string executes circular motion is a vertical plane with other end fixed at 0. The length of the string equal to radius.

There are two forces acting an mass m.
i) Gravitational force (mg) which acts downwards
ii) Tension along the string (T)
Applying Newtons II law
mg sin θ = m at
mg sin θ = – m$$\frac { dv }{ dt }$$ → (1)
Where at = tangential acceleration
T – mg cos θ = m ar
T – mg cos θ = $$\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$$
Where ar = $$\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$$ = centripetal or radial acceleration from the above 2 equations four important facts to get understood are.

1) The mass is having tangential acceleration (g sin θ) for all values of 0 (expect θ =0°). It is clear that vertical circular motion is not a uniform circular motion

2) From (1) & (2) as the magnitude of velocity is not constant in the course of motion, the Tension in the string is also not constant.

3) From equ(2) T = mg cos θ + $$\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$$, indicates that in section A and D (for – π/2 < θ < π/2) cosθ is five, ie the term mg cos θ is always > 0.
Hence Tension can not vanish even when the velocity vanishes.

4) The equation (2) $$\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$$ = T – mg cos θ further indicates that in section B and C
(for π/2< θ < 3π/2) cosθ is negative.
(-mg con θ) is always greater than zero. Hence velocity cannot vanish even tension vanishes.
Consider two positions, lowest position (1) and the highest position 2.

Let v1 be the velocity at the lowest point 1.
Let v2 be the velocity at the lowest point 2.
The direction of velocity is always tangential to the circular path at all points.
Let T1 and T2 be the Tensions at lowest end highest point respectively. Tension at each point act towards the centre. Tension and Similarly velocity can be determined by applying the law of conservation of energy.
For the lowest point (1)
when the body is at its lowest point (1) the gravitational force mg which acts vertically downwards and Tension (T1) vertically upwards.

For the highest point:
At the highest point (2) both gravitational force mg and tension T2 act vertically downwards.

Here the term can (v1² – v2²) be found by applying law of conservation of energy at point 1 and 2.
Total energy at 1 = Total energy at 2
E1 = E2
P.E at 1, u1 = 0
K.E at 1, KE1 = 1/2 mv1²
T.E at 1 = 1/2 0 + mv1² = 1/2 mv1² → (8)
Similarly
P.E at 2, u2 = mg(2r)
K.E at 2, K.E2 = 1/2 mv²
T.E at 2 = mg(2r) + 1/2 mv22 → (9)
equating (8) and (9)

(v1² – v2²) = 4gr → (10)
Substituting (10) in (7)

Minimum speed at the highest point (2)
In order to loop the circle, the body must have a minimum speed at point 2 – To find minimum speed at 2 consider 2.
Consider T2 = 0 in equation … (6)

At highest point 2 the body should have a minimum velocity v2 = $$\sqrt{gr}$$ to stay in circular path.
Minimum speed at the lowest point:
From equation 10
v1² – v2² = 4gr
v1² – gr = 4gr
v1² = $$\sqrt{5gr}$$
The body must have a speed of $$\sqrt{5gr}$$ at the lowest point 1.
ie v1 ≥ $$\sqrt{5gr}$$ so that the mars can stay in circular path.
Comparing values of v1 & v2 it is clear that minimum speed at the lowest point should be $$\sqrt{5}$$ times more than the minimum speed at the highest point, so that the body loops in a vertical circle.

Question 8.
What is perfect in elastic collision?
Obtain an expression for velocity after collision. A perfect or complete in elastic collision is the are in which the object stick permanently after collision such that they move with a common velocity.

Expression for common velocity:

Let two bodies of masses m1 and m2 move with initial velocities u1 and u2 respectively before collision. After perfect inelastic collision both two objects move together with a common velocity v.

Since linear momentum is conserved during collisions.
m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v
V = $$\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{u}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{u}_{2}}{\left(\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}\right)}$$
This gives the expression for common velocity.

Question 9.
Obtain an expression for loss of K.E. in perfect elastic collision.
Let KEi be the initial total kinetic energy before collision and KEf be the total final kinetic energy after collision.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 18 Tamil Computing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Tamil Computing Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
List of the search engines supporting Tamil.
Google and Bing provide searching facilities in Tamil, which means we can search everything through Tamil.

Question 2.
What are the keyboard layouts used in Android?
Sellinam and Ponmadal – are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that works on Android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 3
Write a short note about Tamil Programming Language.
Based on Python programming language, the first Tamil programming language “Ezhil” (sr^leo) is designed. With the help of this programming language, we can write simple programs in Tamil.

Question 4.
What TSCII?
TSCII (Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange) is the first coding system to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non-English computers. This encoding scheme was registered in IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) unit of ICANN.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Tamil Virtual Academy
With the objectives of spreading Tamil to the entire world through internet, Tamil Virtual University was established on 17th February 2001 by the Govt, of Tamilnadu.

Now, this organisation functioning with the name “Tamil Virtual Academy”. This organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage etc., from kindergarten to under graduation level.

Website: http://www.tamilvu.org/index.php

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Tamil Computing Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
In India, _______ are using the Internet in Tamil based on Google and KPMG report.
a) 42%
b) 50%
c) 22%
d) 40%
a) 42%

Question 2.
________ internet users consider local language digital content to be more reliable than English.
a) 74%
b) 68%
c) 42%
d) 28%
b) 68%

Question 3.
Currently, ________ has the highest Internet adoption levels followed by the Indian language users.
a) Hindi
c) Tamil
d) Telugu
c) Tamil

Question 4
In 2021 onwards, ________ of people in India will access internet using Tamil.
a) 74%
b) 68%
c) 42%
d) 28%
a) 74%

Question 5.
The _______ are used to search any information from the cyber space,
a) Search Engines
b) Browsers
d) None of these
a) Search Engines

Question 6.
In the top ten search engines, ________ takes first place.
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these

Question 7.
In the top ten search engines, _______ takes second place.
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these
b) Bing

Question 8.
In the top ten search engines, takes third place.
b) Bing
c) Yahoo
d) None of these
c) Yahoo

Question 9.
_______ Search engine provides searching facilities in Tamil.
b) Bing
c) Yahoo

Question 10.
A _______ search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.
b) Bing
c) Yahoo

Question 11.
Getting Government services through internet is known as _______.
a) e-Services
b) e-Governance
c) Web Governance
d) None of these
b) e-Governance

Question 12.
Outside India, Government of _______ provides all their services through the official website in Tamil.
a) Srilanka
c) Nepal
d) None of these
a) Srilanka

Question 13.
_______ are portal or website of collection of e-books.
a) E-Libraries
b) E-Learning
c) E-Content
d) None of these
a) E-Libraries

Question 14.
_______ is a familiar Tamil keyboard interfaces software that is used for Tamil typing which works on Tamil Unicode, using phonetics.
a) NHM Writer
b) E-Kalappai
c) Lippikar
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 15.
________ is a familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that works on Android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.
a) Sellinam
d) None of these

Question 16.
________ office automation software provides complete Tamil interface facility.
a) Microsoft Office
b) Open Office
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 17.
_______ is office automation software working exclusively for Tamil.
a) Azhagi Unicode Editor
b) Ponmozhi & Menthamiz
c) Kamban and Vani
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 18.
________ is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equivalent to English words.
a) Thamizpori
b) Sellinam
d) None of these
a) Thamizpori

Question 19.
The first Tamil programming language is _______.
a) Thamizpori
b) Ezhil
c) Kamban
d) None of these
b) Ezhil

Question 20.
With the help of _______ programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil.
a) Thamizpori
b) Ezhil
c) Kamban
d) None of these
b) Ezhil

Question 21.
Expand TSCII _______.
a) Telugu Script Code for Information Interchange
b) Total Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange
d) Technical Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange

Question 22.
Computers are handle data and information as _______ system.
a) Binary
b) Decimal
c) Ocal
d) Hexa decimal
a) Binary

Question 23.
The ASCII encoding system is applicable only for handling _______ language.
a) English
b) Hindi
c) French
d) Tamil
a) English

Question 24.
________ is the first coding System to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non-English computers.
a) ASCII
b) TSCII
c) EBCDIC
d) None of these
b) TSCII

Question 25.
IANA means _______.
a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
b) Internet Assigned Names Authority
c) Internet Access Numbers Authority
d) Intranet Assigned Numbers Authority
a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

Question 26.
Expand ISCII
a) International Script Code for Information Interchange
b) Internet Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Indian Script Code for Information Interchange
d) Instant Script Code for Information Interchange
c) Indian Script Code for Information Interchange

Question 27.
________ encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil.
a) ASCII
b) EBCDIC
c) BCD
d) ISCII
d) ISCII

Question 28.
________ is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil.
a) ASCII
b) EBCDIC
c) UNICODE
d) ISCII
c) UNICODE

Question 29.
Unicode first version 1.0.0 was introduced on _______.
a) October 1991
b) October 2001
c) October 1993
d) October 1999
a) October 1991

Question 30.
A(n) _______ is needed to access electronic systems such as computer and smart phone.
a) Browser
b) Operating system
c) Search Engine
d) None of these
b) Operating system

Question 31.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in understandable form.
b) Windows Tamil Environment interface shows all windows elements such as Taskbar, desktop elements, names of icons, commands in Tamil.
c) Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is the suitable to handle Tamil.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 32.
Tamil Virtual University was established oh _____ by the Govt, of Tamilnadu.
a) 17th February 1991 V
b) 17th February 2011
c) 17th February 2001
d) 27th February 2001
c) 17th February 2001

Question 33.
________ organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage etc., from kindergarten to under graduation level.
a) Tamil Virtual Institute
c) Tamil Virtual Association
d) Tamil Virtual Organisation

Question 34.
________ is an open and voluntary initiative to collect and publish free electronic editions of ancient tamil literary classics.
d) Project Nellai

Question 35.
In 1998, Project Madurai released in Tamil script form as per ________ encoding.
a) ASCII
b) TSCII
c) BCD
d) None of these
b) TSCII

Part – II

Question 1.
Write note on search engines.
The “Search Engines” are used to search any information from the cyber space. Although there are many search engines, but only a few of them are frequently in use. In the top ten search engines, Google, Bing and Yahoo are takes first three places respectively.

Question 2.
Which search engine provide inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.
The Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 3.
Write note on E-Library.
E-Libraries are portal or website of collection of e-books. Tamil e-Library services provide thousands of Tamil Books as ebooks mostly at free of cost. It is the most useful service to Tamil people who live far away from their home land.

Question 4.
Thamizpori is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equalent to English words. Using this application, we can transaite small English sentences into Tamil.

Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language vice versa.

Question 5.
Project Madurai is an open and voluntary initiative to collect and publish free electronic editions of ancient tamil literary classics. This means either typing-in or scanning old books and archiving the text in one of the most readily accessible formats for use on all popular computer platforms. Since its launch in 1998, Project Madurai released in Tamil script form as per TSCII encoding. Since 2004 they started releasing ebooks in Tamil Unicode as well.

Part – III

Question 1.
Write note on e-Governance,
Getting Government services through internet is known as e-Governance. Government of Tamilnadu has been giving its services through Internet. One can communicate with Government of Tamilnadu from any corner of the state. One can get important announcements, government orders, and government welfare schemes from the web portal of Government Of Tamilnadu.

Question 2.
List the website address of popular e-Libraries.

Question 3.
List the familiar Tamil keyboard interfaces and Tamil keyboard layouts.

1. NHM Writer, E-Kalappai and Lippikar – are familiar Tamil keyboard interfaces software that is used for Tamil typing which works on Tamil Unicode, using phonetics.
2. Sellinam and Ponrpadal – are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts ,that works on Android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 4.
Write note on Unicode.
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced on October 1991. While introduction of this scheme, can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is the suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 5.
Write note on Tamil operating system.
An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in understandable form. Thus, all operating systems used in computers and smart phones offered environment in Tamil.

Windows Tamil Environment interface should be downloading and install from internet. It shows all windows elements such as Taskbar, desktop elements, names of icons, commands in Tamil.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Write about Tamil Office Automation Applications.
Famous Office automation software like Microsoft Office, Open Office etc., provides complete Tamil interface facility. These softwares are downloadable and installed in your computer. After installation, our office automation software environment will completely changed to Tamil. Menu bars, names of icons, dialog boxes will be shown in Tamil. Moreover, you can save files with Tamil names and create folders with Tamil names.

Libra Office Writer Environment in Tamil:

Apart from that Tamil Libra Office, Tamil Open Office, Azhagi Unicode Editor, Ponmozhi, Menthamiz, Kamban, Vani are office automation software working exclusively for Tamil. These applications are designed to work completely in Tamil.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Which of the following deals with procedures, practices and values?
a) piracy
b) programs
c) virus
d) computer ethics
d) computer ethics

Question 2.
Commercial programs made available to the public illegally are known as ________.
a) freeware
b) worms
c) free software
d) software
b) worms

Question 3.
Which one of the following are self-repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves?
a) viruses
b) worms
c) spyware
d) Trojans
b) worms

Question 4
which of the following tracks a user visits a website?
a) spyware
c) worms
d) Trojans

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a malicious program on computer systems?
a) worms
d) Trojans
c) spyware

Question 6.
A computer network security that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic is ________.
b) Virus
c) Firewall
d) worms
c) Firewall

Question 7.
The process of Converting cipher text to plain text is called ________.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) key
d) proxy server
b) Decryption

Question 8.
e-commerce means ________.
a) electronic commerce
b) electronic data exchange
c) electric data exchange
d) electronic commercialization.
a) electronic commerce

Question 9.
Distributing unwanted e-mail to others is called ________.
a) scam
b) spam
c) fraud
d) spoofing
b) spam

Question 10.
Legal recognition for transactions are carried out by ________.
a) Electronic Data Interchange
b) Electronic Data Exchange
c) Electronic Data Transfer
d) Electrical Data Interchange
a) Electronic Data Interchange

Part – II

Question 1.
What is harvesting?
A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s) is called harvesting.

Question 2.
What are Warez?
Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called warez.

Question 3.
Write a short note on cracking.

1. Cracking means trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data.
2. Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified.

Question 4.
Write two types of cyber attacks.
The following are cyber attacks:

1. Virus
2. Worms
3. Spyware
4. Ransomware

Question 5.
A cookie is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.

Part – III

Question 1.
What is the role of firewalls?
Role of firewalls:

1. A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules.
2. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.

Question 2.

1. Encryption is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data (called cipher-text).
2. Decryption is the reverse process of converting the cipher-text back to plaintext.
3. Encryption and decryption are done by cryptography.

Question 3.
Explain symmetric key encryption.
Symmetric Key Encryption:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption. The main disadvantage of the symmetric key encryption is that all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to encrypt the data before they can decrypt it. If anybody intercepts the key information, they may read all message.

The following Figure depicts the working of symmetric key encryption.

Question 4.
What are the guidelines to be followed by any computer user?
To protect the information the following guidelines to be noted:

2. When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
3. Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
4. When using anti-virus software, keep it up- to-date.

