Category: Class 10

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 5

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 × 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
“சாகும் போதும் தமிழ் படித்துச் சாகவேண்டும்
என்றன் சாம்பலும் தமிழ் மணந்து வேகவேண்டும்” என்று பாடியவர் யார்?
(அ) பாரதிதாசன்
(ஆ) பெருஞ்சித்திரனார்
(இ) சச்சிதானந்தன்
(ஈ) ஆறுமுகநாவலர்
Answer:
(இ) சச்சிதானந்தன்

Question 2.
‘மாபாரதம் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தும் மதுராபுரிச் சங்கம் வைத்தும்’ என்னும் சின்னமனூர்ச் செப்பேட்டுக் குறிப்பு உணர்த்தும் செய்தி …………..
(அ) சங்க காலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு இருந்தது
(ஆ) காப்பியக் காலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு இருந்தது
(இ) பக்தி இலக்கியக் காலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு இருந்தது
(ஈ) சங்கம் மருவிய காலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு இருந்தது
Answer:
(அ) சங்க காலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு இருந்தது

Question 3.
‘எழுது என்றாள்’ என்பது விரைவு காரணமாக எழுது எழுது என வந்தால்…………..
(அ) வினைத்தொடர்
(ஆ) எச்சத் தொடர்
(இ. அடுக்குத்தொடர்
(ஈ) இரட்டைக்கிளவி
Answer:
(இ. அடுக்குத்தொடர்

Question 4.
‘விருந்தினரைப் பேணுவதற்குப் பொருள் தேவைப்பட்டதால், தன் கருங்கோட்டுச் சீறியாழைப் பணையம் வைத்து விருந்தளித்தான் என்கிறது புறநானூறு’. இச்செய்தி உணர்த்தும் விருந்து போற்றிய நிலை…………..
(அ) நிலத்திற்கேற்ற விருந்து
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து
(இ) அல்லிலும் விருந்து
(ஈ) உற்றாரின் விருந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து

Question 5.
குமரகுருபரர் இயற்றாத நூலைக் கண்டறிக.
(அ) கந்தர் கலிவெண்பா
(ஆ) நீதிநெறிவிளக்கம்
(இ) மதுரைக் கலம்பகம்
(ஈ) திருக்காவலூர்க் கலம்பகம்
Answer:
(ஈ) திருக்காவலூர்க் கலம்பகம்

Question 6.
“உனதருளே பார்பன் அடியேனே ” யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?
(அ) குலசேகராழ்வாரிடம் இறைவன்
(ஆ) இறைவனிடம் குலசேகராழ்வார்
(இ) மருத்துவரிடம் நோயாளி
(ஈ) நோயாளியிடம் மருத்துவர்
Answer:
(ஆ) இறைவனிடம் குலசேகராழ்வார்

Question 7.
முக்காலத்திற்கும் பொருந்துமாறு அமைவது………………
(அ) பண்புத்தொகை
(ஆ) வினைத்தொகை
(இ) வேற்றுமைத்தொகை
(ஈ) அன்மொழித்தொகை
Answer:
(ஆ) வினைத்தொகை

Question 8.
சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருது பெற்ற கண்ணதாசன் நூல் …………..
(அ) மாங்கனி
(ஆ) இயேசு காவியம்
(இ) சேரமான் காதலி
(ஈ) சிவகங்கைச் சீமை
Answer:
(இ) சேரமான் காதலி

Question 9.
பால் என்பது …………..ன் உட்பிரிவாகும்.
(அ) ஒருமை
(ஆ) பன்மை
(இ) சத்துணவு
(ஈ) திணை
Answer:
(ஈ) திணை

Question 10.
‘கத்தும் குயிலோசை’ என்பது …………..
அ) பால் வழுவமைதி
(ஆ) மரபு வழுவமைதி
(இ) திணை வழுவமைதி
(ஈ) கால வழுவமைதி
Answer:
(ஆ) மரபு வழுவமைதி

Question 11.
“சிலம்பு அடைந்திருந்த பாக்கம் எய்தி” என்னும் அடியில் பாக்கம் என்பது……………
(அ) புத்தூர்
(ஆ) மூதூர்
(இ) சிற்றூர்
(ஈ) பேரூர்
Answer:
(இ) சிற்றூர்

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.

அலங்கு கழை நரலும் ஆரிப்படுகர்ச்
சிலம்பு அடைந்திருந்த பாக்கம் எய்தி
நோனாச் செருவின் வலம்படு நோன்தாள்
மான விறல்வேள் வயிரியம் என்னே

Question 12.
பாடலடியில் குறிப்பிடப்படும் மன்ன ன்……………..
(அ) சோழன்
(ஆ) சேரன்
(இ) பாண்டியன்
(ஈ) நன்னன்
Answer:
(ஈ) நன்னன்

Question 13.
மேற்கண்ட பாடலடிகள் இடம் பெற்ற நூல்…………..
(அ) பரிபாடல்
(ஆ) மலைபடுகடாம்
(இ) ஆற்றுப்படை
(ஈ) நீதிவெண்பா
Answer:
(ஆ) மலைபடுகடாம்

Question 14.
வயிரியம் – சொல்லின் பொருள் ………………..
(அ) வைரம்
(ஆ) கூத்தர்
(இ) பாணர்
(ஈ) சோறு
Answer:
(ஆ) கூத்தர்

Question 15.
மேற்கண்ட பாடலில் எதுகையை எழுதுக.
(அ) அலங்கு, அடைந்திருந்த
(ஆ) அலங்கு, சிலம்பு
(இ) வலம்படு, வயிரியம்
(ஈ) நோன்தாள், எய்தி
Answer:
(ஆ) அலங்கு, சிலம்பு

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 16.
ஜெயகாந்தன் பெற்ற விருதுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
ஜெயகாந்தன் பெற்ற விருதுகளாவன:

• குடியரசுத் தலைவர் விருது (உன்னைப்போல் ஒருவன் – திரைப்படம்)
• சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருது – சில நேரங்களில் சில மனிதர்கள் (புதினம்)
• சோவியத் நாட்டு விருது (இமயத்துக்கு அப்பால்) . ஞானபீட விருது
• தாமரைத்திரு விருது

Question 17.
பாண்டிய மன்னன் யாரை அவமதித்ததாக இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனிடம் கூறினார்?
Answer:

• இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனிடம், பாண்டியன் என்னை இகழவில்லை.
• சொல்லின் வடிவாக உன் இடப்புறம் வீற்றிருக்கும் பார்வதி தேவியையும், சொல்லின் பொருளாக விளங்கும் உன்னையுமே அவமதித்தான் என்று சினத்துடன் கூறிச் சென்றார்.

Question 18.
தமிழர் பண்பாட்டின் மகுடம் எது?
Answer:
வேளாண்மை செழிக்கவும், மானுடம் தழைக்கவும், சித்திரைத் திங்களில் நடத்தப்படும் பொன்ஏர் பூட்டுதல் தமிழர் பண்பாட்டின் மகுடம் ஆகும்.

Question 19.
குறிப்பு வரைக – அவையம்.
Answer:

• அறம் கூறும் மன்றங்கள் அரசனின் அறநெறி ஆட்சிக்குத் துணைபுரிந்தன.
• அறம் கூறும் அவையம் பற்றி அறம் அறக் கண்ட நெறிமான் அவையம்’ என்கிறது புறநானூறு.
• உறையூரிலிருந்த அற அவையம் தனிச்சிறப்புப் பெற்றது என்று இலக்கியங்கள்
  குறிப்பிடுகின்றன.
• மதுரையில் இருந்த அவையம் பற்றி மதுரைக்காஞ்சி குறிப்பிடுகிறது; அங்குள்ள அவையம் துலாக்கோல் போல நடுநிலை மிக்கது என்கிறது மதுரைக்காஞ்சி.

Question 20.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க.
(அ) கு.ப.ராஜகோபாலன் மிகச்சிறந்த சிறுகதை ஆசிரியர், கவிஞர், நாடக ஆசிரியர்,
மறுமலர்ச்சி எழுத்தாளர் எனப் பன்முகம் கொண்டவர்.
(ஆ) இந்திரன் முதலாகத் திசைபாலகர் எட்டுப் பேரும் ஒருவரும் பெற்றது போல்
ஆட்சி செலுத்தினான் சோழன்.
Answer:
விடை:
(அ) கு.ப.ரா.வின் பன்முகங்கள் யாவை?
(ஆ) சோழனின் ஆட்சி சிறப்பு யாது?

Question 21.
விடும்’ என முடியும் திருக்குறளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முயற்சி திருவினை ஆக்கும் முயற்றின்மை
இன்மை புகுத்தி விடும்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 × 2 = 10]

Question 22.
அகராதியில் பொருள் காண்க.
அடவி, அவல், சுவல், செறு
Answer:
விடை:
அடவி – காடு
அவல் – நெல் இடியல் / விளை நிலை
சுவல் – முதுகு தொல்லை
செறு – வயல் / கேர்பம்

Question 23.
பிறமொழிச் சொல்லை தமிழ்ச்சொல்லாக மாற்றுக.
Answer:
கோல்ட்பிஸ்கட் – தங்கக்கட்டி
மிச்சம் – மீதி
ஈக்வல் – சரியான
ரிப்பீட் – மறுமுறை

Question 24.
ஊர்ப்பெயர்களின் மரூஉவை எழுதுக.
Answer:

1. புதுக்கோட்டை – புதுகை
2. மயிலாப்பூர் – மயிலை
3. கும்பகோணம் – குடந்தை
4. உதகமண்டலம் – உதகை

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
Answer:
Emblem – சின்னம்
Symbolism – குறியீட்டியல்

Question 26.
அயற்கூற்றுத் தொடர்களை நேர்க்கூற்றாக மாற்றுக.
தாய் மகளைப் பார்த்து மணி அடித்து விட்டதால் பள்ளிக்கு உடனே செல்லும்படிச் சொன்னாள்.
Answer:
தாய் மகளிடம், “மணி அடித்து விட்டது. பள்ளிக்கு உடனே செல்” என்றார்.

Question 27.
பொருத்தமான நிறுத்தற் குறிகளை இடுக.
ஒரு முறை காந்தியடிகளைத் தில்லியில் சந்தித்த போது இரகுபதி இராவக இராஜாராம் என்ற பாடலைப் பாடினேன் என்னைப் பாராட்டிய அண்ணல் மீரா எழுதிய பாடல் ஒன்றைக் குறிப்பிட்டுப் பாடச் சொன்னார்
Answer:
ஒரு முறை காந்தியடிகளைத் தில்லியில் சந்தித்த போது, ‘இரகுபதி இராகவ இராஜாராம்’ என்ற பாடலைப் பாடினேன். என்னைப் பாராட்டிய அண்ணல், மீரா எழுதிய பாடல் ஒன்றைக் குறிப்பிட்டுப் பாடச் சொன்னார்.

Question 28.
வருக – பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.
வருக – வா (வரு) + க
Answer:
வா – பகுதி ‘வரு’ எனக் குறுகியது விகாரம் க – வியங்கோள் வினைமுற்று விகுதி பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 29.
“தலையைக் கொடுத்தேனும் தலைநகரைக் காப்போம்” இடம் சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்குக.
Answer:
இடம்:
மேற்கண்ட தொடர் மாநகராட்சியின் சிறப்புக் கூட்டத்தில் மாநகரத் தந்தை செங்கல்வராயன் முன்னிலையில் ம.பொ. சிவஞானம் கூறியது.

பொருள்:
ஆந்திராவின் தலைநகரம் சென்னையாக்க வேண்டும் என்று நீதிபதி வாஞ்சுவின் கருத்தை எதிர்த்து ம.பொ.சி. வாதிட்டார்.

விளக்கம்:
ஆந்திர மாநிலம் பிரியும்போது சென்னைதான் அதன் தலைநகராக இருக்க வேண்டும் என்று ஆந்திரத் தலைவர்கள் கருதினர். அந்நாள் முதல்வர் இராஜாஜிக்கு நிலைமையின் தீவிரத்தை உணர்த்திய போது, தலைநகர் காக்கத் தன் முதலமைச்சர் பதவியைத் துறக்கவும் அவர் முன்வந்தார். சென்னை மாகாணத்திலிருந்து பிரித்து ஆந்திரம் அமைவதற்காக ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்டிருந்த நீதிபதி வாஞ்சு தலைமையிலான ஒரு நபர் ஆணையம், ஆந்திரத்தின் தலைநகராகச் சென்னை இருக்க வேண்டும் என்ற இடைக்கால ஏற்பாட்டினைப் பரிந்துரைத்திருப்பதாக அதிகாரப்பூர்வமற்ற கருத்துகள் நிலவின. இதையொட்டி, ம.பொ.சி மாநகராட்சியின் சிறப்புக் கூட்டமொன்றை அப்போதைய மாநகரத் தந்தை செங்கல்வராயன் தலைமையில் கூட்டி, சென்னை பற்றிய தீர்மானமொன்றை முன்மொழிந்து, “தலையைக் கொடுத்தேனும் தலைநகரைக் காப்போம்” என்று முழங்கினார்.

Question 30.
தெருக்கூத்து விளக்குக.
Answer:

• நாட்டுப்புற மக்களால் நிகழ்த்தப்பட்டு வரும் கலையே தெருக்கூத்து. இப்பெயர், அது நிகழ்த்தப்பட்ட இடத்தை அடிப்படையாகக் கொண்டு அமைந்தது.
• கூத்து இசையுடன் கூடிய உடல் அசைவியக்கத்துடன் தொடர்புடையது. •
• திறந்த வெளியை ஆடுகளமாக்கி ஆடை அணி ஒப்பனைகளுடன் இது வெளிப்படுத்தப்படு கிறது. களத்து மேடுகளில் நிகழ்த்தப்பட்ட தெருக்கூத்து, தெருச்சந்திப்புகளிலும் நிகழ்த்தப்படுகிறது.
• ஒரு கதையை இசை, வசனம், ஆடல், பாடல், மெய்ப்பாடு ஆகியவற்றை ஒருங்கிணைத்து வழங்குவர். திரௌபதி அம்மன் வழிபாட்டின் ஒரு பகுதியாகவும் இது இருக்கிறது.
• தெருக்கூத்து, வேளாண்மை செய்வோரின் கலையாக இருந்தது.
• அருச்சுனன் தபசு’ என்பது மழை வேண்டி நிகழ்த்தப்படும் கூத்தாகும். கூத்துக்கலைஞர், கூத்தைக் கற்றுக்கொடுப்பவர் ஆகியோரின் அடிப்படையிலும் காலம். இடம் போன்றவற்றின் அடிப்படையிலும் கூத்து நிகழ்த்தப்படுவதில் சிறுசிறு மாறுபாடுகள் உள்ளன.
• தெருக்கூத்து, பொழுதுபோக்குக் கூறுகளைப் பெற்று நாடகமாக வளர்ச்சியடைந்துள்ளது. இதனைக் கதகளி போன்று செவ்வியல் கலையாக ஆக்கும் முயற்சிகள் மேற்கொள்ளப்படுகின்றன.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
ஒரு மணித்துளிக்கு 12 முதல் 18 முறை மூச்சுக்காற்றாய் மனிதர்கள் வெளிவிடும் கார்பன் டை ஆக்சைடை எடுத்துக்கொண்டு அவர்களின் நுரையீரலுக்குத் தேவையான உயிர்வளியைத் (ஆக்சிஜன்) தரும் மரங்களை வளர்க்க வேண்டும். மேம்பட்ட குப்பை மேலாண்மையை மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும்; பொதுப்போக்குவரத்துக்கு முன்னுரிமை தர வேண்டும். மின்னாற்றலால் இயங்கும் ஊர்திகளை மிகுதியாகப் பயன்படுத்த வேண்டும். கச்சா எண்ணெய், நிலக்கரி முதலிய புதைவடிவ எரிபொருள்களைத் தவிர்க்க வேண்டும். வீட்டுச் சமையலுக்கு விறகுகளைப் பயன்படுத்துவதைக் கைவிட வேண்டும் என மரத்தைப் பற்றிக் காற்று கூறுகிறது.

(அ) மனிதன் ஒரு மணித்துளிக்கு எத்தனை முறை மூச்சுக்காற்றை விடுவர்?
Answer:
மனிதன் ஒரு மணித்துளிக்கு 12 முதல் 18 வரை மூச்சுக்காற்றை விடுவர்.

(ஆ) மனிதன் வெளிவிடும் மூச்சுக்காற்றின் பெயர் என்ன?
Answer:
கார்பன் டை ஆக்சைடு

(இ) எந்த எரிபொருளைத் தவிர்க்க வேண்டும்?
Answer:
கச்சா எண்ணெய் மற்றும் நிலக்கரி

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. 34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 32.
சோலைக் (பூங்கா) காற்றும் மின்விசிறிக் காற்றும் பேசிக் கொள்வது போல் ஓர் உரையாடல் அமைக்க
Answer:
சோலைப்பூங்காற்று:
கோடை காலம் வந்துவிட்டது. மின்விசிறியே உனக்கு இனி ஓய்வே இருக்காதே.

மின்விசிறி :
ஆமாம். இனி எனக்கு ஓய்வே இருக்காது. முன்பெல்லாம் தேவைக்கு மட்டுமே பயன்படுத்தினார்கள் அதனால் சற்று ஓய்வு இருக்கும்.

சோலைப்பூங்காற்று:
ஆமாம் தற்பொழுது அனைவரும் வீட்டுக்குள் முடங்கிவிடுகின்றனர். வெளியில் சோலை, வயல் வெளிகளுக்கு வருவது இல்லை. என் காற்றை அவர்கள் விரும்புவதும் இல்லை.

மின்விசிறி:
உன் காற்றே உடலுக்கு நல்லது. தூய்மையானது. அதை மனிதர்கள் புரிந்து கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

Question 33.
நவீன கவிதையில் வெளிப்படும் நுண்மை உள்ளம், பூத்தொடுக்கும் நாட்டுப்புறப் பாடலில் வெளிப்படுகிறது. ஒப்பிட்டு எழுதுக.
Answer:

நவீன கவிதை:
நவீன கவிதையில் பூவினை இறுக்கி முடித்தல் காம்பு அறுந்துவிடும். அதைத் தளரப் பிணைத்தால் தரையில் நழுவும். வாசலில் மரணம் இருப்பது தெரிந்தும் கவலைப்படாமல் சிரிக்கும் அந்தப் பூவைத் தொடுத்துக் கொண்டு இருக்கின்றனர்.

நாட்டுப்புறப்பாடல்:
நாட்டுப்புறப்பாடலில் இறைவனுக்குப் போடப்போகும் பூவைத் தொடுப்பது எப்படிக் கையால் தொடுத்தால் காம்பு அழுகிப் போகும். விரலால் தொடுத்தால் வெம்பிப் போய்விடும். அதனால் தங்கத் துரட்டி கொண்டு நான் இறைவனுக்கு மாலையாகத் தொடுக்கிறேன்.

ஒப்பிடு :
புதுக்கவிதையில் தொடுக்கும் பூ மரணத்திற்குப் போடப்படுகிறது. ஆனால் நாட்டுப்புறப் பாடலில் தொடுக்கும் பூ இறைவனுக்குப் போடப்படுகிறது. இருவரும் தொடுக்கும் பூ ஒன்றே ஆனால் அது போய் சேர்கின்ற இடம் தான் வெவ்வேறாக இருக்கிறது.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக. (அ) “அருளைப் பெருக்கி” எனத் தொடங்கும் ‘நீதிவெண்பா ‘ பாடல்.
Answer:
அருளைப் பெருக்கி அறிவைத் திருத்தி
மருளை அகற்றி மதிக்கும் தெருளை
அருத்துவதும் ஆவிக்கு அருத்துணையாய் இன்பம்
பொருத்துவதும் கல்வியென்றே போற்று (- கா.ப. செய்குதம்பிப் பாவலர்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “தூசும் துகிரும்” எனத் தொடங்கும் சிலப்பதிகாரப் பாடல்.
Answer:
தூசும் துகிரும் ஆரமும் அகிலும்
மாசுஅறு முத்தும் மணியும் பொன்னும்
அருங்கல வெறுக்கையோடு அளந்துகடை அறியா
வளம்தலை மயங்கிய நனந்தலை மறுகும்;
பால்வகை தெரிந்த பகுதிப் பண்டமொடு
கூலம் குவித்த கூல வீதியும்; (- இளங்கோவடிகள்)

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 35.
‘முயற்சி திருவினை ஆக்கும் முயற்றின்மை
இன்மை புகுத்தி விடும்’ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 36.
பொருள்கோள் என்றால் என்ன? எத்தனை வகைப்படும்?
Answer:

• செய்யுளில் சொற்களைப் பொருளுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு சேர்த்தோ மாற்றியோ பொருள் கொள்ளும் முறைக்குப் பொருள்கோள்’ என்று பெயர்.
• பொருள்கோள் எட்டு வகைப்படும்.
• ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள், மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள், நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள், விற்பூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள், தாப்பிசைப் பொருள்கோள், அளைமறிபாப்புப் பொருள்கோள், கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள், அடிமறிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள் ஆகியன.
• இவற்றுள் ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள், நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள், கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள் ஆகியவற்றை அறிந்து கொள்வோம்.

Quetion 37.
புறத்திணைகளில் எதிரெதிர்த் திணைகளை அட்டவணைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
வெட்சித் திணை :
ஆநிரைகளைக் கவர்ந்துவர வெட்சிப் பூவினைச் சூடிக்கொண்டு செல்வர். எனவே, ஆநிரை கவர்தல் வெட்சித் திணை எனப்பட்டது.

கரந்தைத் திணை :
கவர்ந்து செல்லப்பட்ட தம் ஆநிரைகளை மீட்கச்செல்வர். அப்போது கரந்தைப் பூவைச் சூடிக்கொள்வர்.

(II) வஞ்சித் திணை :
மண்ணாசை காரணமாகப் பகைவர் நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்றக் கருதி வஞ்சிப்பூவைச் சூடிப் போருக்குச் செல்வது வஞ்சித்திணை.

காஞ்சித் திணை :
தன் நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்ற வந்த மாற்றரசனோடு, காஞ்சிப்பூவைச் சூடி எதிர்த்துப் போரிடல்) காஞ்சித்திணை.

(III) நொச்சித்திணை
கோட்டையைக் காத்தல் வேண்டி, உள்ளிருந்தே முற்றுகையிட்ட பகையரசனோடு நொச்சிப்பூவைச் சூ.டி உள்ளிருந்தே போரிடுவது நொச்சித்திணை.

உழிஞைத்திணை
மாற்றரசனின் கோட்டையைக் கைப்பற்ற உழிஞைப் பூவைச் சூடிய தன் வீரர்களுடன் அதனைச்சுற்றிவளைத்தல் உழிஞைத்திணை.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 38.
(அ ) மனோன்மணீயம் சுந்தரனாரின் தமிழ்த்தாய் வாழ்த்துப் பாடலையும்,
பெருஞ்சித்திரனாரின் தமிழ் வாழ்த்தையும் ஒப்பிட்டு மேடைப்பேச்சு ஒன்றை உருவாக்குக.
Answer:
தமிழ்த்தாய் வாழ்த்து:
தமிழ்த்தாயை சுந்தரனார் அவர்கள் தமிழ்த்தாய் வாழ்த்துப் பாடலில், நீரலைகள் எழுந்து ஆர்ப்பரிக்கின்ற கடலைத் தன் ஆடையாய் உடுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ள நிலமாகிய பெண்ணுக்கு அழகிய முகமாகத் திகழ்வது பாரத கண்டம். அம்முகத்திற்கு அழகிய பிறை போன்ற நெற்றியாகத் திகழ்வது. தெற்குப்பகுதி, அந்நெற்றியில் இட்டுக்கொண்ட குங்குமம் போல புகழ் ஒளி வீசித் திகழ்வது திராவிட நாடு. அக்குங்குமத்தின் வாசனையைப் போல் அனைத்துப் பகுதி மக்களும் இன்பம் அடையும்படி எட்டுத் திசைகளிலும் பரவி வாழ்கின்ற தமிழ் என்னும் தெய்வமே தொன்று தொட்டு வாழ்ந்தாய் என்றாலும் உன் பெருவாழ்வு புதுமைக்குப் புதுமையாய் இன்றும் இளமையாய் விளங்குகிறது. தமிழ்த்தாயே உன் பேராற்றலை வியந்து செய்வதறியாது மெய்மறந்து வாழ்த்துகின்றோம் என வாழ்த்துகின்றார்.

பெருஞ்சித்திரனாரின் தமிழ் வாழ்த்து:
அழகாய் அமைந்த செந்தமிழே! அன்னை மொழியே! பழமைக்குப் பழமையாய்த் தோன்றிய நறுங்கனியே! கடல் கொண்ட குமரிக் கண்டத்தில் நிலைத்து அரசாண்ட மண்ணுலகப் பேரரசே பாண்டிய மன்னனின் மகளே ! திருக்குறளின் பெருமைக்குரியவளே! பத்துப்பாட்டே! எட்டுத்தொகையே பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கே! நிலைத்த சிலப்பதிகாரமே! அழகான மணிமேகலையே! பொங்கியெழும் நினைவுகளால் உன்னைத் தலை பணிந்து வாழ்த்துகின்றோம் என பெருஞ்சித்திரனார் தமிழ்த்தாயை வாழ்த்துகின்றார்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) சந்தக் கவிதையில் சிறக்கும் கம்பன் என்ற தலைப்பில் இலக்கிய உரை எழுதுக.
அன்பும் பண்பும் குணச்சித்திரமும் கொண்ட தலைவர் அவர்களே! தேர்ந்தெடுத்த பூக்களைப் போன்று வரிசை தொடுத்து அமர்ந்திருக்கும் ஆன்றோர்களே! அறிஞர் பெருமக்களே! வணக்கம். இயற்கை கொலு வீற்றிருக்கும் காட்சியைப் பெரிய கலைநிகழ்வே நடப்பதான தோற்றமாகக் கம்பன் காட்டும் கவி… தண்டலை மயில்கள் ஆட…. இவ்வுரையைத் தொடர்க!
Answer:
தண்டலை மயில்கள் ஆட
உள்ளதை உணர்ந்தபடி கூறுவது கவிதை கவிஞரின் உலகம் இட எல்லை அற்றது கால எல்லை அற்றது. கவிஞனின் சிந்தைக்குள் உருவாகும் காட்சியைச் சொல்லைக்கொண்டு எழுப்புகிறான். அவன் கண்ட காட்சிகள் அதற்குத் துணைபுரிகின்றன. கேட்ட ஓசைகள் துணைபுரிகின்றன. விழுமியங்கள் துணைபுரிகின்றன. ஒப்புமைகள் துணைபுரிகின்றன. கலையின் உச்சம் பெறுவதுதான் அவன் எல்லையாகிறது. கம்பன் அப்படிப்பட்ட கவிஞன் அதனால்தான் கம்பன் இசைத்த கவியெல்லாம் நான் என்று பாரதி பெருமைப்படுகிறார்.

ஆறு இயற்கையின் தோற்றமாக இல்லாமல் ஓர் ஓவியமாக விரிகிறது. அதை உயிரெனக் காணும் அந்த அழகுணர்ச்சி கவிதையாகி ஓடி நெஞ்சில் நிறைகிறது. கவிதை கவிஞன் மூலம் தன்னையே வெளிப்படுத்திக் கொள்கிறது. அது எப்படி வருகின்றதோ அதை மாற்றினால் அழகு குன்றும் மீண்டும் மீண்டும் மறிதரும் சந்தம் உணர்வுகளை நம்முள் செலுத்துகிறது உள்ளம் சூறையாடப்படுகிறது.

இயற்கை கொலுவீற்றிருக்கும் காட்சியைப் பெரிய கலைநிகழ்வே நடப்பதான தோற்றமாகக் கம்பன்கவி காட்டுகிறது. ஒன்றின் இருப்பால் இன்னொன்று அடையாளப்படுத்தப்படுகிறது என்ற மெய்யியலைக் கொண்டு ஒரு நாட்டின் பெருமையைப் புலப்படுத்தும் கம்பனின் உத்தி போற்றத்தக்கது. இராமனுடைய மாநிற மேனியை வருணிக்கும் கம்பன், மை, மரகதம் என்றெல்லாம் உவமை சொல்லி நிறைவாகச் சொல்ல இயலவில்லை என்பதை ‘ஐயோ’ என்ற சொல்லில் வைப்பதன் வாயிலாக அதை இயன்றதாக்குகிறான். கவிதைகள் மூலம் பெறும் இன்பங்கள் எத்தனையோ! அதில் ஒன்று சந்த இன்பம். பொருள் புரியாவிடிலும் சந்த இன்பம் மகிழ்ச்சியூட்டுகிறது. ஓசை தரும் இன்பம் உவமையிலா இன்பமடா என்று பாரதி சொல்வதை இதில் உணர முடியும். உலக்கையால் மாறி மாறி இடிக்கும் ஒத்த ஓசையில் அமைந்த சந்தம் இடிக்கும் காட்சியைக் கண்முன் எழுப்புகிறது.

இவ்வாறு கம்பன் கவி மனதை விட்டு நீங்காது என்றும் நிறைந்திருக்கும் என்று தன் உரையை முடிக்கிறார்.

Question 39.
(அ) உங்கள் பள்ளியில் பயிலும் மேல்நிலை வேதியியல் மாணவர்களுக்காக சில வேதியியல் இரசாயனப் பொருட்களை மொத்தமாகவும், தள்ளுபடி விலையிலும் வழங்குமாறு விஞ்ஞான கூடத்திற்கு ஒரு விண்ணப்பம் வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்,
தலைமையாசிரியர்,
அரசினர் மேல்நிலைப் பள்ளி,
சூளைமேடு,
சென்னை – 600 013.

பெறுநர்,
தலைமை விஞ்ஞானி,
எம்.எஸ்,விஞ்ஞான கூடம்,
சென்னை – 600 001.

ஐயா,

பொருள்: ஆய்வு கூடத்திற்கு இரசாயனப் பொருள் வாங்குவது – தொடர்பாக வணக்கம். எங்கள் பள்ளியில் பயிலும் மேல்நிலைப் பள்ளி மாணவர்களின் ஆய்வுக்காகச் சில வேதியியல் இரசாயன பொருள்கள் தேவைப்படுகின்றன. அந்தப் பொருட்களைத் தள்ளுபடி விலையில் தருமாறு கேட்டுக் கொள்கிறோம்.

நாங்கள் தங்களுடைய பழைய வாடிக்கையாளர் என்பதாலும், அதிக அளவில் பொருட்களைச் தங்களிடம் வாங்குவதாலும், இராசயனப் பொருட்களை எங்களுக்குச் சிறப்புத் தள்ளுபடி விலையில் வழங்குமாறு கேட்டுக்கொள்கிறேன்.

பொருட்களின் விவரம் கீழே கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

இடம்: சென்னை
தேதி: 20. 4. 2019

இங்ங னம்,
உங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
கவிதா.

உறைமேல் முகவரி

பெறுநர்
தலைமை விஞ்ஞானி ,
எம்.எஸ்,விஞ்ஞான கூடம்,
சென்னை – 600 001.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) விபத்தில் அடிபட்ட உறவினருக்கு ஆறுதல் மடல் எழுதுக.
Answer:

13. காந்தி சாலை,
சென்னை – 04.

அன்புள்ள மாமா அவர்களுக்கு,

வணக்கம். இங்கு யாவரும் நலம். ஆண்டவனருளால் உங்கள் உடல் நலம் சீர்பெற்று வருவது குறித்து மிக்க மகிழ்ச்சி. தாங்கள் இரண்டு சக்கர வாகனத்தில் அலுவலகம் செல்லும்பொழுது பேருந்து மோதியதில் ஏற்பட்ட விபத்து குறித்து அறிந்ததும் பதறிவிட்டேன். தாங்கள் மருத்துவமனையில் சிகிச்சை பெற்று வீடு திரும்பிய பின்னரே அலுவலகம் செல்லுங்கள். தேர்வு முடிந்து விடுமுறை வரும் பொழுது உங்களை நேரில் வந்து சந்திக்கின்றேன். தாங்களைக் காண முடியாதது வேதனையைத் தருகிறது என்றாலும், தேர்வு கருதி படிப்பில் ஈடுபடுகின்றேன். உடல்நிலையைக் கவனமாகப் பார்த்துக் கொள்ளவும்.

இப்படிக்கு,
தங்கள் அன்பு மருமகன்,
சு. சுந்தர்.

உறைமேல் முகவரி:
பெறுநர்
ச.கண்ண ன்,
30, சண்முகம் தெரு,
மதுரை – 10.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற எழுதுக.
Answer:
விடை:
மரம் வளர்ப்போம்
மழை பெறுவோம்
நெகிழி தவிர்த்தால் சுத்தமான காற்றையும் பெறலாம்
ஆரோக்கியமான மண்ணையும் பெறலாம்.