Question 5.
What are ethical issues? Name some of them.
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right (ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.

Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

1. Cyber crime
2. Software Piracy
3. Unauthorized Access
4. Hacking
5. Use of computers to commit fraud
6. Sabotage in the form of viruses
7. Making false claims using computers

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Detail

Question 1.
What are the various crimes happening using computer?
Cyber Crime:
Cyber crime is an intellectual, white-collar crime. Those who commit such crimes generally manipulate the computer system in an intelligent manner. For example – illegal money transfer via internet.

Examples of some Computer crimes and their functions are listed below in the following Table :

Question 2.
What is piracy? Mention the types of piracy? How can it be prevented?
Software Piracy:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

In simple words, Software Piracy is “unauthorized copying of software”. The following Figure shows a diagrammatical representation of software piracy.

Types of Piracy:

Shareware:
An entirely different approach to software piracy is called shareware, acknowledges the futility of trying to stop people from copying software and instead relies on people’s honesty.

Warez:
Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called warez.

Prevention Method:

• Illegal copying and distribution of commercial software should not be practiced.
• Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly.

Question 3.
Write the different types of cyber attacks.
Types of Cyber Attacks:
Malware is a type of software designed through which the criminals gain illegal access to software and cause damage. Various types of cyber-attacks and their functions are given in the following Table.

Cyber Attacks and Functions:
Cyber Attacks:

1. Virus
2. Worms
3. Spyware
4. Ransomware

Function:
1. A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.

2. Trojan – A Trojan virus is a program that appears to perform one function (for example, virus removal) but actually performs malicious activity when executed.
Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

3. Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.

4. Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
________ is a communication media which is easily accessible and open to all.
a) Extranet
b) Intranet
c) Internet
d) None of these
c) Internet

Question 2.
Information Technology is widespread through ________.
a) Computers
b) Mobile phones
c) Internet
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 3.
Computer systems in general are ________.
a) Vulnerable
b) Safe
c) Secured
d) None of these
a) Vulnerable

Question 4.
________ is a crime which involves computer and network.
a) Cyber-crime
b) Ethics
c) Cyber-law
d)None of these

Question 5.
Cyber-crime poses threats to the ________ of most business systems.
a) Integrity
b) Safety
c) Survival
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 6.
________ is a cyber crime.
a) Phishing
b) Hacking
c) Identity thefts
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 7.
________ is a cyber crime.
a) Pharming
b) Piracy
c) Online financial transaction
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 8.
Ethics means ________.
a) what is wrong
b) What is Right
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 9.
________ is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers.
a) Ethics
b) Cyber-Crime
c) Virus
d) None of these
a) Ethics

Question 10.
An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ________.
a) Ethics
c) Phishing
c) Hacking
d) None of these
a) Ethics

Question 11.
________ refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society,
a) Piracy
b) Morals
c) Virus
d) None of these
b) Morals

Question 12.
________ is a cyber world standard.
a) Do not use pirated software
b) Do not hack
c) Do not steal others passwords
d) All the above
c) Do not steal others passwords

Question 13.
________ is a guidelines of computer ethics.
a) Honesty
b) Confidentiality
c) Respect
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 14.
________ is a guidelines of computer ethics.
a) Professionalism
b) Obey the law
c) Responsibility
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 15.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) Ethics is a set of moral principles that govern the behavior of an individual in a society.
b) Computer ethics is set of moral principles that regulate the use of computers by users.
c) An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 16.
Identify the correct statement from the following related with ethics.
a) Users should be truthful while using the internet.
b) Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
c) Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 17.
Identify the correct statement from the following related with ethics.
a) Each user should maintain professional conduct.
b) Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
c) Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 18.
Cyber crime is a(n) crime.
a) Intellectual
b) White-collar
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 19.
Harassing through online is called ________.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Cyber Harassment
c) Cyber torture
d) None of these
a) Cyber Stalking

Question 20.
________ are malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions on user’s computer activity without their permission.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Anti virus
d) None of these
b) Malware

Question 21.
Malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions including ________ on user’s Computer activity without their permission.
a) Encrypting or Deleting sensitive data
b) Stealing
c) Hijacking core computing functions
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 22.
Overloading a system with fake requests so that it cannot serve normal legitimate requests is called ________.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) None of these
c) Denial of service attack

Question 23.
Manipulating data like changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account is called ________.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
d) Fraud

Question 24.
a) Harvesting
b) Malware
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
a) Harvesting

Question 25.
________ is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
a) Harvesting
b) Identity theft
c) Denial of service attack
d) Fraud
b) Identity theft

Question 26.
________ means stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.
a) Harvesting
b) Identity theft
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
c) Intellectual property theft

Question 27.
________ meant tricking people into believing something that is not true.
a) Harvesting
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
b) Scam

Question 28.
Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction means ________.
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Fraud
a) Salami slicing

Question 29.
Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet is termed as ________.
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Intellectual property theft
d) Spam
d) Spam

Question 30.
________ is a malicious practice in which communication is send from unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
a) Salami slicing
b) Scam
c) Spoofing
d) Spam
c) Spoofing

Question 31.
Software ________ is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
a) Piracy
b) Fraud
c) Theft
d) None of these
a) Piracy

Question 32.
________ includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.
a) Piracy
b) Scam
c) Salami slicing
d) None of these
a) Piracy

Question 33.
To prevent unauthorized access ________ is used.
a) Firewalls/ Intrusion Detection Systems
b) Virus and Content Scanners
c) Patches and Hot fixes
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 34.
IDS means ________ .
a) Intrusion Detection Systems
b) Intrusion Defective Systems
c) Intrusion Direction Systems
d) Intrusion Detach Systems
a) Intrusion Detection Systems

Question 35.
________ is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge.
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) IDS
d) None of these
b) Hacking

Question 36.
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) IDS
d) None of these
b) Hacking

Question 37.
________ is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified.
a) Piracy
b) Hacking
c) Cracking
d) None of these
c) Cracking

Question 38.
A cracker is called as a ________ .
a) Black hat
b) Dark side hacker
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 39.
Cracking means trying to get into computer systems in order to data.
a) Steal
b) Corrupt
c) Illegitimately view
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 40.
A ________ is someone who breaks into someone else’s computer system, often on a network, bypassing passwords or licenses in computer programs.
a) Cracker
b) Programmer
c) Server
d) None of these
a) Cracker

Question 41.
Password cracking can be performed by ________.
a) Using an automated program
b) Can be manually realized
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
c) Either A or B

Question 42.
IRC means ________.
a) International Relay Chat
b) Internet Relay Chat
c) Internal Relay Chat
b) Internet Relay Chat

Question 43.
The method that uses social engineering crackers is guessing.
c) Website name
d) URL

Question 44.
Identify the correct statement from the following related with cracking.
a) It is a method of getting passwords and information using human weakness.
b) Crackers find your personal information from some persona! data/facts and try to guess a password.
c) Crackers may send official e-mail requesting some sensitive information. It may look like a legitimate e-mail from bank or other official institution.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 45.
________ is a collection of various technologies, processes and measures that reduces the risk of cyber attacks.
a) Cyber Security
b) Cyber Crime
c) Cyber Gateway
d) None of these
a) Cyber Security

Question 46.
________ protects organizations and individuals from computer based threats.
a) Cyber Security
b) Cyber Crime
c) Cyber Gateway
d) None of these
a) Cyber Security

Question 47.
________ is a type of software designed through which the criminals gain illegal access to software and cause damage.
a) Malware
b) Piracy
c) Cracking
d) None of these
a) Malware

Question 48.
A ________ is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file.
a) Virus
b) Piracy
c) Cracking
d) None of these
a) Virus

Question 49.
________ is the most common virus.
a) Trojan
b) Melisa
c) Sasser
d) Code Red
a) Trojan

Question 50.
A ________ is a program that appears to perform one function but actually performs malicious activity when executed.
a) Cracking
b) Trojan virus
c) Piracy
d) None of these
b) Trojan virus

Question 51.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
a) Spyware

Question 52.
________ is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer systemic.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
c) Ransomware

Question 53.
________ type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.
a) Spyware
b) Worms
c) Ransomware
d) None of these
c) Ransomware

Question 54.
________ is an example of social engineering.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 55.
Phishing is a type of computer crime used to attack, steal user data, including ________.
c) Credit card numbers
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 56.
________ occurs when an attacker targets a victim into opening an e-maiior an instant text message.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Phishing

Question 57.
________ is a scamming practice in which malicious code is installed on a personal computer or server, misdirecting users to fraudulent web sites without their knowledge or permission.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Pharming

Question 58.
Pharming has been called ________.
a) Phishing without a trap
b) Phishing with a trap
c) Illegal access
d) None of these
a) Phishing without a trap

Question 59.
________ is a cyber-attack intended to redirect a website’s traffic to a fake site.
a) Phishing
b) Pharming
c) Trojan
d) None of these
b) Pharming

Question 60.
MITM stands for ________.
a) Man In The Middle
b) Malware In The Middle
c) Move In The Middle
d) Must In The Middle
a) Man In The Middle

Question 61.
________ is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating With each other.
a) Cyber
b) Man-in-the-middle attack
c) Cracking
d) None of these
b) Man-in-the-middle attack

Question 62.
MITM is also called as ________.
a) Janus attack
b) Junk attack
c) Genious attack
d) None of these
a) Janus attack

Question 63.
A ________ is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy

Question 64.
a) HTTP or Web
b) Internet
c) Browser
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 65.
________ can be used to remember arbitrary pieces of information that the user previously entered into form fields such as names, addresses, passwords, and credit card numbers.
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy

Question 66.
An anonymous user is called as ________.
a) Hacker
b) Malware
c) Cracker
d) None of these
a) Hacker

Question 67.
Who can access the cookie information and misuse it?
a) Hacker
b) Service provider
c) Cracker
d) None of these
a) Hacker

Question 68.
Web sites typically use cookies for the ________ reason.
a) To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
b) Sites often use this information to track how often visitors come to the site and how long they remain on the site.
c) It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Web site.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 69.
________ can help to store personal information about users so that when a user subsequently returns to the site.
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Piracy

Question 70.
________ do not act maliciously on computer system.
a) Virus
b) MITM
c) Cracking

Question 71.
________ are merely text files that can be deleted at any time.
b) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Virus

Question 72.
________ cannot be used to spread viruses and they cannot access our hard drive.
a) MITM
c) Cracking
d) Virus

Question 73.
A ________ commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.
a) Firewall
c) Hacking
d) None of these
a) Firewall

Question 74.
Firewall category is ________.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
c) Either A or B

Question 75.
________ firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LANs [Local Area Network], WANs [Wide Area Network] and intranets.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Network-based

Question 76.
________ firewalls are positioned on the network node itself.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
b) Host-based

Question 77.
The firewall may be a service as a part of the operating system or an agent application such as endpoint security or protection.
a) Network-based
b) Host-based
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
b) Host-based

Question 78.
A ________ acts as an intermediary between the end users and a web server.
a) Proxy server
b) System software
c) Node
d) None of these
a) Proxy server

Question 79.
________ typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time. .
a) Proxy servers
b) System software
c) Node
d) None of these
a) Proxy servers

Question 80.
________ is a process that ensure confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 81.
________ is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Sampling
d) None of these
a) Encryption

Question 82.
The encripted text is called ________ .
a) Cyber text
b) Cipher-text
c) Secured text
d) None of these
b) Cipher-text

Question 83.
________ is the process of converting the cipher¬text back to plaintext.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Warping
d) None of these
b) Decryption

Question 84.
________ is done by cryptpgraphy.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 85.
In cryptography a ________ is a piece of information that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.
a) Key
b) Parameter
c) Input
d) Output
a) Key

Question 86.
Encryption has been used by ________ to facilitate secret communication.
a) Militaries
b) Governments
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 87.
________ now commonly used in protecting information within many kinds of civilian systems.
a) Encryption
b) Sampling
c) Warping
d) None of these
a) Encryption

Question 88.
________ is used to protect data in communication system.
a) Encryption
b) Sampling
c) Warping
d) None of these
a) Encryption

Question 89.
Encryption used in ________.
a) Data being transferred via networks
b) Mobile telephones
c) Wireless microphones
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 90.
Encryption used in ________.
a) Wireless intercom systems
b) Bluetooth devices
c) Bank automatic teller machines
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 91.
Data should be ________ when transmitted across networks in order to protect against the network traffic by unauthorized users.
a) Encrypted
b) Translated
c) Converted
d) None of these
a) Encrypted

Question 92.
There are types of encryption schemes.
a) three
b) four
c) two
d) five
c) two

Question 93.
________ is a encryption scheme.
a) Symmetric Key encryption
b) Public Key encryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 94.
________ encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Either A and B
d) None of these
a) Symmetric Key

Question 95.
In ________ encryption all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to encrypt the data before they can decrypt it.
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Either A and B
d) None of these
a) Symmetric Key

Question 96.
________ encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Public Key

Question 97.
________ uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process.
a) Symmetric Key encryption
b) Public Key encryption
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Public Key encryption

Question 98.
________ key is used in public key encryption.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 99.
The ________ key is kept secret by the owner.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Private

Question 100.
The ________ key is either shared amongst authorized recipients.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Public

Question 101.
The data encrypted with the recipient’s ________ key can only be decrypted with the corresponding key.
a) Public, Private
b) Private, Public
c) Public, Protected
d) None of these
a) Public, Private

Question 102.
A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication is one of the example of ________
a) Asymmetric Encryption
b) Symmetric
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Asymmetric Encryption

Question 103.
A ________ is a package of information that identifies a user and a server.
a) Signature
b) Signal
c) Certificate
d) None of these
c) Certificate

Question 104.
A certificate contains information such as ________.
a) An organization’s name
b) The organization that issued the certificate
c) The users’ email address and country and user’s public key
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 105.
Digital signatures are can provide ________.
a) Assurances of evidence to origin
b) Identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message
c) Acknowledging informed by the signer
d) All the above

Question 106.
________ law is used to prevent cyber crime.
a) Cyber Law or Cyber Space Law
b) Information Technology Law
c) Internet Law
d) Either A or B or C
d) Either A or B or C

Question 107.
In India Cyber law and IT Act 2000, modified in ________ are being articulated to prevent computer crimes.
a) 2018
b) 2008
c) 1998
d) None of these
b) 2008

Question 108.
EDI stands for ________.
a) Electronic Data Interchange
b) Electronic Document Interchange
c) Electronic Data Information
d) Electrical Data Interchange
a) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 109.
________ is a term that encapsulates the legal issues related to use of the Internet.
a) Cyber law
b) Internet law
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
c) Either A or B

Question 110.
________ of cyber crime remains unsolved.
a) 75%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 10%
c) 25%

Question 111.
To protect the information follow ________.
b) When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
c) Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 112.
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a) Information security is the immune system in the body of business.
b) Awareness is the key to security.
c) When using anti-virus software, keep it up-to- date.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Part – II

Question 1.
How information technology is reaching the people?
Information Technology is widespread through computers, mobile phones and internet.

Question 2.
What is cyber-crime?
A cyber-crime is a crime which involves computer and network. This is becoming a growing threat to society and is caused by criminals or irresponsible action of individuals who are exploiting the widespread use of Internet.

Question 3.
What are the threats of Cyber-crime?
Cyber-crime poses threats to the integrity, safety and survival of most business systems.

Question 4.
What are the types of Cyber crime?
It is depicted in the following diagram:

Question 5.
What is ethics?

1. Ethics means “What is wrong and What is Right”.
2. It is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers.
3. An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ethics.
Morals refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society.

Question 6.
What are the standards in cyber-world?
In cyber-world, there are certain standards such as:

1. Do not use pirated software.
2. Do not use unauthorized user accounts.
3. Do not steal others’ passwords.
4. Do not hack.

Question 7.
What are the core issues in computer ethics?
The core issues in computer ethics are based on the scenarios arising from the use of internet such as privacy, publication of copyrighted content, unauthorized distribution of digital content and user interaction with web sites, software and related services.

Question 8.
What are the changes in the society due to internet?

1. With the help of internet, world has now become a global village.
2. Internet has been proven to be a boon to individuals as well as various organizations and businesses.
3. e-Commerce is becoming very popular among businesses as it helps them to reach a wide range of customers faster than any other means;

Question 9.
What are the roles of computer ethics?
Computer ethics deals with the procedures, values and practices that govern the process of consuming computer technology and its related disciplines without damaging or violating the moral values and beliefs of any individual, organization or entity.

Question 10.
What is the difference between ethics and computer ethics?

1. Ethics is a set of moral principles that govern the behavior of an individual in a society.
2. Computer ethics is set of moral principles that regulate the use of computers by users.

Question 11.
What is cyber crime? Give an example.
Cyber Crime:
Cyber crime is an intellectual, white-collar crime. Those who commit such crimes generally manipulate the computer system in an intelligent manner.

For example – illegal money transfer via internet.

Question 12.
How to prevent from unauthorized access?
To prevent unauthorized access, Firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), Virus and Content Scanners, Patches and Hot fixes are used.

Question 13.
What is social engineering? Give an example. Social engineering
A misuse of an individual’s weakness, achieved by making them to click malicious links, or by physically accessing the computer through tricks. Phishing and pharming.

Question 14.
A cookie is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.

Question 15.
What are the types of encryption?
There are two types of encryption schemes as listed below:

1. Symmetric Key encryption
2. Public Key encryption

Question 16.
What is certificate?
A certificate is a package of information that identifies a user and a server. It contains information such as an organization’s name, the organization that issued the certificate, the users’ email address and country, and user’s public key.

Question 17.
What is digital certificate?

1. A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication.
2. It is one of the examples of Asymmetric Encryption.

Question 18.
What is digital signature?
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message, as well as acknowledging informed by the signer.

Question 19.
Write note on Cyber law or Internet law.
Cyber law or Internet law is a term that encapsulates the legal issues related to use of the Internet.

Question 20.
IT Act 2000 is an act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) and other means of electronic communication.

Part – III

Question 1.
What are the guidelines of ethics?
Guidelines of Ethics:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

1. Honesty: Users should be truthful while using the internet.
2. Confidentiality: Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
3. Respect: Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
4. Professionalism: Each user should maintain professional conduct.
5. Obey The Law: Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
6. Responsibility: Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions

Question 2.
What is ethical issue? List the common ethical issues.
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right (ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.

Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

1. Cyber crime
2. Software Piracy
3. Unauthorized Access
4. Hacking
5. Use of computers to commit fraud Sabotage in the form of viruses
6. Making false claims using computers

Question 3.
Write note on unauthorized access.
Unauthorized Access:
Unauthorized access is when someone gains access to a website, program, server, service, or other system by breaking into a legitimate user account.

For example, if someone tries guessing a password or user name for an account that was not theirs until they gained access, it is considered an unauthorized access.

Question 4.
What is cyber attack and cyber security?

1. Cyber attacks are launched primarily for causing significant damage to a computer system or for stealing important information from an individual or from an organization.
2. Cyber security is a collection of various technologies, processes and measures that reduces the risk of cyber attacks and protects organizations and individuals from computer based threats.

Question 5.
What is phishing? Explain with suitable diagram.
Phishing:
Phishing is a type of computer crime used to attack, steal user data, including login name, password and credit card numbers. It occurs when an attacker targets a victim into opening an e-mailer an instant text message.

The attacker uses phishing to distribute malicious links or attachments that can perform a variety of functions including the extraction of sensitive login credentials from victims.

Diagrammatic representation of Phishing

Question 6.
What is Pharming? Explain with suitable diagram.
Pharming:
Pharming is a scamming practice in which malicious code is installed on a personal computer or server, misdirecting users to fraudulent web sites without their knowledge or permission.

Pharming has been called “phishing without a trap”. It is another way hackers attempt to manipulate users on the Internet. It is a cyber¬attack intended to redirect a website’s traffic to a fake site.

Diagrammatic representation of Pharming

Question 7.
What do you mean by Man In The Middle attack or Janus attack? Illustrate in a diagram,
Man In The Middle (MITM):
Man-in-the-middle attack (MITM; also Janus attack) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Example:
Suppose Alice wishes to communicate with Bob. Meanwhile, Mallory wishes to intercept the conversation to overhear and optionally to deliver a false message to Bob.

An illustration of the man-in-the-middle attack

Question 8.
Web sites typically use cookies for the following reasons:

1. To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
2. Sites often use this information to track how often visitors come to the site and how long they remain on the site.
3. It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Web site.
4. Cookies can help store personal information about users so that when a user subsequently returns to the site, a more personalized experience is provided.

Question 9.
Explain the working of Proxy Server.
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the end users and a web server. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resources available from a different server.

The proxy server examines the request, checks authenticity and grants the request based on that. Proxy servers typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time.

Working of Proxy server:

Question 10.
How to prevent cyber crime?
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

2. When the internet is not in use, disconnect it. Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
When using anti-virus software, keep it up- to-date.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Detail

Question 1.
List the computer crimes and their functions.

Question 2.
Explain Hacking in detail.
Hacking:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents. It may be done in pursuit of a criminal activity or it may be a hobby.

Diagrammatic representation of Hacking:

Question 3.
Explain Cracking in detail.
Cracking:
Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified. A cracker (also called a black hat or dark side hacker) is a malicious or criminal hacker.

“Cracking” means trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data. A cracker is someone who breaks into someone else’s computer system, often on a network, bypassing passwords or licenses in computer programs.

Software cracking is the most often used type of cracking which is nothing but removing the encoded copy protection.

There is another type of cracking called password cracking. This is mainly used to crack the passwords. Password cracking can be performed either by using an automated program or can be manually realized.

One more interesting fact about cracking is social engineering. It is a method of getting passwords and information using human weakness The other method that uses social engineering crackers is password guessing. They find your personal information from some personal data/ facts and try to guess a password. Usually a cracker maintains knowledge of the vulnerabilities he or she finds and exploits them for personal advantage, not revealing them to either to the general public or to the manufacturer.

Question 4.
Explain the working of Firewall server.
Firewall Server:
A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network.

They are generally categorized as network- based or host-based:

Network based firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LANs [local area Network], WANs [Wide Area Network] and intranets.
Host-based firewalls are positioned on the network node itself. The host-based firewall may be a service as a part of the operating system or an agent application such as endpoint security or protection.

Working of Firewall Server

Question 5.
Explain public key encryption.
Public Key Encryption:
Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process. One of the keys is typically known as the private key and the other is known as the public key.

The private key is kept secret by the owner and the public key is either shared amongst authorized made, available the public at large. The data encrypted with the recipient’s public key can only be decrypted with the corresponding private key.

Working of Public Key Encryption:

Question 6.
What is digital signature? Explain function of digital signature with suitable diagram.
Digital Signature:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message, as well as acknowledging informed by the signer.

To create a digital signature, signing software (email) creates a one-way hash of the electronic data to be signed. The user’s private key to encrypt the hash, returning a value that is unique to the hashed data.

The encrypted hash, along with other information such as the hashing algorithm, forms the digital signature. Any change in the data, even to a single bit, results in a different hash value. This attribute enables others to validate the integrity of the data by using the signer’s public key to decrypt the hash.

If the decrypted hash matches a second computed hash of the same data, it proves that the data hasn’t changed since it was signed.

If the two hashes don’t match, the data has either been tampered with in some way (indicating a failure of integrity) or the signature was created with a private key that doesn’t correspond to the public key presented by the signer (indicating a failure of authentication).

Function of Digital Signature:

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 14 Introduction to Javascript

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Introduction to Javascript Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Introduction to Javascript

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Javascript Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Which provided a common scripting language to web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Application?
a) C
b) C++
c) Java
d) JavaScript
d) JavaScript

Question 2.
Expand CGI _________.
a) Common Gateway Interface
b) Complex Gateway Information
c) Common Gateway Information
d) Complex Gateway Interface
a) Common Gateway Interface

Question 3.
JavaScript programming language is used to develop the _________.
a) Dynamic Web Page
b) Window
c) Web Page
a) Dynamic Web Page

Question 4.
The Dynamic Web Page help to save server’s _______
a) Work
b) Route
c) Traffic
d) Pvath
c) Traffic

Question 5.
User entered data, is validated before sending it to server is called _______.
a) Server traffic
b) Dynamic Web Page
c) Server Route
d) Web server
b) Dynamic Web Page

Question 6.
Java Scripts can be implemented using which statements?
b) <Java>
c) <script>
d) <text>
c) <script>

Question 7.
Expand DHTML _______.
a) Distance Hyper Text Markup language
b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language
c) Distance High Text Markup language
d) Dynamic High Text Markup language
b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language

Question 8.
How many attributes specifies that <script> tag in the scripting?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
a) 2

Question 9.
Which attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be sent to ” Text/JavaScript”?
a) Language
b) Text
c) Type
d) Body
c) Type

Question 10.
The file reload into the browser use the shortcut key is _________.
a) F2
b) F3
c) F4
d) F5
d) F5

Question 11.
JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between _________.
a) Command
b) Scripts
c) Tokens
d) Text
c) Tokens

Question 12.
A Data value for variable that appears directly in a program by using a _______.
a) loop
b) Literal
c) Statement
d) Text
b) Literal

Question 13.
Which is mostly used to give a warning message to users?
b) Confirm box
c) Prompt box
d) Display box

Question 14.
In the below snippet, value of x is var x = 250 + 2-200;
a) 50
b) 52
c) 48
d) 42
b) 52

Part – II

Question 1.
Write a syntax of <script> tag.
The syntax of Java <script> tag;

Language – This attribute specifies the scripting language.
Type – This attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be set to “text/javascript”.

Question 2.
What is scope of variables and types of scope variable?
Scope of variables – The scope of a variable is the life time of a variable of source code in which it is defined.

• A global variable has global scope; it can be defined everywhere in the Java Script code.
• Variables declared within a function are defined only within the body of the function. They are local variables and have local scope.

Question 3.
Write a notes to type casting in JavaScript.
Type casting in Java Script – Type conversion is the act of converting one data type into a different data type which is also called as casting. In Java Script there are two type of casting,

• Implicit casting and
• Explicit casting

Implicit casting occurs automatically in Java Script when we change the data stored in a variable.

Question 4.
How many Literals in JavaScript and mention its types.
A literal is a fixed value given to a variable in source code. Literals are often used to initialize

Question 5.
What is conditional operator? Give suitable example.
Conditional Operator (?:)
The ?: is the conditional operator in JavaScript, which requires three operands, hence it is called the ternary operator. The syntax is
var variablename = (condition) ? value1 : value2;

Working of conditional operator:
First condition will be evaluated, if the condition returns true then the value of the left side of the colon is assigned to the variable otherwise the value of the right side of the colon will be assigned the variable.

For example:
var result=(10>15) ?100 :150;
In the above example, since the condition returns false the value 150 will be assigned to result.

Question 6.
What are the comments in Java Script?
There are two types of comments, Single line and Multiple lines comments.

1. Single-line comments begin with a double slash (//), causing the interpreter to ignore everything from that point to the end of the line.
2. Multiple line comments begins with /* and ends with */.

For example:
// JavaScript single line comment .
/* Multiple line

Question 7.
Write note on types of Operator.
JavaScript supports the following operators.

1. Arithmetic Operators
2. Relational Operators
3. Logical Operators
4. Assignment Operators
5. String Operators
6. Increment and Decrement Operators
7. Conditional Operator
Unary + and – Operator
8. typeof Operator

Question 8.
Write the role of variable in JavaScript.
Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Every variable has a data type that indicates what kind of data the variable holds. The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

Question 9.
What is the use of prompt dialog box?
Prompt Dialog Box:
The prompt dialog box is very useful when the user want to pop-up a text box to get user input. Thus, it enables you to interact with the user. The user needs to fill in the text box field and then click OK.

The Syntax of prompt dialog box is:
Prompt(“Message”,”defaultValue”);
(or)
window.prompt(”sometext”,”defaultText”);

Example:
(or)

Part – III

Question 1.
What are the advantages of programming language?

1. The web pages must be interactive. So to develop such interactive pages (Dynamic Web page) JavaScript programming language is used.
2. User entered data in the Dynamic Web page can be validated before sending it to the server. This saves server traffic, which means less load on our server.
3. JavaScript includes such items as Textboxes, Buttons, drag-and-drop components and sliders to give a Rich Interface to site visitors. For example Creating a New email account in any service provider.

Question 2.
Brief the basic data types in Java Scripts.
Every variable has a data type that indicates what kind of data the variable holds. The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

1. A string is a list of characters, and a string literal is indicated by enclosing the characters in single or double quotes. Strings may contain a single character or multiple characters, including whitespace and special characters such as \n (the newline).
2. Numbers can be integer or floating-point numerical value and numeric literals are specified in the natural way.
3. Boolean can be any one of two values: true or false. Boolean literals are indicated by using true or false directly in the source code.

Question 3.
Write note on string Operator.
String Operators:
One of the built-in features of JavaScript is the ability to concatenate strings. The + operator performs addition on numbers but also serves as the concatenation operator for strings. Because string concatenation has precedence over numeric addition, + will be interpreted as string concatenation if any of the operands are strings. + operator which is also called as the string concatenation operator.

For example:
Using + Operator for concatenating String:
<Html>
<Title>Demo Program – To Concatenating (+) Operators in JavaScript </Title>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type=”text/
javascript”>
var String1 = “Java”;
var String2 = “Script”;
var String3=String1+String2;
document.write(“<br>String1 : “+Strlngl);
document.write(“<br>String2 : “+String2);
document.write/”<br> <br>Concatenated String
of String! and String2 : “+String3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

OUTPUT:

Question 4.
JavaScript can be implemented using <script>… </script> tags. The <script> tag containing JavaScript can be placed anywhere within in the web page, but it is normally recommended that should be kept it within the <head> tags. The <script> tag alerts the browser program to start interpreting all the text between these tags as a script commands.