Question 41.
விண்ணப்பப் படிவத்தை நிரப்புக.
Answer:

Question 42.
(அ) தொலைக்காட்சி நிகழ்வுகளையே பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருக்கும் தம்பி; திறன்
பேசியிலேயே விளையாடிக்கொண்டிருக்கும் தங்கை; காணொலி விளையாட்டுகளில் மூழ்கியிருக்கும் தோழன்; எப்போதும் சமூக ஊடகங்களில் இயங்கியபடி இருக்கும் தோழி. இவர்கள் எந்நேரமும் நடப்புலகில் இருக்காமல் கற்பனை உலகில் மிதப்பவர்களாக இருக்கிறார்கள்! இவர்களை நெறிப்படுத்தி நடைமுறை உலகில் செயல்படவைக்க நீங்கள் செய்யும் முயற்சிகளைப் பட்டியல் இடுக.
Answer:

• எந்நேரமும் தொலைக்காட்சியில் மூழ்கியிருக்கும் தோழனுக்கு விளையாட்டில் ஆர்வத்தை ஏற்படுத்துவேன்.
• திறன்பேசியில் விளையாடும் தங்கைக்குப் புத்தகத்தைப் படிக்கும் ஆர்வத்தை ஏற்படுத்துவேன்.
• தொலைக்காட்சியில் நிகழ்வுகளையே பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருக்கும் தம்பியை இயற்கை அழகினை ரசிக்க வைப்பேன்.
• ஒருவரோடு ஒருவர் பேசி மகிழவேண்டும் என்பதை வலியுறுத்துவேன்.

(அல்லது)

மொழிபெயர்க்க.
Koothu
Therukoothu is, as its name indicates, a popular form of theatre performed in the streets. It is performed by rural artists. The stories are derived from epics like Ramayana, Mahabharatha and other ancient puranas. There are more songs in the play with dialogues improvised by the artists on the spot. Fifteen to twenty actors with a small orchestra forms a koothu troupe. Though the orchestra has a singer, the artists sing in their own voices. Artists dress themselves with heavy costumes and bright makeup. Koothus is very popular among rural areas.
Answer:
விடை:
தெருக்கூத்து
தெருக்கூத்து என்பது பெயரைப் போலவே தெருக்களில் நடைபெறும் புகழ் பெற்ற கூத்தாகும். இது நாட்டுப்புறக் கலைஞர்களால் அரங்கேற்றப்படுகிறது. இதன் கதைகள் இதிகாசமாகிய இராமாயணம், மஹாபாரதம் மற்றும் புராணங்களைத் தழுவியது. இதில் மிகையாக பாடல்கள் இடம் பெறுதலும் கதை விமர்சனங்கள் கூத்தாடிகள் உடனுக்குடன் தானே முன்முயற்சியின்றி உரைப்பவையாக இருக்கும். தெருக்கூத்து 15 முதல் 20 கூத்தாடிகளுடன் கூடிய இசைக்குழுவினருடன் கூடியது ஆகும். இசைக் குழுவினரிடம் பாடகர் இருப்பினும் தெருக்கூத்தாடிகள் தானே முனைந்து பாடுவார்கள். தெருக்கூத்தாடிகள் அபார ஆடை அலங்காரமும் பளிச்சென்ற தோற்றத்துடனும் காணப்படுவர். தெருக்கூத்து நாட்டுப்புறங்களில் பிரசித்தி பெற்றதாகும்.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள் : 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 × 8 = 24]

Question 43.
(அ) தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
கால வெள்ளத்தில் கரைந்துபோன மொழிகளுக்கிடையில் நீந்தி தன்னை நிலை நிறுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ளது தமிழ். சொல்வளம் இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொது என்றாலும் தமிழ் மட்டுமே அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும். தமிழின் சொல் வளத்தை நாம் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.

தமிழின் சொல் வளம்:
ஆங்கிலம் போன்ற மொழிகளில் இலையைக் குறிக்க ஒரே ஒரு சொல் மட்டுமே உள்ளது. ஆனால் தமிழ்மக்கள் இலையை அதன் வன்மை, மென்மை, இவற்றைக் கொண்டு இலை, தோகை, ஓலை என பாகுபாடு செய்துள்ளனர். இதுமட்டுமன்றி தாவரங்கள், மணிவகை, இளம்பயிர்வகை, காய்கனி வகை, அடி, கிளை கொழுந்து என அனைத்து உறுப்புகளுக்கும் சொற்களைப் பகுத்து வைத்துள்ளனர்.

பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள்:
அரும்பு: பூவின் தோற்றநிலை போது, பூ விரியத் தொடங்கும் நிலை மலர், பூவின் மலர்ந்த நிலை, வீ: மரம், செடியிலிருந்து பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலை செம்மல், பூ வாடின நிலை

தமிழின் பொருள் வளம்:
தமிழ்நாடு எத்துணைப் பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பது அதன் வினைபொருள் வகைகளை நோக்கினாலே விளங்கும். தமிழ் நாட்டு நெல்லில் செந்நெல் வெண்ணெல், கார்நெல் என்றும், சம்பா, மட்டை, கார் என்றும் பல வகைகள் உள்ளன. அவற்றில் சம்பாவில் மட்டும் ஆவிரம் பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டு சம்பா, குதிரை வாலிச்சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது உள் வகைகள் உள்ளன. இவற்றோடு வரகு, காடைக்கண்ணி குதிரைவாலி முதலிய சிறு கூலங்கள் தமிழ் நாட்டிலன்றி வேறெங்கும் விளைவதில்லை.

முடிவுரை:
பண்டைத் தமிழ் மக்கள் தனிப்பெரும் நாகரிகத்தை உடையவராக இருந்திருக்கின்றனர். ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கு உதவுவது மொழியேயாகும். ஆகவே “நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்” என்ற கூற்றின்படி பொருட்களைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பொருட் சொற்களை அமைத்துக் கொள்வது நம் தலையாய கடமையாகும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) நெகிழிப் பைகளின் தீமையைக் கூறும் பொம்மலாட்டம் உங்கள் பள்ளியின் ஆண்டு விழாவில் நிகழ்த்தப்படுகிறது. அதற்குப் பாராட்டுரை ஒன்றினை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம். பொம்மலாட்டம் என்பது மக்கள் விரும்பி பார்க்கும் ஒரு வகை கூத்துக் கலையாகும்.
• பார்ப்பவரின் கண்ணையும் கருத்தையும் மனதையும் ஒரே நேரத்தில் ஆட்கொள்ளக்
  கூடியதாக இருக்கிறது.
• நெகிழிப்பைகளின் வரவால் மக்கள் எவ்வாறு அவதிப்படுகின்றனர் என்பதை இந்த பொம்மலாட்டம் மூலம் மாணவர்களுக்குப் புரியும் வகையில் மிக எளிமையாக விளக்கினார்கள். பொம்மலாட்டத்தைத் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து என்றும் அழைப்பர்.
• தோலில் செய்தவெட்டு வரைபடங்களை விளக்கின் ஒளி ஊடுருவும் திரைச்சீலையில் பொருத்தி, கதைக்கேற்ப மேலும் கீழும் பக்கவாட்டிலும் அசைத்துக்காட்டி உரையாடியும் பாடியும் காட்டுவது தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து.
• தோலால் ஆன பாவையைக் கொண்டு நிகழ்த்தும் கலையாதலால் தோற்பாவை என்னும்
  பெயர் பெற்றது.
• இசை, ஓவியம், நடனம், நாடகம், பலகுரலில் பேசுதல் ஆகியவை இணைந்துள்ளன.
• கூத்து நிகழ்த்தும் திரைச் சீலையின் நீளம், அகலம் ஆகியன பாவையின் அமைப்பையும் எண்ணிக்கையையும் பொறுத்து வேறுபடுகின்றன.
• இந்நிகழ்ச்சியில் பாவையின் அசைவு உரையாடல் இசை ஆகியனவற்றோடு ஒளியும் முதன்மை பெறுகின்றது.
• பாவை குறித்த செய்திகள் சங்ககாலம் முதல் பதினெட்டாம் நூற்றாண்டுவரையான தமிழ் இலக்கியங்களில் காணப்படுகின்றன.
• • திருக்குறளில் பரப்பாவையைப் பற்றி குறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ளது. திருவாசகத்திலும் பட்டினத்தார் பாடலிலும் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து விளங்குகிறது.
• தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து கையுறைப் பாவைக் கூத்து. பொம்மலாட்டம் என்பனவாகவும் மாற்றம் பெற்றுள்ளது.
• நெகிழி அல்லது பிளாஸ்டிக் என்பது ஒரு பொருள்.
• ஏதாவது ஒரு நிலையில் இளகிய நிலையில் இருந்து பின்னர் இறுதி திட நிலையை அடைவதைக் குறிக்கும் சொல் ஆகும்.
• பொருள் மண்ணுக்குள் சென்றால் சீக்கிரம் மக்காமல் அப்படியே இருந்து விடுகிறது.
• அதனால் மரங்களில் வேர்களுக்கு ஆக்சிஜன் கிடைக்கக் கடினமாக இருக்கிறது.
• எந்த ஒரு பொருள் பூமியில் மக்கவில்லையோ அது மனித இனத்திற்கே பேராபத்து என்பதை இந்தப் பொம்மலாட்டம் மூலமாக மாணவர்களுக்கு மிக எளிதாகச் சென்று சேர்ந்தது.
• பொம்மலாட்டம் கலைஞர் அனைவருக்கும் பாராட்டுகளைத் தெரிவித்துக் கொள்கிறோம்.

Question 44.
(அ) இராமானுசர் நாடகக் கதையைச் சுருக்கி எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
நாளுக்கு ஒருமுறை மலர்வது சண்பகம். ஆண்டுக்கு ஒருமுறை மலர்வது பிரம்ம கமலம். பன்னிரண்டு ஆண்டுக்கு ஒரு முறை மலர்வது குறிஞ்சி. நம் தலைமுறைக்கு ஒரு முறை பிறப்பவர்கள் ஞானிகள். அவர்களுள் இராமானுசர் பற்றி இக்கட்டுரையில் காண்போம்.

தண்டு, கொடியுடன் பூரணர் இல்லம் அடைதல் :
திருமந்திரத் திருவருள் பெறத் தண்டும், கொடியுமாக இராமானுசரை வரச் சொல்லுங்கள் என்னும் செய்தி, பூரணரால் திருவரங்கத்திற்கு அனுப்பப்பட்டதன் அடிப்படையிலேயே இராமானுசர் – கூரேசர் முதலியாண்டான் ஆகியோர் பூரணர் இல்லத்திற்கு வந்தனர். சுவாமிகளே ! வணக்கம்! தங்கள் கட்டளைப்படி புனித திருமந்திரத் திருவருளுக்காக வந்துள்ளோம் என கூரேசர் பூரணரிடம் கூறினார். தண்டு; கொடியுடன் உங்களைத்தானே வரச் சொன்னேன் பிறகெதற்குத் தாங்கள் உறவுகளை உடன் அழைத்து வந்துள்ளீர்கள் என பூரணர், இராமானுசரிடம் கேட்டார். அதற்கு சுவாமிகள் என்மேல் கோபம் கொள்ளக் கூடாது. தங்கள் விருப்பப்படியேதான் வந்துள்ளேன். தாங்கள் கூறிய தண்டு, கொடிக்கு இணையானவர்கள் இவர்கள். எனவே அடியவர்களாகிய எங்கள் மேல் கோபம் கொள்ளாது பரிவு கொண்டு திருவருள் புரிய வேண்டும் என்று இராமானுசர் கூறினார். உடனே பூரணர் இவர்களை நீங்கள் தண்டு, கொடி எனக் கூறியதால் உங்கள் மூவருக்குமாகத் திருமந்திரத்தைக் கூறுகிறேன் என்றார்.

பூரணர் கட்டளை:
பூரணர் மூவரையும் வீட்டிற்குள் அழைத்து நான் கூறுவதை நன்றாகக் கவனியுங்கள். நான் கூறப் போகின்ற திருமந்திர மறைபொருள்கள் உங்கள் மூவருக்கு மட்டுமே தெரிய வேண்டும். வேறு யாரிடமாவது இதை நீங்கள் கூறுவீர்கள் எனில், அது ஆசிரியர் கட்டளையை மீறியதாகும். அப்படி நடந்தால் அதற்குத் தண்டனையாக நரகமே கிட்டும். ஆச்சாரிய நியமத்தை மீறிய பாவிகளாக நீங்கள் மாற மாட்டீர்கள் என்னும் நம்பிக்கையுடன் திருமந்திரத்தைக் கூறுகிறேன் என்று கூறி பின்னர், ‘திருமகளுடன் கூடிய நாராயணனின் திருப்பாதங்களைப் புகலிடமாகக் கொள்கிறேன். திருவுடன் சேர்ந்த நாராயணனை வணங்குகிறேன்’ என்ற திருமந்திரத்தை பூரணர் கூற மூவரும் மூன்று முறை உரக்கச் சொன்னார்கள். ஆண்டவனின் அடியவர்களாகிய எங்களுக்கு திருவருள் கொண்டு திருமந்திரம் கூறியமைக்கு மிக்க நன்றி என்று கூறி விடைப்பெற்றனர்.

பொதுமக்களுக்கு மந்திரத்தை கூறுதல்:
திருக்கோட்டியூர் சௌம்ய நாராயணன் திருக்கோவிலின் மதில் சுவரின் மேல் இராமானுசர் நின்று கொண்டு, கீழே பொதுமக்களுடன் கூரேசரும், முதலியாண்டானும் நின்றுக் கொண்டு உரத்த குரலில் பக்தியால் முக்திக்கு வழிகாணத் துடிப்பவர்களே! அருகில் வாருங்கள் அனைவரும். இன்னும் அருகில் வாருங்கள் கிடைப்பதற்கரிய பிறவிப்பிணியைத் தீர்க்கும் அருமருந்தான திருமந்திரத்தை உங்களுக்குக் கூறுகிறேன். அனைவரும் இணைந்து மந்திரத்தைச் சொல்லுங்கள் என இராமானுசர் பொதுமக்களிடம் கூறினார். இராமானுசருடன் சேர்ந்து அனைவரும் மூன்று முறை கூறுகின்றனர்.

கோபம் கொண்ட பூரணர்:
பூரணரின் வார்த்தையை மீறியதற்காக கோபம் கொண்ட பூரணரிடம், இராமானுசர் மன்னிப்பு கேட்டார். ஞான குருவே ! முதலில் எம்மை மன்னித்தருளுங்கள். நாங்கள் செய்த இரண்டகத்திற்குக் கொடிய தண்டனையான நரகமே கிட்டும் என்பதை நான் மறக்கவில்லை என இராமானுசர் பூரணரிடம் கூறினார்.

பூரணருக்கு இராமானுசர் அளித்த விளக்கம்:
கிடைப்பதற்கரிய மந்திரத்தைக் தங்களின் திருவருளால் நான் பெற்றேன். அதன் பயன் எனக்கு மட்டுமே கிட்டும். அந்த அருமந்திரத்தை அனைவருக்கும் கூறினால், உழன்று பேதை வாழ்வு வாழ்ந்து வரும் பல்லாயிரக்கணக்கான மக்கள் தங்களின் பிறவிப்பிணி நீங்கி பேறு பெறுவார்கள். இதனால் நான் மட்டுமே தண்டனை கிடைக்கப்பெற்று நரகத்தைச் சேர்வேன். ஆனால் என் மக்கள் அனைவர்க்கும் நலம் கிட்டும். எல்லாரும் நலமுடன் வாழ்வார்கள் என இராமானுசர் விளக்கமளித்தார்.

இராமானுசருக்கு பூரணர் ஆசி வழங்குதல்:
இராமானுசரிடம் பூரணர் உங்களுக்கு இருந்த பரந்த அருள் உள்ளம் இதுவரை எனக்கு இல்லாமல் போனதே என்று கூறி அவரை மன்னித்து ஆசி வழங்கி, என் மகன் சௌம்ய நாராயணனைத் தங்களிடம் அடைக்கலமாக அளிக்கிறேன் என்றார்.

இராமானுசர் விடை பெற்று செல்லுதல் :
பூரணரிடம், இராமானுசர் முன்பு கிடைப்பதற்கரிய திருமந்திரத்தை எமக்களித்தீர்கள். இன்றோ உங்களின் அன்புத் திருமகனையும் எமக்களித்துள்ளீர்கள். நான் பெரும் பேறு பெற்றவன் ஆகிவிட்டேன். மிக்க மகிழ்ச்சி விடை தாருங்கள்! புறப்படுகிறோம் என்று கூறி விடைப் பெற்றார்.

முடிவுரை:
இராமானுசர் புனித திருமந்திரத் திருவருள் தனக்கு மட்டுமே கிடைத்தால் தான் ஒருவனுக்கு மட்டுமே என்ன பயன் எனக் கருதி எளிய மக்களுக்கும் திருமந்திரத்தைக் கூறி பிறவிப்பிணியை நீக்கியவர்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ ) ‘பாய்ச்சல்’ துணைப்பாடப் பகுதியின் கதையைச் சுருக்கி எழுதுக. முன்னுரை:
உண்மைக் கலைஞன் தன் கலையில் முழு ஈடுபாட்டைக் காட்டுவான். கலை நிகழ்வின் ஊடாக அவன் பெருமிதம், வெளிப்பட்டுக் கொண்டே இருக்கும். தன்னொத்த கலைஞர்களிடமிருந்து வேறுபட்டுத் தமக்கெனத் தனித் தன்மைகளைக் காட்டுவான்.

அழகு கண்ட காட்சி :
அழகு, தலையை நீட்டிப் பார்த்தான். இவனையொத்த சிறுவர்கள் புழுதி பறக்க ஓடிக்கொண்டு இருந்தார்கள். நாதசுரமும், மேளமும் ஒன்றாக இழைந்து ஒலித்தது. இவன் குனிந்து பார்த்தான். இரண்டு கால்கள் மின்னல் வெட்டி மறைவது போலத் துள்ளிப் பாய்ந்து சென்றன. அந்தக் கால்கள் மனிதக் கால்களிலிருந்து மாறுபட்டு இருப்பதைக் கண்டான்.

அனுமார் காட்சி :
அனுமார் வலது காலையும், இடது காலையும் மாறி மாறித் தரையில் உதைத்து வேகமாகக் கைகளை வீசி நடக்க ஆரம்பித்தார். சதங்கையும், மேளமும், நாதசுரமும் ஒன்றாக இழைந்தன. அனுமார் தாவிக் குதித்துக் குறுக்கும் நெடுக்குமாகப் பாய்ந்து சென்றார். நீண்ட வால் மேலே சுழன்று சரேலென்று தரையில் படர்ந்து புழுதியைக் கிளப்பியது.

திடீரென்று மேளமும், நாதசுரமும் துரித கதியில் ஒலிக்கத் தொடங்கின. பெருங்குரல் எழுப்பியபடி அனுமார் பந்தல் கால் வழியாகக் கீழே குதித்தார். அனுமார் வாலில் பெரிய தீப்பந்தம். ஜ்வாலை புகைவிட்டுக் கொண்டு எரிந்தது. அழகு அவர்கள் அருகில் சென்றான். அருகில் அழகு சென்றதும் வாலைக் கொடுத்துவிட்டுக் கைகளை நன்றாக உதறியவாறு ‘ஓம் பேரு’ என்றான்.

அனுமார் பாய்ச்சல்:
அனுமார் இன்னொரு பாய்ச்சல் பாய்ந்து வேகமாக ஆட ஆரம்பித்தார். வர வர ஆட்டம் துரிதகதிக்குச் சென்றது. பதுங்கியும் பாய்ந்தும் ஆடினார். ஆட ஆட, புழுதி புகைபோல் எழுந்தது. கழுத்துமணி அறுந்து கீழே விழுந்தது. ஒன்றையும் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் ஆட்டத்தில் தன்னை இழந்தவராக ஆடினார்.

அழகின் அனுமார் ஆட்டம் :
அழகு எழுந்து தரையில் கிடந்த வாலை இடுப்பில் கட்டிக் கொண்டு சதங்கையை எடுத்தான். கையிலிருந்த சதங்கை கீழே நழுவ அச்சத்தோடு அனுமாரைப் பார்த்தான். காலில் சதங்கையைச் சுற்றிக்கொண்டு அனுமார் மூஞ்சியை எடுத்து மாட்டிக்கொண்டு தான் கண்டதையெல்லாம் மறுபடியும் மனதில் இருத்தி ஆட்டத்தை ஆட ஆரம்பித்தான். முதலில் மரத்தில் இருந்து கீழே குதிக்கும் ஆட்டத்தை ஆடினான். இவன் ஆட்டம் தாளகதிக்கு மிகவும் இணங்கி வருவது அனுமாருக்கு மகிழ்ச்சி அளித்தது. அழகு சாய வேட்டியை வாலின் நுனியில் சுற்றி நெருப்பு வைத்தான். வாயால் ஊதி நெருப்பைக் கனிய வைத்துப் பெரிதாகக் கத்திக்கொண்டு அனுமாரை நோக்கிப் பாய்ந்தான். மாறாத புன்னகையோடு துள்ளித் துள்ளி கையும் காலும் குழைந்து நெளிய ஆடினான். அனுமார் அவனை உற்றுப் பார்த்தார். மனம் தன்னிலை இழந்தது.

முடிவுரை:
இக்கலைஞனின் கலை ஈடுபாட்டில் அவனுக்கு வயதோ உடற்சோர்வோ, பாதிப்பை ஏற்படுத்துவதில்லை. தன் கலையைப் பின்பற்ற தகுந்த வாரிசு உருவாகிறபோது அவன் கொள்கிற மகிழ்ச்சியும், பெருமிதமும் அளப்பரியது.

Question 45.
(அ) உங்கள் பகுதியில் நடைபெற்ற அரசுப் பொருட்காட்சிக்குச் சென்று வந்த நிகழ்வைக் கட்டுரையாக்குக.
Answer:
பொருட்காட்சி
முன்னுரை:
விடுமுறை தினத்தைச் சிறந்த முறையில் செலவழிப்பதற்காக நடைபெறும் பொருட்காட்சிகள் மக்களின் மனதையும் கருத்தினையும் கவரும் வகையில் அமைதல் வேண்டும். 14.1.2019 அன்று தமிழக முதல்வர் சுற்றுலா வர்த்தகப் பொருட்காட்சியைத் திறந்து வைத்தார்கள். அனைவரும் சென்று கண்டுகளித்தோம்.

கண்ணை கவரும் மாதிரிகள்:
பிற்காலச் சோழ மன்னர்களில் சிறந்து விளங்கிய இராசராச சோழன் தஞ்சையில் எழுப்பிய வியத்தகு பெரிய கோயிலின் மாதிரி பொருட்காட்சியின் வாயிலில் அமைத்திருந்தார்கள். அது காண்போர் கண்ணைக் கவர்ந்து இழுத்தது.

கலை பண்பாட்டு அரங்குகள்:
பொருட்காட்சியின் உள்ளே இந்திய மாநிலங்கள் ஒவ்வொன்றும் தங்கள் மாநிலத்தின் கலை, பண்பாடு, நாகரிகம் முதலியவைப் பற்றி விளக்கும் அரங்கங்கள் நம்மை வரவேற்கின்றன. குழந்தைகளுக்காகச் சிறுவர் உலகம் வரவேற்கிறது. அதன் உள்ளே ரயில் வண்டி மிகப்பெரிய இராட்டினம் ஆகியவை உள்ளன.

குழந்தைகளுக்கான அரங்குகள்:
விளையாட்டுப் போட்டிகளும், மாயாஜாலங்களும், இழுவைப் பாலமும் துப்பறியும் நாய்களின் . வியத்தகு செயல்களும், கோளரங்கமும் அறிவியல் வளர்ச்சியை விளக்கும்.

அறிவியல் கூடங்கள்:
அறிவியல் வேளாண்மையில் நமது முன்னேற்றத்தை விளக்கும் அரங்கமும் அதில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ள காய் கனி வகைகளும் இழுவைப்பாலமும் போக்குவரத்துத் துறையில் நமது முன்னேற்றத்தை விளக்கும் மாதிரிகள் அடங்கிய அரங்கமும் விடுதலைக்குப் பிறகு நம் நாட்டின் முன்னேற்றத்தை விளக்கும் அரங்கமும் செயல்படுகிறது.

அங்காடி வீதிகள்:
வீட்டின் அன்றாடத் தேவைகளுக்கு உதவக்கூடிய பொருள்களை விற்கும் அங்காடிகளும் சிற்றுண்டி விடுதிகளும் நிறைந்து நம்மை மெய்மறக்கச் செய்கின்றன.

முடிவுரை:
குழந்தைகள் முதல் பெரியவர்கள் வரை அனைவருக்கும் பயன்படும் வகையில் பொருட்காட்சி அமைந்திருந்தது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – வீரபாண்டிய கட்டபொம்மன் – மருது சகோதரர்கள் சரணைடதல் – வீரமங்கை வேலுநாச்சியார் – தேசியக் கவி பாரதியார் – திருப்பூர்க் குமரன் – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
விடுதலைப் போராட்டத்தில் தமிழர்கள்
முன்னுரை:
சும்மா கிடைக்கவில்லை சுதந்திரம். எத்தனை கண்ணீர்களின் கதை இது. இன்று நீ சிந்தும் புன்னகை ஒவ்வொன்றிற்கும் கொடுத்த விலை எத்தனையோ?

“தண்ணீர் விட்டோ வளர்த்தோம் சர்வேசா
இப்பயிரைக் கண்ணீரால் காத்தோம் கருகத்திருவுளமோ” (- எனும்)

பாடலைப்போல தியாகிகள் செய்த தியாகங்கள் எத்தனையோ, ஆண், பெண் வேறுபாடின்றி அன்னியனை விரட்டிய கதைகள் எத்தனையோ.

வீரபாண்டிய கட்டபொம்மன்:
அன்னியர் எண்ணங்களை எல்லாம் சின்னாபின்னமாக்கிய முன்னோடியாகக் கருதப்படுபவர் வீரபாண்டிய கட்டபொம்மனே (1760 – 99) ஆவார். பாஞ்சாலாங்குறிச்சியின் சரித்திரப் புதல்வனாய் ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு வட்டி கொடுக்க மறுத்து இராமநாதபுரம் பாளையக்காரர்களுடன் இணைந்து

ஆங்கிலேயன் மேல் போர் தொடுத்ததை நாடறியும். போரில் பின்னடைவு ஏற்பட்டாலும், புதுக்கோட்டையில் அடைக்கலமானபோது விஜயரகுநாத தொண்டைமானால் காட்டிக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டவர். இறுதிவரை வணங்காமுடியாய் இருந்தவர், கயத்தாற்றில் கயிற்றினுக்கு இரையானபோதும், இம்மண்ணினை நோக்கியபடியே இறந்திட வேண்டுமென்று முகத்திற்கு திரை இடாதவன் என கட்டபொம்மனின் பெருமையைச் சொல்லிக் கொண்டே போகலாம்.

மருது சகோதரர்கள் சரணடைதல்:
18-ஆம் நூற்றாண்டில் நெல்லை மாவட்டத்தில் நெற்கட்டும் செவலில் குறுநில மன்னனாக 1714ல் பிறந்த பூலித்தேவனும், உயிர்போயினும் ஒரு நெல் மணிகூட வரியாகத் தர இயலாது என மறுத்து போர்க்கொடி தூக்கியவன். பாளையக்காரர் துணையுடன் 17 ஆண்டுகள் போரிட்டு இறுதியில் 1764ல் வீரமரணம் அடைந்தார்.

சிவகங்கையை ஆண்ட மருது சகோதரர்கள் தங்களுடைய உள் விவகாரங்களில் ஆங்கிலேயர் தலையிடுவதை எதிர்த்தனர். இவர்கள் போர் தொடுக்குமுன் ஆங்கிலேயர் தலையிடுவதை எதிர்த்தனர். இவர்கள் போர் தொடுக்குமுன் ஆங்கிலேயர் சிவகங்கையை 1801ல் தாக்கினார்கள். நான்கு மாதங்கள் போர் நடந்தது. மருது சகோதரர்கள் தலைமறைவாயினர். அவர்களைப் பிடித்திட அன்னியருக்கு இயலவில்லை. “பாண்டியனே, நீ வெளிவரவில்லையானால் நீ கட்டிய காளையர் கோவில் இடித்து தரைமட்டமாக்கப்படும்” எனக் கூறியதால் மருது சகோதரர்கள் தாமாகவே முன்வந்து சரணடைந்தபோது தூக்கிலிடப்பட்டனர்.

வீரமங்கை வேலுநாச்சியார்:
வடக்கே ஜான்சி ராணிக்கு ஈடாக தமிழ் மண்ணிற்கு 18-ஆம் நூற்றாண்டைச் சார்ந்த வீரமங்கை வேலு நாச்சியாரைச் சொல்லலாம். சிவகங்கைச் சீமையை ஆண்ட முத்துவடுகநாதருக்கு துணையாக வாளேந்திப் போர் புரிந்தார். கர்னல் ஸ்மித்துடன் செய்த போர் குறிப்பிடத்தக்கது. இறுதியில் இம்மண்ணிற்காக உயிர் துறந்தார்.

தஞ்சைத் தமிழ் மகளாகிய தில்லையாடி வள்ளியம்மை தென்னாப்பிரிக்காவில் பிறந்தாலும் தம் பதினாறு வயதினிலே போராட்டத்தில் உயிர் நீத்தார். கறுப்பர் – வெள்ளையர் போராட்டத்தில் வெள்ளையன் ஒருவன் காந்தியைச் சுட முயன்ற போது தன்னைச் சுடுமாறு வீர முழக்கமிட்டார். 16 வயதான அவர் பலரும் வியக்கும் வண்ணம் போராடினார். காந்தியுடன் சிறை சென்றார். சிறையினில் நோய் ஏற்பட்டு 1914ல் இன்னுயிர் நீத்தார்.

தேசியக் கவி பாரதியார்:
தமிழ் வளர்த்து சுதந்திரக் கனல் வளர்த்த எட்டையபுரக்கவி,

“ஒன்றுபட்டால் உண்டு வாழ்வு – நம்மில்
ஒற்றுமை நீங்கில் அனைவர்க்கும் தாழ்வு” (- என )

மொழிந்து 30 கோடி மக்களை ஒன்றாக்கிய பாரதியாரைத் ‘தேசியக் கவி’ என்று அழைப்பதைவிட வேறு எங்ஙனம் அழைப்பதுவோ! சுதேசமித்திரன், இந்தியா போன்ற நாளிதழ்களில் பணியாற்றி மக்களிடையே விடுதலை உணர்வை வளர்த்தார். சிறைவாசங்கள் அவரை சினப்படுத்தியதே அல்லாமல் சாந்தப்படுத்தவில்லை. தம் உணர்வுகளை எல்லாம் பாலாக கிண்ணத்தில் வழங்கிய கவி தன் 39வது வயதில் கோயில் யானை தாக்கியதால் காயம் ஏற்பட்டு இறந்தார்.

திருப்பூர்க் குமரன்:
அறப்போராட்டத்தில் நமது துணிவு கண்டுதான் ஆங்கிலேயன் அச்சம் கொண்டான். அத்துணிவிற்கு ஓர் எடுத்துக்காட்டுதான் கொடிகாத்த குமரன். திருப்பூர் அவரது பிறப்பிடமாகும். காந்தியடிகள் கைதானதை (1932) எதிர்த்து திருப்பூரில் தொண்டர் படைக்குத் தலைமை தாங்கிச்.

செல்லும்போது ஆங்கிலேயர் எடுத்த எடுப்பிலேயே தடியால் தாக்கினர். தலையில் பலத்த அடி. இரத்தம் பெருகலாயிற்று. குமரன் மனம் தளராது கொடியினைப் பிடித்து நின்றார். மயக்கம் வரும்போதும் கொடியைத் தவறவிடவில்லை. மருத்துவமனைக்குக் கொண்டு சென்று சிகிச்சையளித்தும் பயனில்லாமல் உயிர் நீத்தார்.

அன்று கொடியின் துணி மண்ணிடை வீழாமல் பறந்தது. இன்றோ திருப்பூர் நகரின் துணி எங்கும் பறக்கின்றது, வியாபாரத்தில்தான்!

முடிவுரை:
பெறுவதற்குரிய சுதந்திரத்தைப் பெற்றுவிட்டு, இரவில் வாங்கினோம், இன்னும் விடியவில்லை’ என்று முழக்கமிட்டால் யாது பயனுமில்லை.
மலர் வேண்டுமானால் முட்களை ஏற்றுக்கொள்,
பகல் வேண்டுமானால் இரவு முடியும் வரை பொறுத்துக்கொள்,
தியாகிகளின்மேல் அன்பிருந்தால் நினைவுச் சின்னங்களை
எழுப்பிக் கொள்.
நாடு முன்னேற வேண்டுமானால்
உழைக்கும் தன்மையை வளர்த்துக்கொள். கடந்து வந்த
பாதையைப் புரிந்துகொள்.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 3.
Who was the first director of Whanpoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-shek

Question 4.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 5.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Lucknow

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is …………………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira point

Question 7.
We wear cotton during …………………..
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 8.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 9.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76°18’Eto 80°20’W
(c) 86° 18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86° 18’E to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E

Question 10.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 11.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 12.
Non-military issues are …………………..
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 14.
India is ………………….. large producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 2nd
Answer:
(d) 2nd

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:

• Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer. He advocated for inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
• He founded the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and Decean Education society.

Question 16.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 17.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
Among the 72 Palayakkarars, there were two blocks namely the eastern and the western Palayams. ‘

• The eastern Palayams were – Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and Panchalam Kurichi.
• The western Palayams were – Uttrumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti and Seithur.

Question 18.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
1. In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

2. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers.

3. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 19.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon Wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means
  ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another
  six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 20.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”.

Question 21.
Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including thorough reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 22.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

• The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State Executive. The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the Governor.
• He directly rules a State when there is the imposition of the President’s rule in the State. He is an integral part of the State legislative.

Question 23.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

• A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
• This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 24.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
1. TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many forms of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

2. TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 25.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:

• As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector.
• There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land.
• Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversify away from agriculture.

Question 26.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
1. During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issue “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy.

2. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coast line and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

3. The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up.

4.  A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

Question 27.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 : It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.
TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970 :
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.
TIDCO: (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965 :
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 28.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Purachi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
• National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
• General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
• Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
• Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
• Mid-Day Meal Programme

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:
(i) ………………was known as the “Father of modem China”.
(ii) ………………soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice………………
(iv) ………………play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.
(v) ………………is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
Answers
(i) Dr. Sun-yat-sen
(ii) Laterite
(iii) Disarmament
(iv) Consumer co-operatives
(v) Chennai International Airport

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry
(ii) Roadways and Railways
Answer:
(a) (i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry:
Agro based industry :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their basic raw materials
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, Jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral based industry :

1. Minerals based industries use both metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry, of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coalfields or iron ore mines.

(ii) Roadways and Railways:
Roadways:

1. Roadways are cost efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport.
2. They link different part of our country.
3. They are used by all sections of the people.
4. Construction of roads is less expensive.
5. The roads are classified into village roads, District Roads, State Highways, National Highways, Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Express Ways, Broad roads and International Highways.

Railways:

1. Indian Railways provide the principal mode of transport for freight and passengers.
2. It brings people from the farthest comers of our country.
3. They promote trade, tourism, education and national integrations.
4. Construction of railway is highly expensive.
5. Railway lines are classified into three categories namely, Broad gauge, Meter gauge and Narrow gauge.

(b) Give reason: Karur is called the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre. The city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles.
It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 33.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

• There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
• The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
• Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
• In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by
• Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
• The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

Question 34.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
1. Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants.

2. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices.

3. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective. The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively.

4. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.

5. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to
  each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development. ‘
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities. ‘
• It creates water scarcity in cities. ,
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and F ebruary, the vertical ray s of the sun fal 1 between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months.
• The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.

1. Original Jurisdiction :- The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction :- The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction :- The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance.

4. The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

5. The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BR1CS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS:

• To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
• To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –

• Primary Sector – It includes agriculture based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.
• Secondary Sectqr – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.
• Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc.

Question 40.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. The increase in food grain production need not result in increase in access to food for all. Given the unequal distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to distribute food grains at subsidised rates through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

2. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from state to state. While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS. Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.

3. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1870-1907
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i)Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) General Assembly and Security Council
(i) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
(ii) What is the Holocaust?
(iii) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
(iv) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
(a) General Assembly and Security Council:
(i) The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.
(ii) The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.
(iii) The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.
(iv) A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(ii) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
(ii) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
(iii) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
(iv) Why and where was he hanged to death?
(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(ii) Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(iii) Mohammed Ali

(iv) He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

(d) Indian National Congress:
(i) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
(ii) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
(iii) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
(iv) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress:
(i)The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
(iii) The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.
(iv) The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 4 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.
(c) Rate of change of energy is current.
(d) Rate of change of current is charge.
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is:
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) ohm
(d) ohm meter
Answer:
(c) ohm

Question 3.
In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
(a) The switch produces electricity.
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
(d) The bulb is getting charged.
Answer:
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit

Question 4.
Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. When a circuit is open, ……….. cannot pass through it.
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ……….
3. The wiring in a house consists of ………… circuits.
4. The power of an electric device is a product of ……… and ………..
5. LED stands for ………..

Answer:

1. current
2. resistance
3. parallel
4. potential difference, current
5. Light Emitting Diode

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Answer:

1. False – Ohm’s law states that the relationship between current and voltage.
2. True
3. False – The SI unit for electric current is ampere.
4. False – One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
5. False – The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest of the “individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (c)
(v) – (d)

V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 coulomb}{1 second}\)

Question 2.
What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
If the conductor is made a thicker area of cross-section of conduction increases that will decrease the resistance.

Question 3.
Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
Answer:
Tungsten metal is used in bulbs because its melting point is the greatest.
But it is not used in fuse wires. When a current more than 5A flows tungsten wire will be melted. Hence tungsten is not used in fuse wire.

Question 4.
Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Answer:
The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron and electric toaster.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: It is the amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.
Electric potential

Potential difference : It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric force.
Potential difference V_A – V_B = \(\frac{W_{A}-W_{B}}{Q}\)

Question 2.
What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

1. The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
2. The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
3. Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V. Hence, = \(\frac{1}{V}\) = constant.
The value of this proportionality constant is found to \(\frac{1}{R}\)
Therefore, I = (\(\frac{1}{R}\)) V
V = IR

Question 4.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Answer:

Question 5.
What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

1. In the domestic appliance, it is used as a parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
2. It has an alternative current (AC). Not DC current as it is from cables, so high potential flows through this.
3. One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

VIII. Long answer Questions.

Question 1.
With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:
(a) in series and
(b) in parallel
Answer:
(a) Resistors in series : A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if resistors are connected end to end, so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.

Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series. Let the current flowing through theorem be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁,V₂ and V₃ across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = I R₁ ………. (1)
V₂ = I R₂ ……… (2)
v₃ = I R₃ ………. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃ …….. (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_S.
Then,
V = I R_S ……….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we get,
I R_S = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….. (6)
Thus, you can understand that when a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’.
i.e., R_S = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel : A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

Consider that three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected across two common points A and B The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is me sured using the voltmeter. The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I₁, I₂ and I₃ passing through R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, you have,

The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), you get
I = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_3}\) ……… (4)
Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be R_P Then,
I = \(\frac{V}{R_P}\) ……… (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), you have

Thus, when a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{R}{n}\)

The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
(b) Name and define its unit.
(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be r connected in a circuit?
Answer:
(a) (i) Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
(ii) The electric current represents the number of charges flowing in any cross-section of a conductor (say a metal wire) in unit time.

(b) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(c) (i) The ammeter is used to measure the current.
(ii) An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
(iii) The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 3.
(a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
(a) Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

1. directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
2. directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor.
3. directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(b) Because,

1. It has high resistivity,
2. It has a high melting point,
3. It is not easily oxidized.

(c) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.

Question 4.
Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)
Answer:

1. Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
2. The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
3. The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
4. The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
5. The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

Question 5.
(a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
(b) List the merits of LED bulb.
Answer:
(a) Advantages of LED TV:

1. It has brighter picture quality.
2. It is thinner in size.
3. It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
4. Its life span is more.
5. It is more reliable.

(b) Advantages of LED bulb:

1. As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.
2. It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.
3. In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have significantly low power requirement.
4. It is not harmful to the environment.
5. A wide range of colours is possible here.
6. It is cost-efficient and energy efficient.
7. Mercury and other toxic materials are not required. One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more LED bulbs.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
Answer:
(i) When heating is maximum, the power
P₁ = 420 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{420}{220}\) = 1.909 A
I = 1.909 A

(ii) When heating is minimum
Power P₂ = 180 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
∴ Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{180}{220}\) = 0.8181 A
I = 0.8181 A

Question 2.
A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Solution:
100 W = 100 joules per second
1 watt hours = 3600 joules
The electric bulb is lighted for 5 hours daily,
100 W × 5 = 500 watt hours
500 watt hours = 1800000 joules
1 kWh = 3600000 joules
Units consumed per day = \(\frac{1800000}{3600000}\) = 0.5 units
Untis consumed in month = 0.5 × 31 = 15.5 units …. (1)
Now, Sum of power of four 60 watt bulbs = 240 W
240 W × 5 hours = 1200 watt hours
1200 watt hours = 4320000 joules
Energy consumed per day = \(\frac{4320000}{3600000}\) = 1.2 units
Energy consumed in a month = 1.2 × 31 = 37.2 units …. (2)
Total energy consumed in a month = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 units
1 unit = 1 kWh
The energy consumed in the month of January = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.
A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s
(a) power
(b) resistance
(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.
Answer:
Voltage V = 3 V
Current I = 600 mA
(a) Power = VI
= 3 × 600 × 10^-3
= 1800 × 10^-3
= 1.8 W

(c) Time = 4h
Energy consumed E = P × t
E = 1.8 × 4
= 7.2 W

Question 4.
A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
(c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Answer:
(a) Original resistance
R = \(\frac{l}{A}\)
∴ R α l
After cutting length of each piece
r = \(\frac{l}{5}\)
New resistance
R’ = \(\frac{l’}{A}\)
R’ α l’

R : R’ = 5 : 1

(b) When five parts of the wire are placed in parallel.
Effective Resistance

Resistance of the combinations
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)

(c) When resistance are connected in series

R_S = R
When resistance are connected in parallel
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)
R_S : R_P = R : \(\frac{R}{25}\)
= 25 R : R_1
R_S : R_P = 25 : 1

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Answer:
Let the resistance be R, and R2 when two resistances are connected in series
R_S = R₁ + R₂
= 9
R₁ + R₂ = 9 ……….(1)
When two resistance are connected in parallel

Using (1) equation (2) becomes
\(\frac{9}{R_{1}R_2}\)
R₁ R₂ = 18 ……….(3)
(R₁ – R₂)² = (R₁ + R₂)² – 4R₁R₂
= (9)² – 4 × 18
= 81 – 72 = 9
∴ (R₁ – R₂) = √9 = 3 ………(4)
From (1)
R₁ + R₂ = 9
2R₁ = 12
∴ R₁ = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 ohm
From (1)
R₂ = 9 – R₁
= 9 – 6 = 3Ω
The values of resistances are
R₁ = 6 ohm
R₂ = 3 ohm

Question 2.
How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Solution:
Current I = 5A
Time (t) = 1 second
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
\(\mathbf{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{n e}{t}\)
Number of electron, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{I} t}{e}\) = \(\frac{5 \times 1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
n = 3.125 × 10¹⁹.

Question 3.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Resistance R = 10Ω
Let l be the length of the wire R ∝ 1
When the length is increased to three times,
l’ = 3l
∴ New Resistance
R’ ∝ l’ ∝ 3l
∴ \(\frac{R}{R’}\) = \(\frac{l}{3l}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ R’ = 3R
New resistance = 3 times the original resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of:
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) mass
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

Question 2.
The S.I. unit of electric current is _____.
(a) Volt
(b) Power
(c) Ampere
(d) newton.
Answer:
(c) Ampere

Question 3.
The unit of electric current is:
(a) ampere
(b) volt
(c) watt
(d) kilo-watt
Answer:
(a) ampere

Question 4.
The work done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points in a circuit is 2 J. What is the potential difference between the points?
(a) 1 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) 1 V

Question 5.
The amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other is:
(a) resistance
(b) current
(c) Potential
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Potential

Question 6.
Ohm’s law gives the relative between potential difference and:
(a) emf
(b) temperature
(c) resistance
(d) current
Answer:
(d) current

Question 7.
The unit of resistance is _____.
(a) volt
(b) volt ampere^-1
(c) ampere
(d) Joule.
Answer:
(b) volt ampere^-1

Question 8.
The symbol of battery is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity for a given material is ______.
(a) zero
(b) constant
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b).
Answer:
(b) constant

Question 10.
The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20 ohm is:
(a) 100 V
(b) 4 V
(c) 0.01 V
(d) 40 V
Answer:
(b) 4 V

Question 11.
The unit of electrical conductivity ______.
(a) ohm^-1 metre
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1
(c) Volt Ampere^-1
(d) ohm.
Answer:
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1

Question 12.
Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:
(a) potential difference
(b) electric power
(c) electric energy
(d) charge
Answer:
(c) electric energy

Question 13.
The resistivity of a material is 4 × 10^-8 Ωm and its conductivity ______.
(a) 25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(b) 0.25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(c) 25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.
Answer:
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.

Question 14.
The commonly used safely fuse wire is made of:
(a) nickel
(b) lead
(c) an alloy of tin and lead
(d) copper
Answer:
(c) an alloy of tin and lead

Question 15.
The value of one horse power is:
(a) 746 kW
(b) 746 W
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ W
(d) 3.6 × 10⁶ kW
Answer:
(b) 746 W

Question 16.
When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in series, the effecive resistance for series is ______.
(a) nR
(b) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) nR

Question 17.
Name the physical quantity which is measured in kW:
(a) electric energy
(b) electric power
(c) electric current
(d) electric potential
Answer:
(b) electric power

Question 18.
What is the amount of current, when 20 C of charges flows in 4 s through a conductor? [l = \(\frac{q}{v}\)]
(a) 5 A
(b) 80 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(a) 5 A

Question 19.
Nichrome is ______.
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) an alloy
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) an alloy

Question 20.
The main source of biomass energy is:
(a) coal
(b) heat energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) cow-dung
Answer:
(d) cow-dung

Question 21.
The value of one ampere is:
(a) \(\frac{1second}{1coulomb}\)
(b) 1 coulomb × sec
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)
(d) 1 coulomb
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)

Question 22.
The heat produced in an electric heater of resistance 2 Ω is connected to an electric source, when a current of 6 A flows for 5 minutes _____.
(a) 216 × 10² J
(b) 2160 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 150 J.
Answer:
(a) 216 × 10² J
Hint: Formula H = I²Rt Joule.

Question 23.
The value of \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\)
(a) 1 kWh
(b) 1 Wh
(c) ampere
(d) volt
Answer:
(d) volt

Question 24.
The mathematical from of Ohm’s law is given by:
(a) V = IR
(b) I = VR
(c) R = \(\frac{I}{V}\)
(d) I = \(\frac{R}{V}\)
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 25.
One kilowatt hour is _____.
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J
(b) 36 × 10⁶ J
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ J
(d) 36 × 10⁵ J.
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J

Question 26.
If the length and radius of a conductor is doubled then its specific resistance will:
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) be tripled
(d) remain the same
Answer:
(d) remain the same

Question 27.
The value of resistivity of nichrome is:
(a) 1.5 × 10⁶ Ωm
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm
(c) 5.1 × 10⁶ Ωm
(d) 5.1 × 10^-6 Ωm
Answer:
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm

Question 28.
Due to short circuit, effective resistance in the circuit becomes _____.
(a) large
(b) very small
(c) very large
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) very small

Question 29.
if a conductor has a length of 1 m and area of 1 m² then its resistivity is equal to its:
(a) resistance
(b) conductance
(c) length
(d) conductivity
Answer:
(a) resistance

Question 30.
When resistors are connected in parallel, potential difference across each resistor will be:
(a) different
(b) same
(c) vary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) same

Question 31.
LED TV screen was developed by James P. Mitchell in _____.
(a) 1797
(b) 1977
(c) 2009
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(b) 1977

Question 32.
Heat developed across a conductor H =
(a) IRt
(b) VR
(c) I²Rt
(d) I²R
Answer:
(c) I²Rt

Question 33.
Expression for electric energy is:
(a) W = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
(b) W = VIt
(c) W = Vt
(d) W = \(\frac{V}{It}\)
Answer:
(b) W = VIt

Question 34.
In our home, fuse box consists of:
(a) fuse wire
(b) MCB
(c) fuse wire or MCB
(d) switches
Answer:
(c) fuse wire or MCB

Question 35.
Which of the following is a semi conductor device?
(a) LED bulb
(b) fuse
(c) MCB
(d) switch
Answer:
(a) LED bulb

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The flow of charge: Electric current. A continuous closed path of an electric current is ………. The unit of charge: Coulomb then-current ……….
2. Electric current I: Charge (Q)/ ………. while electric potential V is ……….
3. A resistor of resistance R:  Then variable resistance and ……….. rheostat ……….
4. In series connection of resistors: ………. Then for parallel connection of resistors: ………..
5. The transformation of energy in Electric oven: ………… Electric cell ………..
6. The expression obtained from Ohm’s law ………… joule’s law
7. The unit of electric power …………. then electric energy ………..
8. The equivalent of 1 volt ………. then for 1 ohm ………..
9. The tap-key is used to ……… and ……….. an electric circuit.
10. The opposition to flow of current is called ………. and its unit is ………..
11. The heat developed in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of ………… and ………. of flow.
12. The S.I unit of electric current is ……….
13. The S.l unit of resistance is ……….
14. ……….. is the S.l unit of potential difference.
15. From Ohm’s law \(\frac{V}{I}\) =
16. If a current 2A flows through conductor having a potential difference of 6 V then its resistance is ……….
17. If R is the resistance of a conductor then its conductance is G = ……….
18. Conductivity is ……… for ……….. than insulators.
19. When resistors are connected in series the equivalent resistance is …………. than the highest resistance of individual resistors.
20. In series connection ……….. is less as effective resistance is more.
21. Tungsten is used as heating element because its resistance is ……….
22. Tungsten is used as filament in the electric bulb because its melting points is …………
23. If a current of 6A flows through a 5Ω resistance for 10 minutes than heat developed in the resistance is ……….
24. When a current of IA flows through a conductor having potential difference of IV, the electric power is ………..
25. 746 watt is equivalent to ………..
26. In displays are used ………….
Answer:
1. Electric circuit, Ampere
2. Time (t), Work done (W)/charge (Q)
3.
4. Current is same, Potential difference is same
5. electrical into heat energy, chemical into electrical energy
6. V = IR, H = I²Rt
7. Kilowatt, want hour
8. \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\), \(\frac{1volt}{1ampere}\)
9. open, close
10. resistance, ohm
11. current, time
12. ampere
13. Ohm 15. R
14. Volt
15. R
16. 3 ohm
17. \(\frac{I}{R}\)
18. more, conductors
19. greater
20. Current
21. high
22. high
23. 108 kJ
24. 1 W
25. 1 horse power
26. LED bulbs

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Current is the rate of flow of charges
2. The symbol of diode is

3. Potential = \(\frac{charge}{time}\)
4. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is V = IR
5. Nichrome is used in electric bulb.
6. The unit of conductance is mho.
7. The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistance.
8. In parallel connection the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}+R_{2}}{R_{1}R_{2}}\)
9. Heat produced in a conductor is H = l²Rt
10. 1 kWh = 3.6 J.
11. An MCB is a switching device.
12. LED means Light Emitting Diode.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False – Potential = \(\frac{Workdone(W)}{Charge(Q)}\)
4. True
5. False – Nichrome is used in heating device.
6. True
7. True
8. False – In parallel connection, the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\)
9. True
10. False – 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J
11. True
12. True

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 2.
Match the components with symbols

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 7.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a series system, equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistance.
Reason: The current that passes through each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion,
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion
Answer:
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In a parallel system, the total current is equal to the sum of the current through each resistor.
Reason: The potential difference across each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: The unit of power watt is not frequently used in practice. Reason: it cannot be converted into Joule.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: A wire carrying a current has electric field around d.
Reason: A wire carrying current is stays electrically neutral.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason a re true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: In order to pass current through electric circuit, it must be closed.
Reason: In our home, the switch is ON, then the current flows through the bulb. So, the bulb glows.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Resistance of a material opposes the flow of charges.
Reason: It is different for different materials.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Reason: The unit of conductivity is Ohm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 8.
Assertion: One end of the earthing wire is connected to a body of the electrical appliance and its other end is connected to a metal tube that is burried into the Earth.
Reason: The earth wire provides low resistance path to the electric current.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: The passage of electric current through a wire results in the production of heat.
Reason: The heating effect is used in electric heater electric iron etc.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: One kilowatt hour is known as one unit of electrical energy.
Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer type Questions

Question 1.
If a charge of QC flows through a conductor in time t second then what is the value of current?
Answer:
Charge = \(\frac{Charge}{time}\)
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)

Question 2.
What is the electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop.
(or)
path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires so as to connect an electric appliance to a source of electric charges (battery).

Question 3.
If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled than what happens its resistance?
Answer:
Resistance of a wire
R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) ………. (1)
l’ = 2l
A’ = 2A
∴ New Resistance
R’ = l × \(\frac{2l}{2A}\)
R’ = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) …….. (2)
Form (1) and (2) it is found that resistance remains unchanged.

Question 4.
What is the unit of resistance and resistivity of a conductor?
Answer:
(i) The unit of resistance is ohm.
(ii) The unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

Question 5.
Define the unit of resistance? (or) Define one ohm.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.
\(\text { Ohm }=\frac{1 \text { volt }}{1 \text { ampere }}\).

Question 6.
What is the unit of conductivity?
Answer:
The unit of conductivity is mho meter.

Question 7.
What is the value of one kilo watt hour?
Answer:
One kilowatt hour = 1000 W hr
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J

Question 8.
What is the heating effect of electric current?
Answer:
The passage of electric current through a wire resulting in the production of heat. This phenomenon is called the heating effect of current. This heating effect of current is used in devices like electric heater, electric iron, etc.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is an electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop (or) path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow.

Question 2.
Draw a circuit diagram to represent a simple electric circuit.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the direction of conventional current?
Answer:
By convention, the direction of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge (or) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 4.
Define electric potential.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Question 5.
What is meant by overloading?
Answer:
(i) Overloading happens when a large number of appliances are connected in series to the same source of electric power. This leads to a flow of excess current in the electric circuit.

(ii) When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 6.
What is meany by short circuit?
Answer:

1. When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short circuit’.
2. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force.
3. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires.
4. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

Question 7.
Draw an electric circuit to understand Ohm’s law.
Answer:

Question 8.
Define resistance of a conductor.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Question 9.
Define Resistance. Give its unit and conductance.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.
Conductance: It is defined as the reciprocal of its resistance (R). Hence, the conductance ‘G’ of a conductor is given by
\(\mathrm{G}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Its unit is ohm^-1. It is also represented as ‘mho’.

Question 10.
Define electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section. Its unit is ohm metre.

Question 11.
What is meant by electrical conductivity?
Answer:
The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
σ = \(\frac{1}{p}\)

Question 12.
Mention the differences between the combination of resistances in series and parallel.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write short notes about filament in electric bulbs.
Answer:
In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 14.
What is meant by electric power?
Answer:
The electric power is the product of the electric current and the potential difference due to which the current passes in a circuit.

Question 15.
What is meant by overloading of an electric circuit?
Answer:
When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 16.
What is meant by LED bulb?
Answer:
An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used.

Question 17.
W hat is meant by seven segment display? state its uses.
Answer:
(i) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text.
(ii) It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, microwave ovens, etc.

Question 18.
What do you know about LED television.
Answer:
LED Television is one of the most important applications of Light Emitting Diodes. An LED TV is actually an LCD TV (Liquid Crystal Display) with LED display. An LED display uses LEDs for backlight and an array of LEDs act as pixels. LEDs emitting white light are used in monochrome (black and white) TV; Red, Green and Blue (RGB) LEDs are used in colour television.

Question 19.
What is fuse wire?
Answer:
The function of fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from excess current due to overloading or a short circuit.

Question 20.
Draw a group between potential difference and current.
Answer:

Question 21.
Write short note about short circuit?
Answer:
When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short ‘ circuit’. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

VIII. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate various components used in electrical circuit and their uses?
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain series connection of parallel resistors.
Answer:

If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, you get a series – parallel circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p1. Similarly, let R₃, and R₄ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p2. Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series. Using equation we get

We get = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….(1)
Finally, using equation (1), the net effective resistance is given by
R_total = R_P1 + R_P2

Question 3.
Explain parallel connection of series resistors.
Answer:
If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, you get a parallel-series circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S1. Similarly, let R₃ and R₄ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S2. Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.

Using equation
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
We get R_S1 = R₁ + R₂, R_S2 = R₃ + R₄
Finally, using equation
\(\frac{1}{R_P}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_3}\)
the net effective resistance is given by
\(\frac{1}{R_{total}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{S1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{S2}}\)

Question 4.
Explain applications of heating effect.
Answer:
Electric Heating Device: The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric heater, geyser, etc. In these appliances Nichrome, which is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium is used as the heating element. Because:
(i) it has high resistivity,
(ii) it has a highmelting point,
(Hi) it is not easily oxidized.

Fuse Wire : The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Filament in bulbs : In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 5.
Write short notes about
(i) LED bulb
(ii) Seven segment display
Answer:
(i) An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used. With the help of the chemical compounds like Gallium Arsenide and Gallium Phosphide, the manufacturer can produce LED bulbs that radiates red, green, yellow and orange colours. Displays in digital watches and calculators, traffic signals, street lights, decorative lights, etc., are some examples for the use of LEDs.

(ii) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text. It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, micro wave ovens, etc. It consists of 7 segments of LEDs in the form of the digit 8. These seven LEDs are named as a, b, c, d, e, f and g. An extra 8th LED is used to display a dot.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron draws a current of 0.5 A when the voltage is 220 volts. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)
Charge Q = ?
Charge I = 0.5 A
Time = 1 hour
= 60 × 60 s
Q = It
= 0.5 × 3600
= 1800 C
The amount of electric charge flowing = 1800 C

Question 2.
A current of 5A flows through a heater for 10 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through the electric circuit.
Answer:
Q = I × t
Current I = 5A
Time t = 10 × 60 = 600 s
= 5 × 600 = 3000 C

Question 3.
A torch bulb draws a current 0.6 A, when glowing from a source of 6 V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when glowing.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.6A
Potential V = 6V
R = ?
R = \(\frac{V}{I}\) = \(\frac{6}{0.6}\) = 10Ω
The resistance of the bulb = 10Ω

Question 4.
Find the potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2 A in a wire of resistant 20Ω.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.2A
Resistance R = 20Ω
Potential difference V = ?
V = 0.2 × 20 = 4V
The potential difference in a wire = 4V

Question 5.
Calculate the amount of work done in moving charge of 25 C across two points having potential difference of 20V.
Answer:
W = QV
Charge Q = 25 C
Potential difference V = 20 V
W = 25 × 20 = 500 J

Question 6.
Three resistances are connected in an electrical circuit as shown in the circuit diagram. Determine the potential difference across resistance R₂.
Answer:

For series connection, the effective resistance
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω
Total potential = 12V
Amount of current flowing through the circuit
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{S}}\) = \(\frac{12V}{6Ω}\) = 2A
Potential difference across resistance R₂
V = I × R₂
= 2 × 2 = 4V
The potential difference across the resistance R₂ = 4 V

Question 7.
In the given network, find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
Answer:

An equivalent of the given network is drawn in the relevant parts as follows: Resistance of the combination R₁ and R₂ is
R_S = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R₁, R₂ and R₃ is

The resistance of series combination R_P1 and R₄ is R_S1 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S1 and R₅ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P2 and R₆ is
R_S2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S2 and R₇ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P3 and R₈ is
R_P3 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S3 and R₉ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P4 and R₆ is
R_S4 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S4 and R₈ is

∴ Resistance between A and B is 5Ω

Question 8.
For a given circuit calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the total current in the circuit
(iii) the current through each resistor.
Answer:

For parallel connection, the effective resistance

(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit
R_P = 0.588Ω

(ii) Total current in the circuit
I = 10.2 A

(iii) Current through R₁ = 6A
Current through R₂ = 3A
Current through R₃ = 1.2A

Question 9.
An electric iron a rating of 750 W, 220 V.
(i) Calculate current passing through it and
(ii) Its resistance when in use.
Answer:
P = VI
I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
Ohm’s law V = IR

(i) The amount of current passing
I = 3.4A
(ii) Resistance
R = 64.7Ω

Question 10.
Following graph was plotted between V and I values. What would be the values of \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V and 1.2 V?
Answer:

V₁ = 0.8V, I₁ = 32A; V₂ = 1.2V; I₂ = 48A

Question 11.
Three resistors of 2Ω, 4Ω and 8Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 3 V. Calculate
(i) Current through each resistor and
(ii) Total current in the circuit.
Answer:

Potential difference across each resistor is same.
(i) Current through each resistor:

(ii) Total current in the circuit: I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
I = 1.5 + 0.75 + 0. 375
I = 2.625 A

Question 12.
Two bulbs of 40 W and 60 W are connected in series to an external potential difference. Which bulb will glow brighter? Why?
Answer:
Let the external potential difference be 230 V

For 40 W bulb resistance is R

For 60 W bulb resistance is R

According to Ohm’s law
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
Current flowing through 40 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{1322.5}\) = 0.1739 A
Current flowing through 60 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{881.6}\) = 0.2608 A
When bulbs are connected in series effective resistance is
R_S = R₁+ R₂ = 1322.5 + 881.6
R_S = 2204.1Ω
Net current
I = \(\frac{230}{2204.1}\) = 0.1043 A
Using power equation P = I²R
For 40 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 1322.5
= (0.01087) × 1322.5 = 14.386 W
For 60 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 881.6
= (0.01087) × 881.6 = 9.5904 W
In a series system, higher the resistance, higher the brightness so, 40 W bulb glows brighter.

Question 13.
A wire is bent into a circle. The effective resistance across the diameter is 8Ω. Find the resistant if the wire.
Answer:
R_P = 8Ω = resistance across diameter
\(\frac{1}{R}\) + \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
\(\frac{2}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
R = 16Ω
x is the resistance of the wire.
x = 16 + 16 = 32Ω
x = 32Ω

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
A 60 W bulb is connected in parallel with a room heater. This combination is connected across the mains. If 60 W bulb is replaced by a 100 W bulb what happens to the heat produced by the heater? Given reason.
Answer:
Heat produced by the heater will be same. When the bulb and a heater are connected in parallel and this combination is connected across the mains, potential difference across each is the same equal to the voltage V of the mains irrespective of the resistance of the bulb.

If R is the resistance of the heater then heat produced by the heater will be \(\frac{V^2}{R}\) in both cases. Hence heat produces by heater will not be changed.

Question 2.
Two bulbs 60 W and 100 W are connected in series and this combination is connected to a d.c power supply. Will the potential difference across 60 W bulb be higher than that across 100 W bulb?
Answer:
60 W bulb has a higher resistance than the resistance across 100 W bulb since the power developed is P = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Potential difference across a bulb will be proportional to resistance. Hence potential difference across 60 W bulb is higher than that across 100 W bulb.

Question 3.
Super conductors has lowest resistance. Is it true. Give reason.
Answer:
True. When the temperature of super conductor is reduced to zero or near by zero its resistance becomes zero.

Question 4.
A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and radius of the wire is doubled then what happens to the heat produced in the wire?
Answer:
We know that resistance of a conducting wire is R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\)
\(\frac{Pl}{πr^{2}}\)
If length l and radius r are doubled, then resistance will become half. But heat produced H = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Hence, heat produced per second will become thrice.

Question 5.
Calculate the effective resistance between A and B.
Answer:

The electrical circuit can be redrawn as

The resistance R₁ and R₂ are in series
R_S = R₁ + R₂ = 2 + 2 = 4Ω
The resistance R_S and R₃ are in parallel

∴ Effective resistance R_eff= 1.33Ω

Question 6.
Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5Ω and 10Ω respectively. Calculate the ratio of radii of the two wires.
Answer:
Resistance

∴ r₁ : r₂ = √2 : 1

Question 7.
An iron box of 400 W power is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, find the weekly expense on using the iron box.
Answer:
Power P = 400 W

Energy consumed = Power × Time
= 400 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 200 Wh
Energy consumed in one week= 200 × 7
= 1400 Wh = 1.4 kWh
= 1.4 unit
∴ Total cost per week = 1.4 × 0.75 = Rs 1.05
Weekly expense = Rs 1.05

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The whole family walked about on the big plateau.
(a) highland
(b) pinnacle
(c) lake
(d) valley
Answer:
(a) highland

Question 2.
Before I could intervene, the cops were in the attic.
(a) interfere
(b) interrogate
(c) instigate
(d) investigate
Answer:
(a) interfere

Question 3.
Nagen had a rustic look.
(a) urban
(b) rural
(c) modem
(d) crude
Answer:
(d) crude

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I gave my crew members the best dishes with the limited resources.
(a) limitations
(b) partial
(c) incomplete
(d) boundless
Answer:
(d) boundless

Question 5.
They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion
(b) enclosure
(c) addition
(d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

Question 6.
The man was startled.
(a) annoyed
(b) alarmed
(c) reassured
(d) amused
Answer:
(c) reassured

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘millennium’.
(a) millennia
(b) millenniums
(c) millenniumes
(d) millenniaas
Answer:
(a) millennia

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – imagine.
(a) or
(b) ary
(c) al
(d) tion
Answer:
(d) tion

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation SAARC.
(a) South African Association for Regional Cooperation
(b) South Asian Association for Railways Cooperation
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Corporation
Answer:
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The match was ……………. due to rain.
(a) called upon
(b) called on
(c) called off
(d) called at
Answer:
(c) called off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘flower’ to form a compound word.
(a) sun
(b) rain
(c) sky
(d) son
Answer:
(a) sun

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The cat was hiding …………………….. the table.
(a) by
(b) under
(c) at
(d) for
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
I speak, and the words appear on my screen and then ……………………….. I them out.
(a) can be printed
(b) can printing
(c) were printed
(d) can print
Answer:
(d) can print

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
The baby isn’t sleeping, ………………………. it’s late.
(a) in spite
(b) even though
(c) although
(d) so
Answer:
(b) even though

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section -I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What happened to the young seagull when it landed on the green sea?
Answer:
When the young seagull landed on the green sea, he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly and shrieked shrilly, turning his beak sideways and crowed amusedly. He screamed with fright when he dropped his legs to stand on the green sea and sank into it.

Question 16.
What was the mean act of Holmes with Dr. Watson?
Answer
When Dr. Watson offered to examine symptoms and treat him Holmes said he would have a doctor in whom he had confidence. This was really very rude of Holmes and showed his madness.