The syntax of JavaScript segment in Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) or Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language (DHTML) is as follows:
<script language=”javascript” type=”text/
javascript”>
JavaScript code
</script>

The <SCRIPT> tag takes two important attributes:

1. Language – This attribute specifies the scripting language. Typically, its value will be javascript.
2. Although recent versions of HTML (Extensible HyperText Markup Language – XHTML, its successor) have phased out the use of this attribute is optional.
3. Type – This attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be set to “text/javascript”

Question 5.
What are the uses of Logical Operators?
Logical Operators:
Logical operators perform logical (boolean) operations. Logical operators combine or invert boolean values. Once comparisons are made, the logical operators && (AND), 11 (OR) and ! (NOT) can be used to create more complex conditions.

Logical or Boolean operators:

Usage :
The rules are as follows:

• For && (AND) the result is false if the first operand is false; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
• For i | (OR) the result is true if the first operand is true; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
• For I (NOT) the result is true if the operand is false; otherwise, the result is true.

HTML CODE Using Logical Operators:
<Html>
<Title>Demo Program – To test Logical Operators in JavaScript. </Title>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type=”text/
javascript”>
var valuel = 522, value2=10;
document.write(“<br>Datal ; “+valuel);
document.write(“<br>Data2 ; “+value2);
var res1=((valuel>100) && (vaiuel>601));
var res2=((valuel>100) || (valuel>601));
var res3=(!(valuel!=va!ue2));
document.write(“< br> < br>Whether Data 1 > 100
AND Data 1>601 : “+res1);
document.write(”<brxbr>Whether Datal>600 OR Data 1>601 : “+res2);
document.write(“<br>Whether IDatal != Data2 : “+res3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Output:

Question 6.
Difference between the increment and Decrement operator.
Increment and Decrement Operators:
The ++ operator increments its single operand. The operator converts its operand to a number, adds 1 to that number, and assigns the incremented value back into the variable. The return value of the ++ operator depends on its position relative to the operand.

When ++ is used before the operand, where it is known as the pre-increment operator, it increments the operand and evaluates to the incremented value of that operand. When used after the operand, where it is known as the post-increment operator, it increments its operand but evaluates to the un-incremented value of that operand.

Consider the difference between these two lines of code:
var m = 1, n = ++m; // m and n are both 2
var m = 1, n = m++; // m is 2, n is 1
The — operator decrements its single operand. It converts the value of the operand to a number. subtracts 1, and assigns the decremented value back to the operand. Like the ++ operator, the return value of — depends on its position relative to the operand. When used before the operand, it decrements and returns the decremented value. When used after the operand, it decrements the operand but returns the undecremented value.
var m = 2, n = –m; // m and n are both 1
var m = 2, n = m–; // n is 2, n is 1

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Explain about the popup dialog boxes in JavaScript.
JavaScript:
JavaScript supports three important types of dialog boxes. Dialog boxes are also called as Popup Boxes, These dialog boxes can be used to raise an alert, or to get confirmation on any input or to have a kind of input from the users. JavaScript supports three kind of popup boxes: Alert box, Confirm box, and Prompt box.

An alert dialog box is mostly used to give a warning message to the users. For example, if one input field requires to enter some text but the user does not provide any input, then as a part of validation, you can use an alert box to give a warning message. Alert box gives only one button “OK” to select and proceed.

The syntax of alert box is:

Example:
(or) window.alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);

<Html>
<Title>Demo Program – To test Alert Dialog Box in JavaScript </Title>
<Body>
<script ianguage=”javascript” type=”text/
javascript”>
var value1 = 522, value2=10;
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Output:

Confirm Dialog Box:
A confirmation dialog box is mostly used to take user’s consent on any option. It displays a dialog box with two buttons: OK and Cancel. If the user dicks on the OK button, the confirm() will return true. If the user clicks on the Cancel button, then confirm() returns false.

The syntax of confirm dialog box is:
confirm (“message”); (or) window,confirm (“message”);

Example:
confirm (“Hai Do you want to continue:”);
(or)
window.confirm (“Hai Do you want to continue:”);

Confirm Dialog Box Code:

Output:

Prompt Dialog Box:
The prompt dialog box is very useful when the user want to pop-up a text box to get user input. Thus, it enables you to interact with the user. The user needs to fill in the text box field and then click OK.

The prompt dialog box is displayed using a method called prompt() which takes two parameters:

a label which you want to display in the text box and
a default string to display in the text box.

This dialog box has two buttons: OK and Cancel. If the user clicks the OK button, the prompt() will return the entered value from the text box. If the user clicks the Cancel button, the prompt() returns null.

The Syntax of prompt dialog box is: Prompt(“Message”,”defaultValue”);
(or)
window.promptC’sometext””defaultText”);

Example:
(or)

Prompt Dialog Box Code:

OUTPUT:

Question 2.
Explain about the Arithmetic operator with suitable example.
Arithmetic Operators:
JavaScript supports all the basic arithmetic operators like addition (+), subtraction (-), multiplication (*), division (/), and modulus (%, also known as the remainder operator).

Arithmetic Operators:

HTML CODE Using Arithmetic Operators:

Output:

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Javascript Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Java script introduced by _________.
a) Netscape
b) Sun Inc.
c) Netscape and Sun Inc.
d) Borland International
c) Netscape and Sun Inc.

Question 2.
Java script introduced on _______.
a) December 6, 1995
b) December 5, 1995
c) December 4, 1995
d) December 4, 1985
c) December 4, 1995

Question 3.
________ provides a common- scripting language for Web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Applications.
a) Java
b) Java Script
c) C++ V
d) None of these
b) Java Script

Question 4.
Java script is used to develop _______.
a) Interactive Web Pages
b) Dynamic Web Pages
c) Static Web Pages
d) Either A or B
d) Either A or B

Question 5.
a) Simple Web Pages
b) Dynamic Web Pages
c) Static Web Pages
d) Either A or B
b) Dynamic Web Pages

Question 6.
JavaScript includes ________ item to give a rich Interface to website visitors.
a) Textboxes / Buttons
b) Drag-and-drop components
c) Sliders
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 7.
JavaScript can be implemented using _______tag.
a) <script>
b) <Jscript>
c) <JS>
d) None of these
a) <script>

Question 8.
The <script> tag containing JavaScript can be placed _______ in the web page.
a) any where
c) <body> section alone
d) None of these
a) any where

Question 9.
It Is normally recommended that <script> tag should be kt it within the ______ tags.
a) any
c) <body>
d) None of these

Question 10.
DHTML expanded as ______.
a) Dynamic Hyper Text Machine Language
b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language
c) Dynamic Heavy Text Markup Language
d) Direct Hyper Text Markup Language
b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 11.
The <SCRIPT> tag takes ______ important attributes.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
a) two

Question 12.
______ is the <SCRIPT> tag attribute.
a) Language
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 13.
______ attribute of <Script> tag specifies that the scripting language.
a) Language
b) Type
C) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Language

Question 14.
_______ attribute of <Script> Is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be set to ‘text/javascript’.
a) Language
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Type

Question 15.
_______ Is the set of elementary rules that specifies how to write programs in that language.
a) Lexical structure
b) Logical structure
c) Procedural structure
d) None of these
a) Lexical structure

Question 16.
______ Is the lowest-level syntax of a language.
a) Lexical structure
b) Logical structure
c) Procedural structure
d) None of these
a) Lexical structure

Question 17.
The _______ specifies venable names, the delimiter characters for comments, and how one program statement ¡s separated from the next.
a) Lexical structure
b) Logical structure
c) Procedural structure
d) None of these
a) Lexical structure

Question 18.
JavaScript Is a ______ language.
a) Non- case-sensitive
b) Case-sensitive
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
b) Case-sensitive

Question 19.
JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between ______ in programs.
a) Identifiers / Operators
b) Punctuator Constants
c) Keywords
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 20.
JavaSaipt supports ________ styles of comments.
a) three
b) three
c) two
d) five
c) two

Question 21.
_______ Is a single line comment In Javascript.
a) //
b)\\
c) / * */
d) None of these
a) //

Question 22.
_______ is a multi line comment In Javascript.
a) //
b) \\
c) /* */
d) None of these
c) /* */

Question 23.
JavaScript uses the _______ to separate statements.
a) Semicolon(;)
b) Colon( : )
c) comma (,)
d) None of these
a) Semicolon(;)

Question 24.
Many JavaScript programmers use to explicitly mark the ends of statements.
a) SemIcolon (;)
b) Colon (:)
C) comma(,)
d) None of these
a) SemIcolon (;)

Question 25.
A _______ is a data value for variable that appears directly in a program.
a) Keyword
b) Operator
c) Literal
d) None of these
c) Literal

Question 26.
In JavaScript, identifiers are used to _______.
a) Name variables
b) Name functions
c) Provide labels for certain loops
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 27.
In JavaScript ________ cannot be used as identifiers in the programs.
a) Keywords
b) Small letters
c) Capital letters
d) None of these
a) Keywords

Question 28.
________ is a memory location where value can be stored.
a) Keyword
b) Operator
c) Literal
d) Variable
d) Variable

Question 29.
________ is a symbolic name for a value.
a) Keyword
b) Operator
c) Literal
d) Variable
d) Variable

Question 30.
Variables are declared with the _________ keyword in JavaScript.
a) declare
b) var
c) jsvar
d) None of these
b) var

Question 31.
Every variable has a name, called __________.
a) Keyword
b) Idetifier
c) Literal
d) Variable
b) Idetifier

Question 32.
The basic data types in JavaScript is __________
a) Strings
b) Numbers
c) Booleans
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 33.
A ________is a list of characters, and a string literal is indicated by enclosing the characters in single or double quotes.
a) Strings
b) Numbers
c) Booleans
d) All the above
a) Strings

Question 34.
_________ can be integer or floating-point numerical value and numeric literals are specified in the natural way.
a) Strings
b) Numbers
c) Booleans
d) All the above
b) Numbers

Question 35.
__________ can be any one of two values: true or false.
a) Strings
b) Numbers
c) Booleans
d) All the above
c) Booleans

Question 36.
________ keyword allocates storage space for new data.
a) declare
b) var
c) jsvar
d) allocate
b) var

Question 37.
__________ keyword indicates to the interpreter that a new identifier is in use.
a) declare
b) var
c) jsvar
d) allocate
b) var

Question 38.
In Javascript, the first character of a variable name must be a(n) __________.
a) Letter
b) underscore
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
c) Either A or B

Question39.
Identify the false statement from the following regarding variable name.
a) JavaScript variable names are case sensitive.
b) There is no limit to the length of the variable name.
c) JavaScript’s reserved words can be used as a variable name.
d) Number cannot be as the first character.
c) JavaScript’s reserved words can be used as a variable name.

Question 40.
The ________ of a variable of source code in which it is defined,
a) Scope
b) Validity
c) Position
d) None of these
a) Scope

Question 41.
In Javascript, _______scope is possible for a variable.
a) Local
b) Global
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 42.
________ scope variable can be defined everywhere in the JavaScript code.
a) Local
b) Global
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Global

Question 43.
Variables declared within a function have _________ scope in JavaScript code.
a) Local
b) Global
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Local

Question 44
Identify the false statement from the following regarding variable declaration.
a) In JavaScript there is no need to indicate data type during variable declaration.
b) JavaScript variables are untyped.
c) JavaScript variables are dynamically datatyped.
d) In JavaScript, no need to declare a variable.
d) In JavaScript, no need to declare a variable.

Question 45.
A ________ is a fixed value given to a variable in source code.
a) Identifier
b) Literal
c) Keyword
d) None of these
b) Literal

Question 46.
Type conversion is the act of converting one data type into a different data type which is also called as ________.
a) Casting
b) Compilation
d) Sampling
a) Casting

Question 47.
In JavaScript there are _________ type of casting.
a) three
b) four
c) two
d) only one
c) two

Question 48.
In JavaScript-__________ is a type of casting.
a) Implicit
b) Explicit
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Implicit

Question 49.
___________ casting occurs automatically in JavaScript when you change the data stored in a variable.
a) Implicit
b) Explicit
c) Both A and
d) None of these
a) Implicit

Question 50.
Operators are used for JavaScript’s ________ expressions.
a) Arithmetic
b) Comparison
c) Logical/Assignment
d) All the above
d) All the above

Part – II

Question 1.
What is variable in JavaScript code?
Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Example:
var n1 = 522; Here n1 is a variable. 522 is a value stored on it.

Question 2.
What is liteal in JavaScript language.
Java Script Literals:
A literal is a fixed value given to a variable in source code. Literals are often used to initialize variables. Values may be Integer, Floating point, Character, String and Boolean.

Example:
var int_const=250; //Integer constant/’/
var float_const=250.85; //Floating point constant//
var char_const=’A’; //Character constant//
var string_const=”Raman”; //String constant//
var boolean_const=true; //Boolean constant//

Question 3.
Give the syntax of write( ) statement with an example.
write statement general syntax: document write (’”string ” + var);

Example:
document.write (“The Sum of Data1 and Data2 : “+sum);

Question 4.
Write note on assignment operator.
Assignment Operator:
In JavaScript, = is an assignment operator, which is used to assign a value to a variable. Often this operator is used to set a variable to a literal value.

Example:
var number1=10; var number2=numberl; var name=”Computer Science”; var booleanvar=true;

Question 5.
What is the use of type of operator?
type of Operator:
The type of operator is used to get the data type (returns a string) of its operand. The operand can be either a literal or a data structure such as a variable, a function, or an object. The operator returns the data type.

Syntax:
type of operand or
type of(operand)

type of returns: boolean, function, number, string, and undefined. The following table summarizes possible values returned by the type of operator.

Part – III

Question 1.
What are the rules for naming a variable?
a) The first character must be a letter or an underscore (_). Number cannot be as the first character.

b) The rest of the variable name can include any letter, any number, or the underscore, we can’t use any other characters, including spaces, symbols, and punctuation marks.

c) JavaScript variable names are case sensitive. That is, a variable named Register Number is treated as an entirely different variable then one named register number.

d) There is no limit to the length of the variable name.

e) JavaScript’s reserved words cannot be used as a variable name. All programming languages have a supply of words that are used internally by the language and that cannot be used for variable names.

Question 2.
Write note on expression.
An expression is simply one or more variables and/or constants joined by operators. An expression is evaluated and produces a result.
The result of all expressions may be either an integer or floating-point value or Boolean value. There are three types of expressions as follows:

1. Arithmetic expressions
2. Relational expressions
3. Logical expressions

Question 3.
Tabulate the shorthand arithmetic operators with example.
Shorthand Arithmetic operators:

Question 4.
What are the relational or comparison operators used in JavaScript? Explain.
Relational or Comparison Operators:
Relational operators are also called as Comparison operators, they compares two values and the result is true or false. JavaScript provides a rich set of relational operators including == (equal to), != (not equal to), < (less than), > (greater than), <= (less than or equal to), and >= (greater than or equal to). Using a relational operator in an expression causes the expression to evaluate as true if the condition holds or false if otherwise.