Question 17.
What is the meaning of Tarini? Why is it worshipped?
Answer
The word ‘Tarini ’ means ‘boat ’ and in Sanskrit it means ‘ Saviour ’. Tara – Tarini is worshipped for safety and success at sea.

Question 18.
What did Sasanka tell Aditya, looking at the fifteen ten-rupee notes in his hand?
Answer
Sasanka said to Aditya, ‘Aditya, this smacks too much of charity. Doesn’t it? I had recognised you at Nagen uncle’s tea shop by that mole on your right cheek. I could see you had not recognised me. So I recited the same poem that I had recited on the prize-giving day, on purpose, so that you may remember. Then, when you came to visit me, I couldn’t help venting my anger on you.’

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(a) How can one travel on with cheer?
(b) What is meant by ‘veil’?
Answer
(a) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.
(b) A veil is a cover that is used to partially hide something.

Question 20.
“And so it were wisest to keep our feet From wandering into Complaining Street;”
(a) What is the wisest thing that the poet suggests?
(b) What does the phrase ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to?
Answer
(a) The wisest thing is to avoid wandering into the complaining street.
(b) The phrase, ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to restricting your path from strolling.

Question 21.
“At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold,”
(a) What made the cricket bold?
(b) Why did the cricket drip and tremble?
Answer
(а) Starvation and hunger made the cricket bold.
(b) The cricket dripped wet and trembled with cold because it was winter.

Question 22.
“Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) What is the requirement of the machines?
(b) What does the second line indicate?
Answer
(a) The requirement of the machines is water, coal and oil.
(b) The second line indicates the close arrangement of the nuts, screws and bolts.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer
I will never forget this experience.
This experience will not be forgotten by me

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer
They asked us, “Are you going anywhere at the weekend.?”
They asked us if we were going anywhere at the weekend.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Answer

• M Hamel saw me and said very kindly go to your place quickly, little Franz we were beginning without you
• M. Hamel saw me and said very kindly, “Go to your place quickly, little Franz. We were beginning without you

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer
He is rich, yet he is unhappy.
Despite being rich he is unhappy.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Six puppies / to/ had / Maya’s / given birth / dog
(b) Many times / Sita told Ravi / two dogs / have / already / we
Answer
(a) Maya’s dog had given birth to six puppies.
(b) Many times Sita told Ravi we already have two dogs.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Help the stranger from Mariadass street to reach his/her destination, Madha Poonga with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps

• From Mariadoss street, proceed further and take the left at the crossroads on P.V.Koil Street.
• Go further down and cross Andhra Post office on the left and R.K.Oil Mill on the right.
• After half a furlong, you must take the right on P. V.Koil street where you will find Madha Poonga on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
What do you know about James Thurber, the narrator?
Answer:
The narrator James Thurber, presents himself as acting judiciously, although his actions are uncommon to raise the uncertainties of the policemen. He is the first person in the household to hear the mysterious sound, as he is stepping out of the bathtub at 1:15 a.m. on November 17th. After waking his brother Herman, he is the one who resolves that the reason of the sound downstairs must be an apparition. When his hasty mother decides that the sounds must be caused by intruders, the narrator thinks that she is past reasoning. Even when the cops arrive, he is still wrapped in a towel from his bath.

Later, when the reporter comes around asking questions, the narrator puts on one of his mother’s blouses, explaining that it is the only thing that he can find at the moment. He chooses to be honest with the reporter and tell him that the problem was caused by ghosts, but the reporter does not take him earnestly. Later, when the policeman who has been shot by Grandfather wants to challenge him and take his gun back, the narrator mediates with composed receptivity and offers to take the gun over to the police station in the morning.
“A judicious reticence is hard to learn, but
it is a lifetime lesson.’’

Question 30.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently-abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life. Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Blutooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smart watch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music. iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
“Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation.”

Question 31.
What do you know about the Navikaa Sagar Parikrama?
Answer:
Navika Sagar Parikrama was a project undertaken in consonance with the National policy to empower women to attain their full potential. The Project is considered essential towards promoting ocean sailing activities in the Navy while depicting Government of India’s thrust for Nari Shakti which means women power. The Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sunil Lanba gave his welcome speech when this project was launched.

The voyage was aimed to show case ‘Make in India’ initiative by sailing on-board indigenously built INSV Tarini. The special feature of this sailboat is that it encouraged use of environment friendly non-conventional renewable energy resources such as the wind; collected and updated meteorological, ocean and wave data on regular basis for accurate weather forecast by India Meteorological Department (IMD) and also collected data for monitoring marine pollution on high seas.
“The goal is not to sail the boats, but rather to help the boat sail herself.’’

Question 32.
‘Man does change with time’-What were the various changes that came about in Aditya?
Answer:
Man does change with time. According to Sanyal, Aditya was a boy who could never compete him in scholastic or non-scholastic activities. He was a liar and an envious personality. But, years later Aditya no longer is the same personality. He is more matured and responsible. His childish nature makes him feel guilty, for stealing the medal that belonged to Sanyal.

Aditya now wanted to restore Sanyal, his lost happiness. Knowing about his financial constraints, he decides to give him the cost of the silver medal. He drives with a firm determination to his ancestral house. When he reaches, he rushes to the attic. Aditya gets on top of a packing Case and pushes his hand inside the ventilator, upsetting a sparrow’s nest. However, he heaves a sigh of relief when he gets what he had been looking for. He goes straight to the Jeweller to determine the current rate of the medal in the market. All these surely show a remarkable change in him.

Even when Sanyal behaves rudely, Aditya is courteous and friendly. His only intention is penitence. He is so mature that he even understands and justifies the grievances Sanyal had in his heart. When Sanyal prefers the medal, without second thoughts he restores it to Sanyal whole-heartedly.
“Change is universal.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Narrate the fable of ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ in your own words.
Answer:
The silly young cricket was fun-loving. He used to sing all through the pleasant sunny months of summer and spring. He was short-sighted. He didn’t bother to store food for the rainy season and cold winter. When the earth was covered with ice and snow, he found that he had nothing to eat and his cupboard was empty. There were no flowers nor leaves on the trees. He grew nervous. Starvation could be seen over his face. Wet with the rain and shivering with cold, the hungry cricket went to an ant to get shelter and food.

He made it clear that he would return the borrowed grain the next day. With humility, the miserly ant said that he was surely the servant and friend of the cricket. But as a matter of principle, the ants neither borrow nor lend. He asked why he never bothered to store something for the rainy day. The cricket admitted that he had been careless and foolish. He enjoyed the beauties of summer and sang merrily. The ant then told him bluntly to go and dance all winter and turned the poor cricket out.
‘Prudence is foresight and farsightedness. ’

Question 34.
The poem ‘No men are foreign’ has a greater relevance in today’s world. Elucidate.
Answer:
The poet, James Kirkup, quotes various instances to prove that no men are foreign. The very title of the poem is thought-provoking and forces the reader to think about the issue of people living in other countries as foreigners and strangers. As the poem advances, the poet recurrently emphasises that all human beings are indistinguishable in their nature and tactics. All live on the same earth; enjoy air, sun and water; love peace and are opposed to war.

They all have mutual experiences and toil in a similar manner to earn the living. The realistic reasoning put forth by the poet and the numerous reminders fully satisfy the reader that no men are foreign. He gets the message that alienation from fellow brethren is equally damaging to himself. He also understands that by treating other men as foreign, the world stands exposed to the risk of war which can lead to permanent destruction and pollution of mother earth. It is true that many people have been telling us to live harmoniously since long. We never follow their message.

We also know that our greed to get more wealth and power cannot give us peaceful life. But some deep-rooted evils in our society make us draw a distinction between people. We know that all customs and conventions have been made by people. We start to hate even our family members due to our ego to be more powerful. By doing so, we at last harm ourselves. In society, people dislike selfish people. So before going to hurt other’s feeling, first of all we should think whether doing such act with others are justified by other people or society.
‘Smile at strangers and you just might change a life. ’

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal; – Not mourning for the things that disappear ”
(i) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) What is the figure of speech used in the second line?
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(iv) Give an example of the usage of couplet in the above stanza.
Answer:
(i) ‘Let, live, life’ are the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) The figure of speech is alliteration, (e.g. forward face)
(iii) Year and disappear; soul and goal are the rhyming words.
(iv) With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
Answer:
Here it is clearly stated that the only requirement for the machine is water, coal and oil. The moving parts may have a clearance of a thousandth of an inch which may be the permissible variation from the required dimensions. These parts are closely arranged with bolts and nuts leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels. With such a setup, the machines are willing to work round the clock, non-stop without any rest.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the great sea.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (iv), (v), (i), (ii)
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the
great sea.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The next room, a broad gallery about a quarter of a mile long, was devoted to publicity, and it well may be imagined what the publicity for such a journal as the Earth Herald had to be. It brought in a daily average of three million dollars. They are gigantic signs reflected on the clouds, so large that they can be seen all over a whole country.

From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, these inordinate advertisements. At that moment the clock struck twelve. The director of the Earth Herald left the hall and sat down in a rolling armchair. In a few minutes he had reached his dining room half a mile away, at the far end of the office. The table was laid and he took his place at it.

Within reach of his hand was placed a series of taps and before him was the curved surface of a phonotelephote, on which appeared the dining room of his home in Paris. Mr and Mrs Bennett had arranged to have lunch at the same time – nothing could be more pleasant than to be face to face in spite of the distance, to see one another and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.
Questions
(i) Where was the broad gallery?
(ii) What happened in the broad gallery?
(iii) What was the income of the Earth Herald every day?
(iv) Why did the director sit on the roiling armchair?
(v) State the use of the phonoteleohote.
Answer:
(i) The broad gallery was in Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper.
(ii) The broad gallery was devoted to publicity. From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, inordinate advertisements.
(iii) The income of Earth Herald was an average of three million dollars every day.
(iv) He sat down in a rolling armchair to reach his dining room which was half a mile away, at the far end of the office.
(v) One can see each other and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Branded water purifier – Introductory offer only Rs. 8,500/-. Best virus remover

Question 40.
You are S. Sundaram. Write a letter to the Commissioner of Chennai Corporation, complaining about the poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in your locality.
Answer:
S. Sundaram
34, Periyar Road
Chennai-46
19 September, 20XX
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai
Sir,
Sub: Poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in Periyar Road I want to draw your kind attention towards the poor sanitary conditions prevailing in our locality – Periyar Road. It seems that the cleaners have forgotten the existence of this locality on the civic map of Chennai. Heaps of rubbish are lying here and there, with flies swarming around and pigs wallowing in the filth and mud caused by the overflow of dirty water from the drains on to the road. The drains are choked as they are neither cleaned nor flushed.

The dirty water collects on the road forming cesspools of filthy water. There are also many pits on the roads which are full of drain water. All these serve as breeding places for mosquitoes. The mosquito menace is so intense in our locality that we have to use anti mosquito sprays, mats and repellants have undisturbed sleep for a couple of hours. You are requested to pay
a surprise visit to the locality and judge the state yourself. Kindly take some immediate and effective steps to improve the sanitation and rid us of the menace of mosquitoes.

Hoping for a favourable action.
Yours faithfully
S. Sundaram

Address on the envelope
To
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai

Question 41.
You are Juliet / Gideon, Gymkhana Club of Coimbatore. Draft a notice to be sent to the members asking them to attend the extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body (Insert the necessary details).
Answer:

Gymkhana Club, Coimbatore 10 March 20XX NOTICE Members are requested to make it convenient to attend an extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body to discuss amendments in guest charges and monthly subscriptions. Date : 20th March 20XX Time : 7 p.m. Place : Gymkhana Club Complex, Coimbatore Governing Body members are requested to stay for dinner. Prabhat/Parvi Secretary

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Circus
In the world of public entertainment, circus occupies a prominent place. We feel thrilled to watch the antics of the lion, bear and elephants who dance to their ring master’s tunes. Animals were born free, but man has tamed them and uses them for his own benefit. The tricks and feats of these animals provide a sheer contrast to the adventurous feats of performing artistes. The children express their joy with clapping while the grown-ups just marvel at the daredevilry of the ringmasters.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country.

The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3,1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Notes
Title: Greatness of India
1. (a) Greatness of the country – people
(b) our country men are second to none
(c) From the ancient people Indians excelled in arts and crafts
(d) After Independence Government took steps to improve in all spheres
(e) The first five year plan was designed
(f) Green revolution attained self sufficiency

2. (a) The present age is the atomic age
(b) India made the first nuclear explosion
(c) India sent cosmonauts to space

Summary

Title: Greatness of India
Rough Draft
India fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful clear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian effort we have sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft:

India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence by the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 55

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari by the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons are a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture are most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior than my father in service.
(e) He is going everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.
Answer:
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari in the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons is a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture is most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior to my father in service.
(e) He goes everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, no …………… and water.
Answer:
Remember, no men are strange, no countries foreign
Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes
Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon
Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.
They, too, aware of sun and air and water,

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Love of a son for his mother – opposition to the law – tyrant – elderly people inefficient – importance of aged people – decree. Foothills – proclamation – cruel decree – killing aged people wasn’t common – poor farmer distressed.
Answer:
“The Aged Mother” by Matsuo Basho is a Japanese folklore about the love of a son for his mother and the mother’s love in return for her son. They encountered this agony as an opposition to the law of placing aged people to death. The tyrant stated the law of killing the elderly people because he was a warrior himself who felt that only the young men and women who were robust were useful to the country. According to the warrior, elderly people were inefficient and couldn’t be obliging to individuals who were however healthy as him.

To such a despotic leader, the importance of aged people was insignificant. Hence, he pronounced it as a decree. When the poor farmer and his aged mother who lived in a poor hut of the foothills in the country of Shining heard the proclamation by the despotic leader who announced the cruel decree of killing elderly people in that place, their heart was distressed. During this period, killing aged people wasn’t common. Therefore, when the poor farmer came to know of the decree he bore sadness in his heart. He was extremely concerned and was in deep thoughts to make an escape.

[OR]

(b) Narrate the story of Zigzag by developing the following hints.
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family – shelter Somu’s new pet – talks twenty-one languages – genuine African witch doctor’s gift – to Mrs Krishnan a nuisance – children Arvind, Maya – the unique gifts – ZigZag, a disappointment – steadfast sleep – chandelier and fan blades – maid Lakshmi – unfinished masterpiece -e-mail – seventh day – reply – Zig Zag’s snore take a turn – at the clinic.
Answer:
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family shelters Somu’s new pet, Zig-Zag, a queer-looking African bird, who is known for talking and singing in twenty-one different languages. They consider Zigzag to be a harmless, unusual and lovable bird bred by a genuine African witch doctor, who gifted it to Somu when he toured the deepest jungles of Africa. To Somu, the bird is an absolute treasure and a real help. Mrs. Krishnan considers it a nuisance.

Their son Arvind and daughter Maya are keen on having the pet. They both discuss the unique gifts given by Uncle Somu viz insect-eating plant, tiny shark teeth penknife and the aboriginal boomerang. ZigZag turns out to be a disappointment for the Krishnan family. Zigzag does nothing but sleep and snore to annoy all around. All attempts to awaken the bird goes in vain. The bird at first before resorting to a steadfast sleep eats the nuts and fruits, keeps them safe in the chandelier and the fan blades.

The maid Lakshmi shrieks in an excited manner thinking she is blessed with papayas and bananas raining inside the room. Mrs. Krishnan is annoyed at the slice of overripe papaya whizzing off the fan and splattering all over her unfinished masterpiece – Sunset at Marina spreading streaks of gooey orange pulp and shiny black seeds all over it. Dr. Krishnan leaves an e-mail message for Somu, asking him for clear instructions on how to stop Zigzag from snoring. On the seventh day, they receive the reply that he never sleeps nor snores. Mrs. Krishnan wants it to be sent to Visu as her friends and experts will come home and choose her paintings for the exhibition. Krishnan takes ZigZag in the car and hopes to find Visu so that ZigZag’s snore doesn’t add to the din of the sobs and shrieks produced by the tiny patients waiting for him.

However, Ziggy-Zagga, King-of-the-Tonga, was not familiar to being kept waiting, makes his way to the clinic where he perches himself on the nurse’s reception table. Suddenly things take a turn when ZigZag starts speaking. It’s Zigzag’s voice, clear and commanding. Gone was Zigzag’s bored and grumpy expression. Instead, the bird looked happy and alert as it went about the job it had been trained for, first with the African witch doctor and then with Dr. Somu.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
Rambutan is a close cousin of the litchi fruit, but not as well known. It is a member of the Sapindaceae family and resembles the litchi, except for its long, flesh coloured spines. Rambutan (Napheluim lappaceum) is an ever green tropical tree which reaches a height of 50 to 80 feet and has a straight trunk, with a dense spreading crown. There are both male and female trees and only female trees bear fruit. It grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.

Rambutan is usually propagated by seeds. The seeds taken from the fruit, may be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system. While harvesting the entire fruit cluster must be cut from the branch. The fruit must be kept dry and well ventilated to prevent them from getting spoilt. The peeled fruits are occasionally stewed as dessert.

Questions.
(a) Which fruit does the Rambutan look like?
(b) What is the botanical name for Rambutan?
(c) What kind of soil is ideal for Rambutan?
(d) Why should the seed be planted horizontally?
Answer:
(a) Rambutan looks like the litchi but for the long, flesh coloured spines.
(b) The botanical name for Rambutan is Napheluim lappaceum.
(c) Rambutan grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.
(d) The seed should be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
All are over: does truth sound bitter As one at first believes?
Mark, ‘tis the sparrow’s good night twitter About our cottage eaves?
And the leaf-buds on the vine are woolly,
I noticed that, today;
One day more bursts them open fully You know the red turns grey.
Tomorrow we meet the same then, dearest?
May I take your hand in mine?
Mere friends are we — well, friends the merest Keep much that I resign:
For each glance of the eye so bright and black,
Though I keep with heart’s endeavour, —
Your voice, when you wish the snowdrops back,
Though it stays in my soul forever!
Yet I will but say what mere friends say,
Or only a thought stronger.
I will hold your hand but as long as all may,
Or so very little longer.

Questions.
(a) What is meant by the words, ‘All are over’?
(b) What did the poet note?
(c) What is the deep-rooted desire of the poet?
(d) What are the two things praised in the poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘All are over’ means that the love affair between the lover and his mistress has come to an end.
(b) The poet noted the sparrow’s good night twitter in the cottage roof-space and the leaf- buds on the vine which had gone woolly.
(c) The deep-rooted desire of the poet is to win back his lost beloved.
(d) The eyes and voice are the two things praised in this poem.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) Air warfare
(b) Trench warfare
(c) Submarine warfare
(d) Ship warfare
Answer:
(b) Trench warfare

Question 2.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 3.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in
Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When was the first forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 6.
…………………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
………………………….  helps in quick, ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Nor wester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 8.
Which crop is called as “Golden fibre” in India?
(a) cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 9.
Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The transport useful in the inaccessible area is ………………………….
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 11.
How can the fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the supreme court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 12.
Find the odd one ………………………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 13.
…………………………. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 14.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) Land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
(i) Ramalinga swamigal emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living beings. He expressed the view that those who lack compassion for suffering of human beings are hard hearted, their wisdom clonded. He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) He established the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865 and it was renamed in 1872 as ‘Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ which means ‘Society for pure truth in universal self-hood’. Ramalinga also estabilished a free feeding house for everyone.

Question 16.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
(i) Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when Japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed.

(ii) The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 17.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:
In the Battle of Kalakadu, Mahfuzkhan’s troops were routed by the huge forces of Puli Thevar.

Question 18.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:

• After World War I, the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a very harsh treatment. The Khilafat Movement started in support of the Caliph.
• It was led by Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers.
• It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement and saw it an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 19.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 20.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:

1. Alluvial Soils
2. Black soils
3. Red soils
4. Laterite soils
5. Forest and mountain soils
6. Arid and desert soils
7. Saline and alkaline soils
8. Peaty and marshy soils.

Question 21.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
Oil in India is obtained from both from on-shore and off-shore areas.
Western Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Mumbai high oil fields
2. Gujarat Coast
3. Basseim oil field, South of Mumbai high
4. Ankleshwar
5. Cambay-Luni Region
6. Ahemedabad-Kalol Region
7. Aliabet oil feild, south of Bhavanagar

Eastern Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Brahmaputra valley
2. Digboi oil fields
3. Nahoratiya oil fields
4. Moran-Hugrijan oil fields
5. Rudrasagar-Lawa oil fields
6. Surrma valley
7. Offshore of Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Baleshwar coast, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 22.
What is national emergency?
Answer:
National emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 23.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 24.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

• Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
• Transforming and accountability.
• Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
• Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
• Respect for the environment.

Question 25.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows: “Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 26.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

• It increase the production and cultivation
• It increase the productivity
• Changes in cropping system
• Industrial development

Question 27.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 28.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

• The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
• So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA) or United Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR).
• Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). So he chose the path of Non-Alignment.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………………………. was the headquarters of the Council of Europe.
(ii) …………………………. is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
(iii) …………………………. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
(iv) …………………………. is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ………………………….
Answers
(i) Strasbourg
(ii) Solaikaradu
(iii) Diplomacy
(iv) Underweight
(v) Thenpennai.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains:

Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Narmada and Tapti forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the
5. Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal Sea.
2. They are wide and level plains with an average width of 80 – 100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern part is known as the Coromandal coast.
5. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing:
Marine Fishing :

1. It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continent shelf.
2. Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.

Inland Fishing :

1. Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

(b) Give reason: Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:

• It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
• It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50-80 km.
• It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Hitler was great orator. He swayed the people by his impassioned speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, known as ‘the Nazis’.

He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945, with a small group of fanatic followers. He rearmed Germany. He made huge expenditure on the recruitment of armed forces and the manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force. Soon the economic condition of Germany got strengthened and the problem of unemployment came to an end. In 1938, Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia.

Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia was German-speaking, and Hitler’s claim was that the German-speaking people should be united in one nation. Though Hitler gave an assurance in the Munich Pact that Germany would not attack any other country, but this was broken immediately. In 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.

Poland was attacked next, and this was the final act which resulted in declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany. In June 1940, Italy joined Germany, and in September 1940, Japan also joined the Axis Powers.

The German army followed a tactic of ‘lightning strike’ to storm into various countries and overrun them. In June 1941, German army invaded Russia and remained successful in the initial years. But ultimately got defeated due to the resistance by Soviet army, and the fierce Russian winter.

In the Battle of Alamein 1942, the Allied forces counter-attacked and defeated the German and Italian forces in North Africa. The German army was chased across the desert, out of North Africa. The war continued till Hitler’s suicide in April 1945.

Question 34.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
While the Indian National Congress was calling for Britain to quit India, in 1943, the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the British to divide and quit. There were several reasons for the separate Muslim homeland in the sub-continent:

• As colonizers, the British had followed a divide-and-rule policy in India. In the census they categorized people according to religion and viewed and treated them as separate from each other.
• The British based their knowledge of the people of India on religious texts and the intrinsic differences they found in them, instead of examining how people of different religions coexisted.
• As soon as the Muslim League was formed, Muslims were placed on a separate electorate.
  Thus, the separateness of Muslims in India was built into the Indian electoral process.
• There was also an ideological divide between the Muslims and the Hindus of India. While there were strong feelings of nationalism in India, by the late 19th century there were also communal conflicts and movements in the country that were based on religious identities rather than class or regional ones.
• Both Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim League claimed that the interests of the Hindus and Muslims were different and hostile to each other.
• The British policy of divide and rule, through measures such as Partition of Bengal, Communal Award, had encouraged the vested interests out to exploit the religious differences.

Question 35.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 36.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Plateau of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
• It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km. .
• Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
• This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
• Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
• Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
• Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
• Madurai plateau found in madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 37.
Point out the fundamental Rights.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –

• Right to Equality It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.
• Right to Freedom It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
• Right against Exploitation It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.
• Right to religion It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion. ,
• Cultural and Educational rights It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 38.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:

• Indian foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalties.
• India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives. ,
• India provides neighbours with support as needed in this form of resources equipment and training.

Question 39.
Explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
Answer:
Various terms associated with measuring of national income.

(i) Gross National Product or GNP is the total value of goods and services produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country. It excludes profits earned from capital invested abroad.

(ii) Gross Domestic Product or GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.

(iii) Net National Product or NNP refers to gross national product, i.e., the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of productions of a country or other polity during a given time period, minus depreciation.

(iv) Net Domestic Product or NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product. It is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of the wear and tear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per .Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
National Income
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

(vi) Personal Income or PI is the total money income received by individuals and households of a country from all possible services before direct taxes. Personal income can be expressed as follows:
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Social Security Contributions + Transfer payment.

(vii) Disposable Income or DI means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families. It can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

Question 40.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise?
Industrial Policy of Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu enjoys growth and has excellent infrastructure. A straggly established cluster and political stability are the major advantages. The state government has a pro-active industrial policy and is very encouraging when it comes to SEZs.
Important industrial policies:

• Tamil Nadu Industrial Policy – 2014
• Implementation of Industrial Policy – 2015
• Tamilnadu State Environmental Policy – 2014
• Tamilnadu SEZs Policy -2013
• Tamilnadu Automobiles and Auto Parts Policy – 2014 (/) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policies – 2014

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
live important events between 1922-1943
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Why was Balkan league formed?
(ii) What was the outcome of the first Balkan war?
(iii) Who were defeated in this war?
(iv) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan war?
Answer:
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.
(ii) The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia between them. Turkey was reduced to the area around Constantinople.
(iii) The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.
(iv) The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest.

(b) Deccan Riots
(i) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
(ii) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
(iii) What did it result in?
(iv) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
(b) Deccan Riots
(i) The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared in May 1875, in Supa, a village near Poona.
(ii) Under a new law, the British moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters and auction it off.
(iii) It resulted in transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.
(iv) The violence was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

[OR]

(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
(ii) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
(iii) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(iv) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(ii) The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(iii) The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(iv) Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
(ii) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
(iii) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
(iv) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are,

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(ii) Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.R Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(iii) The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.
(iv) M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil region
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(j) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil regions
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 x 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
செய்தி 1 – ஒவ்வோர் ஆண்டும் ஜுன் 15 ஐ உலகக் காற்று நாளாகக் கொண்டாடி
வருகிறோம்.
செய்தி 2 – காற்றாலை மின் உற்பத்தியில் இந்தியாவில் தமிழகம் இரண்டாமிடம் என்பது எனக்குப் பெருமையே.
செய்தி 3 – காற்றின் ஆற்றலைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கடல் கடந்து வணிகம் செய்து அதில் வெற்றி கண்டவர்கள் தமிழர்கள்!
(அ) செய்தி 1 மட்டும் சரி
(ஆ) செய்தி 1, 2 ஆகியன சரி
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி
(ஈ) செய்தி 1, 3 ஆகியன சரி
Answer:
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி

Question 2.
காசிக்காண்டம் என்பது …………..
(அ) காசி நகரத்தின் வரலாற்றைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஆ) காசி நகரத்தைக் குறிக்கும் மறுபெயர்
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஈ) காசி நகரத்திற்கு வழிப்படுத்தும் நூல்
Answer:
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்

Question 3.
‘படித்து வந்தேன், வேலை தேடினேன்’ எனும் தொடரின் வகை …………..
(அ) பெயரெச்சத் தொடர்
(ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்
(இ) எழுவாய்த் தொடர்
(ஈ) முற்றெச்சத் தொடர்
Answer:
ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்

Question 4.
மலர்கள் தரையில் நழுவுதல், எப்போது?
(அ) அள்ளி முகர்ந்தால்
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்
(இ) இறுக்கி முடிச்சிட்டால்
(ஈ) காம்பு முறிந்தால்
Answer:
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்

Question 5.
இருநாட்டு அரசர்களும் தும்பைப் பூவைச் சூடிப்போரிடுவதன் காரணம் …………..
(அ) நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்றல்
(ஆ) ஆநிரைக் கவர்தல்
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்
(ஈ) கோட்டையை முற்றுகையிடல்
Answer:
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்

Question 6.
சுதந்திர இந்தியாவின் மகத்தான சாதனையும் சவாலுமாக ஜெயகாந்தன் கருதுவது …………..
(அ) அரசின் நலத்திட்டங்களைச் செயல்படுத்தல்
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்
(இ) அறிவியல் முன்னேற்றம்
(ஈ) வெளிநாட்டு முதலீடுகள்
Answer:
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்

Question 7.
குறிஞ்சித் திணையின் சிறு பொழுது …………..
(அ) யாமம்
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) எற்பாடு
(ஈ) நண்ப கல்
Answer:
(அ) யாமம்

Question 8.
“உனக்குப் பாட்டுகள் பாடுகிறோம்
உனக்குப் புகழ்ச்சிகள் கூறுகிறோம்” – பாரதியின் இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள நயங்கள் யாவை?
அ) உருவகம், எதுகை
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை
(இ) முரண், இயைபு
(ஈ) உவமை, எதுகை
Answer:
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை

Question 9.
பின்பனிக்காலத்தை பெரும் பொழுதாய்க் கொண்ட திணை ………………… ஆகும்.
(அ) முல்லை
(ஆ) மருதம்
(இ) நெய்தல்
(ஈ) பாலை
Answer:
(ஈ) பாலை

Question 10.
இரவு 2 மணி முதல் காலை 6 மணி வரையுள்ள காலம் …………..
(அ) வைகறை
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) நண்பகல்
(ஈ) எற்பாடு
Answer:
(அ) வைகறை

Question 11.
‘விருந்தினரைப் பேணுவதற்குப் பொருள் தேவைப்பட்டதால், தன் கருங்கோட்டுச் சீறியாழைப் பணையம் வைத்து விருந்தளித்தான் என்கிறது புறநானூறு’. இச்செய்தி உணர்த்தும் விருந்து போற்றிய நிலை …………..
(அ) நிலத்திற்கேற்ற விருந்து
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து
(இ) அல்லிலும் விருந்து
(ஈ) உற்றாரின் விருந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.

“அலங்கு கழை நரலும் ஆரிப்படுகர்ச்
சிலம்பு அடைந் திருந்த பாக்கம் எய்தி
நோனாச் செருவின் வலம்படு நோன்தாள்
மான விறல்வேள் வயிரியம் என்னே

Question 12.
பாடலடியில் குறிப்பிடப்படும் மன்னர் …………..
(அ) சோழன்
(ஆ) பாண்டியன்
(இ) நன்னன்
(ஈ) சேரன்
Answer:
(இ) நன்னன்

Question 13.
பாடலின் ஆசிரியர் …………..
(அ) நன்ன ன்
ஆ) கூத்தர்
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்
(ஈ) பெருங்குன்றூர் கிழார்
Answer:
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்

Question 14.
வயிரியம் – பொருள் தருக.
(அ) வைரம்
(ஆ) பாணர்
(இ) சோறு
(ஈ) கூத்தர்
Answer:
(ஈ) கூத்தர்

Question 15.
இப்பாடலில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள மோனைச் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
(அ) சிலம்பு, நரலும்
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த
(இ) மான, நோனா
(ஈ) வயிரியம், நோன்தாள்
Answer:
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க.
அ) வியாஸர் தர்மார்த்தங்களை உபதேசிக்கவே பாரதத்தை எழுதினார்.
(ஆ) சிலப்பதிகாரத்தையும், மணிமேகலையையும் இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என
வழங்குவர்.
Answer:
விடை:
அ) வியாஸர் பாரதத்தை எழுதிய நோக்கம் யாது?
ஆ) இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என வழங்கப்படும் நூல்கள் எவை? 150 5 Swaa20 தமிழ் – X RARE சாக்கமாக அSைents காக்கலை

Question 17.
“மன்னும் சிலம்பே! மணிமே கலைவடிவே!
முன்னும் நினைவால் முடிதாழ வாழ்த்துவமே!” – இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள ஐம்பெருங் காப்பியங்களைத் தவிர எஞ்சியுள்ள காப்பியங்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• சீவகசிந்தாமணி
• வளையாபதி
• குண்டலகேசி

Question 18.
வறுமையின் காரணமாக உதவி கேட்டு வருபவரின் தன்மானத்தை எள்ளிநகையாடுவது குறித்துக் குறளின் கருத்து என்ன?
Answer:
இகழ்ந்து ஏளனம் செய்யாமல் பொருள் கொடுப்பவரைக் கண்டால், இரப்பவரின் உள்ளத்தின் உள்ளே மகிழ்ச்சி பொங்கும்.

Question 19.
“நேற்று நான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசு என்ற கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மிக மகிழ்ந்தேன்!” என்று சேகர் என்னிடம் கூறினான். இக்கூற்றை அயற்கூற்றாக எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னாள் தான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசுக் கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மகிழ்ந்ததாகச் சேகர் என்னிடம் (அவனிடம்)
கூறினான்.

Question 20.
மொழிபெயர்ப்புக் குறித்து மணவை முஸ்தபா குறிப்பிடுவது யாது?
Answer:
“ஒரு மொழியில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டதை வேறொரு மொழியில் வெளியிடுவது மொழிபெயர்ப்பு ” என்கிறார் மணவை முஸ்தபா.

Question 21.
‘கண்’ என முடியும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
பண்என்னாம் பாடற் கியைபின்றேல் கண்என்னாம் கண்ணோட்டம் இல்லாத கண்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 x 2 = 10]

Question 22.
சொற்களை இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.
(தேன், விளக்கு, மழை, விண், மணி, விலங்கு, செய், மேகலை, வான், பொன், பூ) Answer:
விடை:
தேன்மழை, மணிமேகலை, செய்தேன், வான்மழை, பொன்மணி, பொன்விளக்கு,
விளக்கு செய்; விண்மழை, செய்விலங்கு, பூமழை

Question 23.
அடிக்கோடிட்ட சொல்லிற்கு பதிலாகப் பொருள் மாறாமல் வேறு சொல்லை
பயன்படுத்தவும்.
Answer:
உலகில் வாழும் மக்களில் சிலர் கனியிருக்கக் காய் புசித்தலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி இன்னற்படுகின்றனர்.
Answer:
விடை:
பூமியில் வாழும் மானிடர்களில் சிலர் பழம் இருக்கக் காய் உண்ணுதலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி துன்பப்படுகின்றனர்.

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி ஒரு தொடர் அமைக்கவும்.
விதி – வீதி
Answer:
விடை:
வீதி தோறும் நூலகம் அமைந்தால் நாட்டின் தலைவிதி மாறிவிடும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
Answer:
(அ) Infrared rays – அகச்சிவப்புக் கதிர்கள்
(ஆ) Cosmic rays – விண்வெளிக் கதிர்கள்

Question 26.
பொருத்தமான இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக் குறியிடுக.
பழங்காலத்திலே பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.
Answer:
பழங்காலத்திலே, பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி, சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி, சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி, நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி, விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.

Question 27.
கொச்சைச் சொற்களைத் திருத்தி எழுதுக.
தலைக்கு சீக்கா தேச்சு முழுவனா ஒடம்புக்கு குளிர்ச்சி
Answer:
விடை:
தலைக்குச் சீகைக்காய் தேய்த்து முழுகினால் உடம்பிற்கு குளிர்ச்சி.

Question 28.
கிளர்ந்த, தோன்றி – இலக்கணக்குறிப்பு தருக.
Answer:
விடை :
கிளர்ந்த – பெயரெச்சம்
தோன்றி – வினையெச்சம்

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 29.
கரகாட்டம் விளக்குக.
Answer:

• பன்னெடுங்காலமாக மக்களால் விரும்பப்படும் உயர்ந்த கலைகளில் ஒன்றே கரகாட்டம்.
• • கரகம் என்னும் பித்தளைச் செம்பையோ, சிறிய குடத்தையோ தலையில் வைத்துத் தாளத்திற்கு ஏற்ப ஆடுவது, கரகாட்டம்.
• இந்த நடனம் கரகம், கும்பாட்டம் என்றும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
• கரகச் செம்பின் அடிப்பாகத்தை உட்புறமாகத் தட்டி, ஆடுபவரின் தலையில் நன்கு படியும்படி செய்கின்றனர். தலையில் செம்பு நிற்கும் அளவு எடையை ஏற்றுவதற்குச் செம்பில் மணலையோ பச்சரிசியையோ நிரப்புகின்றனர்.
• கண்ணாடியாலும் பூக்களாலும் அழகூட்டிய கரகக் கூட்டின் நடுவில், கிளி பொம்மை பொருத்திய மூங்கில் குச்சியைச் செருகி வைத்து ஆடுகின்றனர்.
• நையாண்டி மேள இசையும் நாதசுரம், தவில், பம்பை போன்ற இசைக்கருவிகளும் இசைக்கப்படுகின்றன.
• ஆணும் பெண்ணும் சேர்ந்து நிகழ்த்தும் கரகாட்டத்தில் சில நேரங்களில் ஆண், பெண் வேடமிட்டு ஆடுவதும் உண்டு. கரகாட்டம் நிகழ்த்துதலில் இத்தனை பேர்தான் நிகழ்த்த வேண்டும் என்ற வரையறை இல்லை.
• சிலப்பதிகாரத்தில் மாதவி ஆடிய பதினொரு வகை ஆடல்களில் குடக்கூத்து என்ற ஆடலும் குறிப்பிடப்படுகிறது.

Question 30.
ம.பொ.சி.பற்றி சிறுகுறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:
சிலம்புச்செல்வர் என்று போற்றப்படும் ம.பொ.சிவஞானம் (1906 – 1995) விடுதலைப் போராட்ட வீரர்; 1952 முதல் 1954 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவை உறுப்பினராகவும் 1972 முதல் 1978 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவைத் தலைவராகவும் பதவி வகித்துள்ளார்; தமிழரசுக் கழகத்தைத் தொடங்கியவர். ‘வள்ளலார் கண்ட ஒருமைப்பாடு’ என்னும் இவருடைய நூலுக்காக 1966 ஆம் ஆண்டு சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருது பெற்றார். தமிழக அரசு திருத்தணியிலும் சென்னை தியாகராய நகரிலும் இவருக்குச் சிலை அமைத்துள்ளது.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி
இளம் வயதிலேயே சமூக விடுதலைக்காகப் போராடியவர்; வழக்கறிஞர். நாகர்கோவில் நகர்மன்றத் தலைவராகவும் சட்டமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் நாடாளுமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் பணியாற்றினார். குமரி மாவட்டப் போராட்டத்தை முன்னெடுத்துச் சென்றவர்; இதனால் மார்ஷல் நேசமணி என்று அழைக்கப்பட்டார். 1956 நவம்பர் 1ஆம் நாள் கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்து, தமிழகத்தின் தென் எல்லையாக மாறியது. இவருடைய நினைவைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு இவருக்கு நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

(அ) இளம் வயதில் சமூக விடுதலைக்காக போராடியவர் யார்?
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி

(ஆ) 1956 நவம்பர் 1-ல் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்த மாவட்டம் எது?
Answer:
கன்னியாகுமரி

(இ) நேசமணியின் சிறப்பைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு செய்தது யாது? Answer:
நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.[ 2 x 3 = 6]

Question 32.
மாற்றம் பற்றி காலக்கணிதத்தில் கண்ணதாசன் கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• மாற்றம் என்பது தான் மனிதகுலத் தத்துவம் ஆகும்.
• மாறும் உலகின் மகத்துவத்தை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• நன்மை தீமை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• தலைவர் மாறுவர், சபைகளும் மாறும். ஆனால் தத்துவம் மாறாது.
• கொடுக்க வேண்டியதைக் கொடுக்க வேண்டும்.
• குறை கூறுபவர்கள் குறை கூறட்டும்.
• நானே தொடக்கம் நானே முடிவு நானுரைப்பது தான் சட்டம்.

Question 33.
தமிழின் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குவதற்கான காரணங்களாகக் கவிஞர் கூறுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• செழிப்பு மிக்க தமிழே ! பழம்பெருமையும் தனக்கெனத் தனிச்சிறப்பும், இலக்கிய வளமும் கொண்ட தமிழே ! வியக்கத்தக்க உன் நீண்ட நிலைத்தன்மையும். வேற்று மொழியார் உன்னைப்பற்றி உரைத்த புகழுரையும் எமக்குள் பற்றுணர்வை எழுப்புகின்றன.
• செந்தாமரையின் தேனைக் குடித்துச் சிறகசைத்துப் பாடும் வண்டினைப் போன்று நாங்கள் ‘உன்னைச் சுவைத்து உள்ளத்தில் கனல் மூள உன் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குகின்றோம்.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
அ) “மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்” எனத் தொடங்கும் காலக்கணிதம்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்; மாறும்
உலகின் மகத்துவம் அறிவேன்!
எவ்வெவை தீமை எவ்வெவை நன்மை
என்ப தறிந்து ஏகுமென் சாலை!
தலைவர் மாறுவர்; தர்பார் மாறும்;
தத்துவம் மட்டுமே அட்சய பாத்திரம்!
கொள்வோர் கொள்க; குரைப்போர் குரைக்க!
உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது;
நானே தொடக்கம்; நானே முடிவு;
நானுரைப் பதுதான் நாட்டின் சட்டம்! (- கண்ணதாசன்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “செம்பொனடிச் சிறு கிங்கிணியோடு ” எனத் தொடங்கும் முத்துக்குமாரசாமி
பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
செம்பொ னடிச்சிறு கிங் கிணியோடு சிலம்பு கலந்தாடத்
திருவரை யரைஞா ணரைமணி யொடு மொளி திகழரை வடமாடப் பைம்பொ னசும்பிய தொந்தி யொடுஞ்சிறு பண்டி சரிந்தாடப்
பட்ட நுதற்பொலி பொட்டொடு வட்டச் சுட்டி பதிந்தாடக்
கம்பி விதம்பொதி குண்டல முங்குழை காது மசைந்தாடக்
கட்டிய சூழியு முச்சியு முச்சிக் கதிர்முத் தொடுமாட
வம்பவ ளத்திரு மேனியு மாடிட ஆடுக செங்கீரை .
ஆதி வயித்திய நாத புரிக்குக னாடுக செங்கீரை (- குமரகுருபரர்)

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 35.
குறிஞ்சித்திணை, கருப்பொருள் அட்டவணைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

Question 36.
‘இன்பம் ஒருவற்கு இரத்தல் இரந்தவை
துன்பம் உறாஅ வரின்’ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
கவிஞர் தாம் கூறவிரும்பும் கருத்திற்கு ஏற்றவாறு தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி அமைவதை எடுத்துக்காட்டுக.
Answer:
தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி:
இயல்பாய் நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா.) போருழந் தெடுத்த ஆரெயில் நெடுங்கொடி
வாரல் என்பனபோல் மறித்துக்கை காட்ட’
பொருள்:
கோட்டை மதில் மேல் இருந்த கொடியானது வரவேண்டாம் எனத் தடுப்பதுபோல, கை காட்டியது என்பது பொருள்.

அணிப்பொருத்தம்:
கோவலனும், கண்ணகியும் மதுரை மாநகருக்குள் சென்ற போது மதிலின் மேலிருந்த கொடிகள் காற்றில் இயற்கையாக அசைந்தன. ஆனால், இளங்கோவடிகள் கோவலன் மதுரையில் கொலை செய்யப்படுவான் எனக்கருதி அக்கொடிகள் கையை அசைத்து, ‘இம்மதுரைக்குள் வரவேண்டா’ என்று தெரிவிப்பது போலக் காற்றில் அசைவதாகத் தம் குறிப்பைக் கொடியின் மீது ஏற்றிக் கூறுகிறார். இவ்வாறு இயல்பாக நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 38.
அ) கருணையனின் தாய் மறைவுக்கு, வீரமாமுனிவர் தம் பூக்கள் போன்ற உவமைகளாலும் உருவக மலர்களாலும் நிகழ்த்திய கவிதாஞ்சலியை விவரிக்க.
Answer:

• நான் உயிர்பிழைக்கும் வழி அறியேன்.
• நினைந்து கண்ட அறிவினுக்குப் பொருந்தியவாறு உறுப்புகள் இயங்குதல் இல்லாத இந்த உடலின் தன்மையை அறியேன்.
• உடலுக்கு வேண்டிய உணவைத் தேடிக் கொணரும் வழிவகைகளை அறியேன்.
• காட்டில் செல்வதற்கான வழிகளையும் அறியேன்.
• என் தாய் தன் கையால் காட்டிய முறைகளை மட்டுமே அறிவேன். என்னைத் தவிக்க
  விட்டுவிட்டு என்தாய் தான் மட்டும் தனியாகப் போய்விட்டாள்.
• நவமணிகள் பதித்த மணிமாலைகளைப் பிணித்தது போன்று நல்ல அறங்களை எல்லாம் ஒரு கோவையாக இணைத்த தவத்தையே அணிந்த மார்பனாகிய கருணையன், தாயின் பிரிவால் புலம்பிக் கூறினான்.
• அது கேட்டுப் பல்வேறு இசைகளை இயக்கியது போன்று, தேன்மலர்கள் பூத்த மரங்கள் தோறும் உள்ள மணம் வீசும் மலர்களும் மலர்ந்த சுனை தோறும் உள்ள பறவைகளும் வண்டுகளும் அக்காட்டினிலே அழுவன போன்று கூச்சலிட்டன.

(அல்லது)

ஆ) நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியல் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுவதாகத் தொடங்குகின்ற பின்வரும் சொற்பொழிவைத் தொடர்ந்து நிறைவு செய்க. . பேரன்பிற்குரிய அவையோர் அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம் இன்று இயல், இசை, நாடகம் என்னும் முத்தமிழுடன் அறிவியல் நான்காம் தமிழாகக் கூறுகின்றனர். ஆதிகாலந்தொட்டு இயங்கிவரும் தமிழ்மொழியில் அறிவியல் என்பது தமிழர் வாழ்வியலோடு கலந்து கரைந்து வந்துள்ளதை இயக்கியங்கள் மூலம் அறிகிறோம். அண்டத்தை அளந்தும், புவியின் தோற்றத்தை ஊகித்தும் கூறும் அறிவியல் செய்திகள் இலக்கியங்களில் உள்ளன. சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில்.
Answer:
விடை: சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில் எதுவுமேயில்லாத பெருவெளியில் அண்டத் தோற்றத்துக்குக்
காரணமான கரு (பரமாணு) பேரொலியுடன் தோன்றியது. உருவம் இல்லாத காற்று முதலான பூதங்களின் அணுக்களுடன் வளர்கின்ற வானம் என்னும் முதல் பூதத்தின் ஊழி அது. அந்த அணுக்களின் ஆற்றல் கிளர்ந்து பருப்பொருள்கள் சிதறும்படியாகப் பல ஊழிக் காலங்கள் கடந்து சென்றன. பிறகு நெருப்புப் பந்துபோலப் புவி உருவாகி விளங்கிய ஊழிக்கலாம் தொடர்ந்தது. பின்னர் பூமி குளிரும்படியாகத் தொடர்ந்து மழை பொழிந்து ஊழிக்கலாம் கடந்தது. அவ்வாறு தொடர்ந்து பெய்த மழையால் பூமி வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்கியது. மீண்டும் மீண்டும் நிறை வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்குதல் நடந்த இப்பெரிய உலகத்தில் உயிர்கள் உருவாகி வாழ்வதற்கு ஏற்ற சூழல் தோன்றியது. அச்சூழலில் உயிர்கள் தோன்றி நிலைபெறும்படியான ஊழிக்காலம் வந்தது. இவ்வாறு நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியலின் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுகிறார்கள்.

Question 39.
அ) நாளிதழ் ஒன்றின் பொங்கல் ‘மலரில், உழவுத் தொழிலுக்கு வந்தனை செய்வோம்’ என்ற உங்கள் கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி, அந்நாளிதழ் ஆசிரியருக்குக் கடிதம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
மதுரை,
2.4.2019.

அனுப்புநர்:
தெ. தண்டபாணி,
35, மேற்கு மாடவீதி,
மதுரை – 625 001.

பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

பொருள்: எனது கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி விண்ணப்பம்.

ஐயா,

வணக்கம்.
இந்த ஆண்டு பொங்கல் விழா எங்கள் ஊரில் மிகச்சிறப்பாக நடைப்பெற்றது. நான்கு நாட்கள் நடைபெற்ற அந்நிகழ்வுகள் அனைவரையும் மிகவும் கவர்ந்தன. அதன் தொடர்பாக நான் ” உழவுக்கும் தொழிலுக்கும் வந்தனை செய்வோம்” என்னும் தலைப்பில் ஒரு கட்டுரை எழுதி இருக்கிறேன். அந்தக் கட்டுரையைத் தங்களின் நாளிதழில் வெளியிடுமாறு கேட்டுக் கொள்கிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம் : மதுரை
தேதி : 2.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
தெ. தண்டபாணி.

குறிப்பு
இத்துடன் கட்டுரை இணைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) பழுதுப்பட்ட மின்கம்பிகளைச் சரிசெய்து அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு, மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தை சரி செய்ய வேண்டி மின்வாரிய அலுவலகத்திற்கு கடிதம் ஒன்று வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
கண்மணி,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

பெறுநர்
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

ஐயா,

பொருள்: அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தைச்
சரி செய்தல் – தொடர்பாக.

வணக்கம், எங்கள் தெரு புளியங்குடி நகராட்சியில் உள்ளது. இங்கு 250க்கும் மேற்பட்ட குடும்பத்தினர் வசித்து வருகின்றனர். குழந்தைகள் முதல் அரசு அலுவலர்கள் வரை, இச்சாலை வழியே தான் நகரின் பிரதான சாலைக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். இப்பகுதியில் ஒரு நாளைக்கு நான்கு, ஐந்து முறை மின்வெட்டு ஏற்படுகிறது. மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கமும் ஏற்படுகிறது.

இவ்வீதியில் 28 மின்கம்பங்கள் உள்ளன. பாதிக்கு மேற்பட்ட கம்பங்களில் உள்ள மின்விளக்குகள் பழுதுபட்டு இருக்கின்றன. மின் விளக்குகள் எரியாததால் இரவு நேரங்களில் வீதியில் விபத்துகள் ஏற்படுகின்றன. இருட்டைப் பயன்படுத்தி வழிப்பறி கொள்ளைகளும், திருட்டு நிகழ்வுகளும் அதிகரித்து வருகின்றன.

பலமுறை முறையிட்டும் நகராட்சி நிர்வாகம் போதிய அக்கறை செலுத்தவில்லை. எங்களின் அடிப்படைத் தேவைகளை நிறைவேற்றி மின்விளக்கு வசதி ஏற்படுத்தித் தருமாறு பணிவோடு வேண்டுகிறோம்.

நன்றி,

இடம்: மதுரை,
தேதி: 08.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
கண்ம ணி.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஒரே நிறத் துணியை முண்டாசுபோலக் கட்டிக்கொண்டு கையில் வைத்துள்ள சிறுதுணியை இசைக்கேற்ப வீசியும் ஒயிலாக ஆடும் ஆட்டமே ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆகும்.

Question 41.
படிவத்தை நிரப்புக.
Answer:

Question 42.
(அ) அரசின் பொங்கல் விழாவில் சிற்றூர்க் கலைகளைக் காட்சியாக்கியிருக்கிறார்கள். ஒருபுறம் திரைகட்டித் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து நிகழ்ந்து கொண்டிருக்கிறது. இன்னொருபுறம் பொம்மலாட்டம் ஆடிக்கொண்டிருந்தனர். சற்று நடந்தால் தாரை தப்பட்டை முழங்க ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடியவாறு மண்ணின் மக்கள் …. இக்கலைகளை நீங்கள் நண்பர்களுடன் பார்த்தவாறும் சுவைத்தவாறும் செல்கிறீர்கள்.இக்கலைகளைப் பாதுகாக்கவும் வளர்க்கவும் மேன்மேலும் பரவலாக்கவும் நீங்கள் செய்யவிருப்பனவற்றை வரிசைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

1. பிறந்த நாள் விழாக்களில் மயிலாட்டம் முதலான கலைகளை நிகழ்த்த முனைவேன்.
2. எங்கள் குடும்ப விழாக்களில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்த்த ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
3. பள்ளி, கல்லூரி விழாக்களில் இக்கலை நிகழ்ச்சிகளை நாங்களே நடத்துவோம்.
4. எம் ஊரில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்வுக்கு ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
5. எங்கள் ஊர் மக்கள் இணைந்து ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடுவோம்.
6.  எங்கள் ஊரில் நாட்டுப்புறக் கலையை வளர்ப்போம்

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) கீழ்க்காணும் பத்தியை மொழிபெயர்த்து எழுதுக.
Decision making is a process that plays a vital role in our daily lives. Some decisions are not very important whereas other imperative decisions, when cautiously carried out, can change the path of our lives. When faced with a crisis, one of the major issues is deciding the right thing. Decision making can be quite complicated and challenging in some cases. It is hence essential to gather as much information from different sources and assess all possible alternatives to the problem or situation at hand before making a decision. Doing so will permit us to land at the best possible result for the problem. Such decisions can’t be an overnight one. It takes a couple of months to investigate and consult with friends, family and university professors to make a decision. It is imperative that one makes decisions in consultation with parents opinions and check on other surveys and researches to avoid challenges.
Answer:
விடை:
ஒவ்வொருவர் வாழ்க்கையிலும் தீர்மானம் எடுப்பது முக்கியமான ஒன்றாக இருக்கிறது. சில தீர்மானங்கள் முக்கியமானதாக இல்லாமல் இருந்தாலும், சில முக்கிய தீர்மானங்கள் கவனத்துடன் மேற்கொண்டால் நம் வாழ்க்கை பாதையை செம்மையாக மாற்றி அமைக்க முடியும். ஒரு பிரச்சனையை எதிர்கொள்ளும் போது அதற்கு உரிய தீர்வைக் காண்பது கடினமான ஒன்றாகும். தீர்வு எடுப்பது என்பது சில சமயங்களில் சிக்கலானதாகவும் அல்லது சவாலாகவும் இருக்கலாம். ஆதலால் போதிய தகவலைப் பல வட்டாரத்தில் இருந்து சேகரித்து அதற்கு மாறான கருத்துக்களை ஆராய்ந்து தீர்வுக்கு வரவேண்டும். இங்ஙனம் தீர்வெடுப்பது பிரச்சனைக்குரிய தீர்வை துல்லியமாக அடைய உதவும். இது ஒரு நாளில் மட்டும் சிந்தித்து முடிவெடுக்கக் கூடிய தீர்மானமாக இருக்காது. இது நண்பர்கள், குடும்பத்தினர் மற்றும் ஆசிரியர்கள் என இவர்களுடன் கலந்தாலோசிப்பதால் தீர்வுக்கு வருவதற்கு ஓரிரு மாதங்கள் ஆகலாம். பெற்றோர்கள் அறிவுரைக் கேற்ப இருப்பினும் சவால்களைச் சமாளிப்பதற்கு ஏதுவாக பிற ஆலோசனைகள் மற்றும் கருத்துக்களைத் தெரிந்து கொள்ள கலந்தாலோசனை செய்வது நல்லது.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 x 8 = 24]

Question 43.
அ) தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உ.ரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
கால வெள்ளத்தில் கரைந்துபோன மொழிகளுக்கிடையில் நீந்தி தன்னை நிலை நிறுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ளது தமிழ் சொல்வளம் இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொது என்றாலும் தமிழ் மட்டுமே அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும். தமிழின் சொல் வளத்தை நாம் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.

தமிழின் சொல் வளம்:
ஆங்கிலம் போன்ற மொழிகளில் இலையைக் குறிக்க ஒரே ஒரு சொல் மட்டுமே உள்ளது. ஆனால் தமிழ்மக்கள் இலையை அதன் வன்மை, மென்மை, இவற்றைக் கொண்டு இலை, தோகை, ஓலை எனப் பாகுபாடு செய்துள்ளனர். இதுமட்டுமன்றி தாவரங்கள், மணிவகை, இளம்பயிர்வகை, காய்கனி வகை, அடி, கிளை கொழுந்து என அனைத்து உறுப்புகளுக்கும் சொற்களைப் பகுத்து வைத்துள்ளனர்.

பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள்:
அரும்பு: பூவின் தோற்றநிலை போது, பூ விரியத் தொடங்கும் நிலை மலர், பூவின் மலர்ந்த நிலை, வீ: மரம், செடியிலிருந்து பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலை செம்மல், பூ வாடின நிலை

தமிழின் பொருள் வளம்:
தமிழ்நாடு எத்துணைப் பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பது அதன் விளைபொருள் வகைகளை நோக்கினாலே விளங்கும். தமிழ் நாட்டு நெல்லில் செந்நெல், வெண்ணெல், கார்நெல் என்றும், சம்பா, மட்டை, கார் என்றும் பல வகைகள் உள்ளன. அவற்றில் சம்பாவில் மட்டும் ஆவிரம் பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டு சம்பா, குதிரை வாலிச்சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது உள் வகைகள் உள்ளன. இவற்றோடு வரகு, காடைக்கண்ணி குதிரைவாலி முதலிய சிறு கூலங்கள் தமிழ் நாட்டிலன்றி வேறெங்கும் விளைவதில்லை.

முடிவுரை:
பண்டைத் தமிழ் மக்கள் தனிப்பெரும் நாகரிகத்தை உடையவராக இருந்திருக்கின்றனர். ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கு உதவுவது மொழியேயாகும். ஆகவே “நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்” என்ற கூற்றின்படி பொருட்களைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பொருட் சொற்களை அமைத்துக் கொள்வது நம் தலையாய கடமையாகும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் – அவை நிகழும் இடங்கள் – அவற்றின் ஒப்பனைகள் – சிறப்பும் பழைமையும் – இத்தகைய மக்கள் கலைகள் அருகிவருவதற்கான காரணங்கள் – அவற்றை வளர்த்தெடுக்க நாம் செய்ய வேண்டுவன – இவை குறித்து நாளிதழுக்கான தலையங்கம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் நிலைக்குமா?! – கண்ணுக்குக் காட்சியையும் சிந்தைக்குக் கருத்தினையும் தருவன. கருத்துடன் கலைத்திறனை நோக்காகக் கொண்டு காலவெள்ளத்தைக் கடந்து நிற்பன. ஆடல், பாடல், இசை, நடிப்பு ஒப்பனை உரையாடல் வழியாக மக்களை மகிழ்வடையச் செய்வன. சமூகப் பண்பாட்டுத்தளத்தின் கருத்துக் கருவூலமாக விளங்குவன. நுட்பமான உணர்வுகளின் உறைவிடமாக இருப்பன. அவை யாவை? அவை தாம் மக்கள் பண்பாட்டின் பதிவுகளான நிகழ்கலைகள்.

சிற்றூர் மக்களின் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளில் பிரித்துப் பார்க்க இயலாக் கூறுகளாகத் திகழ்வை நிகழ்கலைகள். இவை மக்களுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியெனும் கனி கொடுத்துக் கவலையைப் போக்குகின்றன. சமுதாய நிகழ்வுகளின் ஆவணங்களாகவும் செய்திகளைத் தரும் ஊடகங்களாகவும் திகழ்கின்றன. பழந்தமிழ் மக்களின் கலை, அழகியல், புதுமை ஆகியவற்றின் எச்சங்களை அறிவதற்குத் தற்காலத்தில் நிகழ்த்தப்படும் கலைகள் துணை செய்கின்றன.

நிகழ்கலைகள் ஊரக மக்களின் வாழ்வில் இரண்டறக் கலந்திருக்கின்றன. இவை கற்றோராலும் மற்றோராலும் விரும்பப்படும் கலைகளாக உள்ளன. உழைப்பாளிகளின் உணர்வுகளாக உள்ளன. மக்களின் எண்ண வெளிப்பாடாக, வாழ்க்கையைக் காட்டும் கண்ணாடியாக, மக்களின் சமய வழிபாட்டிலும் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளிலும் பிரிக்க முடியாத பண்பாட்டுக் கூறுகளாக விளங்குகின்றன.
நிகழ்கலைகளை வளரச் செய்வோம். என்றும் அழியாமல் நிலைக்கச் செய்வோம்.

Question 44.
(அ) அனுமான் ஆட்டத்தை கூறுக.
Answer:

• திடீரென்று மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் துரித கதியில் ஒலிக்கத் தொடங்கின.
• எதற்கென்று தெரியாமல் கூட்டம் திகைத்துப் பந்தலை நோக்குகையில் பெருங்குரல் எழுப்பியபடி அனுமார் பந்தல் கால் வழியாகக் கீழே குதித்தார்.
• அனுமார் வாலில் பெரிய தீப்பந்தம். ஜ்வாலை புகைவிட்டுக் கொண்டு எரிந்தது. கூட்டம் தானாகவே பின்னால் நகர்ந்தது.
• அனுமார் கால்களைத் தரையில் பதித்து உடம்பை ஒரு குலுக்குக் குலுக்கினார். தீயின் ஜ்வாலை மடிந்து அலை பாய்ந்தது. கைகளைத் தரையில் ஊன்றி அனுமார் கரணமடித்தார்.
• சுருண்ட வால் இவன் பக்கமாக வந்து விழுந்தது.
• கூட்டம் அச்சத்தோடு கத்தியபடி அலைக்கழிந்தது.
• அனுமார் பெரிதாகச் சிரித்துக்கொண்டு நின்றார். அனுமார் நின்றதும் கூட்டம் கொஞ்சம் அமைதியுற்றது.
• முன்நோக்கி நகர்ந்து வந்தது. அனுமார் நேசப்பான்மையோடு சிரித்து வாலை மேலே தூக்கிச் சுற்றினார்.
• தீ வட்டமாகச் சுழன்றது. வேகம் கூடக்கூட, கூட்டம் இன்னும் முன்னால் நகர்ந்து வந்தது. இவன் நெருங்கி அனுமார் பக்கம் சென்றான்.
• அனுமார் இன்னொரு பாய்ச்சல் பாய்ந்து வேகமாக ஆட ஆரம்பித்தார்.
  வர வர ஆட்டம் துரிதகதிக்குச் சென்றது. பதுங்கியும் பாய்ந்தும் ஆடினார்.
• ஆட ஆட, புழுதி புகை போல எழுந்தது. கழுத்துமணி அறுந்து கீழே விழுந்தது. • ஒன்றையும் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் ஆட்டத்தில் தன்னை இழந்தவராக ஆடினார்.
• மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் அவர் ஆட்டத்தோடு இணைந்து செல்ல முடியவில்லை,
  தடுமாறிவிட்டது
• மேல் மூச்சு வாங்க அனுமார் ஆட்டத்தை நிறுத்தினார். மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் நின்றன.
• அயர்ச்சியோடு மேளக்காரன் தோளிலிருந்து தவுலை இறக்கிக் கீழே வைத்தான். • ஆட்டம் முடிந்தது. தீர்மானமாகியது போல எஞ்சி இருந்த கூட்டமும் அவசர அவசரமாகக் கலைய ஆரம்பித்தது.

(அல்ல து)

(ஆ) அன்னமய்யா என்னும் பெயருக்கும் அவரின் செயலுக்கும் உள்ள
பொருத்தப்பாட்டினைக் கோபல்லபுரத்து மக்கள் கதைப்பகுதி கொண்டு விவரிக்க. Answer:
கதைக்கரு :
கிராமத்து மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல், பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற நேயம். கதைமாந்தர்கள்:

• சுப்பையா
• கிராமத்து மக்கள்
• அன்னமய்யா
• மணி

முன்னுரை:
கிராமத்து வெள்ளந்தி மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல் இயல்பான வரவேற்பும் எளிமையான உணவும் பசித்த வேளையில் வந்தவர்களுக்குத் தம்மிடம் இருப்பதைப் பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற மனித நேயம் ஆகியவற்றை இக்கதைப்பகுதி எடுத்துக்கூறுகிறது.

கிராமத்து காட்சி:
அதிகாலை நேரத்தில் பாச்சல் அருகு எடுத்து முடித்துவிட்டுக் காலைக் கஞ்சியைக் குடிக்க – உட்காரும் வேளையில் அன்னமய்யா யாரோ ஒரு சன்னியாசியைக் கூட்டிக் கொண்டு வருவகை கண்டான் சுப்பையா வரட்டும் வரட்டும். ஒரு வயிற்றுக்குக் கஞ்சி ஊற்றி நாமும் குடிப்போம் என்றார் கொத்தாளி அந்தப் புஞ்சை சாலையோரத்தில் இருந்ததால் தேசாந்திரிகள் வந்து இவர்களிடம் தண்ணீரோ, கஞ்சியோ சாப்பிட்டு விட்டுப் போவது வழக்கம். .

அன்னமய்யா கண்ட காட்சி:
நடக்க முடியாமல் உட்கார்ந்து உட்கார்ந்து எழுந்திருந்து ஆயாசமாக மெதுவாக நடந்து வந்து தாடியும் அழுக்கு ஆடையும் தள்ளாட்டமுமாக நடந்து வந்து கொண்டிருந்தவனைப் பார்க்கும் போது வயோதிகனாகவும் சாமியாரைப்போலவும் எண்ண வைத்தது. தற்செயலாக இவனைக்கண்ட அன்னமய்யா அவன் அருகில் சென்று பார்த்த பிறகுதான் தெரிந்தது அவன் ஒரு வாலிபன் என்று. கால்களை நீட்டி புளிய மரத்தில் சாய்ந்து உட்கார்ந்திருந்த அவனை நெருங்கிப் பார்த்தபோது பசியால் அவன் முகம் வாடிப்போயிருந்தது.

அன்னமய்யாவின் செயல்:
பசியால் வாடிப்போயிருந்த அவன் முகத்தில் தீட்சணியம் தெரிந்தது தன்னைப் பார்த்து ஒரு நேசப்புன்னகை காட்டிய அந்த வாலிப மனிதனைப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டே நின்றான் அன்னமய்யா. குடிக்கக் கொஞ்சம் தண்ணீர் கிடைக்குமா? என்ற அவனைத் தன்னோடு மெதுவாக நடக்க வைத்து அழைத்துச் சென்றான் அன்னமய்யா.