Relational or Comparison Operators:

HTML Code:

Output:

Question 5.
What is conditional operator or ternary operator? Explain?
Conditional Operator (?:)
The ?: is the conditional operator in JavaScript, which requires three operands, hence it is called the ternary operator.
The syntax is
var variablename=(condition) ? value1 : value2;
In the syntax condition may be relational expression or logical expression. First condition will be evaluated, if the condition returns true then the value of the left side of the colon is assigned to the variable otherwise the value of the right side of the colon will be assigned the variable. For example,
var result=(10> 15)?100 :150;
In the above example, since the condition returns false the value 150 will be assigned to result.

HTML Code:

Output:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write a HTML code using relational operator to compare two data.
HTML CODE:
<Html>
<Title>Demo Program – To test Relational(Comparison) Operators in JavaScript </Title>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type=”text/ javascript”> ,
var value1 = 522, value2=10;
document.write(“<br>Data1 : “+value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 : “+value2);
document.write(“<br><br>Whether Data1= Data2 : “+(value1==value2));
document.write(“<br>Whether Data1< Data2 : “+(value1<value2));
document.write(“<br>Whether Data1> Data2 : “+(value1>value2));
document.write(“<br>Whether Data1<= Data2 : “+(value1<=value2));
document.write(“<br>Whether Data1>= Data2 : “+(value1>=value2));
document.write(“<br>Whether Data1!= Data2 : “+(value1!=value2));
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

OUTPUT:

Question 2.
Write a HTML code using to test logical operators.
HTML CODE:
<Title>Demo Program – To test Logical Operators in JavaScript </Title>
<Body>
<script language^ “javascript” type=”text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522, vaiue2=10;
document.write(“<br>Data1: “+value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 : “+value2);
var res1=((value1>100) && (value1>601));
var res2=((value1>100) || (value1>601));
var res3=(!(value1! =value2));
document.write(“<brxbr>Whether Data1>100 AND Data1>601 : “+res1);
document.write(“<brxbr>Whether Data1>600 OR Data1>601 : “+res2);
document.write(“<br>Whether IData1!= Data2 ; “+res3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Output:

interested and these activities bring him profit, money, prestige and power. </p> <p> In economic sense, the term business means works, efforts and acts of people, which are connected with the production of wealth and activities, which are directed with the object of making profit.</p> <p> Production and distribution of goods to consumers for a profit constitute business. </p>

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 15 Control Structure in JavaScript

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Control Structure in JavaScript Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 15 Control Structure in JavaScript

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Control Structure in JavaScript Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Which conditional statement is used to transfer control from current statement to another statement?
a) Branching
b) Sequencing
c) Looping
d) Iterating
a) Branching

Question 2.
________ statement can be used as alterative to if-efse statement,
a) While
b) If
c) Eise-if
d) Switch
d) Switch

Question 3.
Which statement in switch case is used to exit the statement once the appropriate choice is found?
a) Exit
b) Default
c) Case
d) Break
d) Break

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a looping statement?
a) Switch
b) While
c) Do-While
d) For
a) Switch

Question 5.
Which part of the loop statement determines the number of times, the loop will be iterated?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Final
b) Second

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a branching statement?
a) Loop
b) If-else
c) Switch
d) For
a) Loop

Question 7.
What will be the output for the following snippet:
For (var n=0; n<10; n++)
{
if (n==3)
{
break;
}
document write (n+”<br>”);
}
a) 0 1 2
b) 0 1 2 3
c) 0 1 2 3 4
d) 0, 1, 3
a) 0 1 2

Question 8.
In which loop the condition is evaluated, before executing a statement?
a) While
b) Do while
c) Break
d) Continue
a) While

Question 9.
The ________ statement is especially useful when testing all the possible results of an expression.
a) While
b) Do while
c) Switch
d) If
c) Switch

Question 10.
In the ________ loop, body of the loop always executed at least once before the condition can be executed.
a) For
b) While
c) If
d) Do while
d) Do while

Question 11.
<script type = “text / javascript”>
x = 6 + “3”;
document write (x);
</script> what will be the output?
a) 6
b) 9
c) 63
d) Error
c) 63

Part – II

Question 1.
What are the different types of control statement used in JavaScript?
There are two types of control statements are used in JavaScript. They are:

1. Branching / Selection
2. Looping / Repetitive

Question 2.
What is meant by conditional statements in JavaScript?
Statements are executed in the order they are found in a script. Conditional statements execute or skip one or set of statements depending on the value of a specified conditional expression.

Conditional Statements help to alter the normal sequence of execution of a program by two types of controls – Branching and Looping.

Question 3.
List out the various branching statements in JavaScript.
There are different branching statements. They are:

1. if statement
2. if… else statement
3. else if statement
4. switch statement

Question 4.
Write the general syntax for switch statement.
The syntax of a switch statement: switch (expression)

Question 5.
Differentiate the break and continue statement.
JavaScript also supports statements used to modify flow control, specifically break and continue.

1. The break statement will terminate the loop early i.e. before the normal exit condition.
2. The continue statement will skip back to the loop condition check. When the continue statement is
3. executed, the current iteration of the enclosing loop is terminated, and the next iteration begins.

PART – III

Question 1.
What is if statement and write its types.
The if statement is the fundamental control statement that allows JavaScript to make decisions to execute statements conditionally. This statement has two forms. The first form is for only true condition.
The syntax is
if (condition)
{
True block;
}
In (fie if form, condition contains relational/ logical expression is evaluated. If the resulting value is true the true block is executed. True block may contain one or more than one statement.

For example:

The Output will be:

The second form of the if statement is an else clause that is the program to follow either of two branches depending on the condition. In the simple if construction, no special processing is performed when the condition evaluates to false. But if processing must follow one of two paths, hence need to use if…else format.

Its syntax is:

This form is similar to if statement but the only difference is the else keyword, which provides an alternate path for execution to follow if the condition evaluates to false.

Example:

Output:

Question 2.
Write the syntax for else-if statement.
Syntax:

Question 3.
What is called a loop and what are its types?
In JavaScript there are times when the same portion of code needs to be executed many times with slightly different values is called Loops. JavaScript supports three kinds of looping statements. They are

• for loop
• while loop
• do..while loop

Question 4.
Differentiate between while and do while statements.

1. An important difference between while and do..while statement is in the do..while loop body of the loop always executed at least once before the condition can be executed.
2. In a while loop, first condition will be evaluated and then only based on the result of the condition the body of the loop will be executed or not.

Question 5.
What message will be displayed, if the input for age is given as 20, for the following snippet, if (ago = 18)

Output:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Explain for loop with example.
for loop :
The for loop is a very rigid structure that loops for a pre-set number of times. In JavaScript for structure is very flexible, which makes this type is very useful.
for (initialization; condition; increment/ decrement)
{
Body of the loop;
}
The for structure within parenthesis there are three parts each separated by semicolon. They are:

1. The first part of the loop initialize a variable which is also called as control variable. In most case the control variable is declared as well as initialized.
2. The second part is the conditional statement that determines how many times the loop will be iterated.
3. The third and final part determines how the value of control variable is changed (Incremented/Decremented)

Example:
HTML CODE

OUTPUT:

Question 2.
Explain switch case statement with example.
Switch case Statement:
JavaScripts offers the switch statement as an alternate to using if…else structure. The switch statement is especially useful when testing all the possible results of an expression.
The syntax of a switch structure as the following:

Working of switch statement:
The switch statement begins by evaluating an expression placed between parenthesis, much like the if statement. The result compared to labels associated with case structure that follow the switch statement. If the result is equal to a label, the statements in the corresponding case structure are executed.

The default structure is can be at the end of a switch structure if the result of the expression that do not match any of the case labels. The break statement is also used commonly within switch to exit the statement once the appropriate choice is found.

Example:
HTML CODE

Output:

Question 3.
Write the output for the following program.

Output:

Question 4.
Write a Java Script program using while statement to display 10 numbers.
HTML CODE:

Output:

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Control Structure in JavaScript Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
________ statements execute or skip one or set of statements depending on the value of a specified conditional expression.
a) Conditional
b) Sequential
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Conditional

Question 2.
There are _______ types of control statements in JavaScript.
a) four
b) five
c) two
d) three
c) two

Question 3.
________ is a control statement in JavaScript.
a) Branching / Selection
b) Looping / repetitive
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 4.
________ is a transfer of control from the current statement to another statement or construct in the program unit.
a) Branching Selection
b) Looping / repetitive
c) Selection
d) Both A and C
d) Both A and C

Question 5.
_______ statement is a branching statement.
a) if., else
b) else if
c) switch
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 6.
The if statement has _______ forms.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
a) two

Question 7.
The _______ statement evaluates an expression and executes one of two pieces of code, depending on the outcome.
a) if.. else
b) else if
c) switch
d) All the above
a) if.. else

Question 8.
The statement to specify a new condition if the first condition is false.
a) if… else
b) else if
c) switch
d) All the above
b) else if

Question 9.
_______ is a series of if statements.
a) if.. else
b) else if
c) switch
d) All the above
b) else if

Question 10.
JavaScripts offers the _______ statement as an alternate to using if…else structure
a) if.. else
b) else if
c) switch
d) All the above
c) switch

Question 11.
The _______ statement is especially useful when testing all the possible results of an expression.
a) if.. else
b) for
c) switch
d) do..while
c) switch

Question 12.
The _______ structure can be at the end of a switch structure if the result of the expression that do not match any of the case labels.
a) default
b) break
c) continue
d) None of these
a) default

Question 13.
The _______ statement is used commonly within switch to exit the statement once the appropriate choice is found.
a) default
b) break
c) continue
d) None of these
b) break

Question 14.
In JavaScript there are times when the same portion of code needs to be executed many times with slightly different values Is called _______.
a) Loops
b) Branching
c) Multiple branching
d) None of these
a) Loops

Question 15.
JavaScript supports _______ kinds of looping statements.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
b) three

Question 16.
JavaScript supports _______ kinds of looping statement.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 17.
The _______ loop is a very rigid structure that loops for a pre-set number of times
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) All the above
a) for

Question 18.
In JavaScript _______ loop structure is very flexible.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) All the above
a) for

Question 19.
In JavaScript _______ loop structure is very useful.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) All the above
a) for

Question 20.
The for structure within parenthesis there are _______ parts.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
b) three

Question 21.
The for structure parts are separated by _______.
a) Comma
b) Colon
c) Semicolon
d) None of these
c) Semicolon

Question 22.
In for loop, the first part of the loop _______ a variable.
a) Initialize
b) Test
c) Alter
d) All the above
a) Initialize

Question 23.
The first part of the loop initialize a variable which is also called as _______ variable.
a) Control
b) Local
c) Global
d) None of these
a) Control

Question 24.
The _______ part of a for loop is the conditional statement that determines how many times the loop will be iterated.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) None of these
b) second

Question 25.
The _______ part determines how the value of control variable is changed.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) None of these
c) third

Question 26.
The _______ statement will terminate the loop early.
a) continue
b) break
c) goto
d) None of these
b) break

Question 27.
The _______ statement will skip back to the loop condition check.
a) continue
b) break
c) goto
d) None of these
a) continue

Question 28.
When the _______ statement is executed, the current iteration of the enclosing loop is terminated, and the next iteration begins.
a) continue
b) break
c) goto
d) None of these
a) continue

Question 29.
In _______ loop statement, the condition is evaluated before executing the statement.
a) for
b) while
c) do…while
d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B

Question 30.
In _______ loop statement, the condition is evaluated after executing the statement.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) Both A and B
c) do..while

Question 31.
In _______ loop, the body of the loop is always executed at least once.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) Both A and B
c) do..while

Question 32.
In _______ loop, there is no guarantee for the execution of the body of the loop atleast once.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B

Question 33.
In a _______ loop, first condition will be evaluated and then only based on the result of the condition the body of the loop will be executed or not.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B

Question 34.
In the _______ loop body of the loop always executed at least once before the condition can be executed.
a) for
b) while
c) do..while
d) Both A and B
c) do..while

Question 35.
The _______ statement terminates the loop irrespective of the condition.
a) break
b) continue
c) for
d) do..while
a) break

Question 36.
The _______ statement executes the next iteration of the loop.
a) break
b) continue
c) for
d) do..while
b) continue

Question 37.
The _______ statement is commonly used to exit the statement once the appropriate choice is found.
a) break
b) continue
c) for
d) do. .while
a) break

Part – II

Question 1.
What is branching statement?
Branching Statements:
JavaScript supports branching statements which are used to perform different actions based on different conditions. Branching is a transfer of control from the current statement to another statement or construct in the program unit. A branch alters the execution sequence.

Question 2.
Write the syntax of if..else statement.
Syntax :
if (expression)
{
statements if true
}
else
{
statements if false
}

Question 3.
What is the output of the following html code?

Output:
9

Part – III

Question 1.
What are the functions of the for loop parts?
The for structure within parenthesis there are three parts each separated by semicolon.
They are:

1. The first part of the loop initialize a variable which is also called as control variable. In most case the control variable is declared as well as initialized.
2. The second part is the conditional statement that determines how many times the loop will be iterated.
3. The third and final part determines how the value of control variable is changed (Incremented/Decremented)

Question 2.
Write script for the following criteria.

Output:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Explain while loop with suitable example.
while loop:
In JavaScript bop is most basic loop. The purpose of a while loop is to execute a statement / block of statement as long as an expression is true. The while statement -crates a loop that executes a specified statement as long as the test condition evaluates to true. The condition is evaluated before executing the statement.

The syntax is::

Output:

To execute a while statement, the interpreter first evaluates expression. If the value of the expression is true the interpreter executes the statement and repeats, jumping back to the top of the loop and evaluating expression again. In the above example let us see how the while command is executed,

• Initial value of the variable no2 is set to 0.
• The expression in the while statement is executed.
• If the condition is true then body of the loop will be executed once otherwise body of the loop will be skipped and control will jump to next statement to end of the loop.
• Then the value of the control variable is executed and control jumps to condition again go to step 3

Question 2.
Explain while loop with suitable example, do.. while loop:
The do..while loop is like a while loop, except that the loop expression is tested at the end of the loop rather than at the beginning. This means that the body of the loop is always executed at least once.

The syntax is:
do
{
body of the loop
} while (expression);
An important difference between while and do..while statement is in the do..while loop body of the loop always executed at least once before the condition can be executed. In a while loop, first condition will be evaluated and then only based on the result of the condition the body of the loop will be executed or not.