அன்னமய்யாவின் விருந்தோம்பல்:
வேப்பமரத்தின் அடியில் ஏகப்பட்ட மண் கலயங்கள் இருந்தன. அதில் அன்னமய்யா ஒரு கலயத்தின் மேல் வைக்கப்பட்ட கல்லை அகற்றிச் சிரட்டையைத் துடைத்துச் சுத்தப்படுத்தி அந்த கலயத்தில் பதனமான வடித்த நீரை அவனிடம் உறிஞ்சி குடிங்க எனக் கொடுத்தான். உட்கார்ந்து குடிங்க என்று உபசரித்தான். பிறகு கலயத்தைச் சுற்றி ஆட்டியதும் தெளிவு மறைந்து சோற்றின் மகுளி மேலே வந்ததும் வார்த்துக் கொடுத்தான். பிறகு அன்னமய்யா அந்த புது ஆளைச் சுப்பையாவின் வயலுக்கு அழைத்துச் சென்று கம்மஞ்சோற்றைச் சாப்பிட வைத்தான். அந்த வாலிபன் அன்னமய்யா என்ற பெயரை மனசுக்குத் திருப்பித் திருப்பிச் சொல்லிப் பார்த்துக் கொண்டான். எவ்வளவு பொருத்தம் என்று நினைத்துக் கொண்டான்.

முடிவுரை:
வந்தவனுக்கு எப்படி ஒரு நிறைவு ஏற்பட்டதோ அதை விட மேலான ஒரு நிறைவு அன்னமய்யாவுக்கு ஏற்பட்டது. வயிறு நிறைந்ததும் தூங்கிவிடும் குழந்தையைப் பார்ப்பதுபோல அவனை ஒரு பிரியத்தோடு பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருந்தான் அன்னமய்யா

Question 45.
(அ) கர்மவீரர் காமராசர் என்னும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை ஒன்று எழுதுக.
Answer:
கர்ம வீரர் காமராசர்
முன்னுரை:
தென்னாட்டு காந்தியாய் தமிழ் மண்ணில் அவதரித்து தமிழகத்தை மலர்ச்சியுறச் செய்த காமராசர், 1903-ஆம் ஆண்டு ஜூலை 15ல் விருதுநகரில் பிறந்தார். இவர் பெற்றோர் குமாரசுவாமி-சிவகாமியம்மாள் என்பவர்கள் ஆவர். தமிழ் மண்ணின் தவப்புதல்வராய் இருந்து ‘என் கடன் பணிசெய்து கிடப்பதே’ எனும் நோக்கில் இம்மண்ணிற்காக வாழ்ந்த திருமகன் இவர் என்றால் மிகையாகாது.

வளர்ச்சி:
நிமிர்ந்த நடையும், நேர்கொண்ட பார்வையும் அஞ்சாமல் கருத்தினை எடுத்து வைப்பவர் திருநாட்டிற்காக திருமணத்தைத் துறந்தவர்.

முயற்சி:
1954-ஆம் ஆண்டு காமராசர் முதல்வராகத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டார். இவரின் ஆட்சிக் காலத்தினைத் தமிழகத்தின் பொற்காலம் எனக் கூறலாம். மக்களோடு மக்களாய்க் கலந்து மக்கள் படும் துன்பத்தினைத் தீர்த்து வைக்கும் இவர் ‘ஏழைகளின் நண்பன்’ எனப் போற்றப்பட்டார்.

நெகிழ்ச்சி:
கிராமங்கள்தோறும் பள்ளிகள் திறந்திடச் செய்தார். ஏழை மாணவர்களின் அல்லல் கண்டு இலவச மதிய உணவுத் திட்டத்தை’ வகுத்து செயல்படுத்தினார்.
சின்னஞ்சிறுவர்களிடையே வேறுபாடுகளைக் களைந்திட சீருடைத் திட்டத்தினைக் கொண்டு வந்தார். தொழில் துறையில் தம் பார்வையைத் திருப்பி பல்வேறு தொழிலகங்களுக்கு வழிகளை ஏற்படுத்தினார்.

மகிழ்ச்சி :
1963 வரை ஒன்பது ஆண்டு காலம் அரும்பணிகள் ஆற்றிய இவர், காங்கிரஸ் கட்சியை வலுப்படுத்த ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்ட திட்டத்தின் மூலம் மூத்த தலைவர்களை பதவி விலகச் சொல்லி தாமும் தம்முடைய முதல்வர் பதவியிலிருந்து விலகினார்.

முகமலர்ச்சி:
மக்கள் அவரை பல்வேறு பெயர்களாலும், படிக்காத மேதை, ஏழைகள் நண்பன், கரும வீரர், காலாகாந்தி என அழைத்தலால் அனைத்துப் பெயர்களும் காமராசருக்கே உரித்தாயிற்று.

அழற்சி:
காமராசரின் நிலச் சீர்திருத்த உச்சவரம்பு சட்டமும், மும்மொழியாக்கத் திட்டமும் (இந்தியுடன்) பின்னடைவை ஏற்படுத்தின. திராவிடக் கட்சியானது தனது பேச்சு, எழுத்து மூலம் தடுமாற்றம் ஏற்பட வழிவகை செய்தது.

முடிவுரை:
‘காலா காந்தி’ என்ற பெயரினுக்கு ஏற்ப காந்தி பிறந்த தினத்தன்று, 1975 அக்டோபர் 2ல் காமராசர் மறைந்தார். காந்தி பிறந்த தினமானது காமராசரின் நினைவு தினமாக ஆயிற்று. காமராசரின் பிறந்த தினம், இனி ‘தியாகிகள் தின’ மாகக் கொண்டாடப்படுகிறது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் – நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல் – குறைபாடுகள் – திட்டம் – நன்மைகள் – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
தேசிய நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டம்
முன்னுரை:
21 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் மிகப்பெரிய பிரச்சினையாக உருவெடுப்பது தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையாகும். இதனைத் தீர்க்க தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையைச் சமாளிக்க நதிகளை இணைக்க வேண்டும் என்பது. பல்லாண்டுகளாகப் பேசப்பட்டு வருவதொன்றாகும். இதற்கு ஓராண்டில் 56 கோடி ரூபாய் செலவாகும் என்று திட்டமிடப்படுகிறது.

முறையான ஒப்பந்தம்:
ஆயிரம் கிலோ மீட்டர் நீளத்திற்குக் கால்வாய்கள் அமைத்து 30 நதிகளை அடுத்த இரண்டு ஆண்டுகளில் ஒன்றாக இணைக்கலாம். 10 ஆயிரம் மெகா வாட் மின்சாரம் எடுக்க முடியும். 11 ஆயிரம் 164 Super20 தமிழ் கியூசெக்ஸ் நீர் தேவைப்படும். இதற்கு 400 புதிய நீர்நிலைகள் அமைக்கப்பட்டு நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டத்தைச் செயல்படுத்த எந்த இடத்தின் வழியாகக் கால்வாய் அமைத்தால் பயனுள்ளதாக அமையும் எனத் திட்டமிட வேண்டும். மகாநதி, கோதாவரி ஆகிய நதிகளில் நீர் அதிகம் உள்ளது. ஆனால் வல்லுநர்களிடையே விவாதம் நடத்தி முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் ஏற்படவேண்டும்.

நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல்:
மழைக் காலங்களில் வட இந்தியாவில் பாயும் பல நதிகளில் வெள்ள அபாயம் ஏற்படுகிறது. இதைத் தடுக்க வேண்டுமானால், கால்வாய்கள் வெட்டி அந்நீரை ஒருநிலை படுத்தவேண்டும். இதற்காக வெட்டப்படும் கால்வாய்கள் மூலம் ஏராளமான தொழிலாளர்களுக்கு வேலை கிடைப்பதுடன் கூடுதல் வருவாயும் கிடைக்கும். அதிகமாகக் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீரைச் சேமித்து வைக்கத் தேவையான திட்டங்கள் நிறைவேற்றப்படவேண்டும். இந்தியாவில் வறட்சி ஏற்படும் பெரும்பாலான பகுதிகளில் நீர் தேவையை எளிதாகச் சமாளிக்க முடியும்.

குறைபாடுகள்:
தமிழகத்தில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகள் இல்லாத காரணத்தால் மழைக்காலங்களில் மட்டுமே இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் நீர் பெறமுடியும். காவிரி டெல்டா பகுதியிலுள்ள நிலத்தடி நீர்வளம், குடிநீருக்கு ஆதாரமாக உள்ளது. இதனால் இப்பகுதிகளில் தண்ணீருக்காகக் கிணறுகள் தோண்ட வேண்டிய நிலை உள்ளது. இந்நிலையில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகளான கிருஷ்ணா, கோதாவரி, மகாநதி போன்ற தென்னிந்திய நதிகளை தமிழகத்தின் நதிகளோடு இணைத்தால் மட்டுமே ஆண்டு முழுவதும் நீர்வளம் குறையாமல் இருக்கும். இன்றைய நிலையில் பல கடைக்கோடி கிராமங்களில் வசிக்கும் மக்களுக்குச் சராசரி இரண்டு லிட்டர் குடிநீர் கூடக் கிடைப்பதில்லை.

மூன்று நீர்வழித்திட்டம்:
மூன்று நீர்வழிகளைக் கொண்டதாக இத்திட்டம் அமைக்கப்பட்டு ஒன்றன் பின் ஒன்றாக நிறைவேற்றலாம்.
1. இமயமலை நீர்வழி: இது கங்கை பிரம்மபுத்திரா நதிகளை இணைக்கும்.
2. மத்திய நீர்வழி: கங்கை, மகாநதி, தபதி ஆகிய நதிகளை இணைக்கிறது.
3. தென்னக நீர்வழி: இது கோதாவரி, கிருஷ்ணா , காவிரி மற்றும் கேரள நதிகளை இணைக்கும் இந்நீர்நிலைகள் 120 மீட்டர் அகலமும் 10 மீட்டர் ஆழமும். கொண்டதாக இருக்கும். இவை உரிய வழியில் ஒன்றுடன் ஒன்று இணைக்கும். நீர் சேமிப்பு போக்குவரத்து மற்றும் நீரைப் பல்வேறு நதிகளில் பகிர்ந்தளித்தல் போன்ற பல நன்மைகளைக் கொண்டதாக விளங்கும்.

நன்மைகள்:
மழைக்காலங்களில் ஏற்படும் கட்டுப்படுத்த முடியாத வெள்ளத்தை இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் கட்டுப்படுத்தலாம். இதனால் அசாம், பீகார், உத்தரப் பிரதேசம், மேற்கு வங்கம் போன்ற மாநிலங்களில் ஏற்படும் அபாய வெள்ள அளவைக் குறைக்கலாம்.
வெள்ளத்தினால் ஏற்படும் பாதிப்பு குறைந்து வெள்ள நிவாரணப் பணிக்கு ஒதுக்கப்படும் தொகையும் வெகுவாகக் குறையும். அனைத்து முக்கிய நகரங்களுக்கும், கிராமங்களுக்கும் போதுமான குடிநீர் வசதியை ஆண்டு முழுவதும் வழங்க முடியும்.

முடிவுரை:
தேவையான அளவு நீர்வள மேலாண்மைத் திட்டங்கள் செயல்படுத்தாத காரணத்தால் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீர் அனைத்தும் கடலில் வீணாகக் கலந்து நாட்டில் நீர்ப் பற்றாக்குறை ஏற்பட்டு உழல்கிறோம். அதனால் தேசிய நதிகளை இணைத்து சிறந்த முறையில் சுற்றுச் சூழலைப் பாதுகாத்து வாழ்வோம்.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 The World after World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 5.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 6.
When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 7.
Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Syria
Answer:
(a) Cairo

Question 8.
When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. was known as the “Father of modern China”.
2. in 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ………………. University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat-Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ……………….
4. ……………….. treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
5. The treaty of ………………. provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in ……………….
7. ………………. was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
8. ………………. treaty signed on February 7,1992 created the European Union.

Answers:

1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
2. Peking
3. Chiang-Kai-Sheik
4. Central Treaty organisation
5. Versailles
6. 1955
7. Strasbourg
8. Maastricht

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
(ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
(iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
(ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
(iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the region.
(iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war¬. ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A)and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
Answer:
Three causes of the Chinese Revolution of 1911 are

1. The government of Manchu dynasty began to disintegrate with the death of the Empress Dowager Cixi in 1908. The new emperor was two-years old and the provincial governors began to assert their independence. In October 1911 the local army mutinied and the revolt spread.
2. There were a few middle class leaders. Dr. Sun Yat-sen was one among them. He took part in the rising against the Manchus in 1895. The rising failed and Sun Yat-Sen was sent in the prison. But he continued to spread nationalist ideas.
3. Yuan Shih-Kai, who had earlier served as a minister in the Manchu administration, persuaded those responsible for the ascension of the young Emperor to prevant on him to abdicate.

Question 2.
Explain how in 1928 Kuomintang and Chiang-Kai Shek established Central Government in China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China. Starting from Canton, in 1928, he captured Peking and also removed all communists in the Kuomintang party. Thus, he established Central government in China.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mao’s Long March.
Answer:
Mao was an active leader who had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party, by 1933. In 1934, he organised communist army of about 100,000 and set out on a long March. The marchers were continually harassed by Kuominatang forces, by local war lords and by unfriendly tribesmen of the 100,000 who set out, only 20,000 finally arrived in northern Shemi in late 1935, after crossing nearly 6000 miles. They were soon poined by other communist armies. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. Mao’s Long March, as it is called so, has become legendary in the history of China.

Question 4.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Iran and Pakistan signed a pact known as Baghdad pact. In 1958, when United States joined, then it was called as Central Treaty organization. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in their region. It was dissolved in 1979.

Question 5.
What was the Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to and Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economies after the end of World War II. It operated for four years beginning in April 1948. The goals of the United States were to rebuild war-tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 6.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests-Elaborate.
Answer:
In 1956, Egypt invaded Suez Canal under Colonel Nasser and nationalized it. With the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force. They bombed Egyptian air fields as well as Suez Canal area. However, United States and United Nations pressure, all the three invaders withdrew from Suez Canal.

Question 7.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:
The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World. During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 8.
How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
Answer:
In April 1961, on the island of Bay of Pigs, U.S bombed Cuban airfields and surrounded Cuba, with their warships. At the same time, USSR was secretly installing nuclear missiles in Cuba. Finally when Soviet President Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles, the Cuban missile-crisis defused.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Cold War

(a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
Answer:
United States and the Soviet Union were the two military blocs that emerged in the post World War-II.

(b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
Answer:
The term Cold war was first coined by the English writer George Orwell in 1945 and it was used for the first time by Bernard Baruch, a multimillionaire from USA.

(c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw Pact was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO.

(d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
With the Break-up of USSR in 1991, the Warsaw Pact was dissolved.

Question 2.
Korean War

(a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
Answer:
Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.

(b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
Answer:
Syngman Rhee

(c) How long did the Korean War last?
Answer:
The Korean War lasted three years

(d) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

Question 3.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

(a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
Answer:
At Belgrade, in 1961, the first conference on NAM was held.

(b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
Answer:
The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nikrumah (Ghana), Sukrano (Indonesia),.

(c) What were the objectives of NAM?
Answer:
Peaceful co-existence, commitment to peace and security.

(d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade Conference.
Answer:

1. Non-Alignment with any of the two super powers (USA/USSR).
2. Fight all forms of colonialism and Imperialism.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:

1. Mao was greatly influenced by the ideas of Max and Lenin. He wanted to make China a communist country. So, he became active in the political activities of Hunan from the year 1912.
2. After the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925, The Kuomintang was organised under the leadership of Chang Kai-Shek. Being an avowed critic of communists, Chiang removed all the important position holders in the Communist Party including Mao Tse Tung to weaken the party. However, the communists continued to influence the workers and peasants the Kuomintang represented the interests of landlords and capitalists.
3. Mao had understood that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong. So, he started organising the peasantry. When the relationships between Kuomintang and Communist Party broke, a few hundred Communist-led by Mao retreated into the wild mountains on the border between the provinces of Kiangsi and Hunan. The Kuomintang could not penetrate the mountains.
4. Meanwhile, the campaign against the communists got distracted as Chiang Kai-Shek had to deal with the constant threat from Japan.
5. By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party. In 1934, he set out on a long march with the help of about 100,000 communist army. He also got support of other communist armies.
6. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. He organised workers and peasants councils in villages of Shensi and Kansu and finally got success in making China a communist country.

Question 2.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-lsraeii wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:

1. Before the creation of the State of Israel in 1948, all Arabs and their . descendants lived in the Palestine.
2. Ever since the formation, the Palestinian Liberation organisation (PLO). Israel came to be attacked by the Palestinian Guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan.
3. Israel resorted to violent military force .
4. In November 1966, an Israeli strike on the village of Al-Samu in the west bank of Jordan killed 18 people and wounded 54 people.
5. Israel’s air battle with Syria in April 1967 ended in the shooting down of six Syrian MIG fighter jets.
6. After air battle with Syria, when Arab States were mobilized by Nasser on June 5th Israel staged a sudden air strike that destroyed more than, 90% of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac.
7. Later, Egypt and Syria under Presidents Anwar Sadat and Hafez-al- Assad respectively concluded a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.
8. When peace deals did not work out with Israel, Egypt and Syria launched a sudden and surprise attack on the Yom Kippur religious holiday on 6^th October 1973.
9. Though Israel suffered heavy casualities, it finally pushed back the Arab forces.
10. Due to U.N intervention, Israel was forced to return and Arabs gained nothing.
11. U.S succeeded in showing their control on their region and oil resource, led to U. S led war against Iraq in 1991.

Question 3.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Divide the class into two groups. Let one group act as supporters of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union, Organise a debate.
Answer:
One group of students act as the supports of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union on their role in the cold war era.
(Students can have debate based on the following aspects)

During the time of cold war, the two super powers that emerged was USA and USSR.

Strengths of USA:

1. Strongest navy both the Pacific and Atlantic.
2. Continued and strong economic position that the USA held in the beginning till the end.
3. Foreign policy of the USA. The actions of USA during the cold war era, very powerful and could guarantee others the strong power of the nation is to prevent communism spreading elsewhere.
4. The country was able to generate the vast amount of wealth necessary to sustain the investment in weapons, technology and other operations.
5. USA was also technologically powerful in target finding, tracking, sensors etc.
6. The Truman’s doctrine was used throughout the war time. The doctrine helped USA to negotiate with other states to adopt capitalism.

Strengths of USSR:

1. Strongest land based military, especially tanks.
2. USSR developed air defense equipment and networks.
3. Spread of Communism joined together backed USSR.
4. As against NATO, USSR also formed military block, the Warsaw pact.
5. With Western European countries USSR facilitated trade relations.
6. Highly strengthened space exploration.

In the end of cold war, the Soviet Union fell, and the Communism expired.

Question 2.
Involving the entire class, an album may be prepared with pictures relating to Korean, Arab-lsraeli and Vietnam Wars to highlight the human sufferings in terms of death and devastation.
Answer:
Students should go to the search engine in google and type “The War’s impact on the Korean peninsula and trace the article of the journal of America – East Asia Relations” for a detailed Report.

Korean War: To give a sample answer: According to a U.S. Department of state publication, the number of killed, wounded and missing from the Armed forces of the Republic of Korea exceeded 4,00.000. From the U.S. side, 1,42,000. In addition, the heavy toll in death and injuries to the civilian population as well as wide property damage.

Arab-Israel War: Students should trace the answer from the google search engine as: The U.N. Report on Israel’s Gaza War.

To give a sample answer: From the 183 page report of the U.N. report, it is very clear that many civilians died. More than 6,000 Israeli airstrikes, 14,500 tank shells and 35,000 artillery shells led to the destruction of about 18,000 dwellings in Gaza. Nearly 1,462 Palestinian civilians, 299 women and 551 children were killed (According to U.N. Investigation). In Israel six civilians and 67 soldiers were killed.

Vietnam War: Students should trace the answer in the google search engine as “The War’s effect on the Vietnamese Land and People” for a detailed report.

To give a sample answer: About 58,000 American soldiers were killed and another 3,04,000 were wounded. Since most of the fighting took place in Vietnam, an estimated 4 million Vietnamese were killed on both sides including as many as 1 -3 million civilians. Many Vietnamese in country side turned into homeless refuges. Many forms and forests were destroyed.

Along with the detailed report, students should collect pictures showing Korea, Arab-Israel and Vietnam War, highlighting human sufferings. Students should click to google search engine and go to → Images → then type Korean War pictures / Arab Israel War pictures / Vietnam War pictures, download it take a print out of its and paste it in a A4 sheet paper or an a chart paper neatly and create an album.

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The emergence of ……………. and ……………. as super powers resulted in the division of the World into two block after World War II.
(a) Japan, USA
(b) USA, USSR
(c) China, Japan
(d) USA, Germany
Answer:
(b) USA, USSR

Question 2.
Dr.Sun yat-sen was born in a poor family near ………
(a) Canton
(b) France
(c) Spain
Answer:
(a) Canton

Question 3
……………. was called the father of modern China.
(a) Chiang-Kai-Shek
(b) Yuan-Shi-Kai
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Answer:
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen

Question 4.
Mao was born in ……… in South – East China.
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Hunan
Answer:
(c) Hunan

Question 5.
Yuan-Shi-Kai died in the year …………….
(a) 1912
(b) 1913
(c) 1915
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of Indo – China?
(a) Cambodia
(b) China
(c) Vietnam
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7.
The Historical Long March set out in China in …………….
(a) 1935
(b) 1937
(c) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 8.
In which of the following was indentured Vietnamese labour widely used?
(a) Rice cultivation
(b) Rubber plantation
(c) Industry
Answer:
(b) Rubber plantation

Question 9.
……………. was the leader of the people’s Republic of China.
(a) Marshall
(b) Truman
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Chiang-Kai-shek
Answer:
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung

Question 10.
Ho Chi Minh means ………
(a) He, Who enlightens
(b) Enlightenment
(c) The Enlightened one
Answer:
(a) He, Who enlightens

Question 11.
The Idea of European self-help programme financed by the United States was called as …………….
(a) NATO
(b) SEATO
(c) ECA
(d) Marshall plan
Answer:
(d) Marshall plan

Question 12.
EURATOM was established by the ………
(a) Treaty of Nanking
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) Treaty of London
Answer:
(b) Treaty of Rome

Question 13.
The term ‘cold war’ was first coined by the English writer …………….
(a) Shakespeare
(b) George Orwell
(c) William Dexter
(d) Peter Alphonse
Answer:
(b) George Orwell

Question 14.
As a part of Marshall plan financing, European nations received nearly ……………. billion in aid.
(a) $ 12
(b) $ 11
(c) $ 15
(d) $ 13
Answer:
(d) $ 13

Question 15.
Greece and Turkey joined NATO in the year …………….
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1955
Answer:
(c) 1952

Question 16.
……………. was otherwise called as pact.
(a) NATO
(b) CENTO
(c) SEATO
(d) EC SC
Answer:
(d) EC SC

Question 17
……………. are included as member countries in NATO.
(a) Canada, Belgium
(b) U.K., Portugal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
NATO had ……………. members by the year 2017.
(a) 30
(b) 51
(c) 29
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 19.
In December 1954, a conference of eight European nations took place in Moscow. This was called as …………….
(a) Warsaw pact
(b) Counter to NATO
(c) SEATO
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
The headquarters of the Warsaw pact was …………….
(a) Belgium
(b) Poland
(c) Moscow
(d) Romania
Answer:
(c) Moscow

Question 21.
The Korea was partitioned into North and South Korea in the year …………….
(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1945

Question 22.
With the collapse of the ……………. the idea of non-alignment lost relevance.
(a) Berlin
(b) CIA
(c) ECA
(d) Soviet Union
Answer:
(d) Soviet Union

Question 23.
The NAM held its first conference at ……………. in 1961.
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Thailand
(d) Philippine
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 24.
The World Zionist Organisation was founded in the year …………….
(a) 1857
(b) 1887
(c) 1897
(d) 1867
Answer:
(c) 1897

Question 25.
Castro nationalised the U.S. owned ……………. companies.
(a) cotton
(b) sugar
(c) oil
(d) petrol
Answer:
(b) sugar

Question 26.
The Cuban Missile crisis was defused by ……………. as the agreed to withdraw the missiles.
(a) Khrushchev
(b) Fidel Castro
(c) Leumi
(d) Stem Gang
Answer:
(a) Khrushchev

Question 27.
In the Arab World, it is treated as the ……………. when large number of Arabs become refugees.
(a) Catastrophe
(b) Nakbah
(c) Negev and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
For resolving the Suez Canal Crisis, ……………. from Indian played a crucial role.
(a) Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Bose
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(b) Nehru

Question 29.
Arab-lsrael war took place in the years …………….
(a) 1967,69
(b) 1969,74
(c) 1967,73
(d) 1972,73
Answer:
(c) 1967,73

Question 30.
……………. became the first president of the state of Palestine in 1989.
(a) Anwar Sadat
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser Arafat
(d) Nasser Hussain
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 31.
By the end of second world war, ……………. controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
(a) Vietminh
(b) Ho-Chi-Minh
(c) Ngo Dinh Diem
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Vietminh

Question 32.
……………. controlled the southern half of the Vietnam.
(a) Viet Minh
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Ngo Dinh Diam
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Bao Dai

Question 33.
The North and the South Vietnam were formally united as one country in …………….
(a) 1973
(b) 1976
(c) 1975
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 34.
In May 1949, ten countries met in ……………. and signed to form a council of Europe.
(a) Japan
(b) Syria
(c) London
(d) France
Answer:
(c) London

Question 35.
To prevent further European War ……………. was founded.
(a) Council of Europe
(b) Council of Trent
(c) ECSC
(d) EU
Answer:
(a) Council of Europe

Question 36.
……………. did not join the EEC, when it was formed.
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) USSR
(d) Italy
Answer:
(a) U.K

Question 37.
Britain, voted to exit the EU in the year …………….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2017
(d) 2019
Answer:
(c) 2017

Question 38.
West Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 39.
East Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(c) USSR

Question 40.
Germany was officially united on …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 41.
in 1985, ……………. became the head of the USSR.
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev
(b) Reagen
(c) Stalin
(d) Kohl
Answer:
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev

Question 42.
The Chernobyl disaster took place in the year …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 2006
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 43.
Gorbachev announced his resignation on …………….
(a) 21st November
(b) 25th December
(c) 2nd October
(d) 15th August
Answer:
(b) 25th December

Question 44.
USSR dissolved formally In the year …………….
(a) 31st Dec. 1990
(b) 30th Dec. 1991
(c) 31st Dec. 1991
(d) 28,h Feb. 1991
Answer:
(c) 31st Dec. 1991

Question 45.
……………. was an ally of Gorbachev.
(a) Yeltsin
(b) Brezhnev
(c) Khrushchev
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Yeltsin

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… and ………………… were the Superpowers after the World War II.
2. The cold war period ended with the fall of …………………
3. Empress Dowager died in ………………… led to the disintegration of the Manchu dynasty.
4. Kuomintang party of China was otherwise called as ………………… party.
5. ………………… was the ultimate aim of Dr. Sun Yat-sen’s party.
6. The Chinese revolution broke out in the year …………………
7. The first director of the Whampoa Military academy was …………………
8. The campaign against the communists led by Chiang-Kai-Shek was distracted by ………………… and warlords.
9. By ………………… Mao became the leader of the Chinese people.
10. Over ………………… delegates from various countries attended the people’s political consultative conference.
11. When Japanese surrendered in 1945, the Japanese areas were occupied by the …………………
12. By the year …………………, communist control has been established over most parts of China.
13. The two mighty communist powers in the world were ………………… and …………………
14. The term cold war was first coined by …………………
15. ………………… nations became a part of Marshall’s plan of self-help programme.
16. The Marshall plan funding ended in …………………
17. ………………… was created to resist Soviet aggression in Europe.
18. NATO means …………………
19. NATO was formed in the year …………………
20. The members of NATO agreed that, any armed attack on any one of them would be considered attack on …………………
21. For the collective security of the South-east Asia, ………………… was formed in 1954.
22. Member of SEATO were committed to prevent …………………
23. SEATO was formed in 1954, after signing of the …………………
24. ………………… was formed by Soviet Union as a counter to NATO.
25. ………………… European nations attended the Warsaw pact in December 1954.
26. The treaty on Warsaw pact was concluded on …………………
27. The Warsaw pact was dissolved in …………………
28. The Warsaw pact dissolved because of the break-up of …………………
29. The Baghdad pact was otherwise called as …………………
30. Turkey, Iran, Iraq, Pakistan and Great Britain signed a treaty in 1955, known as …………………
31. When U.S.A joined the Baghdad pact, it was called by name …………………
32. USA joined the Baghdad pact in the year …………………
33. CENTO was dissolved in the year …………………
34. Korea was partitioned as North Korea and South Korea in the year …………………
35. The president of North Korea was …………………
36. The party of Kim II was called as …………………
37. The president of the South Korea was …………………
38. The party of Syngman Rhee was …………………
39. Korean War lasted for ………………… years.
40. NAM refers to the …………………
41. NAM was signed in ………………… at the ………………… conference.
42. Bandung is a city in …………………
43. With the collapse of ………………… the idea of NAM lost importance.
44. CIA is a Central Intelligence Agency of …………………
45. The Act of ………………… in Cuba, threatened American economic interests.
46. USA bombed Cuban ………………… with the aim of overthrowing Castro’s regime.
47. ………………… was the president of USSR, when the Cuban Missile crisis took place.
48. Cuba was helped by …………………
49. When USSR remove missile from Cuba, USA had to agree to remove missile from ………………… and …………………
50. ………………… was a Zionist Terrorist Organisation.
51. The Zionist Para-military organization was called as …………………
52. The World Zionist organization was founded in the year …………………
53. Jews living outside their ancient home scattered around North America and Europe was called as …………………
54. ………………… Nationalised Suez Canal.
55. India represented by ………………… played a crucial role in resolving the crisis.
56. The Arab-lsraeli War took place in the years ………………… and …………………
57. PLO refers to …………………
58. PLO was formed in …………………
59. ………………… was the prominent leader of Palestine.
60. By the end of the Second World War, ………………… Controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
61. South Vietnam was ruled by …………………
62. America supported troops of ………………… Vietnam.
63. The city of ………………… was renamed as Ho-Chi-Minh city.
64. To create a United Europe to resist any threat from Soviet Russia, ………………… was formed.
65. European Economic Community was otherwise called as …………………
66. SEA refers to …………………
67. According to the SEA, each member was given ………………… votes.
68. The ………………… Treaty created the European Union.
69. Maastricht is in …………………
70. EU was created on Maastricht treaty signed on …………………
71. The headquarters of the EU is at …………………
72. Brussels is at …………………
73. ………………… Germany was prosperous.
74. ………………… Germany was suffering from lack of democracy and freedom.
75. Germany was officially reunited on …………………
76. Glasnost means …………………
77. Perestroika means …………………
78. ………………… was introduced by Gorbachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.
79. After Gorbachev, power fell into the hands of …………………
80. For ………………… days, Soviet Union, continued to exist only in name.
81. Soviet Union dissolved formally on 31st December …………………
82. USSR split into ………………… countries.
83. ………………… was the president of the newly independent Russian State.
84. U.S.A. troops used ………………… weapons in their war against Vietnam.
85. Napalm and Agent Orange are the names of incendiary …………………

Answers:

1. USA and USSR
2. Berlin Wall
3. 1908
4. National People’s Party
5. Socialism
6. 1911
7. Chiang-Kai-Shek
8. Japan
9. 1937
10. 650
11. Kuomintang
12. 1948
13. Soviet Union, People’s Republic of China
14. George Orwell
15. Sixty
16. 1951
17. NATO
18. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
19. 1949
20. NATO
21. SEATO
22. Communism
23. Manila Pact
24. Warsaw Pact
25. 8 (eight)
26. May 14, 1955
27. 1991
28. USSR
29. Central Treaty Organisation
30. Baghdad Pact
31. Central Treaty Organisation
32. 1958
33. 1979
34. 1945
35. Kim II
36. People’s Republic of Korea
37. Syngman Rhee
38. The Republic of Korea
39. three
40. Non-Aligned Movement
41. 1955, Bandung
42. Indonesia
43. Soviet Union
44. America
45. Castro
46. Airfields
47. Khrushchev
48. USSR
49. Turkey, Italy
50. Stem Gang
51. Irgun Zvai Leumi
52. 1897
53. Diaspora
54. Colonel Nasser
55. Nehru
56. 1967, 1973
57. Palestine Liberation Organisation
58. 1948
59. Yasser Arafat
60. Viet Minh
61. Ngo Dinh Diem
62. South
63. Saigon
64. Council of Europe
65. European Common Market
66. Single European Act
67. multiple
68. Maastricht
69. Netherlands
70. Feb 7, 1992
71. Brussels
72. Belgium
73. West Berlin’s
74. East Berlin
75. 3rd October 1990
76. openness
77. restructuring
78. Perestroika
79. Boris Yeltsin
80. Six 81.1991
81. 15
82. Boris Yeltsin
83. Bacteriological
84. bombs

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) The cold war period ended with the fall of Berlin Wall
(ii) Mao concentrated mainly on organizing the peasantry.
(iii) In 1937, the communist army of about 100,000 set out on the Long march.
(iv) Marshall plan funded nearly $ 15 billion.
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The USSR was much concerned about the destruction caused by the Second World War.
(ii) The South East Asia Treaty organization was organised for the collective security of countries in South East Asia.
(iii) The Communist States led by the Soviet Union came to be known First World Countries.
(iv) The Capitalist countries led by the U.S.A. were politically designated as Second World Countries.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) NAM refers to the Non-Aligned Movement.
(ii) The Single European Act of the EU as called as SEA.
(iii) Anwar Sadat was the president of the Palestine in 1989.
(iv) The fighters of South Vietnam were trained in guerrilla warfare.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The Third World principally consist of the developing World.
(ii) With the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalization, the term has lost its relevance.
(iii) The former colonies of Asia, Africa, and Latin America were called as Third World Countries.
(iv) The division of Germany into West and East led to glaring differences in living standards.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the four are correct.

Question 5.
(i) Yeltsin worked as a Mayor of Moscow.
(ii) Yeltsin was returned to power with overwhelming support of a Moscow in 1899.
(iii) For twelve days, the Soviet Union continued to exist only in name.
(iv) On 28th February 1991, USSR was formally dissolved.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) CENTO was otherwise called as Manila pact.
(ii) As a counter to SEATO, NATO was formed.
(iii) The Korean war helped to bring down the intensity of the Cold war.
(iv) The EEC eliminated barriers to the movement of goods, Capital and labour.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong

Question 7.
(i) The Berlin Wall was just a physical barrier.
(ii) Berlin Wall divided East Germany and West Germany.
(iii) USA supported East Berlin.
(iv) USSR supported West Berlin.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Yuan Shih-Kai of China lost prestige in his country.
Reason (R): He agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The rivalry that developed after World War 11 is referred to as “Cold War”.
Reason (R): This war did not take recourse to weapons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): There was High military expenditure on both sides of USA and USSR.
Reason (R): Soviet Union tested the nuclear bomb and America used the nuclear bomb against Japan.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and its European allies formed the NATO to wage war against Vietnam.
Reason (R): As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organised the Warsaw pact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R.) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): A small country had succeeded in winning Independence and the greatest power of the World-The country Vietnam.
Reason (R): The help given to Vietnam by the Socialist Countries, the political support given by Asia and Africa is evident.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Sun Yat-sen sent Chiang Kai-shek to Moscow, in Russia. The Russians in turn sent Michael Borodin to China.
Reason {R): Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China from Canton.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): U.S.A. supported Diem government in South Vietnam. Reason (R): U.S. wanted to establish a strong government in South Vietnam.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (vi)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Describe about Zionist movement.
Answer:
(i) In Palestine, the ancient home of Jews, only a few thousand Jews were living in 1900.
(ii) Some 15 million were scattered around Europe and North America.
(iii) These Jews had been subjected to systematic persecution for centuries.
(iv) But in the late nineteenth century, the persecution in Russia (Where two-thirds of the world’s jews lived), France and Germany was intense.
(v) Some Jews emigrated to Palestine, while many more went to the United States and Britain.
(vi) In 1896, Thodore Herzel, a Viennese journalist, published a pamphlet called the Jewish state in which he called for the creation of a Jewish national home. In 1897 the world zionist organisation was founded.

Question 2.
What was Truman’s policy?
Answer:
Truman, the president of USA announced a policy of containment of communism. This implies U.S. would support those countries which were threatened by USSR to spread communism.

Question 3.
Mention the initial member countries of the EU.
Answer:

1. Belgium
2. France
3. Italy
4. Luxemburg
5. Netherlands
6. West Germany

Question 4.
What is meant by SEA?
Answer:
SEA refers to the single European Act which came into force on July 1,1987. According to the SEA, each member was given multiple votes depending on the country’s population. Its main aim is establishing a single market.

Question 5.
Name the organs of the EU.
Answer:

1. European parliament
2. Council of the European Union
3. European commission
4. Court of Justice
5. Court of Auditors

Question 6.
Write a note on European Union.
Answer:
On February 7, 1992, the Maastricht Treaty that signed in Netherlands created the European Union. All the member countries of the EU will use common currency Euro, a single market and common Act. EU at present has 28 members with head quarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 7.
How was the European union formed?
Answer:
According to the Merger Treaty of 1967, the three communities namely the European coal and steel community, the European Economic community and the European Atomic Energy community were merged together to form the European union.

VII. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
People’s Republic of China

(a) Who was the leader of the People’s Republic of China?
Answer:
Mao Tse-Tung was the leader of the People’s Republic of China.

(b) Name the two mighty Communist powers of the world?
Answer:
The Soviet-Union and the people’s Republic of China.

(c) Who did not recognise People’s Republic of China and for how long?
Answer:
The UNO refused to recognise people’s Republic of China for more than twenty years.

(d) How did the government of Taiwan got recognition?
Answer:
The government of Chiang Kai-shek in Taiwan was given recognition ‘ due to the pressure from USA.

Question 2.
Achievements of EU

(a) What is the symbol of the Euro?
Answer:
The symbol of the Euro is €.

(b) What did the Euro eliminate?
Answer:
The Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border.

(c) How many members are there in the EU at present?
Answer:
At present, there are 28 members in the EU.

(d) Who allocates funds to European research projects?
Answer:
The European Research council.

Question 3.
Disintegration of The Soviet Union.

(a) Who became the head of USSR in 1985?
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev became the head of the USSR in 1985.

(b) What is meant by “thaw”?
Answer:
The “Thaw” refers to the period from the early 1950’s and 1960’s when repression and censorship in the Soviet Union was relaxed and millions of political prisioners were released. It was the period of Khrushchev’s reign.

(c) What is meant by Glasnost?
Answer:
Glasnost means openness. It was the policy of more transperancy and openness in the government policy of former Soviet Russia introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev.

(d) What is meant by Perestroika?
Answer:
Perestroika means restructuring. It refers to the programme introduced by Mikhail Gorbhachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.

Question 4.
Berlin Wall

(a) Who constructed a wall which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin? and when?
Answer:
East German began to construct a wall in 1961 which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin.

(b) How was it guarded?
Answer:
It was guarded with watchtowers and other lethal impediments to stop people from the east.

(c) What does the Berlin wall symbolise?
Answer:
It was symbolic boundary between Communism and Capitalism.

(d) What happened with the fall of the Berlin wall?
Answer:
With the fall of the Berlin wall , followed by the collapse of the Soviet Union, the cold war came to an end.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief account of the life and achievements of Ho Chi Minh.
Answer:
He was born in a small town in Central Vietnam. He studied in French school that produced great leaders. After his studies he worked on a French liner operating between Saigon and Marseilles. He was greatly inspired by European communist parties, became member of commintem and was instrumental in bringing together competing nationalists groups to form the Vietnamese communist party in 1930. It was later renamed the Indo-Chinese communist party. After spending 30 years abroad in Europe, China Thailand, he returned to Vietnam in 1941. He became President of the Vietnam Democratic Republic in 1943.

After the split of Vietnam, he and the communists took control of North Vietnam. With the help of his government, National Liberation Front in the south fought for unification of the country. He fought hard to maintain the autonomy of Vietnam and till the end proved true to his name. Ho Chi Minh meaning He, Who Enlightens.

Question 2.
Illustrate the cold war developments in case of the Vietnam war. Narrate how North and South Vietnam unified as Independent Nation.
Solution:

1. By 1945, the end of the second world war, Viet Minh controlled the northern half of Vietnam, led by Ho-chi- Minh.
2. Viet Minh and french reached an agreement by which North Vietnam would be a free state.
3. While French was helped by America, Viet Minh was helped by the new Chinese communist government.
4. War broke out between them. Eventually , France troops were defeated.
5. The Geneva conference that met on Korea and Indo China in 1954, decided that of Laos. Combodia and Vietnam. The independent states would be Laos and Cambodia. Vietnam, temporarily divided.
6. While North Vietnam controlled by Viet Minh with leader Ho-Chi-Minh and south Vietnam would be under the leadership of Bao Dai.
7. At the same time, South Vietnam was ruled by Ngo Dinh Diem.
8. When U.S wanted to establish a strong Non-communist government in South Vietnam. In 1965, marines landed on Danang naval base and namely 2,10,000 traps in the country, j (ix) The U.S bombed both North and South.
9. The fighters of North Vietnam trained in Guerrilla warfare sustained.
10. America suffered heavy casualties , vast devastated and many were killed.
11. The youth rebelled against the horrors of the war.
12. The protest against the war spread all over the world.
13. By 1975, the armies of the North and the only one party of South Vietnam called National Liberation front of South Vietnam attacked America.
14. By 30th April 1975, all the American troops had withdrawn and capital of South Vietnam Saigon was liberated.
15. North Vietnam and South Vietnam formally united as one country in 1976.
16. The city of Saigon was renamed as the Ho-Chi-Minh city .
17. Thus, the emergence of Vietnam as a united and Independent nation was an historic event.

Question 3.
Explain the breakup of the Soviet Union.
Answer:

1. In the middle of 1980’s Soviet Union economy was suffering.
2. In 1985, Mikhail Gorbachev took over as the president of USSR.
3. Gorbachev spoke about the need for openness (Glasnost) and Perestroika (restructuring).
4. But his ideas of reform did not work out for him because, to compete with U.S, USSR need to allocate more funds to the military.
5. The economic stagnation of the Soviet Union aggrevated tension and promoted nationalist feelings.
6. In the year 1988, Mass protest broke out in Armenia and in the Baltic states.
7. Gorbachev made attempts to stabilize his position by relying on conservative forces in 1989, 1991.
8. But the massive miner’s strike interrupted. The series of worker’s strike under mined the communist regimes first in Poland, then in Hungary.
9. The fall of Berlin wall in Germany, encouraged people to be united.
10. Gorbachev made a last attempt to take a hard line against miner’s strike and huge demonstrations in Moscow in 1991.
11. In response, the conservative forces in his government used troops in Moscow and held Gorbachev under house arrest.
12. Power fell into the hands of Boris Yeltsin.
13. In November 1991, eleven republics announced that they would establish a common wealth of independent states.
14. On 25th Dec 1991 , Gorbachev resigned.
15. For six days, the Soviet Union continued to remain only in name and at midnight on 31st December 1991 it was formally dissolved.
16. The USSR was no more.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 2 Optics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Optics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31,1.43,1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(a) A

Question 2.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens:
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 3.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex lens ______.
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is _____.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at:
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is:
(a) 4 m
(b) -40 m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m
Answer:
(d) -2.5 m

Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed _____.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot.
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) Bi focal lenses
Answer:
(d) Bi focal lenses

Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
Answer:
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The path of the light is called as ………
2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ……….
3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the ………. scattering of light is called as scattering ……….
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ……….
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ……….

Answer:

1. ray
2. unity
3. elastic
4. wavelength
5. iris

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium.
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens.
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image.

Answer:

1. False – Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium than in denser medium.
2. True
3. True
4. False – The convex lens does not give small virtual image always.

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

V. Assertion and reasoning type.

Mark the correct choice as-
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light.

2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.
Answer:
1. (a)
2. (a)

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\) = \(\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}\)

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that, “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering ‘S’ ∝\(\frac{1}{λ^4}\)

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is the power of accommodation of the eye?
Answer:

• The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called the power of accommodation of the eye.
• This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:

1. The lengthening of eye ball.
2. The focal length of eye lens is reduced.
3. The distance between eye lens and retina increases.
4. The far point will not be at infinity.
5. The far point comes closer.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear blue in colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear blue in colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through a fog, rain etc.

VII. Give the answer in detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light?
Answer:

• Light is a form of energy.
• Light always travels along a straight line.
• Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through a vacuum.
• The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
• Since light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (λ) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = vλ (c = velocity of light).
• Different coloured light has a different wavelength and frequency.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule-2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule-3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction : A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working : The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u > F₀). A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens. This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (B’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece. This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A”B”) on the same side of the object.

Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Answer:
Distance of an object u = 20 cm
Focal length of a convex lens f = 10 cm
Let the image distance be v
We know

v = 20 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\) = \(\frac{20}{20}\) = 1
Hence a real image of same size is formed at 20 cm.
Image distance = 20 cm

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Answer:
Object distance u = 10 cm
Focal length of a concave lens f= -15 cm
Let v be the image distance,

Distance of image v = 6 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\) = \(\frac{6}{10}\) = 0.6
And Magnification m = \(\frac{h’}{h}\)
Where h’ – height of image
h – height of object
0.6 = \(\frac{h’}{3}\)
∴ h’ = 3 × 0.6 = 1.8 cm
∴ Height of image = 1.8 cm

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,
(a) can he get the image?
(b) Is there any change in the focal length?
Answer:
(a) He can get the image.
(b) The focal length of the lens will be doubled.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

• The large pupil opens wider and allows the maximum amount of light to enter the eye in the dark.
• Their lens is large and situated near the retina. This also allows a lot of light to register on the retina. The retina contains 2 types of light-sensing cells rods and cones.
• Cones are responsible for the coloured vision and require bright, focused light.
• Rods are extremely sensitive to light and have a photosensitive pigment called rhodopsin which plays a vital role in night vision.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The scattering of sun light by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the Earth’s atmosphere is known as:
(a) Mie scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Rayleigh scattering
(d) Raman scattering
Answer:
(c) Rayleigh scattering

Question 2.
Mie scattering is responsible for the _____ appearance of the clouds.
(a) red
(b) blue
(c) colourless
(d) white.
Answer:
(d) white

Question 3.
In an inelastic scattering the energy of the incident beam of light is ……….. that of scattering beam.
(a) greater than
(b) less than
(c) equal to
(d) different from
Answer:
(d) different from

Question 4.
As per Rayleigh’s scattering law, amount of scattering is:
(a) directly proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(c) inversely proportioanl to square of wavelength
(d) directly proportional to square of wavelength
Answer:
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

Question 5.
The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the _____ of the light.
(a) wavelength
(b) strength
(c) density
(d) refraction.
Answer:
(a) wavelength

Question 6.
The scattering of light by colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called:
(a) Raman scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Mie scattering
(d) Elastic scattering
Answer:
(b) Tyndall scattering

Question 7.
A piece of transparent material bounded by curved surfaces is called:
(a) mirror
(b) prism
(c) slab
(d) lens
Answer:
(d) lens

Question 8.
If the energy of the incident and the scattered beam of light are not the same, then it is called as _____.
(a) Elastic
(b) Raman
(c) Inelastic
(d) Mie.
Answer:
(c) Inelastic

Question 9.
A convex lens does not produce:
(a) real magnified image
(b) virtual magnified image
(c) virtual diminished image
(d) real diminished image
Answer:
(c) virtual diminished image

Question 10.
A lens which is thicker in the middle than at the edges is known as:
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) bifocal lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) convex lens

Question 11.
The object is always placed on the _____ side of the lens.
(a) left
(b) right
(c) top
(d) bottom.
Answer:
(a) left

Question 12.
The parallel rays from the outer edge are deviated towards the middle in a:
(a) convex mirror
(b) concave lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(d) convex lens

Question 13.
The light rays passing through the optic centre will:
(a) diverged
(b) scattered
(c) converged
(d) emerge undeviated
Answer:
(d) emerge undeviated

Question 14.
All the distances are measured from the ______ of the lense.
(a) centre of curvature
(b) optical centre
(c) principal focus
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) optical centre

Question 15.
A ray passing through the principal focus and incident on the lens will:
(a) converge
(b) diverge
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis
(d) not emerge out
Answer:
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis

Question 16.
When the object is placed at infinity from the convex lens, the image is formed at:
(a) F
(b) C
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(a) F

Question 17.
The human eye is ____ in nature.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) transparent glass
(d) Plano – concave.
Answer:
(a) convex

Question 18.
The image formed by a concave lens is:
(a) virtual
(b) diminished
(c) virtual and diminished
(d) virtual and enlarged
Answer:
(c) virtual and diminished

Question 19.
To get a real image using convex lens, the object must be placed at:
(a) infinity
(b) principal focus
(c) beyond principal focus and infinity
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 20.
_____ is the centre part of the iris.
(a) cornea
(b) retina
(c) pupil
(d) eye lens.
Answer:
(c) pupil

Question 21.
For a convex lens the point at which the parallel rays converge is called of the lens.
(a) pole
(b) centre of curvature
(c) principal focus
(d) none
Answer:
(c) principal focus

Question 22.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always:
(a) erect
(b) magnified
(c) inverted
(d) diminished
Answer:
(c) inverted

Question 23.
The law of distances is given by:

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\) + \(\frac{1}{v}\)

Question 24.
The unit of focal length is:
(a) dioptre
(b) metre
(c) ohm
(d) ampere
Answer:
(b) metre

Question 25.
The sign of focal length of a convex lens is ………. sign.
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) negative or positive
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) positive

Question 26.
The focal length of concave lens has ……… sign.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) positive or negative
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 27.
The magnification in terms of object distance u and image distance v is m :
(a) \(\frac{u}{v}\)
(b) u + v
(c) \(\frac{v}{u}\)
(d) uv
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 28.
In terms of object distance u and focal length/, magnification is given by m =

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{f}{u-f}\)

Question 29.
The magnification in terms of v and/:
(a) f
(b) v – f
(c) \(\frac{f}{v-f}\)
(d) \(\frac{v-f}{f}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v-f}{f}\)

Question 30.
The unit of power is:
(a) m
(b) ohm
(C) dioptre
(d) ampere
Answer:
(C) dioptre

Question 31.
If the focal length of a convex lens is 1 m then its power is:
(a) 1 dioptre
(b) 0.1 dioptre
(c) 10 dioptre
(d) 0.01 dioptre
Answer:
(a) 1 dioptre

Question 32.
In a simple microscope, the magnification can be increased by:
(a) lens of long focal length
(b) lens
(c) lens of short focal length
(d) lens of infinite focal length
Answer:
(c) lens of short focal length

Question 33.
Convex lenses are used:
(a) as camera lenses
(b) as magnifying lenses
(c) to correct hypermetropia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 34.
Which lens is used in wide angle spyhole in doors?
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) parabolic lens
Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 35.
The mathematical form of lens maker’s formula is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 36.
If f is the focal length of the lens then its power is given by:
(a) P = \(\frac{2}{f}\)
(b) p = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
(c) p = f
(d) p = f₁
Answer:
(b) p = \(\frac{1}{f}\)

Question 37.
Which part of the human eye changes the focal length of the eye lens?
(a) pupil
(b) retina
(c) ciliary muscles
(d) cornea
Answer:
(c) ciliary muscles

Question 38.
On which part of human eye, image is formed?
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupil
Answer:
(c) retina

Question 39.
For normal human eye the value of near point is:
(a) 25 cm
(b) 25 m
(c) 2.5 m
(d) 25 mm
Answer:
(a) 25 cm

Question 40.
In hypermeteropia, the focal length of the eye lens is:
(a) decreased
(b) remains the same
(c) increased
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) increased

Question 41.
Presbyopia can be corrected by using:
(a) convex lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) concave lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) bifocal lens

Question 42.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using:
(a) bifocal lens
(b) cylindrical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) concave lens
Answer:
(b) cylindrical lens

Question 43.
The magnifying power of compound microscope is:
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 50 to 200
Answer:
(d) 50 to 200

Question 44.
The accuracy of travelling microscope is of the order of:
(a) 0.01 cm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.1 cm
Answer:
(b) 0.01 mm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The velocity of light in vacuum is ……….
2. If v is the frequency and λ is the wavelength then velocity of the wave is c = ……….
3. Among colours of visible light ……… colour has the highest wavelength.
4. According to Snell’s law refractive index, µ₂ = ……….
5. In a medium having high value of refractive index then speed of light in that medium is ……….
6. Angle of refraction is the smallest for ……… and the highest for ……….
7. The refractive index depends on ………. of light.
8. Colours having shorter wavelength scattered more than longer wavelength colours according to ……….. law.
9. After passing through a convex lens ……….. rays ………. at the principal focus.
10. For a convex lens, as the object distance increases, the image distance ……….
11. A ray passing through the optic centre of a lens emerges …………
12. ……… is due to irregular curvature of the surface of the eye lens.
13. When a parallel beam of light passes through a convex lens, the rays from the outer edges are …………
14. A ray parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens after refraction passes through …………
15. When the object is placed between ………….. and ………… of a convex lens a virtual image will be formed.
16. For a convex lens, as the object approaches the lens the image becomes …………
17. In a phographic camera ………… lens is used.
18. The shorter the focal length, the ………. is the magnification.
19. The nature of the image formed by a simple microscope is ……….., ………… and …………
20. Real images are formed by a ……….. lens.
21. Concave lens produces ………… images.
22. The value of power of a lens having focal length one metre is ………..
23. For a normal eye the value of far point is …………
24. …………. is known as short sightedness.
25. Hyper metropia is known as ………..
26. The mathematical form of focal length of a concave lens used to correct myopia is f = ……….
27. ……….. lenses are used to correct astigmatism.
28. For a normal eye, the value of least distance of distinct vision is ………..
29. The objective of the compound microscope has …………. focal length.
30. The focal length of ………. is greater in a compound microscope.
31. ……… is an optical instrument to see the distant objects.
32. A terrestrial telescope produces ……… image.
33. Elaborate view of galaxies and planets is obtained by ………
Answer:
1. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
2. vλ
3. red
4. \(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\)
5. low
6. red, violet
7. wavelength
8. Rayleigh scattering
9. parallel, converge
10. will decrease
11. undeviated
12. Astigmatism
13. deviated towards the centre of the lens
14. the principal focus
15. principal focus, optical centre
16. bigger
17. biconvex
18. greater
19. virtual, erect, magnified
20. convex
21. virtual
22. One dioptre
23. infinity
24. Myopia
25. long sightedness
26. xy/x – y
27. Cylindrical
28. 25 cm
29. shorter
30. eye piece
31. Telescope
32. an erect
33. Telescope

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Light does not travel along a straight line.
2. All coloured light has same wavelength.
3. In refraction incident ray, refracted ray and normal lie in the same plane.
4. Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium is greater than that in denser medium.
5. For red colour angle of refraction is the least.
6. The refractive index of a medium ¡s independent of wavelength.
7. Tyndall scattering, is the scattering of light by colloids.
8. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, red colour is scattered to a greater extent than blue colour.
9. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter is larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
10. The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies lower than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. In front of a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity the formed image is smaller than that of the object.
12. When an object is placed at finite distance from the concave lens a virtual image is formed between optical centre and focus of the concave lens.
13. Pupil of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. For a normal human eye, the value of far point is 25 cm.
15. Astigmatism is corrected by cylindrical lenses.
Answer:
1. False – Light always travels along a straight lines.
2. False – Different coloured light has different wavelength.
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False – The refractive index of a medium depends on wavelength.
7. True
8. False – According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than red colour.
9. True
10. False – The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. True
12. True
13. False – Cornea of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. False – For a normal human eye, the value of near point is 25 cm.
15. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 2.
Position of the object placed infront of a convex lens are given in Column
I. Match them with the natures of the images formed by the convex lens given in column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reasoning type.

Question 1.
Assertion : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and sunset than during day.
Reason : In detraction light rays bend around the edges of the obstacle.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Colours can be scan in thin layers of oil on the surface water. Reason: White light is composed of several colours.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Raman spectrum of a liquids contains lines whose frequencies are not equal to that of incident radiation.
Reason: If a photon strikes an atom in a liquid that is in existed state photon losses energy.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the material of the prism.
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends upon the refracting angle and angel of minimum deviation.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 5.
Assertion: A single lens produces a coloured image of an object illuminated by white light.
Reason: The refractive index of material of lens is different for different wavelength of light.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: If a convex lens is placed in water, its convergence power decrease.
Reason: Focal length of lens is independent of refractive index of the medium.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 7.
Assertion: Light waves travel in straight lines.
Reason: Rectilinear propagation of light confirm the above mentioned properly.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Raman scattering the scattering of monochromatic light by atoms and molecule of a liquid.
Reason: The wavelength of Raman lines is same.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length.
Reason: The unit of power is one dioptre when the unit of focal length is one metre.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: Presbyopia is due to ageing of human beings.
Reason: For those persons, ciliary muscles of the eye become weak.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is meant by refraction?
Answer:
When a ray of light travels from one transparent medium into another obliquely, the path of the light undergoes deviation. This deviation of ray of light is called refraction.

Question 2.
State laws of refraction.
Answer:
First law of refraction: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Second law of refraction: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\) = \(\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}\)

Question 3.
Define refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as refractive index ‘p’ of that medium.

Question 4.
What is meant by monochromatic source?
Answer:
If a source of light produces a light of single colour, it is known as a monochromatic source.

Question 5.
When white light is refracted by a transparent medium what will you get? Why?
Answer:

1. When white light is refracted by a transparent medium, a spectrum is obtained.
2. This is because, different coloured lights are bent through different angles.

Question 6.
What is scattering of light?
Answer:
When sunlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, the atoms and molecules of different gases present in the atmosphere refract the light in all possible directions. This is called as ‘Scattering of light’.

Question 7.
State the types of scattering.
Answer:

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

Question 8.
What is elastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

Question 9.
What is inelastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 10.
How are different types of scattering formed? Mention the types of scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer results in different types of scattering. They are

1. Rayleigh scattering
2. Mie scattering
3. Tyndall scattering
4. Raman scattering

Question 11.
What is Rayleigh scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of sunlight by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the earth’s atmosphere is known as Rayleigh scattering.

Question 12.
Why the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon. Hence, most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 13.
When does Mie scattering take place?
Answer:
Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.

Question 14.
What are the causes of Mie scattering?
Answer:
Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.

Question 15.
Why the clouds have white appearance?
Answer:
Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 16.
What is Tyndall Scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called Tyndall Scattering or Tyndall Effect.

Question 17.
What is meant by colloid? State few examples.
Answer:
Colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material. Eg: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 18.
What is meant by Raman Scattering?
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

Question 19.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 20.
What is Rayleigh line?
Answer:
The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’.

Question 21.
What are Raman lines?
Answer:
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’.

Question 22.
What are stokes lines and Antistokes lines?
Answer:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 23.
What is a lens?
Answer:
A lens is an optically transparent medium bounded by two spherical refracting surfaces or one plane and one spherical surface.

Question 24.
How is lens classified?
Answer:
Lens is basically classified into two types. They are:

1. Convex Lens
2. Concave Lens.

Question 25.
What is biconvex lens?
Answer:
Convex or bi-convex lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thicker at the centre than at the edges. A beam of light passing through it, is converged to a point. So, a convex lens is also called as converging lens.

Question 26.
What is meant by biconcave lens?
Answer:
Concave or bi-concave Lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thinner at the centre than at the edges. A parallel beam of light passing through it, is diverged or spread out. So, a concave lens is also called as diverging lens.

Question 27.
What are
(i) Plano-convex lens?
(ii) Plano-concave lens?
Answer:
(i) If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a plano-convex lens.
(ii) If one of the faces of a bi-concave lens is plane, it is known as a plano-concave lens.

Question 28.
State the applications of convex lenses.
Answer:

1. Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
2. They are used as magnifying lenses.
3. They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
4. They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 29.
Draw diagrams of different types converging lenses.
Answer:

Question 30.
Represent different types of lenses by diagram.
Answer:

Question 31.
What is the nature of the image formed by an object is placed behind the centre of curvature of a convex leas. Draw a ray diagram.
Answer:
When an object is placed behind the center of curvature (beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

Question 32.
Draw a ray diagram to indicate the nature of the image formed when an object is placed in between the centre of curvature and principal focus of a convex lens.
Answer:
When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

Question 33.
Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image (by the concave lens) when object is at infinity.
Answer:
When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Question 34.
What are the applications of concave lens?
Answer:

1. Concave lenses are used as eye lens of‘Galilean Telescope’.
2. They are used in wide angle spy hole in doors.
3. They are used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’.

Question 35.
What do you know about lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
\(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{v}\) – \(\frac{1}{u}\)

Question 36.
Define magnification.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’. If height of the object is h and height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by lens is,

Question 37.
What is lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula relates the focal length of a lens with the distance of object and image.

where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R₁ and R₂ are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 38.
What is meant by power of lens?
Answer:
The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) light rays is called as its power.

Question 39.
Define power of a lens. State its unit.
Answer:
Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 40.
What is meant by dioptre.
Answer:
Dioptre is the power of a lens, whose focal length is 1 metre.
1 Dioptre = 1 m^-1.

Question 41.
Differentiate convex lens from concave lens.
Answer:

Question 42.
What are
(i) Pupil &
(ii) Retina?
Answer:
(i) Pupil: It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.
(ii) Retina: This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Question 43.
What is persistence of vision?
Answer:
If the time interval between two consecutive light pulses is less than 0.1 second, human eye cannot distinguish them separately. It is called persistence of vision.

Question 44.
What is least distance of distinct vision?
Answer:
The minimum distance required to see the objects distinctly without strain is called least distance of distinct vision. It is called as near point of eye. It is 25 cm for normal human eye.

Question 45.
What is far point?
Answer:
The maximum distance up to which the eye can see objects clearly is called as far point of the eye.

Question 46.
What is Presbyopia?
Answer:
Due to ageing, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye-lens become rigid (inflexible) and so the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an aged person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. So, it is also called as ‘old age hypermetropia’.

Question 47.
What is meant by astigmatism?
Answer:
In this defect, eye cannot see parallel and horizontal lines clearly. It may be inherited or acquired. It is due to the imperfect structure of eye lens because of the development of cataract on the lens, ulceration of cornea, injury to the . refracting surfaces, etc. Astigmatism can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses (Torrid lenses).

Question 48.
State the principle of microscope. How is it classified?
Answer:
It works under the principle of angular magnification of lenses. It is classified as

1. Simple microscope
2. Compound microscope

Question 49.
What are the uses of simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

1. By watch repairers and jewellers.
2. To read small letters clearly.
3. To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
4. To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 50.
How is telescope classified?
Answer:
According to optical property, it is classified into two groups:

1. refracting telescope
2. reflecting telescope

Question 51.
Mention the advantages of telescope.
Answer:

1. Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
2. Camera can be attached for taking photograph for the celestial objects.
3. Telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Question 52.
What are the disadvantages of telescope?
Answer:

1. Frequent maintenance is needed.
2. It is not easily portable.

VII. Give the answer in Detail.

Question 1.
State the Laws of Refraction.
Answer:
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.
Second law of Refraction:

1. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
   \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
2. Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.
3. The speed of light in a medium is low if the refractive index of the medium is high and vice versa.
4. When light travels from a denser medium into a rarer medium, the refracted ray is bent away from the normal drawn to the interface.
5. When light travels from a rarer medium into a denser medium, the refracted ray is bent towards the normal drawn to the interface.

Question 2.
Describe Raman Scattering.
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

The scattered light contains some additional frequencies (or wavelengths) other than that of incident frequency (or wavelength). This is known as Raman scattering or Raman Effect.

Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’ and the spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’. The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 3.
With the help of ray diagram, explain the nature, size and position of the image formed by a convex lens. When object is placed at
(i) infinity
(ii) beyond C
(iii) placed at C
(iv) Placed between F and C,
(v) placed at F
(vi) placed between F and optical centre O.
Answer:
(i) Object at infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a real image is formed at the principal focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

(ii) Object placed beyond C (>2F): When an object is placed behind the center of curvature(beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. Th e size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iii) Object placed at C: When an object is placed at the center of curvature, a real and inverted image is formed at the other center of curvature. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iv) Object placed between F and C: When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

(v) Object placed at the principal focus F: When an object is placed at the focus, a real image is formed at infinity. The size of the image is much larger than that of the object.

(vi) Object placed between the principal focus F and optical centre O: When an object is placed in between principal focus and optical centre, a virtual image is formed. The size of the image is larger than that of the object.

Question 4.
Explain the formation of images formed by a concave lens.
Answer:
Object at Infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Object anywhere on the principal axis at a finite distance: When an object is placed at a finite distance from the lens, a virtual image is formed between optical center and focus of the concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

But, as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased, the distance between the image and the lens also keeps decreasing. Further, the size of the image formed increases as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased.

Question 5.
Explain Mie Scattering.
Answer:
Mie scattering:

1. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light. It is also an elastic scattering.
2. The amount of scattering is independent of wavelength.
3. Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.
4. Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
5. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which, together form the white light.

Question 6.
With the help of a diagram, explain the structure and working of human eye.
Answer:
Structure of the eye:
The eye ball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. It consists of a tough membrane called sclera, which protects the internal parts of the eye.

Cornea : This is the thin and transparent layer on the front surface of the eyeball as shown in figure. It is the main refracting surface. When light enters through the cornea, it refracts or bends the light on to the lens.

Iris : It is the coloured part of the eye. It may be blue, brown or green in colour. Every person has a unique colour, pattern and texture. Iris controls amount of light entering into the pupil like camera aperture.

Pupil : It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.

Retina : This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Ciliary muscles : Eye lens is fixed between the ciliary muscles. It helps to change the focal length of the eye lens according to the position of the object.

Eye Lens : It is the important part of human eye. It is convex in nature.

Working of the eye : The transparent layer cornea bends the light rays through pupil located at the centre part of the Iris. The adjusted light passes through the eye lens. Eye lens is convex in nature. So, the light rays from the objects are converged and a real and inverted image is formed on retina. Then, retina passes the received real and inverted image to the brain through optical nerves. Finally, the brain senses it as erect image.

Question 7.
Describe simple microscope.
Answer:
Simple microscope: It has a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small objects.
Let an object (AB) is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’), The image formed is in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D) (For normal human eye D = 25 cm).

Question 8.
Write short notes on
(i) Astronomical telescope
(ii) Terrestrial telescope.
Answer:
(i) Astronomical Telescope: An astronomical telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets, galaxies and satellites.

(ii) Terrestrial Telescope: The image in an astronomical telescope is inverted. So, it is not suitable for viewing objects on the surface of the Earth. Therefore, a terrestrial telescope is used. It provides an erect image. The major difference between astronomical and terrestrial telescope is erecting the final image with respect to the object.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
A needle of size 5 cm is placed 45 cm from a lens produced an image on a screen placed 90 cm away from the lens.
Answer:
(i) Identify the types of lens.
Calculate focal length of the lens.
Height of the object h₁ = 5 cm
Distance of the object u = -45 cm
Distance of the image v = 90 cm
We know that

Focal length of the lens = 30 cm
Since focal length is positive the lens is convex lens.