Example:

Output:

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 16 Javascript Functions

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 16 Javascript Functions Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Javascript Functions

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Javascript Functions Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
The parameters work as _______.
a) Local variable
b) Global Variable
c) File variable
d) block variable
a) Local variable

Question 2.
Predefined functions are also called as _______.
a) Library functions
b) storage functions
c) instructions
d) commands
a) Library functions

Question 3.
Larger programs are divided into smaller are called _______.
a) modules
b) block
c) sets
d) group
a) modules

Question 4.
Which of the following is used to enhance reusability and program clarity?
a) functions
b) modules
c) sets
d) instructions
a) functions

Question 5.
Which of the following allow the programmer to modularize a program?
a) Library functions
b) User defined functions
c) Normal functions
d) Ordinary functions
b) User defined functions

Part – II

Question 1.
What is a function in JavaScript?
A function is a block of JavaScript code that is defined once but may be executed or invoked any number of times.

Question 2.
What is the use of function?

1. Functions are used to encapsulate code that performs a specific task.
2. Functions are used to keep code that performs a particular job in one place in order to enhance reusability and program clarity.

Question 3.
Write a note on Library functions.
Pre-defined functions are already defined in the JavaScript library which are also called Library functions. For example isNaN(), toUpperCase(), toLowerCase(), length(), alert(), prompt(),write() etc., are pre-defined functions.

Question 4.
Write a note on user defined functions.
User defined functions:

1. User-defined functions allow the programmer to modularize a program.
2. Most computer programs that solve real- world problems are much large, occupy more space in the computer memory and takes more time to execute.
3. Large programs are divided into small programs are called modules.

Question 5.
Write the syntax of functions.
The syntax of a function definition is:
Function function-name(parameters list)

Part – III

Question 1.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the cube of a number using function HTML CODE:

OUTPUT:

Question 2.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the sum of 10 numbers using function.

OUTPUT:

### 11th Computer Applications Guide Javascript Functions Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
A _______ is a block of JavaScript code that is defined once but may be executed or invoked any number of times.
a) Loop
b) Function
c) Control structures
d) None of these
b) Function

Question 2.
_______ are used to encapsulate code that performs a specific task.
a) Loop
b) Function
c) Control structures
d) None of these
b) Function

Question 3.
_______ are defined for commonly required tasks to avoid the repetition entailed in typing the same statements over and over.
a) Loop
b) Function
c) Control structures
d) None of these
b) Function

Question 4.
_______ are used to keep code that performs a particular job in one place in order to enhance reusability and program clarity.
a) Function
b) Loop
c) Control structures
d) None of these
a) Function

Question 5.
JavaScript functions are _______.
a) Parameterized
b) Non-parameterized
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
c) Either A or B

Question 6.
A _______ function definition may include a list of identifiers.
a) Parameterized
b) Non-parameterized
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Parameterized

Question 7.
A _______ function definition may Include a list of identifiers that work as local variables for the body of the function.
a) Parameterized
b) Non-parameterized
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Parameterized

Question 8.
Identify the correct statement from the following with respect to function.
a) Function invocations provide values or arguments for the function’s parameters.
b) Functions often use their argument values to compute a return value that becomes the value of the function invocation expression.
c) Sometimes functions are defined for commonly required tasks to avoid the repetition entailed in typing the same statements over and over.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 9.
JavaScript supports types functions.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
a) two

Question 10.
JavaScript supports _______ function.
a) Pre-defined
b) Library
c) User-defined
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 11.
Pre-defined functions are already defined in the JavaScript library which are also called _______ functions.
a) Automatic
b) Library
c) User-defined
d) All the above
b) Library

Question 12.
_______ is library function.
a) isNaN()
b) toUpperCase()
c) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 13.
_______ is library function.
b) prompt()
c) write()
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 14.
_______ is a pre-defined function.
a) toUpperCase()
b) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 15.
_______ is a pre-defined function.
a) parselnt()
b) parseFloat()
c) length()
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 16.
_______ functions allow the programmer to modularize a program.
a) Pre-defined
b) Library
c) User-defined
d) All the above
c) User-defined

Question 17.
_______ function is used to convert given string into uppercase.
a) toUpperCase()
b) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
a) toUpperCase()

Question 18.
_______ function is used to convert given string into lowercase.
a) toUpperCase()
b) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
b) toLowerCase()

Question 19.
_______ function is used to find the length of the given string.
a) parselnt()
b) parseFloat()
c) length()
d) All the above
c) length()

Question 20.
_______ function is used to convert the given value into an integer.
a) parselnt()
b) parseFloat()
c) length()
d) All the above
a) parselnt()

Question 21.
_______ function is used to convert the given string value into an float.
a) parselnt()
b) parseFioat()
c) length()
d) All the above
b) parseFioat()

Question 22.
The large programs are divided into small programs are called _______
a) Modules
b) Blocks
c) Groups
d) None of these
a) Modules

Question 23.
The function-name is any valid _______.
a) Constant
b) Literals
c) Identifier
d) None of these
c) Identifier

Question 24.
Parameter list contains more than one variable then _______ must be there between the variable.
a) Semicolon
b) Comma
c) Colon
d) None of these
b) Comma

Question 25.
The function body must be enclosed by _______.
a) Square brackets
b) Curly braces
c) Angle brackets
d) None of these
c) Angle brackets

Question 26.
The _______ function is used to check whether the given value or variable is valid number.
a) isNaN()
b) toUpperCase()
c) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
a) isNaN()

Question 27.
_______ function returns true if the given value is not a number.
a) isNaN()
b) toUpperCase()
c) toLowerCase()
d) All the above
a) isNaN()

Question 28.
The _______ method returns the element that has the ID attribute with the specified value.
a) getByld()
b) getElementByld()
c) getElementld()
d) None of these
b) getElementByld()

Question 29.
_______ indicates the first option given in the question.
a) elements[0]
b) elements[l]
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) elements[0]

Part – II

Question 1.
What do you mean by parameterized function?
A parameterized function definition may include a list of identifiers, known as parameters that work as local variables for the body of the function. Function invocations provide values or arguments for the function’s parameters

Question 2.
What are the functions supported by JavaScript?
JavaScript supports two types functions. They are

1. Pre-defined or Library Functions
2. User-defined Functions

Question 3.
What is pre-defined function?
Pre-defined functions: Pre-defined functions are already defined in the JavaScript library which are also called Library functions.

Question 4.
List some pre-defined functions.
The following are pre-defined functions in JavaScript.

1. isNaN()
2. toUpperCase()
3. toLowerCase()
4. length()
6. prompt()
7. write()

Part – III

Question 1.
Tabulate some pre-defined functions and its function with an example.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write a program in JavaScript for adding two numbers using function.
HTML CODE

OUTPUT:

Question 2.
Write a program in JavaScript to test isNan() Function.
HTML CODE

OUTPUT:

Question 3.
Write a Javascript to create on-line quiz.
HTML CODE

OUTPUT:

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 11 HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 11 HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 11 HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links

### 11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
Which of the following tags are called as physical style tags?
a) <html>, <b>, <br>
b) <b>, <br>, <u>
c) <A>, <b>, <i>
d) <b>, <i>, <u>
d) <b>, <i>, <u>

Question 2.
Which feature is used to call attention to the reader?
a) Highlight
b) Bold
c) Italics
d) Underline
a) Highlight

Question 3.
The tags <sub> and <sup> used for:
a) Subject and Super
b) Subscript and Super
c) Subject and Superscript
d) Subscript and Superscript
d) Subscript and Superscript

Question 4.
A named set of certain style of character and number is:
a) Style
b) Character
c) Font
d) List
c) Font

Question 5.
Pick odd one from the list _______.
a) <tr>
b) <th>
c) <dh>
d) <td>
c) <dh>

Question 6.
Match the following:

a) 4 1 2 3

Question 7.
Definition list has how many parts?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
d) 2

Question 8.
A list block can be defined inside another list is:
a) Inner List
b) Nested List
c) Outer List
d) Listing List
b) Nested List

Question 9.
Read the following statement and choose the correct statement(s):
I) Link in HTML is used to create hyperlinks to web content.
II) HREF is abbreviated as Hypertext Markup File
a) I is correct
b) II is correct
c) I and II is correct
d) Both are wrong
a) I is correct

Question 10.
To create internal link, which of the following attribute should be used?
b) name
c) local
d) Inter
b) name

Part – II

Question 1.
Write a short note on (i) <strong> (ii) <em>
These tags are container tags.
< strong > Important text
The <strong> tag is a phrase tag. It is used to define important text. This tag displays the text as bold.

<am> – Emphasized text:
The <em> tag is used to emphasize the text. That means, when we use this tag, the text will be in italics. Visually these two tags display the contents as very similar as <b> and <i> respectively. But, technically the meaning of <strong> and <em> is “Important” not just bold and italics.

Question 2.
What is the use of <mark> tag?
The <mark> tag is used to highlight the text in HTML. This is also a container tag. Whatever the text given between <mark> and </mark> will be displayed as highlighting with default color (mostly yellow).

OUTPUT will be:

Question 3.
Write the following equation as HTML notation:
i) pd = 25 – Q2
ii) pd = 25 – Q2
i) P<sub>d</sub> = 2<sup>5</sup> – Q<sub>2</sub>
ii) P<sup>d</sup> = 2<sup>5</sup> – Q<sup>2</sup>

Question 4.
Write about any two attributes of font tag.

1. The face is an attribute to set different font style. The name of a font has multiple words it should be specified within double quote.
2. The size attribute is used to set size of the text. The size can have an absolute value from 1 to 7. These predefined sizes are known as virtual size. Each virtual size is successively 20% larger than the previous one.
3. The color attribute is used to set the color to the text. Color name or color code in hexadecimal may be used.

Example:
<font face =”Arial Black” size = 4 color = yellow>
Font Size 4 in yellow colour </font>

Question 5.
What is Thematic break?

1. The <hr> (Horizontal Rules) tag, which is known as “Thematic Breaks” separate sections of an HTML document visually.
2. It produces a horizontal line spread across the width of the browser. This is an empty tag, which means the tag has no closing tag.

Question 6.
What is pixel?
A pixel is one of the tiny dots that make up the display on computer. Generally, 72 pixels equal to an inch. Pixel is usually referred as points.

Example:
The code <hr size = 72> display a horizontal line with 1 inch thickness. The default size is 3 pixels.

Question 7.
What are the types of list in HTML?
HTML supports three types of lists viz. numbered, unnumbered and definition. These lists are called as Ordered List, Unordered List and Definition List respectively.

Question 8.
How will you define numbered list?
Numbered List / Ordered List

1. Numbered list is created within the tag pair:
<OL> </OL> tag.
2. The tag <LI> is used to present the list item in the list.
3. Ordered list displays items in a numerical or alphabetical order.
4. Both <OL> and <LI> tags are container tags. But the usual the practice, closing tag </LI> never be used.

Example:

Part – III

Question 1.
Write an HTML code to display the following text in exactly the same way as given below.
I am studying Computer Science Application.
HTML CODE:

Question 2.
Briefly explain the attributes of <hr> tag.
Attributes of <hr> tag:
The <hr> tag having four attributes viz. size, width, noshade and color. These attributes are used to set size, width, 3D appearance and color to the horizontal line respectively.

The general syntax of <hr> tag with attributes:

Size:
Thickness of the horizontal line can be changed with size attribute. The size is given in terms of pixels.

Width:
The width attribute specifies the horizontal width of the rule line. The default rule is drawn across the full width of the browser. The value of the width attribute may be the exact width of the rule in pixel or a certain percentage.

The default view of a horizontal rule line is 3D. So, no need to specify the term “noshade” as an attribute with <hr> tag. If we specify the attribute “noshade” turn off 3D view, turns on 2D view. Noshade is a Boolean type attribute.

Color:
The horizontal line is displayed in gray color by default. The color attribute is used to change is default color to desired color.

Example:
Ruler with size 9 pixels, 50% width, 2D, in Green color
<hr size = 9 width = 50% noshade color=Green>

Question 3.
What are the core tags used to create table in HTML?
There are five core tags are used to create a table in HTML, They are,
<table> tag is used to create a table.
<tr> tag defines table rows
<th> tag defined table columns
<td> tag is used to specify the data in a cell
<caption> tag defines title for the table

Example:

Question 4.
Write an HTML code to provide hyperlink to
https://www.w3schools.com

Question 5.
Difference between <UL> and <0L> tags.
<OL> tag:
Numbered list is created within the tag pair <OL> ….. </OL> tag. Ordered list displays items in a numerical or alphabetical order.

<UL> tag:
Unordered list is surrounded within <UL> …… </UL> tags. Unordered lists are often referred as bulleted lists. Instead of numbers, each element in the list has prefixed with a special bullet symbol.

Question 6.
Write HTML code to produce the following table:

HTML CODE:

OUTPUT:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write an HTML code the show the following text:

HTML CODE:

Output:

Question 2.
Explain the attributes used with <table> tag in HTML
Attributes of table
The <table> is a container tag. There are several attributes to improve the layout of the table.
They are listed below:
1. Cellspacing – It is used to set the space between cells in a table. The value should be in pixels

2. Celipadding – It is used to set the space between the contents of a cell and its border, the value should be in pixels. ,

3. Border – Border attribute with <table> tag is used to specify the thickness of the border lines around the table. The value of the border attribute shouid be a non zero value in pixels. If its value is zero, HTML displays the table without border. The default value is Zero in most the browsers.

4. Bordercolor – It is used to apply the colour to the border lines.

5. Align – It is used to set the position of the table within the browser window. Left is the default position. Right or center may be the value of align attribute. .

6. BGcolor – It is used to.apply background colour to the table.

7. Height and Width – These two attributes are used to specify the height and width of a table in terms of pixels or percentage.

An HTML code to demonstrate the attributes of Table

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 3.
Explain the types of list with suitable HTML code.
Lists in HTML:
HTML supports three types of lists viz. numbered, unnumbered and definition. These lists are called as Ordered List, Unordered List and Definition List respectively.

1. Numbered List / Ordered List:
Numbered list is created within the tag pair <OL> ….. </OL> tag. The tag <LI> is used to present the list item in the list. Ordered list displays items in a numerical or alphabetical order. Both <OL> and <LI> tags are container tags.

An HTML code to demonstrate Numbered list:

The OUTPUT will be:

Attributes of Ordered List:
There are two attributes can be used to customize ordered list, they are

Type – changing numbering style
Start – changing numbering order

Type:
Type is used to change the number style. The default number style is standard Arabic numerals (1,2,3,…. ).

Start:
Start is used to specify the number of letter with which start the list. The default starting point is 1. The value cf the start attribute should be a decimal number, regardless of the numbering style being used.

An HTML code to demonstrate of OL tag:

The OUTPUT will be:

2. Un-numbered List / Unordered List:
Unordered lists are often referred as bulleted lists. Instead of numbers, each element in the list has prefixed with a special bullet symbol.
Unordered list is surrounded within <UL> …….. </UL> tags.

An HTML code to demonstrate Unordered list:

The OUTPUT will be:

Attribute of Unordered List:
Like ordered list, type attribute is used to customize bullet style for the list of elements. By default, a soiid circle is used as bullets

An HTML code to demonstrate Unordered list:

The OUTPUT will be:

The OUTPUT will be:

Definition List:
Definition list is different from other two types of list. No bullet or number is provided for the list items. In this list type, the list element has two parts.