(ii) Identify the size of the image

∴ h₂ = -10 cm
The negative sign indicates that the image is real and inverted.

Question 2.
A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image 10 cm from the lens?
Answer:
v = -10 cm; f =-15 cm; u = ?
Lens formula:
\(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{v}\) – \(\frac{1}{u}\)
Type of lens: Concave lens

u =-30 cm
Thus, the object distance is 30 cm.

Question 3.
An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. An erect and virtual image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the magnification.
Answer:
Type of lens is Cancave lens.
Formula:
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\)
Object distance u = -30 cm
Image distance v = -10 cm
m = \(\frac{-10}{-30}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) = +0.33

Question 4.
The focal length of a concave lens is 2 cm. Calculate the power of the lens.
Answer:
Formula:
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
Type of lens is concave lens.
Focal length of concave lens,
f = -2 m power of the lens.
P = \(\frac{1}{-2 m}\)
P = -0.5 dioptre

Question 5.
A needle placed at 30 cm from the lens forms an image on a screen placed 60 cm on the other side of the lens. Identify the type of lens and determine the focal length.
Answer:
u = -30 cm
v = 60 cm
u is negative because image is formed on the on the other side of the lens.

It is a convex lens.

Question 6.
A 3 cm tall bulb is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a diverging lens having a focal length of 10.5 cm. Determine the distance of the image.
Answer:
u = -20 cm
f = -10.5 cm

The distance of the image is -6.88 cm

Question 7.
A ray from medium 1 is refracted below while passing through medium 2. Find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to medium 1.
Answer:
Refractive index µ

Refractive index = 0.707

Question 8.
The optical prescription of a pair of spectacle is
Right eye: -3.5 D, Left eye: -4.00 D.
(i) Name the defect of the eye.
Answer:
Shortsighted (Myopia)

(ii) Are these lenses thinner at the middle or at the edges?
Answer:
These lenses are thinner in the middle.

(iii) Which lens has a greater focal length?
Answer:
power = \(\frac{1}{focal length}\)
Right eye: power P = -3.5 D

Left eye: Power P = -4 D

Hence the lens having power of -3.5 D has greater focal length.

Question 9.
The radii of curvature of two surfaces of a double convex lens are 10 cm each. Calculate its focal length and power of the lens in air and liquid. Refractive indices of glass and liquid are 1.5 and 1.8 respectively.
Answer:
Radius of curvature of first surface R₁ = 10 cm
Radius of curvature of second surface R₂ = 10 cm
In air

p_l = -3.33 d

Question 10.
An object 2 cm tall is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.
Answer:
Focal length of a convex lens f = 15 × 10^-2 m
Weight of the object ho = 2 × 10^-2 m
Let weight of the image be h_v
Distance of the object u = 10 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image v = 15 × 10^-2 m
We know

∴ v = -30 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image = 30 × 10^-2 m

Hence a virtual image 6 × 10^-2 m height is formed at a distance of 30 × 10^-2 m from the lens on the same side of the lens.

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
Ramu passes white light through a quartz prism. For which colour refractive index is greater?
Answer:
Refractive index is maximum for violet light when white light passes through a quartz prism.

Question 2.
Sita has kept a stud consists of diamond. What will she observe? Give reason.
Answer:
The diamond stud appears bright because of total internal reflection.

Question 3.
Guna passes a ray light through a glass slab. Which optical phenomenon will take place? What can he observe with reference to wavelength?
Answer:
When a ray of light enters a glass slab he can observe refraction of light. He observed that wavelength of light decreases.

Question 4.
A prism is placed in the minimum deviation position. Chari has passed a ray of light at an angle of 45°, then what is the value of angle of emergence? Why?
Answer:
The angle of emergence = 45°.
Since, in the minimum deviation positron, angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.

Question 5.
Mani is using a lens of power 2 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
Focal length = \(\frac{1}{power}\)
F= \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m

Question 6.
Surya has placed a lens of power 1 D in side water. What will happen to power of the lens?
Answer:
The power of the lens will be more than original power.

Question 7.
Sonu has observed some lines in solar spectrum are absorbed by the elements present in the atmosphere. What are the lines?
Answer:
The lines are Fraunhofer lines.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 3 World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
Answer:
(a) 2 September, 1945

Question 2.
Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein
Answer:
(b) Battle of Midway

Question 4.
Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
Answer:
(c) Hiroshima

Question 5.
Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians
(b) Arabs
(c) Turks
(d) Jews
Answer:
(d) Jews

Question 6.
Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Lloyd George
(d) Stanley Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Chamberlain

Question 7.
When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942
(b) June 26, 1945
(c) January 1, 1942
(d) January 1, 1945
Answer:
(b) June 26, 1945

Question 8.
Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York
(b) Chicago
(c) London
(d) The Hague
Answer:
(d) The Hague

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Hitler attacked ……………… which was a demilitarized zone.
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ………………
3. ……………… started the Lend-Lease programme.
4. Britain Prime Minister ……………… resigned in 1940.
5. Saluting the bravery of the ……………… Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many to so few”.
6. ……………… is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
7. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in ……………… articles.
8. After the World War II ……………… was voted into power in Great Britain.

Answers:

1. Rhineland
2. Rome – Berlin
3. Roosevelt
4. Chamberlain
5. Royal Air force
6. Radar
7. 30
8. Labour party

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
(ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
(iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
(iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason (R): He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the Following

Answers:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.
2. Germany had to be disarmed and was allowed to retain only a very restricted army, navy and air force.
3. Germany was expected to pay huge military and civilian cost of the war to the allied nations (approx. $ 25 billion).

Question 2.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
Answer:
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 3.
How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was able to sway away the emotions of the German people by his great speeches. He promised them that he will return back the glorious Germany. His racial superiority of the Germans as a pure Aryan race and a deep-rooted hatred for jews made him get the support of his people.

Question 4.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed. The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 5.
What do you know of Beveridge Report?
Answer:
The Report that was published in the United Kingdom in 1942 to improve the general welfare of the people is called as Beveridge Report. It proposed that the government should provide citizens with adequate income, healthcare, education housing and employment to overcome poverty and disease thereby improve general welfare.

Question 6.
Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
Answer:
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of the IMF?
Answer:

1. To foster global monetary co-operation
2. To secure Financial Stability
3. To facilitate International Trade
4. To promote high employment and sustainable economic growth.
5. To reduce poverty around the world.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Battle of Stalingrad

(a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
In August 1942, Germany attacked Stalingrad.

(b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.

(c) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
Fall Blau or Operation Blue

(d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The people of Russia were grateful for Stalin’s conduct of the war. They regarded him as ‘a prodigy of patience, tenacity and vigilance, almost omnipresent, almost omniscient.

Question 2.
Japanese Aggression In South-east Asia

(a) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
Answer:
Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies and the Burma all fell to the Japanese.

(b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
Answer:
The Allies had a setback in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparation. The local people had to face the atrocities of the Japanese.

(c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
Answer:
The U.S. navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway. Thus, the battle is in favour of the Allies.

(d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
The Indians living in Burma walked all the way to the Indian border facing many hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion.

Question 3.
General Assembly and Security Council

(a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
Answer:
The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.

(b) What is the Holocaust?
Answer:
The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.

(c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
Answer:
The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.

(d) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Answer:

1. Adolf Hitler Was the founder of the National Socialist party, generally known as the Nazi party.
2. His great oratorical skill, his promise to bring back the glorious past of Germany, his support for the German race and hatred towards the Jews helped him to get people support.
3. He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
4. He began to re-arm Germany and recruitment of new armed forces.
5. The manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force with large spending from government resulted in the revival of the economic condition and helped to solve the unemployment problem in the economy.
6. He followed aggressive policy and therefore in 1936, he invaded Rhine land, the demilitarized zone.
7. His alliance with Italy and Japan became Rome-Berlin-Tokyo axis.
8. He signed Munich pact stating Germany would not conquer any other territory, rather in 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.
9. His attack on Poland resulted in the declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany.
10. In 1941, German army invaded Russia. But the resistance of the German army and Russian winter defeated German army.
11. When the allied forces fought back, Germany also retaliated. Finally, Hitler committed suicide in 1945.
12. In 1945, allies occupied Berlin and Germany was divided as two sections after the war.

Question 2.
Analyse the effects of World War II.
Answer:
World War II was the most devastating war in history. It left a deep impact on the entire world. It changed the world in fundamental ways. Here are the effects of this War:

(i) The world got polarised into two main blocs led by superpowers, one led by the United States which followed anti-communist ideology, and the other by Soviet Russia which was essentially communist in nature. Europe was thus divided into two: Communist and non-communist.

(ii) The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear powered World War II 43 weapons. They built a large stockpile of such weapons. Meanwhile, Britain and France developed their own nuclear weapons.

(iii) Gradually there arose competition among countries. They began to devote large amount of resources in developing more and more powerful weapons with great destructive power, and defence spending skyrocketed in many countries.

(iv) It was realised that the League of Nations was ineffective and weak. So countries of the world decided not to repeat the mistake. Instead, many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large and small.

(v) Many other important social and economic changes also took place in the post-War world. Colonial powers were forced to give independence to former colonies in a process of decolonisation. India was the first country to get independence.

(vi) Women became the part of labour force in huge numbers. They became economically independent.

Question 3.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:
The charter of the United Nations was signed on June 26, 1945 by 51 nations. Now, the United Nations has 193 member states and each one has an equal vote in the UN.

Structure of UN:

The General Assembly: Meets once in a year. Issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.

The Security Council: Consist of five permanent members (USA, Britain, France, Russia, China) and ten non-permanent members (elected in rotation). Each permanent member has the right to veto (A right to reject a decision).

UN Secretariat: Headed by the Secretary by law General. He is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. He, with his cabinet and officials run the UN.

International Court of Justice: Headquarters at the Hague in Holland.

The Economic and the Social Council: Co-ordinates all the social and economic work of the U.N. Headed by economists like Gunnar Myrdal.

Activities of the UN:

1. Human Rights, Refugees problem, climatic change, gender equality are the important issues taken over and deals with it. Earlier in 1960’s decolonisation was also a part of their activity.
2. UN peace keeping force acted in many areas of conflict all over the World. Indian army has been a part of it.
3. The preamble of the UN declares, its activities include human rights, equality of men and women.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
A debate in the class on the success or failure of the UN in preserving World Peace.
Answer:
The students can take the following topics for debate and finally conclude, UN is successful as it has stopped the nations from bringing another war. Small to big clashes were/are handled by UN efficiently.

Argument for:
The topics of discussion for debate are:

1. Solving International conflicts: Since 1945, UN peacekeepers have undertaken over 60 field missions and negotiated 172 peaceful settlements that ended Regional conflicts.
2. Liberation from Colonial rule: Eighty nations and more than 750 million people have been freed from colonialism.
3. Human Rights: Custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, Children’s rights, torture, missing persons etc. in many countries.
4. Enhancing Human life: Specialised agencies of the UN engaged in enhancing all aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, climate change.
5. Treaties: More than 560 multilateral treaties on human rights, refugees, disarmament.

Argument against:

Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT): Signed by 190 nations, all live superpowers owned nuclear weapons. Later, several countries North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India developed nuclear weapons.

Veto Power: Veto power has limited its effectiveness at critical times.

War Criminals: The International criminal court has prosecuted several war criminals. But it has been criticised for prosecuting only African leaders. But Western powers too have committed war crimes.

Israel Attack: Israel attacked homes schools, U.N. shelters in Gaza killing 2,200 Palestinians. The U.N. Security Council has failed any action against Israel.

Conclusion: U.N. is imperfect but it is also indispensable. It is successful as, it is avoiding any other war.

Question 3.
Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in a world map.
Answer:

IX. Map Work

Question 1.
Mark the following on the world map.
1. Axis Power Countries
2. Allied Power Countries
3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawai Island, Moscow, San Fransico
Answer:
(2)

(3)

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The financial cost of the II World War was ……………….. times higher than that of the I World War.
(a) one
(b) three
(c) five
(d) seven
Answer:
(c) five

Question 2.
The coal mines given to France were ………
(a) Jharia
(b) Saar
(c) Bokaro
Answer:
(b) Saar

Question 3.
“Money in wheelbarrows to buy bread” in the 1920’s. Which country referred to here.
(a) Italy
(b) Austria
(c) Germany
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Germany

Question 4.
The principles of war and conquests was glorified by ………
(a) Moderates
(b) Dictators
(c) Extremists
Answer:
(b) Dictators

Question 5.
Hitler broke the Munich pact by invading ……………….. in 1939.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Sudetenland
(c) Poland
(d) Czechoslovakia
Answer:
(d) Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Hitler demanded the surrender of ………
(a) Danzig
(b) Jutland
(c) Estonia
Answer:
(a) Danzig

Question 7.
The attack of ……………….. by Germany was the final act which result in the initiation of II World War.
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) Poland
Answer:
(d) Poland

Question 8.
The British Prime Minister during the Second World War was ………
(a) Sir Winston Churchill
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Lloyd George
Answer:
(a) Sir Winston Churchill

Question 9.
The tactic followed by Germany to overrun other countries was called as:
(a) Sea-borne invasion
(b) Blitzkrieg
(c) Dunkirk
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Blitzkrieg

Question 10.
In ………, Hitler invaded Russia.
(a) 1940
(b) 1941
(c) 1943
Answer:
(b) 1941

Question 11.
“We shall fight in the fields and in the streets” ……………….. but, we shall never surrender.”- said by
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Napoleon Bonaparte
(c) George Washington
(d) Roosevelt.
Answer:
(a) Winston Churchill

Question 12.
……………….. used the device radar for detecting aircraft at a distance in World War II.
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) USA
Answer:
(c) Britain

Question 13.
In September 1940, London was bombed mercilessly by German Air force. This action was called as:
(a) Spit fires
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Blitz
(d) Dunkirk
Answer:
(c) Blitz

Question 14.
Land lease programme of USA took place between the years:
(a) 1939 – 1945
(b) 1941 – 1945
(c) 1936 – 1940
(d) 1914 – 1918
Answer:
(b) 1941 – 1945

Question 15.
In the war between Germany and Russia in 1941, ……………….. was defeated.
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 16.
Stalingrad I situated along the banks of the river:
(a) Miami
(b) Volga
(c) Hwang-Ho
(d) Marne
Answer:
(b) Volga

Question 17.
In the battle of Stalingrad, Germans used the code word ……………….. on Russia.
(a) Alamein
(b) Land lease
(c) Fall Blau
(d) Montegomary
Answer:
(c) Fall Blau

Question 18.
Mussolini was killed by a ……………….. partisan.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Italy

Question 19.
Mussolini was killed in:
(a) May 1945
(b) April 1944
(c) April 1945
(d) May 1946
Answer:
(c) April 1945

Question 20.
In 1945 ……………….. was divided into two sections.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Bengal
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 21.
Japanese army indulged in the biggest slaughter in the place ……………….. in China.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Nanking
(c) Peking
(d) Shangai
Answer:
(b) Nanking

Question 22.
Japan announced surrendered to U.S on ……………….. 1945.
(a) 2nd September
(b) 15th August
(c) 3rd August
(d) 5th February
Answer:
(b) 15th August

Question 23.
The Security council has ……………….. members.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 24.
At present, the United Nations has ……………….. member states.
(a) 196
(b) 195
(c) 194
(d) 193
Answer:
(d) 193

Question 25.
The World Bank is located at:
(a) Sweden
(b) New Zealand
(c) Washington
(d) New York
Answer:
(c) Washington

Question 26.
IMF has at present ……………….. member countries.
(a) 200
(b) 187
(c) 189
(d) 190
Answer:
(c) 189

Question 27.
IMF help the countries to solve their ……………….. position.
(a) debt
(b) Balance of payment
(c) Independency
(d) Trade
Answer:
(b) Balance of payment

Question 28.
The report published in 1942, in United Kingdom for the general welfare of the people was called as ……………….. report.
(a) Bretton Woods
(b) Beveridge
(c) Blitzkrieg
(d) Common wealth
Answer:
(b) Beveridge

Question 29.
……………….. party in Great Britain promised for a welfare state to the people.
(a) Communist party
(b) Democratic party
(c) Socialised party
(d) Labour party
Answer:
(d) Labour party

Question 30.
The benefits to the people can be achieved either through ……………….. transfers or free services.
(a) Cash
(b) Country
(c) State
(d) Regional
Answer:
(a) Cash

II. Fill in the blanks

1. World War II began in ……………… and ended in ………………
2. The Treaty of ……………… was signed at the end of World War I in 1919.
3. The Germans offered to pay ……………… billion gold marks to the allies.
4. The United States was faced with great depression after ………………
5. The National Socialist party in Germany was generally known as ………………
6. In 1938, Hitler signed the Munich pact with Prime Minister ………………
7. In 1939, Hitler invaded ……………… as against his promise in Munich pact.
8. Hitler showed hatred against ………………
9. Hitler came to power in ……………… and ruled till ………………
10. World War II was a ……………… war fought with tanks, submarines, bomber planes etc.
11. Britain and France declared war on Germany in ………………
12. In ………………, Italy and Japan joined the axis powers.
13. In September 1940, London war bombed by Germans mercilessly. This action was known as ………………
14. Blitzkrieg means ………………
15. The name of the Britain navy was ………………
16. The war between Britain and ……………… took place in Dunkirk in 1940.
17. The fighter planes of the British Royal force was called as ……………… and ………………
18. ……………… of America started the Land Lease programme.
19. Caucasus was famous for its ……………… in Russia.
20. Mussolini of Italy was killed by an ……………… partisan.
21. The battle of ……………… was considered to be the Great patriotic war by the Russians.
22. Italy surrendered to the allies in ………………
23. The Allied forces under the command of ……………… invaded Normanday in France.
24. Canton was called as ……………… in China.
25. On December 1941, ……………… attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour.
26. Guadalcanal is in the ……………… islands.
27. USA dropped an atomic bomb on ……………… and ……………… cities of Japan.
28. Japan announced their surrender on ………………
29. Japan formally signed their surrender marking the end of the World War II was ………………
30. ……………… and ……………… are the two super powers after the II World War.
31. US and Soviet Russia entered into a race to have more ………………
32. ………………, ………………, and ……………… came into existence after the II World War.
33. ……………… started entering into labour force in huge number after World War II.
34. In the process ofdecolonisation ……………… was the first country toget Independence.
35. The word ……………… refers the genocide of Jews by the Germans during Second World War.
36. A major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of ………………
37. ……………… became the Homeland for Jews after II World War.
38. The Un efforts to protect human rights at the global levei resulted in the UN commission on ………………
39. The Un adopted the Human Rights Charter on ………………
40. ……………… is observed globally as Human Rights Day.
41. Britain and United States gave a joint declaration called as ……………… in 1941 that helped in the formation of UNO.
42. ……………… were the axis powers of the II World War.
43. The initial member States of the UN were ……………… nations.
44. The Charter of the United Nations was signed on ………………
45. Each member State in U.N.has ……………… vote.
46. The UN functions almost like a ………………
47. There are ………………, ………………, ………………, ……………… wing for the UN.
48. Veto means ………………
49. ……………… has veto power.
50. ……………… permanent members are there in UN.
51. WHO means ………………
52. UNICEF means ………………
53. FAO means ………………
54. UNESCO expansion is ………………
55. UNDP expansion is ………………
56. The ……………… has been a port of peace keeping force of the UN in deployment to many parts of the World.
57. The World Bank and the IMP are referred to as ………………
58. The two main organs of the World Bank are ……………… and ………………
59. IBRD expansion is ………………
60. IDA expansion is ………………
61. The IDA lends money to the ……………… for development activities.
62. The loans sanctioned by IDA at low interest rates for development purposes are called as ………………
63. Soft loans are given for ……………… years.
64. The ……………… functions with private enterprises in developing countries.
65. IFC expansion is ………………
66. The World Bank is actively promoting the cause of improving the and eradicating the ………………
67. The IMF was the brainchild of ……………… and ………………
68. The initial member countries of IMF were ………………
69. Its primary objective is to ensure ……………… and development across the World.
70. The fund gives resources to countries facing ……………… problem.
71. The number of member countries of IMF at present are ……………… countries.
72. All the countries in the Western Europe are now ………………
73. The ……………… in Great Britain after World War I promised to look at the people from the cradle to the grave.
74. Legislations was enacted to provide comprehensive free health coverage to the citizens in Britain through ………………
75. The monetary benefits after World War II by Labour party was ………………, ……………… etc.

Answers:

1. 1939, 1945
2. Versailles
3. 100
4. 1929
5. Nazis
6. Chamberlin
7. Czechoslovakia
8. Jews
9. 1933, 1945
10. modem
11. 1939
12. 1940
13. Blitz
14. Lightning strike
15. Royal Navy
16. France
17. Spitfires, Hurricanes
18. President Roosevelt
19. Oil fields
20. Italian
21. Stalingrad
22. 1943
23. General Elsenhower
24. Guangzhou
25. Japan
26. Solomon
27. Hiroshima, Nagasaki
28. 15th August 1945
29. 2nd Sept 1945
30. United States, Soviet Russia
31. Nuclear weapons
32. United Nations, World Bank, International Monetary Fund
33. Women
34. India
35. Holocaust
36. Israel
37. Israel
38. Human Rights
39. 10th Dec 1948
40. 10th Dec 1948
41. Atlantic Charter
42. Germany, Italy, Japan
43. 51
44. June 26, 1945
45. One
46. Government
47. Executive, Judicial, Legislative, Co-ordinating
48. The right to block major decisions
49. Permanent members
50. Five
51. World Health Organisation
52. United Nations Children’s Fund
53. Food and Agricultural Organisation
54. UN educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
55. United Nations Development programme
56. Indian Army
57. Bretton Woods Twins
58. IBRD, IDA
59. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
60. International Development Agency
61. Government
62. Soft loans
63. 50
64. IFC
65. International Finance Corporation
66. Environment, AIDS
67. Hary Dexter, John Maynard Keynes
68. 29
69. Financial Stability
70. Balance of payment
71. 189
72. Welfare states
73. Labour party
74. National Health Service
75. Old age pension, Child care services

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The axis powers of World War II were Germany, Italy and Japan.
(ii) Russia attacked the American naval base at Pearl Harbour in 1941.
(iii) The UN adopted the historic human rights charter on 10th December 1947.
(iv) The executive wing of the UN is the UN Secretariat.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(c) (i) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Reparations refers to the compensation exacted from a defeated nation by the victorious nation.
(ii) Slaughter is compulsory military service.
(iii) Japanese navy was defeated by the US Navy at the battle of mid way.
(iv) Progression taxation by taxing the higher income groups at relatively high rates.
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The Security Council of the UNO has fifteen members.
(ii) The mass killing of Jews in Nazi was called holocaust
(iii) Battle of Ex Alamein was considered one of the greatest battles by Russia.
(iv) The Japanese navy defeated the US navy in the battle of Midway.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The World Bank and the IMF are referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins.
(ii) The post World War I led to the rise of dictatorship in Italy, Germany, and Spain.
(iii) The post World War II changed the world into two blocks as communist and non communist.
(iv) The Shakespeare’s play the Merchant of Venice clearlv depicts the dislike and distrust of Jews among the Nazi people.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing balance of payment problem.
(ii) The Munich pact was signed between Germany and the Soviet Union.
(iii) Huge worthless money for bread often refers to the Britain’s severe inflation after II World War.
(iv) Franco of Spain was the only dictatorship that emerged after II World War.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
(d) (i) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Japanese extended their empire throughout South-east Asia.
(ii) Burma, Indonesia, Singapore, Malaya, Hong Kong, Philippines all fell to the Japanese.
(iii) Many Indians walked ail the way from Burma to the Indian border facing many sufferings.
(iv) Many Indians who stayed there suffered under the Japanese.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (i) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Hitler was killed by his countrymen in 1945
(ii) Mussolini committed suicide in April 1945
(iii) The United States declared war on Japan on December 1944.
(iv) In 1938, Japan invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 8.
(i) In the year 1940, the British Prime Minister Chamberlain resigned.
(ii) The newly elected British Prime Minister next was Winston Churchill.
(iii) The end of World War II signalled a change in the world order and political configurations among the major powers.
(iv) The Treaty of Versailles ended the World War II.
(a) (i) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): World War I (1914-18) and World War II (1939-45) are only referred as World wars.
Reason (R): The high death of the civilians and the soldiers and the extended area of the conflicts.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The League remained an ineffectual international body. Reason (R): Along with the USA, as a non-member mainly Germany was determined to maintain a non-interventionist attitude.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia in 1938.
Reason (R): Hitler claimed all the German speaking people should be united into one nation.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mood in Britain was not in favour of starting another war after World War I.
Reason (R): Just as the United States they wanted to be concerned with the revival of the economy after great depression.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Germany developed a fleet of sub-marines which caused havoc in the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): Germany ensured themselves for a sea-borne invasion on allies.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The long term objective of Germany was to exploit Russia’s natural Resource oil.
Reason (R): German army invaded Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Germans tried to capture the city of Stalingrad in Russia. Reason (R): Stalingrad was the militarised zone of Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right, A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Hitler committed suicide in April 1945.
Reason (R): The Allied forces in 1945, occupied parts of Berlin and began to attack Germany from the east.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): The United States declared war on Japan.
Reason (R): In 1931, the Japanese army invaded Manchuria and in 1937, invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but R is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion (A): U.S. dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima and another bomb was dropped on Nagasaki.
Reason (R): U.S. developed hatred over the development of two cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but it is the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and the Soviet Union followed communist and non¬communist ideas.
Reason (R): Countries began to devote large amount of resources in developing dangerous weapons.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but not relevant to R
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but not relevant to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

V. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (vi)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What are soft loans?
Answer:
The loans that are sanctioned by the International Development Agency to the Governments for developmental activities are called as soft loans. They are given at very low rate of interest of 50 years.

Question 2.
Did Munich Pact bring peace for some time? How?
Answer:

1. In September 1938, Hitler threatened Czechoslovakia.
2. The British Prime Minister Neville chamberlain initiated talks and signed Munich pact,
3. Hitler promised not to take any more Czech territory.
4. Chamberlain believed that he had achieved “Peace for some time”. But within six months Hitler seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So Munich pact has brought peace only for some time.

Question 3.
What do you know about the World Bank?
Answer:
The World bank consists of two main organs namely The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Agency (IDA). Together they are called as the World Bank.

Question 4.
Why did America declare war on Japan?
Answer:

1. The Japanese had attacked the American fleet stationed at Pearl Harbour on December 7, 1941.
2. This disastrous attack forced the Americans to enter into the war.
3. The very next day the USA declared war on Japan.

Question 5.
What are the axis powers and the ally powers of II World War?
Answer:
Germany, Italy, Japan – Axis powers.
Britain, France, Russia, USA – Ally powers.

Question 6.
Name the countries involved in World War II.
Answer:

1. The allies countries were under the leadership of Britain. [Britain, France, Russia and U.S.A]
2. The axis countries were under the leadership of Germany. [Germany, Italy and Japan]

Question 7.
What was the immediate cause of the II World War?
Answer:
The main and immediate cause of the II World War was the aggressive, military, dictatorship attitude of Germany, fast-developing Japan. Hitler’s attack on Poland in 1939, resulted in the declaration of the War by Britain and France.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on security council.
Answer:

1. The council has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
2. The five permanent members are the USA, UK, France, Russian Federation and China,
3. The non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two years term,
4. The permanent members have the right to veto for any council decision.
5. Its main responsibility is to maintain International peace and security.

Question 9.
What is ECOSOC? What are its organs?
Answer:
The Economic and Social Council, is the UN organ which is responsible for co-ordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations. The Regional Economic commissions functioning for regional development across the various regions of the World are its organs. (Asia pacific, West Asia, Europe, Africa, Latin America).

Question 10.
Name some of the specialized agencies of the UNO.
Answer:

1. The World Health Organisation [WHO]
2. The United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation(UNESCO)
3. The United Nation’s Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
4. The International Labour Organisation (ILO)
5. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO)
6. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
7. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

VII. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Causes of the Second World War.

(a) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
Answer:
Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.

(b) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
Answer:
Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.

(c) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
Answer:
The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.

(d) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
He violated the Munich Pact.

Question 2.
Munich Pact

(a) Who concluded the Munich pact with Germany?
Answer:
In 1938, Prime Minister Chamberlain concluded the Munich pact with Germany.

(b) What did Hitler do in 1939?
Answer:
In 1939, Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia breaking the munich pact that Germany would not attack any other country.

(c) Which act of Hitler made Britain and France declare war on Germany?
Answer:
His act of attack on Poland made Britain and France declare war on Germany.

(d) What were the weapons used in World War II?
Answer:
Heavy military equipment such as tanks, sub-marines, battleships, aircraft carriers, fighter planes and bomber planes.

Question 3.
Organs of the UNO

(a) Name the major organs of the UNO.
Answer:

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Economic and Social Council
4. The Trusteeship Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

(b) Who was elected as the President of the UN General Assembly in 1953?
Answer:
Mrs. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(c) What is the function of the Trusteeship Council?
Answer:
The Trusteeship Council looks after certain territories placed under the trusteeship of the UNO.

(d) How is the Secretary-General of the UNO appointed?
Answer:
The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly on the advice of the Security Council.

Question 4.
Birth of Israel.

(a) What is meant by Holocaust?
Answer:
Holocaust refers to the mass killing of jews by the Germans during World War II.

(b) What was the major outcome of the Holocaust?
Answer:
The major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of Israel as a homeland for the Jews.

(c) What did the Israel occupy?
Answer:
The Israel has occupied large parts of Palestinian homelands.

(d) From whom does Israel get the support from?
Answer:
Israel get the vast support from the United States.

Question 5.
The United Nations

(a) Who took the first initiative for the formation of the United Nations?
Answer:
The United states and the Britain in 1941.

(b) Name the joint declaration they issued?
Answer:
The Atlantic Charter was the name of the joint declaration they issued.

(c) How many countries accepted the declaration at first?
Answer:
The declaration of the United Nations was accepted by 26 countries, on New years Day 1942.

(d) How many nations signed the charter? When?
Answer:
On June 26, 1945, 51 nations signed the charter.

Question 6.
International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(a) On whose idea the International Monetary Fund was initiated?
Answer:
Harry Dexter white and John Maynard Keynes ideas brought the emergence of IMF.

(b) When was it formally organised?
Answer:
It was formally organised in 1945 with 29 member countries (at present 189).

(c) What were the three main agendas of the IMF?
Answer:

1. To promote International monetary co-operation.
2. To expand International trade.
3. To bring exchange stability.

(d) State the main reason of its funding?
Answer:
The IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing Balance of payment problems.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What were the results of Second World War?
Answer:

1. The destruction to life and property was on a much larger scale than the First World War.
2. Over 50 millions lost their lives.
3. It sounded the death knell to dictatorship in Germany and Italy.
4. Germany was occupied by the Allied forces, and later it was divided into two parts.
5. The West Germany was controlled by Britain, France and America and the East Germany by Russia.
6. At the end of the war, Japan was occupied by American forces under General Mc. Arthur.
7. The war weakened Britain and France.
8. America and Russia emerged as super powers.
9. The war did not end totalitarianism in Russia. A cold war started between Russia and America.
10. The war quickened the phase of national movements in Asia and Africa.
11. India, Burma, Egypt, Ceylon and Malaya won their freedom from Britain.
12. Philippines got independence from America.
13. Indo-china got independence from France.
14. Indonesia got independence from the Dutch.
15. The European countries gave up the policy of colonialism and imperialism.
16. The United Nations Organisation was set up to maintain international peace and harmony. It works hard to maintain international co-operation and for the promotion of human welfare.

Question 2.
Write a note on international Monetary Fund (IMF).
Answer:

1. International Monetary Fund was established in 1945 after the Bretton Woods conference in 1944 along with the World Bank.
2. It is located in the Washington in United States.
3. The idea of starting of IMF was given by Harry Dexter, White and John Maynard Keynes, a famous economist.
4. The initial members of the IMF were 29. Now, there are 189 member countries with IMF,
5. The main objectives of IMF include to foster global monetary co-operation, to secure financial stability, to facilitate trade, promote employment, to sustain economic growth and reduce poverty all over the world.
6. The fund lends money to its member countries to correct their balance of payment position if they are unable to pay for their imports.
7. The funding from IMF is not very easy as it strictly imposes restrictions on lending.
8. It imposes the developing nations to tighten the budgets and reduce fiscal expenditure.

Question 3.
Write a note on the UN Commission of Human Rights.
Answer:

1. Human Rights means the fundamental freedom for all human beings without any differences in race, sex, language and religion.
2. The UN efforts to protect human rights on a global basis resulted in the formation of the UN commission on Human Rights.
3. A committee was set up for its formation. It was headed by the wife of FDR of USA, after his death.
4. The other members of the commission included Charles Malik from Lebanon, P.C.Chang from China, Rene Casin from France.
5. The Commission set forth with 30 articles.
6. The UN adopted this historic charter on 10th December 1948.
7. This day, the 10th December is observed as Human Rights Day all over the World.
8. According to the Franklin and Eleanor institute in New York, reports, from 1948 till now, nearly 90 National constitutions are part of this Human Rights Commission of UN.