• A definition term
• The definition description

Definition list is surrounded within <DL> …. </DL> tags.
Definition term is presented in between <DT> …. </DT> tag and
Definition description should be surrounded within <DD> …. </DD> tag.

An HTML code to demonstrate Definition list:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 4.
Link is an important feature of HTML to connect web resources. Link in HTML is used to create hyperlinks to web content. Web content may be an HTML document or an external webpage or any multimedia content such as an image, video, audio, animation etc., or even a part of the current document.

There are two important things needs to create a link in HTML:

• The name of the file or URL to which you want to link.
• The text that will serve as the clickable link.

The anchor tag <A> is used to create links along with HREF attribute. HREF is abbreviated as “Hypertext Reference”.

Structure of an anchor tag with href:
<A href = ” Web content path / URL “>

Example:

The above link code creates the target of the hyperlink to the website http://thscert.org/ index.html. At the time the user clicks the link, the browser opens the home page of the URL.

Creating a link to a particular section of the same document is known as Internal Link. To create an internal like, the attribute Name is used along with <A> tag. The Name attribute of <A> tag establish the link to the content within the document.

An HTML code to demonstrate Internal Linking:
<html>
<title> South India </title>
<body>
<h1 align = center> South India </h1>
<p> South India is the area encompassing the Indian states of
<A href = #AP> Andhra Pradesh, </A>
<A href = #KR> Karnataka, </A>
<A href = #KL> Kerala, </A>
<A href = #TN> Tamil Nadu </A> and Telangana as well as the union territories of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry, occupying 19% of India’s area (635,780 km2 or 245,480 sq mi). </p>
<A Name = AP><B> Andhra Pradesh </B> </ A>
<p> Andhra Pradesh is one of the 29 states of India) Situated in the south-east of the country, it is the eighth-largest state in India) The largest city in Andhra Pradesh is Visakhapatnam. </p>
<A Name = KR> <B> Karnataka </B> </A>
<p> Karnataka is a state in the south western region of India) It was formed on 1 November 1956, with the passage of the States Reorganisation Act. Originally known as the State of Mysore, it was renamed Karnataka in 1973. The capital and largest city is Bangalore (Bengaluru). </p>
<A Name = KL> <B> Kerala </B> </A>
<p> Kerala is a state in South India on the Malabar Coast. It was formed on 1 November 1956 following the States Reorganisation Act by combining Malayalam-speaking regions. It is divided into 14 districts with the capital being Thiruvananthapuram.</p>
<A Name = TN> <B> Tamilnadu </B> </A> <p> Tamil Nadu literally ‘The Land of Tamils’ or ‘Tamil Country’ is one of the 29 states of India) Its capital and largest city is Chennai (formerly known as Madras). </p>
</body>
</html>

A link will appear in all browsers by default as in the following colour:

• An unvisited link is underlined and blue
• A visited link is underlined and purple
• An active link is underlined and red

Establish link with an external web page in known as external linking. It is made possible by providing the URL of the external file in the HREF attribute of <A> tag of the current page.

An HTML code to demonstrate Linking with an external website/webpage:

Question 5.
write HTML code to create the following table:

HTML CODE:

OUTPUT:

### 11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Question 1.
_______ Is a container tag.
a) <b>
b) <i>
c) <u>
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 2.
All container tags required a _______ tag.
a) closing
b) starting
C) neither A nor B
d) either A or B
a) closing

Question 3.
_______ tags are otherwise known as “Physical Style” tags.
a) Container
b) Single
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Container

Question 4.
Text will be bold using ______ tag.
a) <b>
b) <j>
c) <u>
d) <t>
a) <b>

Question 5.
Text will be Italics using _______ tag.
a) <b>
b) <I>
c) <u>
d) <t>
b) <I>

Question 6.
Text will be underlined using ______tag.
a) <b>
b) <i>
c) <u>
d) <t>
c) <u>

Question 7.
Text will be old typewriter style i.e fixed width font using _______
a) <b>
b) <i>
c) <u>
d) <t>
d) <t>

Question 8.
_______ tag Ii used to make the text as bold
a) <strong>
b) <em>
c) <u>
d) <t>
a) <strong>

Question 9.
_______ tag is used to make the text a italics.
a) <strong>
b) <em>
c) <u>
d) <tt>
b) <em>

Question 10.
_______ tag Is used to define important text.
a) <strong>
b) <em>
c) <u>
d) <tt>
a) <strong>

Question 11.
The _______ tag is used to emphasize the text.
a) <strong>
b) <em>
c) <u>
d) <tt>
b) <em>

Question 12.
The _______ tag is used to define the text bigger in size than the normal size.
a) <beg>
b) <large>
C) <bigger>
d) None of these
a) <beg>

Question 13.
______ tag is often used to call attention a text.
a) <big>
b) <large>
c) <bigger>
d) None of these
a) <big>

Question 14.
The _______ tag Is used to define the text smaller than the current size.
a) <lower>
b) <small>
c) <lesser>
d) None of these
b) <small>

Question 15.
_______ tag Is a container tag.
a) <big>
b) <small>
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 16.
_______ is an Important formatting feature is used to call attention to the reader.
a) Highlighting
b) Editing
c) Neither A Nor b
d) Either A or B
a) Highlighting

Question 17.
The _______ tag is used to highlight the text in HTML.
a) <highlight>
b) <mark>
c) <dark>
d) None of these
b) <mark>

Question 18.
_______ tag is used to create subscript.
a) <sup>
b) <sub>
c) <supsct>
d) <subsct>
b) <sub>

Question 19.
_____ tag Is used to create superscript.
a) <sup>
b) <sub>
c) <supsct>
d) <subsct>
a) <sup>

Question 20.
Identify the true statement from the following.
a) The text what you see on browser cannot delete or insert
b) The subscript and the superscript character or number Is smaller than the rest of the text.
c) The <strong> tag is a phrase tag.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 21.
The text what we specify between _______ will be displayed as strike through.
a) <del> and </del>
b) <strike> and </strike>
c) <ins> and <fins>
d) None of these
a) <del> and </del>

Question 22.
The text we specify between _______ will be shown as underlined.
a) <del> and </del>
b) <strike> and </strike>
c) <ins> and </ins>
d) None of these
c) <ins> and </ins>

Question 23.
To display a text as wrong text, the _______ tag can be used.
a) <s>
b) <w>
c) <ins>
d) None of these
a) <s>

Question 24.
The text we specify between tag _______ will be display in strike through style.
a) <del> and </del>
b) <s> and </s>
c) <ins> and </ins>
d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B

Question 25.
_______ is a paragraph tag.
a) <p>
b) <para>
c) <paragraph>
d) All the above
a) <p>

Question 26.
Paragraphs can be centered with _______ attribute with <p> tag.
a) Center
b) Align
c) Centered
d) None of these
b) Align

Question 27.
Non-paragraph text contents can be centered with _______ tag.
a) <Center>
b) <Align>
c) <Centered>
d) None of these
a) <Center>

Question 28.
The _______ tag is used to change the style, size and color of text.
a) <font>
b) <text>
c) <style>
d) <change>
a) <font>

Question 29.
_______ tage is used for changing the appearance of a short segment of text.
a) <font>
b) <text>
c) <style>
d) <change>
a) <font>

Question 30.
A _______ is a named set of certain style of character and number.
a) text
b) font
c) document
d) hypertext
b) font

Question 31.
_______ is a style of font usually used for preparing office documents.
a) Arial
b) Wingdings
c) Times New Roman
d) Fajita
c) Times New Roman

Question 32.
_______ font style is used for publishing work.
a) Arial
b) Wingdings
c) Times New Roman
d) Fajita
a) Arial

Question 33.
_______ is a <foot> tag attribute.
a) face
b) size
c) colour
d) all the above
d) all the above

Question 34.
The _______ is an attribute to set different font style.
a) face
b) size
c) colour
d) all the above
a) face

Question 35.
The name of a font has multiple words it should be specified within _______.
a) Sinlge quote
b) Double quote
c) Angle bracket
d) None of these
b) Double quote

Question 36.
The _______ attribute is used to set size of the text.
a) face
b) size
c) colour
d) all the above
b) size

Question 37.
The size can have an absolute value from _______.
a) 1 to 7
b) 1 to 72
b) 1 to 100
d) 00 to FF
a) 1 to 7

Question 38.
The predefined font sizes are known as _______ size.
a) actual
b) expected
c) virtual
d) default
c) virtual

Question 39.
Each virtual size is successively _______ larger than the previous one.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 100%
d) 50%
a) 20%

Question 40.
The _____ attribute is used to set the color to the text.
a) face
b) size
c) colour
d) all the above
c) colour

Question 41.
The <font> tag is not supported by _______.
a) HTML
b) HTML5
c) DHTML
d) None of these
b) HTML5

Question 42.
Identify the false statement from the following.
a) In face attribute, you can assign more than one font-name at a time within double quotes with comma.
b) In the case of Internet Explorer, the “Times New Roman” is the default font to display the contents.
c) <hr> tag is a container empty tag.
d) Empty tag means the tag has no closing tag.
c) <hr> tag is a container empty tag.

Question 43.
Identify the correct statement from the following with respect to <hr> tag.
a) The <hr> tag, which is known as “Thematic Breaks” separate sections of an HTML document visually.
b) <hr> tag produces a horizontal line spread across the width of the browser.
c) The <hr> tag has no dosing tag.
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 44.
The <hr> tag having _______ attributes.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) no
c) four

Question 45.
_______ is a <hr> tag attribute.
a) size and width
c) colour
d) all the above
d) all the above

Question 46.
Thickness of the horizontal line can be changed with _______ Attribute.
a) size
c) colour
d) width
a) size

Question 47.
Thickness of the horizontal line size is given in terms of _______.
a) Points
b) Pixels
c) Dots
d) All the above
b) Pixels

Question 48.
A _______ is one of the tiny dots that make up the display on computer.
a) Point
b) Pixel
c) Dot
d) All the above
b) Pixel

Question 49.
_______ pixels equal to an inch.
a) 72
b) 12
c) 8
d) 100
a) 72

Question 50.
Pixel is usually referred as _______.
a) Point
b) Inch
c) Dot
d) All the above
a) Point

Question 51.
The default thickness of the horizontal line size is _______ pixels.
a) 72
b) 3
c) 12
d) 8
b) 3

Question 52.
The _______ attribute specifies the horizontal width of the rule line.
a) width
b) hw
c) hwidth
d) hrw
a) width

Question 53.
The value of the width is specified as _______.
a) Pixels
b) Points
c) Percentage
d) None of these
c) Percentage

Question 54.
_______ is the default width of the horizontal ruler line.
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 25%
a) 100%

Question 55.
The default view of a horizontal rule line is _______.
a) 2D
b) 3D
c) Either 2D or 3D
d) None of these
b) 3D

Question 56.
If you specify the attribute “noshade” turn off _______ view.
a) 2D
b) 3D
c) Either 2D or 3D
d) None of these
b) 3D

Question 57.
If you specify the attribute “noshade” turn on _______ view.
a) 2D
b) 3D
c) Either 2D or 3
d) None of these
a) 2D

Question 58.
Noshade is a _______ type attribute.
a) Integer
b) Float
c) Boolean
d) Char
c) Boolean

Question 59.
The horizontal line is displayed in _______ color by default.
a) Gray
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Green
a) Gray

Question 60.
All attributes of <hr> tag is not supported by _______
a) HTML
b) HTML5
c) DHTML
d) None of these
b) HTML5

Question 61.
Table is grid of _______.
a) Rows and Columns
b) Rows
c) Columns
d) None of these
a) Rows and Columns

Question 62.
The tables were officially introduced with _______
a) HTML 5
b) HTML 4
c) HTML 3.2
d) None of these
c) HTML 3.2

Question 63.
There are _______ core tags are used to create a table in HTML.
a) five
b) four
c) Three
d) two
a) five

Question 64.
_______ is a core tag to create table.
a) <TABLE> and <TR>
b) <TH> and <TD>
c) <CAPTION>
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 65.
_______ tag defines table rows.
a) <TR>
b) <TH> and <TD>
c) <CAPTION >
d) All the above
a) <TR>

Question 66.
_______ tag defined table columns.
a) <TR>
b) <TH>
c) <CAPTION>
d) All the above
b) <TH>

Question 67.
_______ tag is used to specify the data in a cell.
a) <TR>
b) <TH>
c) <CAPTION>
d) <TD>
d) <TD>

Question 68.
_______ tag defines title for the table.
a) <TITLE>
c) <CAPTION>
d) None of these
c) <CAPTION>

Question 69.
_______ tag is also used to define and control whole section of table.
a) <tbody>
c) <tfoot>
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 70.
All the tags used with table are _______ tags.
a) Container
b) Empty
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Container

Question 71.
_______ is a <Table> tag attribute.
b) Border and Align
c) BGColor,Height and Width
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 72.
_______ <Table> tag attribute is used to set the space between cells in a table.
a) Cellspacing
c) Height and Width
d) All the above
a) Cellspacing

Question 73.
_______ <Table> tag attribute is used to set the space between the contents of a cell and its border.
a) Cellspacing
c) Height and Width
d) All the above

Question 74.
_______ attribute with <tab!e> tag is used to specify the thickness of the border lines around the table.
a) Cellspacing
c) Height and Width
d) Border
d) Border

Question 75.
The value of the border attribute should be a _______ value In pixels.
a) non-zero
b) negative
c) floating point
d) none of these
a) non-zero

Question 76.
The default value of the border attribute is _______ in most the browsers.
a) non-zero
b) negative
c) floating point
d) zero
d) zero

Question 77.
If the value of the border attribute is zero, then HTML displays the table _______
a) without border
b) with default border
c) thin border
d) none of these
a) without border

Question 78.
_______ attribute with <table> tag is used to apply the colour to the border lines.
a) Cellspacing
c) Height and Width
d) Bordercolor
d) Bordercolor

Question 79.
_______ attribute with <table> tag is used to set the position of the table within the browser window.
a) Align
c) Height and Width
d) Bordercolor
a) Align

Question 80.
_______ may be the value of align attribute of <Table> tag.
a) Right or Center
b) Center
c) Right
d) None of these
a) Right or Center

Question 81.
_______ is the default position of the table within the browser window.
a) Left
b) Center
c) Right
d) None of these
a) Left

Question 82.
_______ attribute with <table> tag is used to apply background colour to the table.
a) Align
b) Bgcolor
c) Height and Width
d) Bordercolor
b) Bgcolor

Question 83.
_______ attribute with <table> tag is used to specify the height of a table.
a) Height and Width
b) Width
c) Height
d) Border height
c) Height

Question 84.
_______ attribute with <table> tag is used to specify the width of a table.
a) Height and Width
b) Width
c) Height
d) Border height
b) Width

Question 85.
_______ attribute value of a <table> tag is terms of pixels or percentage.
a) Height and Width
b) Width.
c) Height
d) Border height
a) Height and Width

Question 86.
_______ is the attribute of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags.
a) Align
b) Valign
c) Width
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 87.
_______ is the attribute of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags.
a) BGColor
b) Background
c) Rowspan and Colspan
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 88.
_______ is the attribute of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags used to specify the horizontal alignment of content within a cell.
a) Align
b) Valign
c) Width
d) All the above
a) Align

Question 89.
_______ is the attribute of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags used to specify the vertical alignment of the contents within a cell.
a) Align
b) Valign
c) Width
d) All the above
b) Valign

Question 90.
_______ is the default vertical alignment of the contents within a cell.
a) Bottom
b) Top
c) Middle
d) None of these
a) Bottom

Question 91.
_______ is the value of vertical alignment of the contents within a cell.
a) Middle
b) Top
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 92.
_______ is the attribute of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags used to specify the width of a cell in terms of pixels or percentage.
a) Align
b) Valign
c) Width
d) All the above
c) Width

Question 93.
_______ attribute is used to apply a particular colour to the background of a cell.
a) BGColor
b) Background
c) Rowspan and Colspan
d) All the above
a) BGColor

Question 94.
_______ attribute is used to apply an image or picture as background of a cell.
a) BGColor
b) Background
c) Rowspan and Colspan
d) All the above
b) Background

Question 95.
_______ attribute is used to merge two or more cells in a row as a single cell.
a) BGColor
b) Background
c) Rowspan
d) Colspan
c) Rowspan

Question 96.
_______ attribute is used to merge to two or more cells in a column as a single cell.
a) BGColor
b) Background
c) Rowspan
d) Colspan
d) Colspan

Question 97.
HTML supports _______ types of lists.
a) three
b) four
c) two
d) five
a) three

Question 98.
_______ is a type of list in HTML
a) Ordered List
b) Unordered List
c) Definition List
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 99.
Numbered list is created within the tag pair _______ tag.
a) <OL> </OL>
b) <UL> …. </UL>
c) <DL>….</DL>
d) None of these
a) <OL> </OL>

Question 100.
The tag _______ is used to present the list item in the list.
a) <LIST>
b) <ITEM>
c) <LI>
d) None of these
c) <LI>

Question 101.
Ordered list displays items in a _______ order.
a) Numerical
b) Alphabetical
c) Numerical or Alphabetical
d) None of these
c) Numerical or Alphabetical

Question 102.
Both <QL> and <LI> tags are _______ tags.
a) Container
b) Empty
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
a) Container

Question 103.
There are _______ attributes can be used to customizeoFdered list.
a) three
b) two
c) four
d) five
b) two

Question 104.
_______ attribute can be used to customize ordered list.
a) Start
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 105.
_______ is used to change the number style.
a) Start
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Type

Question 106.
The default number style is standard _______ numerals.
a) UK
b) Indian
c) Arabic
d) US
c) Arabic

Question 107.
_______ is the value of type attribute of <OL> tag.
a) i or I
b) a or A
c) 1
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 108.
_______ attribute is used to specify the number or letter with which start the list.
a) Start
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
a) Start

Question 109.
The value of the start attribute should be a _______ number.
a) binary
c) decimal
d) none of these
c) decimal

Question 110.
Unordered lists are often referred as _______ lists.
a) bulleted
b) symbol
c) letter
d) none of these
a) bulleted

Question 111.
Unordered list is surrounded within _______ tags.
a) <OL> ….. </OL>
b) <UL> …. </UL>
c) <DL>….</DL>
d) None of these
b) <UL> …. </UL>

Question 112.
_______ attribute is used to customize bullet style for the list of elements.
a) Start
b) Type
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
b) Type

Question 113.
By default, a _______ is used as bullets.
a) Solid circle
b) Solid square
c) Unfilled circle
d) None of these
a) Solid circle

Question 114.
_______ is a type value of <UL> tag.
a) Circle
b) Square
c) Disc
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 115.
No bullet or number is provided for the list items of _______ list.
a) Ordered
b) Unordered
c) Definition
d) All the above
c) Definition

Question 116.
In definition list, the list element has _______ parts.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
a) two

Question 117.
In definition list, the list element ______ has part.
a) A definition term
b) The definition description
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 118.
Definition list is surrounded within _______ tags.
a) <OL> </OL>
b) <UL> …. </UL>
c) <DL>….</DL>
d) None of these
c) <DL>….</DL>

Question 119.
In definition list, definition term is presented in between _______ tag.
a) <DT> </DT>
b) <DD> </DD>
c) <DL> </DL>
d) None of these
a) <DT> </DT>

Question 120.
In definition list, definition description should be surrounded within <DD> ….. </DD> tag.
a) <DT> </DT>
b) <DD> </DD>
c) <DL> ….. </DL>
d) None of these
b) <DD> </DD>

Question 121.
A list block can be defined inside another list is called as _______ list.
a) Nested
b) Compound
c) Concentric
d) None of these
a) Nested

Question 122.
Link is an important feature of HTML to connect _______.
a) Web resources
b) Pictures
c) Text
d) None of these
a) Web resources

Question 123.
Link in HTML is used to create _______ to web content.
d) None of these

Question 124.
a) An HTML document
b) An external webpage
c) Any multimedia content
d) All the above
d) All the above

Question 125.
The important things needs to create a link in HTML is _______
a) The name of the file or URL to which you want to link
b) The text that will serve as the clickable link
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
c) Both A and B

Question 126.
The anchor tag is used to create _______ links.
a) <A>
b) <HREF>
c) <ANCHOR>
d) None of these
a) <A>

Question 127.
_______ is a attribute of <A> tag.
a) href
c) anchor
d) none of these
a) href

Question 128.
HREF is abbreviated as _______.
a) Heavytext Reference
b) Higertext Reference
c) Hidetext Reference
d) Hypertext Reference
d) Hypertext Reference

Question 129.
Creating a link to a particular section of the same document is known as _______ Link.
a) External
b) Internal
c) Inner
d) Local
b) Internal

Question 130.
_______ attribute of <A> tag establish the link to the content within the document.
a) Name
c) Style
d) Title
a) Name

Question 131.
An unvisited link is underlined and displayed with _______ colour.
a) Blue
b) Purple
c) Red
d) None of these
a) Blue

Question 132.
A visited link is underlined and displayed with _______ colour.
a) Blue
b) Purple
c) Red
d) None of these
b) Purple

Question 133.
An active link is underlined and displayed with _______ colour.
a) Blue
b) Purple
c) Red
d) None of these
c) Red

Question 134.
We can change the default colours, by using _______
a) CSS
b) Lcolor
c) Hcolor
d) None of these
a) CSS

Question 135.
Establish link with an external web page in known as _______ linking.
a) External
b) Internal
c) Outer
d) Global
a) External

Question 136.
_______ link is made possible by providing the URL of the external file in the HREF attribute of <A> tag of the current page.
a) External
b) Internal
c) Outer
d) Global
a) External

Question 137.
_______ are considered either Internal or External links depends on their target.
d) None of these

Part – II

Question 1.
Write note on <big> and <small> tags.

1. The <big> tag is used to define the text bigger in size than the normal size. It is often used to call attention a text.
2. The <small> tag is used to define the text smaller than the current size.

Question 2.
What do yo mean by strike through text? Strike through:
To display a text as wrong text, the <s> tag can be used to show the text as strike through style. The <s> and <del> tags are display the text in similar way. The text we specify between <s> and </ s> will be display in strike through style.

Question 3.
What is the use of <Center> tag?
The Center Tag:
Paragraphs can be centered with Align attribute with <p> tag. But for non-paragraph text contents can be centered with <center> tag. The <center> tag is used to centralize a segment of text.

What we type between <center> and </center> will be displayed in the center of the browser.

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 4.
What do you mean by nested list? Give an example.
Nested Lists:
A list block can be defined inside another list is called as nested list.

An HTML code to demonstrate Nested lists: <html>

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 5.
What is font? Give some font names.
A font is a named set of certain style of character and number. Each font looks different from other fonts.
Example: Times New Roman, Arial, Fajita, Symbol….

Question 6.
Write general form of <font> tag with its attributes.
The general form of <font> tag with attributes:
<font face= “font_name” size=value color=color_ name / color_code>
Text to be displayed
</font>

Question 7.
Write the general form of <hr< tag with its attributes.
The general syntax of <hr> tag with attributes:

Question 8.
What are the parts of definition list element? Definition list element has two parts.

1. A definition term
2. The definition description

Question 9.
What are the tags associated with definition list? Mention its purpose.

1. Definition list is surrounded within <DL> ……. </DL> tags.
2. Definition term is presented in between <DT> ……. </DT>tag and
3. Definition description should be surrounded within <DD> ….. </DD> tag.

Question 10.
What are the two important things needs to create a link in HTML?
The two important things needs to create a link in HTML:

1. The name of the file or URL to which we want to link.
2. The text that will serve as the clickable link.

Question 11.
Creating a link to a particular section of the same document is known as Internal Link. To create an internal like, the attribute Name is used along with <A> tag. The Name attribute of <A> tag establish the link to the content within the document.

Question 12.
Establish link with an external web page in known as external linking. It is made possible by providing the URL of the external file in the HREF attribute of <A> tag of the current page.

Part – III

Question 1.
Write note on Physical Style tags / Container tags.
All tags which are in pair are called a container tags. All container tags required a closing tag. These tags are otherwise known as “Physical Style” tags.

Physical Style Tags

Question 2.
Explain Highlighting text with an example.
Highlighting text:
Highlighting is an important formatting feature is used to call attention to the reader. The <mark> tag is used to highlight the text in HTML. This is also a container tag. Whatever the text given between <mark> and </mark> will be displayed as highlighting with default color.

HTML CODE:

OUTPUT:

Question 3.
Write about inserting and deleting text in html document.
Inserting and Deleting
The text what we see on browser cannot delete or insert. But we can show a text as deleted or inserted. <del> and <ins> tags are used to markup a segment of text as deleted or inserted respectively. These two tags are container tags.

The text what we specify between <del> and </del> will be displayed as strike through. The text we specify between <ins> and </ins> will be shown as underlined.

OUTPUT:

Question 4.
Explain the usage of <B>, <I>,<U>,<S> tags
These tags may be shows the same output, but the usage of tags are varying. The following table shows the usage of this kind of tags.

While writing HTML document, we should use the appropriate tags according to its usage. If we want show a text as underlined use <u> instead of <ins>.

Question 5.
Explain the usage of multiple fonts with face attribute.
Multiple fonts with face attribute:
The face attribute of font tag is used to change font style of a segment of text. In face attribute, we can assign more than one font-name at a time within double quotes with comma.

For example:
<font face = “Bookman old stylel, Broadwayl, Forte, Arial”>
Welcome to HTML
</font>

Browser first tries to find out whether the font-name in the list is supported or not. If the first font is not supported by the browser, then it displays the text in second font, otherwise it will display next one. If no font in the list is supported, then the browser display the in the default font.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
What is subscript and superscript?
Subscript and Superscript:
A Subscript is a way to display a character or a number below the normal line of type. For example: The scientific notation for water is H2O. It should be written as H2O. Here, 2 is appearing below the normal line. This is called subscript.

A Superscript is also a way to show a , character or a number above the normal line of 1 type. For example: The familiar algebra equation “a plus b the whole square” should be written as (a+b)². Here, the square value 2 is appearing above the normal line. This is called superscript.

Usually, the subscript and the superscript character or number is smaller than the rest of the text.

In HTML, the <sub> and <sup> tags are used to create subscript and superscripts respectively. The text or number given between <sub> and </sub> will be displayed as subscript. Same as subscript, the text or number given between <sup> and </sup> will be displayed as superscript.

HTML CODE:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 2.
Explain <FONT> tag with attributes through suitable HTML code.
A font is a named set of certain style of character and number. Each font looks different from other fonts. For example,
1. Times New Roman is a style of font usually used for preparing office documents.

2. Arial is another font style which is used for publishing work.
Generally, a browser shows the contents as default system font setting.
The general form of <font> tag with attributes:
<font face= “font_name” size=value color=color_ name / color_code>
Text to be displayed
</font>

3. The face is an attribute to set different font style. The name of a font has multiple words it should be specified within double quote.

4. The size attribute is used to set size of the text. The size can have an absolute value from 1 to 7. These predefined sizes are known as virtual size. Each virtual size is successively 20% larger than the previous one.

5. The color attribute is used to set the color to the text.

HTML code to change font properties:

The OOTPUT will be:

Question 3.
Explain <HR> tag with attributes through suitable HTML code.
The <hr> (Horizontal Rules) tag, which is known as “Thematic Breaks” separate sections of an HTML document visually. It produces a horizontal line spread across the width of the browser. This is an empty tag.

An HTML code to demonstrate Horizontal rules tag – <hr>;

The OOTPUT will be:

Attributes of <hr> tag:
The <hr> tag having four attributes viz. size, width, noshade and color. These attributes are used to set size, width, 3D appearance and color to the horizontal line respectively.

The general syntax of <hr> tag with attributes:

Size:
Thickness of the horizontal line can be changed with size attribute. The size is given in terms of pixels. Generally, 72 pixels equal to an inch. For example: The code <hr size = 72> display a horizontal line with 1 inch thickness. The default size is 3 pixels.

Width:
The width attribute specifies the horizontal width of the rule line. The default rule is drawn across the full width of the browser. The value of the width attribute may be the exact width of the rule in pixel or a certain percentage. Usually, the value of the width is specified as percentage. 100% is the default width.

For example:
<hr width = 50%> display an half of a horizontal rule line on the browser window.

The default view of a horizontal rule line is 3D. So, no need to specify the term “noshade” as an attribute with <hr> tag. If we specify the attribute “noshade” turn off 3D view, turns on 2D view. Noshade is a Boolean type attribute.

Color:
The horizontal line Is displayed in gray color by default. The color attribute is used to change is default color to desired color.

An HTML code to demonstrate Horizontal rules with Attributes:

The OOTPUT will be:

Question 4.
Explain attributes of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags:
Attributes of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags:
1. Align – Used to specify the horizontal alignment of content within a cell. Left is the default alignment. Possible values are Right and Center.

2. VAIign – Used to specify the vertical alignment of the contents within a cell. Bottom is the default alignment. Possible values are Top and Middle.

3. Width – Used to specify the width of a cell in terms of pixels or percentage.

4. Gcolor and Background –

• Bgcolor attribute is used to apply a particular colour to the background of a cell.
• Background attribute is used to apply an image or picture as background of a cell.

5. Rowspan and Colspan –

• Rowspan attribute is used to merge two or more cells in a row as a single cell.
• Colspan attribute is used to merge to two or more cells in a column as a single cell,

An HTML code to demonstrate the attributes of <td>, <th> and <td> tags:

The OOTPUT will be: