Category: Class 10

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) Air warfare
(b) Trench warfare
(c) Submarine warfare
(d) Ship warfare
Answer:
(b) Trench warfare

Question 2.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 3.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in
Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When was the first forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 6.
…………………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
………………………….  helps in quick, ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Nor wester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 8.
Which crop is called as “Golden fibre” in India?
(a) cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 9.
Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The transport useful in the inaccessible area is ………………………….
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 11.
How can the fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the supreme court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 12.
Find the odd one ………………………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 13.
…………………………. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 14.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) Land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
(i) Ramalinga swamigal emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living beings. He expressed the view that those who lack compassion for suffering of human beings are hard hearted, their wisdom clonded. He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) He established the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865 and it was renamed in 1872 as ‘Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ which means ‘Society for pure truth in universal self-hood’. Ramalinga also estabilished a free feeding house for everyone.

Question 16.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
(i) Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when Japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed.

(ii) The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 17.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:
In the Battle of Kalakadu, Mahfuzkhan’s troops were routed by the huge forces of Puli Thevar.

Question 18.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:

• After World War I, the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a very harsh treatment. The Khilafat Movement started in support of the Caliph.
• It was led by Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers.
• It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement and saw it an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 19.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 20.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:

1. Alluvial Soils
2. Black soils
3. Red soils
4. Laterite soils
5. Forest and mountain soils
6. Arid and desert soils
7. Saline and alkaline soils
8. Peaty and marshy soils.

Question 21.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
Oil in India is obtained from both from on-shore and off-shore areas.
Western Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Mumbai high oil fields
2. Gujarat Coast
3. Basseim oil field, South of Mumbai high
4. Ankleshwar
5. Cambay-Luni Region
6. Ahemedabad-Kalol Region
7. Aliabet oil feild, south of Bhavanagar

Eastern Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Brahmaputra valley
2. Digboi oil fields
3. Nahoratiya oil fields
4. Moran-Hugrijan oil fields
5. Rudrasagar-Lawa oil fields
6. Surrma valley
7. Offshore of Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Baleshwar coast, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 22.
What is national emergency?
Answer:
National emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 23.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 24.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

• Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
• Transforming and accountability.
• Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
• Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
• Respect for the environment.

Question 25.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows: “Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 26.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

• It increase the production and cultivation
• It increase the productivity
• Changes in cropping system
• Industrial development

Question 27.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 28.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

• The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
• So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA) or United Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR).
• Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). So he chose the path of Non-Alignment.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………………………. was the headquarters of the Council of Europe.
(ii) …………………………. is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
(iii) …………………………. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
(iv) …………………………. is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ………………………….
Answers
(i) Strasbourg
(ii) Solaikaradu
(iii) Diplomacy
(iv) Underweight
(v) Thenpennai.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains:

Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Narmada and Tapti forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the
5. Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal Sea.
2. They are wide and level plains with an average width of 80 – 100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern part is known as the Coromandal coast.
5. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing:
Marine Fishing :

1. It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continent shelf.
2. Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.

Inland Fishing :

1. Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

(b) Give reason: Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:

• It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
• It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50-80 km.
• It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Hitler was great orator. He swayed the people by his impassioned speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, known as ‘the Nazis’.

He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945, with a small group of fanatic followers. He rearmed Germany. He made huge expenditure on the recruitment of armed forces and the manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force. Soon the economic condition of Germany got strengthened and the problem of unemployment came to an end. In 1938, Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia.

Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia was German-speaking, and Hitler’s claim was that the German-speaking people should be united in one nation. Though Hitler gave an assurance in the Munich Pact that Germany would not attack any other country, but this was broken immediately. In 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.

Poland was attacked next, and this was the final act which resulted in declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany. In June 1940, Italy joined Germany, and in September 1940, Japan also joined the Axis Powers.

The German army followed a tactic of ‘lightning strike’ to storm into various countries and overrun them. In June 1941, German army invaded Russia and remained successful in the initial years. But ultimately got defeated due to the resistance by Soviet army, and the fierce Russian winter.

In the Battle of Alamein 1942, the Allied forces counter-attacked and defeated the German and Italian forces in North Africa. The German army was chased across the desert, out of North Africa. The war continued till Hitler’s suicide in April 1945.

Question 34.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
While the Indian National Congress was calling for Britain to quit India, in 1943, the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the British to divide and quit. There were several reasons for the separate Muslim homeland in the sub-continent:

• As colonizers, the British had followed a divide-and-rule policy in India. In the census they categorized people according to religion and viewed and treated them as separate from each other.
• The British based their knowledge of the people of India on religious texts and the intrinsic differences they found in them, instead of examining how people of different religions coexisted.
• As soon as the Muslim League was formed, Muslims were placed on a separate electorate.
  Thus, the separateness of Muslims in India was built into the Indian electoral process.
• There was also an ideological divide between the Muslims and the Hindus of India. While there were strong feelings of nationalism in India, by the late 19th century there were also communal conflicts and movements in the country that were based on religious identities rather than class or regional ones.
• Both Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim League claimed that the interests of the Hindus and Muslims were different and hostile to each other.
• The British policy of divide and rule, through measures such as Partition of Bengal, Communal Award, had encouraged the vested interests out to exploit the religious differences.

Question 35.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 36.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Plateau of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
• It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km. .
• Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
• This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
• Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
• Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
• Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
• Madurai plateau found in madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 37.
Point out the fundamental Rights.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –

• Right to Equality It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.
• Right to Freedom It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
• Right against Exploitation It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.
• Right to religion It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion. ,
• Cultural and Educational rights It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 38.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:

• Indian foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalties.
• India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives. ,
• India provides neighbours with support as needed in this form of resources equipment and training.

Question 39.
Explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
Answer:
Various terms associated with measuring of national income.

(i) Gross National Product or GNP is the total value of goods and services produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country. It excludes profits earned from capital invested abroad.

(ii) Gross Domestic Product or GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.

(iii) Net National Product or NNP refers to gross national product, i.e., the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of productions of a country or other polity during a given time period, minus depreciation.

(iv) Net Domestic Product or NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product. It is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of the wear and tear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per .Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
National Income
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

(vi) Personal Income or PI is the total money income received by individuals and households of a country from all possible services before direct taxes. Personal income can be expressed as follows:
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Social Security Contributions + Transfer payment.

(vii) Disposable Income or DI means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families. It can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

Question 40.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise?
Industrial Policy of Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu enjoys growth and has excellent infrastructure. A straggly established cluster and political stability are the major advantages. The state government has a pro-active industrial policy and is very encouraging when it comes to SEZs.
Important industrial policies:

• Tamil Nadu Industrial Policy – 2014
• Implementation of Industrial Policy – 2015
• Tamilnadu State Environmental Policy – 2014
• Tamilnadu SEZs Policy -2013
• Tamilnadu Automobiles and Auto Parts Policy – 2014 (/) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policies – 2014

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
live important events between 1922-1943
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Why was Balkan league formed?
(ii) What was the outcome of the first Balkan war?
(iii) Who were defeated in this war?
(iv) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan war?
Answer:
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.
(ii) The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia between them. Turkey was reduced to the area around Constantinople.
(iii) The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.
(iv) The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest.

(b) Deccan Riots
(i) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
(ii) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
(iii) What did it result in?
(iv) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
(b) Deccan Riots
(i) The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared in May 1875, in Supa, a village near Poona.
(ii) Under a new law, the British moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters and auction it off.
(iii) It resulted in transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.
(iv) The violence was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

[OR]

(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
(ii) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
(iii) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(iv) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(ii) The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(iii) The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(iv) Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
(ii) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
(iii) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
(iv) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are,

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(ii) Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.R Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(iii) The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.
(iv) M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil region
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(j) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil regions
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 x 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
செய்தி 1 – ஒவ்வோர் ஆண்டும் ஜுன் 15 ஐ உலகக் காற்று நாளாகக் கொண்டாடி
வருகிறோம்.
செய்தி 2 – காற்றாலை மின் உற்பத்தியில் இந்தியாவில் தமிழகம் இரண்டாமிடம் என்பது எனக்குப் பெருமையே.
செய்தி 3 – காற்றின் ஆற்றலைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கடல் கடந்து வணிகம் செய்து அதில் வெற்றி கண்டவர்கள் தமிழர்கள்!
(அ) செய்தி 1 மட்டும் சரி
(ஆ) செய்தி 1, 2 ஆகியன சரி
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி
(ஈ) செய்தி 1, 3 ஆகியன சரி
Answer:
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி

Question 2.
காசிக்காண்டம் என்பது …………..
(அ) காசி நகரத்தின் வரலாற்றைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஆ) காசி நகரத்தைக் குறிக்கும் மறுபெயர்
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஈ) காசி நகரத்திற்கு வழிப்படுத்தும் நூல்
Answer:
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்

Question 3.
‘படித்து வந்தேன், வேலை தேடினேன்’ எனும் தொடரின் வகை …………..
(அ) பெயரெச்சத் தொடர்
(ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்
(இ) எழுவாய்த் தொடர்
(ஈ) முற்றெச்சத் தொடர்
Answer:
ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்

Question 4.
மலர்கள் தரையில் நழுவுதல், எப்போது?
(அ) அள்ளி முகர்ந்தால்
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்
(இ) இறுக்கி முடிச்சிட்டால்
(ஈ) காம்பு முறிந்தால்
Answer:
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்

Question 5.
இருநாட்டு அரசர்களும் தும்பைப் பூவைச் சூடிப்போரிடுவதன் காரணம் …………..
(அ) நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்றல்
(ஆ) ஆநிரைக் கவர்தல்
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்
(ஈ) கோட்டையை முற்றுகையிடல்
Answer:
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்

Question 6.
சுதந்திர இந்தியாவின் மகத்தான சாதனையும் சவாலுமாக ஜெயகாந்தன் கருதுவது …………..
(அ) அரசின் நலத்திட்டங்களைச் செயல்படுத்தல்
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்
(இ) அறிவியல் முன்னேற்றம்
(ஈ) வெளிநாட்டு முதலீடுகள்
Answer:
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்

Question 7.
குறிஞ்சித் திணையின் சிறு பொழுது …………..
(அ) யாமம்
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) எற்பாடு
(ஈ) நண்ப கல்
Answer:
(அ) யாமம்

Question 8.
“உனக்குப் பாட்டுகள் பாடுகிறோம்
உனக்குப் புகழ்ச்சிகள் கூறுகிறோம்” – பாரதியின் இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள நயங்கள் யாவை?
அ) உருவகம், எதுகை
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை
(இ) முரண், இயைபு
(ஈ) உவமை, எதுகை
Answer:
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை

Question 9.
பின்பனிக்காலத்தை பெரும் பொழுதாய்க் கொண்ட திணை ………………… ஆகும்.
(அ) முல்லை
(ஆ) மருதம்
(இ) நெய்தல்
(ஈ) பாலை
Answer:
(ஈ) பாலை

Question 10.
இரவு 2 மணி முதல் காலை 6 மணி வரையுள்ள காலம் …………..
(அ) வைகறை
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) நண்பகல்
(ஈ) எற்பாடு
Answer:
(அ) வைகறை

Question 11.
‘விருந்தினரைப் பேணுவதற்குப் பொருள் தேவைப்பட்டதால், தன் கருங்கோட்டுச் சீறியாழைப் பணையம் வைத்து விருந்தளித்தான் என்கிறது புறநானூறு’. இச்செய்தி உணர்த்தும் விருந்து போற்றிய நிலை …………..
(அ) நிலத்திற்கேற்ற விருந்து
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து
(இ) அல்லிலும் விருந்து
(ஈ) உற்றாரின் விருந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.

“அலங்கு கழை நரலும் ஆரிப்படுகர்ச்
சிலம்பு அடைந் திருந்த பாக்கம் எய்தி
நோனாச் செருவின் வலம்படு நோன்தாள்
மான விறல்வேள் வயிரியம் என்னே

Question 12.
பாடலடியில் குறிப்பிடப்படும் மன்னர் …………..
(அ) சோழன்
(ஆ) பாண்டியன்
(இ) நன்னன்
(ஈ) சேரன்
Answer:
(இ) நன்னன்

Question 13.
பாடலின் ஆசிரியர் …………..
(அ) நன்ன ன்
ஆ) கூத்தர்
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்
(ஈ) பெருங்குன்றூர் கிழார்
Answer:
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்

Question 14.
வயிரியம் – பொருள் தருக.
(அ) வைரம்
(ஆ) பாணர்
(இ) சோறு
(ஈ) கூத்தர்
Answer:
(ஈ) கூத்தர்

Question 15.
இப்பாடலில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள மோனைச் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
(அ) சிலம்பு, நரலும்
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த
(இ) மான, நோனா
(ஈ) வயிரியம், நோன்தாள்
Answer:
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க.
அ) வியாஸர் தர்மார்த்தங்களை உபதேசிக்கவே பாரதத்தை எழுதினார்.
(ஆ) சிலப்பதிகாரத்தையும், மணிமேகலையையும் இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என
வழங்குவர்.
Answer:
விடை:
அ) வியாஸர் பாரதத்தை எழுதிய நோக்கம் யாது?
ஆ) இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என வழங்கப்படும் நூல்கள் எவை? 150 5 Swaa20 தமிழ் – X RARE சாக்கமாக அSைents காக்கலை

Question 17.
“மன்னும் சிலம்பே! மணிமே கலைவடிவே!
முன்னும் நினைவால் முடிதாழ வாழ்த்துவமே!” – இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள ஐம்பெருங் காப்பியங்களைத் தவிர எஞ்சியுள்ள காப்பியங்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• சீவகசிந்தாமணி
• வளையாபதி
• குண்டலகேசி

Question 18.
வறுமையின் காரணமாக உதவி கேட்டு வருபவரின் தன்மானத்தை எள்ளிநகையாடுவது குறித்துக் குறளின் கருத்து என்ன?
Answer:
இகழ்ந்து ஏளனம் செய்யாமல் பொருள் கொடுப்பவரைக் கண்டால், இரப்பவரின் உள்ளத்தின் உள்ளே மகிழ்ச்சி பொங்கும்.

Question 19.
“நேற்று நான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசு என்ற கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மிக மகிழ்ந்தேன்!” என்று சேகர் என்னிடம் கூறினான். இக்கூற்றை அயற்கூற்றாக எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னாள் தான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசுக் கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மகிழ்ந்ததாகச் சேகர் என்னிடம் (அவனிடம்)
கூறினான்.

Question 20.
மொழிபெயர்ப்புக் குறித்து மணவை முஸ்தபா குறிப்பிடுவது யாது?
Answer:
“ஒரு மொழியில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டதை வேறொரு மொழியில் வெளியிடுவது மொழிபெயர்ப்பு ” என்கிறார் மணவை முஸ்தபா.

Question 21.
‘கண்’ என முடியும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
பண்என்னாம் பாடற் கியைபின்றேல் கண்என்னாம் கண்ணோட்டம் இல்லாத கண்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 x 2 = 10]

Question 22.
சொற்களை இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.
(தேன், விளக்கு, மழை, விண், மணி, விலங்கு, செய், மேகலை, வான், பொன், பூ) Answer:
விடை:
தேன்மழை, மணிமேகலை, செய்தேன், வான்மழை, பொன்மணி, பொன்விளக்கு,
விளக்கு செய்; விண்மழை, செய்விலங்கு, பூமழை

Question 23.
அடிக்கோடிட்ட சொல்லிற்கு பதிலாகப் பொருள் மாறாமல் வேறு சொல்லை
பயன்படுத்தவும்.
Answer:
உலகில் வாழும் மக்களில் சிலர் கனியிருக்கக் காய் புசித்தலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி இன்னற்படுகின்றனர்.
Answer:
விடை:
பூமியில் வாழும் மானிடர்களில் சிலர் பழம் இருக்கக் காய் உண்ணுதலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி துன்பப்படுகின்றனர்.

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி ஒரு தொடர் அமைக்கவும்.
விதி – வீதி
Answer:
விடை:
வீதி தோறும் நூலகம் அமைந்தால் நாட்டின் தலைவிதி மாறிவிடும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
Answer:
(அ) Infrared rays – அகச்சிவப்புக் கதிர்கள்
(ஆ) Cosmic rays – விண்வெளிக் கதிர்கள்

Question 26.
பொருத்தமான இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக் குறியிடுக.
பழங்காலத்திலே பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.
Answer:
பழங்காலத்திலே, பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி, சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி, சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி, நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி, விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.

Question 27.
கொச்சைச் சொற்களைத் திருத்தி எழுதுக.
தலைக்கு சீக்கா தேச்சு முழுவனா ஒடம்புக்கு குளிர்ச்சி
Answer:
விடை:
தலைக்குச் சீகைக்காய் தேய்த்து முழுகினால் உடம்பிற்கு குளிர்ச்சி.

Question 28.
கிளர்ந்த, தோன்றி – இலக்கணக்குறிப்பு தருக.
Answer:
விடை :
கிளர்ந்த – பெயரெச்சம்
தோன்றி – வினையெச்சம்

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 29.
கரகாட்டம் விளக்குக.
Answer:

• பன்னெடுங்காலமாக மக்களால் விரும்பப்படும் உயர்ந்த கலைகளில் ஒன்றே கரகாட்டம்.
• • கரகம் என்னும் பித்தளைச் செம்பையோ, சிறிய குடத்தையோ தலையில் வைத்துத் தாளத்திற்கு ஏற்ப ஆடுவது, கரகாட்டம்.
• இந்த நடனம் கரகம், கும்பாட்டம் என்றும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
• கரகச் செம்பின் அடிப்பாகத்தை உட்புறமாகத் தட்டி, ஆடுபவரின் தலையில் நன்கு படியும்படி செய்கின்றனர். தலையில் செம்பு நிற்கும் அளவு எடையை ஏற்றுவதற்குச் செம்பில் மணலையோ பச்சரிசியையோ நிரப்புகின்றனர்.
• கண்ணாடியாலும் பூக்களாலும் அழகூட்டிய கரகக் கூட்டின் நடுவில், கிளி பொம்மை பொருத்திய மூங்கில் குச்சியைச் செருகி வைத்து ஆடுகின்றனர்.
• நையாண்டி மேள இசையும் நாதசுரம், தவில், பம்பை போன்ற இசைக்கருவிகளும் இசைக்கப்படுகின்றன.
• ஆணும் பெண்ணும் சேர்ந்து நிகழ்த்தும் கரகாட்டத்தில் சில நேரங்களில் ஆண், பெண் வேடமிட்டு ஆடுவதும் உண்டு. கரகாட்டம் நிகழ்த்துதலில் இத்தனை பேர்தான் நிகழ்த்த வேண்டும் என்ற வரையறை இல்லை.
• சிலப்பதிகாரத்தில் மாதவி ஆடிய பதினொரு வகை ஆடல்களில் குடக்கூத்து என்ற ஆடலும் குறிப்பிடப்படுகிறது.

Question 30.
ம.பொ.சி.பற்றி சிறுகுறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:
சிலம்புச்செல்வர் என்று போற்றப்படும் ம.பொ.சிவஞானம் (1906 – 1995) விடுதலைப் போராட்ட வீரர்; 1952 முதல் 1954 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவை உறுப்பினராகவும் 1972 முதல் 1978 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவைத் தலைவராகவும் பதவி வகித்துள்ளார்; தமிழரசுக் கழகத்தைத் தொடங்கியவர். ‘வள்ளலார் கண்ட ஒருமைப்பாடு’ என்னும் இவருடைய நூலுக்காக 1966 ஆம் ஆண்டு சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருது பெற்றார். தமிழக அரசு திருத்தணியிலும் சென்னை தியாகராய நகரிலும் இவருக்குச் சிலை அமைத்துள்ளது.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி
இளம் வயதிலேயே சமூக விடுதலைக்காகப் போராடியவர்; வழக்கறிஞர். நாகர்கோவில் நகர்மன்றத் தலைவராகவும் சட்டமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் நாடாளுமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் பணியாற்றினார். குமரி மாவட்டப் போராட்டத்தை முன்னெடுத்துச் சென்றவர்; இதனால் மார்ஷல் நேசமணி என்று அழைக்கப்பட்டார். 1956 நவம்பர் 1ஆம் நாள் கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்து, தமிழகத்தின் தென் எல்லையாக மாறியது. இவருடைய நினைவைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு இவருக்கு நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

(அ) இளம் வயதில் சமூக விடுதலைக்காக போராடியவர் யார்?
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி

(ஆ) 1956 நவம்பர் 1-ல் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்த மாவட்டம் எது?
Answer:
கன்னியாகுமரி

(இ) நேசமணியின் சிறப்பைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு செய்தது யாது? Answer:
நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.[ 2 x 3 = 6]

Question 32.
மாற்றம் பற்றி காலக்கணிதத்தில் கண்ணதாசன் கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• மாற்றம் என்பது தான் மனிதகுலத் தத்துவம் ஆகும்.
• மாறும் உலகின் மகத்துவத்தை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• நன்மை தீமை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• தலைவர் மாறுவர், சபைகளும் மாறும். ஆனால் தத்துவம் மாறாது.
• கொடுக்க வேண்டியதைக் கொடுக்க வேண்டும்.
• குறை கூறுபவர்கள் குறை கூறட்டும்.
• நானே தொடக்கம் நானே முடிவு நானுரைப்பது தான் சட்டம்.

Question 33.
தமிழின் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குவதற்கான காரணங்களாகக் கவிஞர் கூறுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• செழிப்பு மிக்க தமிழே ! பழம்பெருமையும் தனக்கெனத் தனிச்சிறப்பும், இலக்கிய வளமும் கொண்ட தமிழே ! வியக்கத்தக்க உன் நீண்ட நிலைத்தன்மையும். வேற்று மொழியார் உன்னைப்பற்றி உரைத்த புகழுரையும் எமக்குள் பற்றுணர்வை எழுப்புகின்றன.
• செந்தாமரையின் தேனைக் குடித்துச் சிறகசைத்துப் பாடும் வண்டினைப் போன்று நாங்கள் ‘உன்னைச் சுவைத்து உள்ளத்தில் கனல் மூள உன் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குகின்றோம்.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
அ) “மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்” எனத் தொடங்கும் காலக்கணிதம்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்; மாறும்
உலகின் மகத்துவம் அறிவேன்!
எவ்வெவை தீமை எவ்வெவை நன்மை
என்ப தறிந்து ஏகுமென் சாலை!
தலைவர் மாறுவர்; தர்பார் மாறும்;
தத்துவம் மட்டுமே அட்சய பாத்திரம்!
கொள்வோர் கொள்க; குரைப்போர் குரைக்க!
உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது;
நானே தொடக்கம்; நானே முடிவு;
நானுரைப் பதுதான் நாட்டின் சட்டம்! (- கண்ணதாசன்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “செம்பொனடிச் சிறு கிங்கிணியோடு ” எனத் தொடங்கும் முத்துக்குமாரசாமி
பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
செம்பொ னடிச்சிறு கிங் கிணியோடு சிலம்பு கலந்தாடத்
திருவரை யரைஞா ணரைமணி யொடு மொளி திகழரை வடமாடப் பைம்பொ னசும்பிய தொந்தி யொடுஞ்சிறு பண்டி சரிந்தாடப்
பட்ட நுதற்பொலி பொட்டொடு வட்டச் சுட்டி பதிந்தாடக்
கம்பி விதம்பொதி குண்டல முங்குழை காது மசைந்தாடக்
கட்டிய சூழியு முச்சியு முச்சிக் கதிர்முத் தொடுமாட
வம்பவ ளத்திரு மேனியு மாடிட ஆடுக செங்கீரை .
ஆதி வயித்திய நாத புரிக்குக னாடுக செங்கீரை (- குமரகுருபரர்)

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 35.
குறிஞ்சித்திணை, கருப்பொருள் அட்டவணைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

Question 36.
‘இன்பம் ஒருவற்கு இரத்தல் இரந்தவை
துன்பம் உறாஅ வரின்’ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
கவிஞர் தாம் கூறவிரும்பும் கருத்திற்கு ஏற்றவாறு தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி அமைவதை எடுத்துக்காட்டுக.
Answer:
தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி:
இயல்பாய் நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா.) போருழந் தெடுத்த ஆரெயில் நெடுங்கொடி
வாரல் என்பனபோல் மறித்துக்கை காட்ட’
பொருள்:
கோட்டை மதில் மேல் இருந்த கொடியானது வரவேண்டாம் எனத் தடுப்பதுபோல, கை காட்டியது என்பது பொருள்.

அணிப்பொருத்தம்:
கோவலனும், கண்ணகியும் மதுரை மாநகருக்குள் சென்ற போது மதிலின் மேலிருந்த கொடிகள் காற்றில் இயற்கையாக அசைந்தன. ஆனால், இளங்கோவடிகள் கோவலன் மதுரையில் கொலை செய்யப்படுவான் எனக்கருதி அக்கொடிகள் கையை அசைத்து, ‘இம்மதுரைக்குள் வரவேண்டா’ என்று தெரிவிப்பது போலக் காற்றில் அசைவதாகத் தம் குறிப்பைக் கொடியின் மீது ஏற்றிக் கூறுகிறார். இவ்வாறு இயல்பாக நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 38.
அ) கருணையனின் தாய் மறைவுக்கு, வீரமாமுனிவர் தம் பூக்கள் போன்ற உவமைகளாலும் உருவக மலர்களாலும் நிகழ்த்திய கவிதாஞ்சலியை விவரிக்க.
Answer:

• நான் உயிர்பிழைக்கும் வழி அறியேன்.
• நினைந்து கண்ட அறிவினுக்குப் பொருந்தியவாறு உறுப்புகள் இயங்குதல் இல்லாத இந்த உடலின் தன்மையை அறியேன்.
• உடலுக்கு வேண்டிய உணவைத் தேடிக் கொணரும் வழிவகைகளை அறியேன்.
• காட்டில் செல்வதற்கான வழிகளையும் அறியேன்.
• என் தாய் தன் கையால் காட்டிய முறைகளை மட்டுமே அறிவேன். என்னைத் தவிக்க
  விட்டுவிட்டு என்தாய் தான் மட்டும் தனியாகப் போய்விட்டாள்.
• நவமணிகள் பதித்த மணிமாலைகளைப் பிணித்தது போன்று நல்ல அறங்களை எல்லாம் ஒரு கோவையாக இணைத்த தவத்தையே அணிந்த மார்பனாகிய கருணையன், தாயின் பிரிவால் புலம்பிக் கூறினான்.
• அது கேட்டுப் பல்வேறு இசைகளை இயக்கியது போன்று, தேன்மலர்கள் பூத்த மரங்கள் தோறும் உள்ள மணம் வீசும் மலர்களும் மலர்ந்த சுனை தோறும் உள்ள பறவைகளும் வண்டுகளும் அக்காட்டினிலே அழுவன போன்று கூச்சலிட்டன.

(அல்லது)

ஆ) நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியல் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுவதாகத் தொடங்குகின்ற பின்வரும் சொற்பொழிவைத் தொடர்ந்து நிறைவு செய்க. . பேரன்பிற்குரிய அவையோர் அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம் இன்று இயல், இசை, நாடகம் என்னும் முத்தமிழுடன் அறிவியல் நான்காம் தமிழாகக் கூறுகின்றனர். ஆதிகாலந்தொட்டு இயங்கிவரும் தமிழ்மொழியில் அறிவியல் என்பது தமிழர் வாழ்வியலோடு கலந்து கரைந்து வந்துள்ளதை இயக்கியங்கள் மூலம் அறிகிறோம். அண்டத்தை அளந்தும், புவியின் தோற்றத்தை ஊகித்தும் கூறும் அறிவியல் செய்திகள் இலக்கியங்களில் உள்ளன. சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில்.
Answer:
விடை: சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில் எதுவுமேயில்லாத பெருவெளியில் அண்டத் தோற்றத்துக்குக்
காரணமான கரு (பரமாணு) பேரொலியுடன் தோன்றியது. உருவம் இல்லாத காற்று முதலான பூதங்களின் அணுக்களுடன் வளர்கின்ற வானம் என்னும் முதல் பூதத்தின் ஊழி அது. அந்த அணுக்களின் ஆற்றல் கிளர்ந்து பருப்பொருள்கள் சிதறும்படியாகப் பல ஊழிக் காலங்கள் கடந்து சென்றன. பிறகு நெருப்புப் பந்துபோலப் புவி உருவாகி விளங்கிய ஊழிக்கலாம் தொடர்ந்தது. பின்னர் பூமி குளிரும்படியாகத் தொடர்ந்து மழை பொழிந்து ஊழிக்கலாம் கடந்தது. அவ்வாறு தொடர்ந்து பெய்த மழையால் பூமி வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்கியது. மீண்டும் மீண்டும் நிறை வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்குதல் நடந்த இப்பெரிய உலகத்தில் உயிர்கள் உருவாகி வாழ்வதற்கு ஏற்ற சூழல் தோன்றியது. அச்சூழலில் உயிர்கள் தோன்றி நிலைபெறும்படியான ஊழிக்காலம் வந்தது. இவ்வாறு நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியலின் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுகிறார்கள்.

Question 39.
அ) நாளிதழ் ஒன்றின் பொங்கல் ‘மலரில், உழவுத் தொழிலுக்கு வந்தனை செய்வோம்’ என்ற உங்கள் கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி, அந்நாளிதழ் ஆசிரியருக்குக் கடிதம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
மதுரை,
2.4.2019.

அனுப்புநர்:
தெ. தண்டபாணி,
35, மேற்கு மாடவீதி,
மதுரை – 625 001.

பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

பொருள்: எனது கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி விண்ணப்பம்.

ஐயா,

வணக்கம்.
இந்த ஆண்டு பொங்கல் விழா எங்கள் ஊரில் மிகச்சிறப்பாக நடைப்பெற்றது. நான்கு நாட்கள் நடைபெற்ற அந்நிகழ்வுகள் அனைவரையும் மிகவும் கவர்ந்தன. அதன் தொடர்பாக நான் ” உழவுக்கும் தொழிலுக்கும் வந்தனை செய்வோம்” என்னும் தலைப்பில் ஒரு கட்டுரை எழுதி இருக்கிறேன். அந்தக் கட்டுரையைத் தங்களின் நாளிதழில் வெளியிடுமாறு கேட்டுக் கொள்கிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம் : மதுரை
தேதி : 2.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
தெ. தண்டபாணி.

குறிப்பு
இத்துடன் கட்டுரை இணைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) பழுதுப்பட்ட மின்கம்பிகளைச் சரிசெய்து அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு, மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தை சரி செய்ய வேண்டி மின்வாரிய அலுவலகத்திற்கு கடிதம் ஒன்று வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
கண்மணி,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

பெறுநர்
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

ஐயா,

பொருள்: அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தைச்
சரி செய்தல் – தொடர்பாக.

வணக்கம், எங்கள் தெரு புளியங்குடி நகராட்சியில் உள்ளது. இங்கு 250க்கும் மேற்பட்ட குடும்பத்தினர் வசித்து வருகின்றனர். குழந்தைகள் முதல் அரசு அலுவலர்கள் வரை, இச்சாலை வழியே தான் நகரின் பிரதான சாலைக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். இப்பகுதியில் ஒரு நாளைக்கு நான்கு, ஐந்து முறை மின்வெட்டு ஏற்படுகிறது. மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கமும் ஏற்படுகிறது.

இவ்வீதியில் 28 மின்கம்பங்கள் உள்ளன. பாதிக்கு மேற்பட்ட கம்பங்களில் உள்ள மின்விளக்குகள் பழுதுபட்டு இருக்கின்றன. மின் விளக்குகள் எரியாததால் இரவு நேரங்களில் வீதியில் விபத்துகள் ஏற்படுகின்றன. இருட்டைப் பயன்படுத்தி வழிப்பறி கொள்ளைகளும், திருட்டு நிகழ்வுகளும் அதிகரித்து வருகின்றன.

பலமுறை முறையிட்டும் நகராட்சி நிர்வாகம் போதிய அக்கறை செலுத்தவில்லை. எங்களின் அடிப்படைத் தேவைகளை நிறைவேற்றி மின்விளக்கு வசதி ஏற்படுத்தித் தருமாறு பணிவோடு வேண்டுகிறோம்.

நன்றி,

இடம்: மதுரை,
தேதி: 08.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
கண்ம ணி.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஒரே நிறத் துணியை முண்டாசுபோலக் கட்டிக்கொண்டு கையில் வைத்துள்ள சிறுதுணியை இசைக்கேற்ப வீசியும் ஒயிலாக ஆடும் ஆட்டமே ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆகும்.

Question 41.
படிவத்தை நிரப்புக.
Answer:

Question 42.
(அ) அரசின் பொங்கல் விழாவில் சிற்றூர்க் கலைகளைக் காட்சியாக்கியிருக்கிறார்கள். ஒருபுறம் திரைகட்டித் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து நிகழ்ந்து கொண்டிருக்கிறது. இன்னொருபுறம் பொம்மலாட்டம் ஆடிக்கொண்டிருந்தனர். சற்று நடந்தால் தாரை தப்பட்டை முழங்க ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடியவாறு மண்ணின் மக்கள் …. இக்கலைகளை நீங்கள் நண்பர்களுடன் பார்த்தவாறும் சுவைத்தவாறும் செல்கிறீர்கள்.இக்கலைகளைப் பாதுகாக்கவும் வளர்க்கவும் மேன்மேலும் பரவலாக்கவும் நீங்கள் செய்யவிருப்பனவற்றை வரிசைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

1. பிறந்த நாள் விழாக்களில் மயிலாட்டம் முதலான கலைகளை நிகழ்த்த முனைவேன்.
2. எங்கள் குடும்ப விழாக்களில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்த்த ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
3. பள்ளி, கல்லூரி விழாக்களில் இக்கலை நிகழ்ச்சிகளை நாங்களே நடத்துவோம்.
4. எம் ஊரில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்வுக்கு ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
5. எங்கள் ஊர் மக்கள் இணைந்து ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடுவோம்.
6.  எங்கள் ஊரில் நாட்டுப்புறக் கலையை வளர்ப்போம்

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) கீழ்க்காணும் பத்தியை மொழிபெயர்த்து எழுதுக.
Decision making is a process that plays a vital role in our daily lives. Some decisions are not very important whereas other imperative decisions, when cautiously carried out, can change the path of our lives. When faced with a crisis, one of the major issues is deciding the right thing. Decision making can be quite complicated and challenging in some cases. It is hence essential to gather as much information from different sources and assess all possible alternatives to the problem or situation at hand before making a decision. Doing so will permit us to land at the best possible result for the problem. Such decisions can’t be an overnight one. It takes a couple of months to investigate and consult with friends, family and university professors to make a decision. It is imperative that one makes decisions in consultation with parents opinions and check on other surveys and researches to avoid challenges.
Answer:
விடை:
ஒவ்வொருவர் வாழ்க்கையிலும் தீர்மானம் எடுப்பது முக்கியமான ஒன்றாக இருக்கிறது. சில தீர்மானங்கள் முக்கியமானதாக இல்லாமல் இருந்தாலும், சில முக்கிய தீர்மானங்கள் கவனத்துடன் மேற்கொண்டால் நம் வாழ்க்கை பாதையை செம்மையாக மாற்றி அமைக்க முடியும். ஒரு பிரச்சனையை எதிர்கொள்ளும் போது அதற்கு உரிய தீர்வைக் காண்பது கடினமான ஒன்றாகும். தீர்வு எடுப்பது என்பது சில சமயங்களில் சிக்கலானதாகவும் அல்லது சவாலாகவும் இருக்கலாம். ஆதலால் போதிய தகவலைப் பல வட்டாரத்தில் இருந்து சேகரித்து அதற்கு மாறான கருத்துக்களை ஆராய்ந்து தீர்வுக்கு வரவேண்டும். இங்ஙனம் தீர்வெடுப்பது பிரச்சனைக்குரிய தீர்வை துல்லியமாக அடைய உதவும். இது ஒரு நாளில் மட்டும் சிந்தித்து முடிவெடுக்கக் கூடிய தீர்மானமாக இருக்காது. இது நண்பர்கள், குடும்பத்தினர் மற்றும் ஆசிரியர்கள் என இவர்களுடன் கலந்தாலோசிப்பதால் தீர்வுக்கு வருவதற்கு ஓரிரு மாதங்கள் ஆகலாம். பெற்றோர்கள் அறிவுரைக் கேற்ப இருப்பினும் சவால்களைச் சமாளிப்பதற்கு ஏதுவாக பிற ஆலோசனைகள் மற்றும் கருத்துக்களைத் தெரிந்து கொள்ள கலந்தாலோசனை செய்வது நல்லது.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 x 8 = 24]

Question 43.
அ) தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உ.ரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
கால வெள்ளத்தில் கரைந்துபோன மொழிகளுக்கிடையில் நீந்தி தன்னை நிலை நிறுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ளது தமிழ் சொல்வளம் இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொது என்றாலும் தமிழ் மட்டுமே அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும். தமிழின் சொல் வளத்தை நாம் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.

தமிழின் சொல் வளம்:
ஆங்கிலம் போன்ற மொழிகளில் இலையைக் குறிக்க ஒரே ஒரு சொல் மட்டுமே உள்ளது. ஆனால் தமிழ்மக்கள் இலையை அதன் வன்மை, மென்மை, இவற்றைக் கொண்டு இலை, தோகை, ஓலை எனப் பாகுபாடு செய்துள்ளனர். இதுமட்டுமன்றி தாவரங்கள், மணிவகை, இளம்பயிர்வகை, காய்கனி வகை, அடி, கிளை கொழுந்து என அனைத்து உறுப்புகளுக்கும் சொற்களைப் பகுத்து வைத்துள்ளனர்.

பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள்:
அரும்பு: பூவின் தோற்றநிலை போது, பூ விரியத் தொடங்கும் நிலை மலர், பூவின் மலர்ந்த நிலை, வீ: மரம், செடியிலிருந்து பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலை செம்மல், பூ வாடின நிலை

தமிழின் பொருள் வளம்:
தமிழ்நாடு எத்துணைப் பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பது அதன் விளைபொருள் வகைகளை நோக்கினாலே விளங்கும். தமிழ் நாட்டு நெல்லில் செந்நெல், வெண்ணெல், கார்நெல் என்றும், சம்பா, மட்டை, கார் என்றும் பல வகைகள் உள்ளன. அவற்றில் சம்பாவில் மட்டும் ஆவிரம் பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டு சம்பா, குதிரை வாலிச்சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது உள் வகைகள் உள்ளன. இவற்றோடு வரகு, காடைக்கண்ணி குதிரைவாலி முதலிய சிறு கூலங்கள் தமிழ் நாட்டிலன்றி வேறெங்கும் விளைவதில்லை.

முடிவுரை:
பண்டைத் தமிழ் மக்கள் தனிப்பெரும் நாகரிகத்தை உடையவராக இருந்திருக்கின்றனர். ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கு உதவுவது மொழியேயாகும். ஆகவே “நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்” என்ற கூற்றின்படி பொருட்களைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பொருட் சொற்களை அமைத்துக் கொள்வது நம் தலையாய கடமையாகும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் – அவை நிகழும் இடங்கள் – அவற்றின் ஒப்பனைகள் – சிறப்பும் பழைமையும் – இத்தகைய மக்கள் கலைகள் அருகிவருவதற்கான காரணங்கள் – அவற்றை வளர்த்தெடுக்க நாம் செய்ய வேண்டுவன – இவை குறித்து நாளிதழுக்கான தலையங்கம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் நிலைக்குமா?! – கண்ணுக்குக் காட்சியையும் சிந்தைக்குக் கருத்தினையும் தருவன. கருத்துடன் கலைத்திறனை நோக்காகக் கொண்டு காலவெள்ளத்தைக் கடந்து நிற்பன. ஆடல், பாடல், இசை, நடிப்பு ஒப்பனை உரையாடல் வழியாக மக்களை மகிழ்வடையச் செய்வன. சமூகப் பண்பாட்டுத்தளத்தின் கருத்துக் கருவூலமாக விளங்குவன. நுட்பமான உணர்வுகளின் உறைவிடமாக இருப்பன. அவை யாவை? அவை தாம் மக்கள் பண்பாட்டின் பதிவுகளான நிகழ்கலைகள்.

சிற்றூர் மக்களின் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளில் பிரித்துப் பார்க்க இயலாக் கூறுகளாகத் திகழ்வை நிகழ்கலைகள். இவை மக்களுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியெனும் கனி கொடுத்துக் கவலையைப் போக்குகின்றன. சமுதாய நிகழ்வுகளின் ஆவணங்களாகவும் செய்திகளைத் தரும் ஊடகங்களாகவும் திகழ்கின்றன. பழந்தமிழ் மக்களின் கலை, அழகியல், புதுமை ஆகியவற்றின் எச்சங்களை அறிவதற்குத் தற்காலத்தில் நிகழ்த்தப்படும் கலைகள் துணை செய்கின்றன.

நிகழ்கலைகள் ஊரக மக்களின் வாழ்வில் இரண்டறக் கலந்திருக்கின்றன. இவை கற்றோராலும் மற்றோராலும் விரும்பப்படும் கலைகளாக உள்ளன. உழைப்பாளிகளின் உணர்வுகளாக உள்ளன. மக்களின் எண்ண வெளிப்பாடாக, வாழ்க்கையைக் காட்டும் கண்ணாடியாக, மக்களின் சமய வழிபாட்டிலும் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளிலும் பிரிக்க முடியாத பண்பாட்டுக் கூறுகளாக விளங்குகின்றன.
நிகழ்கலைகளை வளரச் செய்வோம். என்றும் அழியாமல் நிலைக்கச் செய்வோம்.

Question 44.
(அ) அனுமான் ஆட்டத்தை கூறுக.
Answer:

• திடீரென்று மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் துரித கதியில் ஒலிக்கத் தொடங்கின.
• எதற்கென்று தெரியாமல் கூட்டம் திகைத்துப் பந்தலை நோக்குகையில் பெருங்குரல் எழுப்பியபடி அனுமார் பந்தல் கால் வழியாகக் கீழே குதித்தார்.
• அனுமார் வாலில் பெரிய தீப்பந்தம். ஜ்வாலை புகைவிட்டுக் கொண்டு எரிந்தது. கூட்டம் தானாகவே பின்னால் நகர்ந்தது.
• அனுமார் கால்களைத் தரையில் பதித்து உடம்பை ஒரு குலுக்குக் குலுக்கினார். தீயின் ஜ்வாலை மடிந்து அலை பாய்ந்தது. கைகளைத் தரையில் ஊன்றி அனுமார் கரணமடித்தார்.
• சுருண்ட வால் இவன் பக்கமாக வந்து விழுந்தது.
• கூட்டம் அச்சத்தோடு கத்தியபடி அலைக்கழிந்தது.
• அனுமார் பெரிதாகச் சிரித்துக்கொண்டு நின்றார். அனுமார் நின்றதும் கூட்டம் கொஞ்சம் அமைதியுற்றது.
• முன்நோக்கி நகர்ந்து வந்தது. அனுமார் நேசப்பான்மையோடு சிரித்து வாலை மேலே தூக்கிச் சுற்றினார்.
• தீ வட்டமாகச் சுழன்றது. வேகம் கூடக்கூட, கூட்டம் இன்னும் முன்னால் நகர்ந்து வந்தது. இவன் நெருங்கி அனுமார் பக்கம் சென்றான்.
• அனுமார் இன்னொரு பாய்ச்சல் பாய்ந்து வேகமாக ஆட ஆரம்பித்தார்.
  வர வர ஆட்டம் துரிதகதிக்குச் சென்றது. பதுங்கியும் பாய்ந்தும் ஆடினார்.
• ஆட ஆட, புழுதி புகை போல எழுந்தது. கழுத்துமணி அறுந்து கீழே விழுந்தது. • ஒன்றையும் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் ஆட்டத்தில் தன்னை இழந்தவராக ஆடினார்.
• மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் அவர் ஆட்டத்தோடு இணைந்து செல்ல முடியவில்லை,
  தடுமாறிவிட்டது
• மேல் மூச்சு வாங்க அனுமார் ஆட்டத்தை நிறுத்தினார். மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் நின்றன.
• அயர்ச்சியோடு மேளக்காரன் தோளிலிருந்து தவுலை இறக்கிக் கீழே வைத்தான். • ஆட்டம் முடிந்தது. தீர்மானமாகியது போல எஞ்சி இருந்த கூட்டமும் அவசர அவசரமாகக் கலைய ஆரம்பித்தது.

(அல்ல து)

(ஆ) அன்னமய்யா என்னும் பெயருக்கும் அவரின் செயலுக்கும் உள்ள
பொருத்தப்பாட்டினைக் கோபல்லபுரத்து மக்கள் கதைப்பகுதி கொண்டு விவரிக்க. Answer:
கதைக்கரு :
கிராமத்து மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல், பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற நேயம். கதைமாந்தர்கள்:

• சுப்பையா
• கிராமத்து மக்கள்
• அன்னமய்யா
• மணி

முன்னுரை:
கிராமத்து வெள்ளந்தி மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல் இயல்பான வரவேற்பும் எளிமையான உணவும் பசித்த வேளையில் வந்தவர்களுக்குத் தம்மிடம் இருப்பதைப் பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற மனித நேயம் ஆகியவற்றை இக்கதைப்பகுதி எடுத்துக்கூறுகிறது.

கிராமத்து காட்சி:
அதிகாலை நேரத்தில் பாச்சல் அருகு எடுத்து முடித்துவிட்டுக் காலைக் கஞ்சியைக் குடிக்க – உட்காரும் வேளையில் அன்னமய்யா யாரோ ஒரு சன்னியாசியைக் கூட்டிக் கொண்டு வருவகை கண்டான் சுப்பையா வரட்டும் வரட்டும். ஒரு வயிற்றுக்குக் கஞ்சி ஊற்றி நாமும் குடிப்போம் என்றார் கொத்தாளி அந்தப் புஞ்சை சாலையோரத்தில் இருந்ததால் தேசாந்திரிகள் வந்து இவர்களிடம் தண்ணீரோ, கஞ்சியோ சாப்பிட்டு விட்டுப் போவது வழக்கம். .

அன்னமய்யா கண்ட காட்சி:
நடக்க முடியாமல் உட்கார்ந்து உட்கார்ந்து எழுந்திருந்து ஆயாசமாக மெதுவாக நடந்து வந்து தாடியும் அழுக்கு ஆடையும் தள்ளாட்டமுமாக நடந்து வந்து கொண்டிருந்தவனைப் பார்க்கும் போது வயோதிகனாகவும் சாமியாரைப்போலவும் எண்ண வைத்தது. தற்செயலாக இவனைக்கண்ட அன்னமய்யா அவன் அருகில் சென்று பார்த்த பிறகுதான் தெரிந்தது அவன் ஒரு வாலிபன் என்று. கால்களை நீட்டி புளிய மரத்தில் சாய்ந்து உட்கார்ந்திருந்த அவனை நெருங்கிப் பார்த்தபோது பசியால் அவன் முகம் வாடிப்போயிருந்தது.

அன்னமய்யாவின் செயல்:
பசியால் வாடிப்போயிருந்த அவன் முகத்தில் தீட்சணியம் தெரிந்தது தன்னைப் பார்த்து ஒரு நேசப்புன்னகை காட்டிய அந்த வாலிப மனிதனைப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டே நின்றான் அன்னமய்யா. குடிக்கக் கொஞ்சம் தண்ணீர் கிடைக்குமா? என்ற அவனைத் தன்னோடு மெதுவாக நடக்க வைத்து அழைத்துச் சென்றான் அன்னமய்யா.

அன்னமய்யாவின் விருந்தோம்பல்:
வேப்பமரத்தின் அடியில் ஏகப்பட்ட மண் கலயங்கள் இருந்தன. அதில் அன்னமய்யா ஒரு கலயத்தின் மேல் வைக்கப்பட்ட கல்லை அகற்றிச் சிரட்டையைத் துடைத்துச் சுத்தப்படுத்தி அந்த கலயத்தில் பதனமான வடித்த நீரை அவனிடம் உறிஞ்சி குடிங்க எனக் கொடுத்தான். உட்கார்ந்து குடிங்க என்று உபசரித்தான். பிறகு கலயத்தைச் சுற்றி ஆட்டியதும் தெளிவு மறைந்து சோற்றின் மகுளி மேலே வந்ததும் வார்த்துக் கொடுத்தான். பிறகு அன்னமய்யா அந்த புது ஆளைச் சுப்பையாவின் வயலுக்கு அழைத்துச் சென்று கம்மஞ்சோற்றைச் சாப்பிட வைத்தான். அந்த வாலிபன் அன்னமய்யா என்ற பெயரை மனசுக்குத் திருப்பித் திருப்பிச் சொல்லிப் பார்த்துக் கொண்டான். எவ்வளவு பொருத்தம் என்று நினைத்துக் கொண்டான்.

முடிவுரை:
வந்தவனுக்கு எப்படி ஒரு நிறைவு ஏற்பட்டதோ அதை விட மேலான ஒரு நிறைவு அன்னமய்யாவுக்கு ஏற்பட்டது. வயிறு நிறைந்ததும் தூங்கிவிடும் குழந்தையைப் பார்ப்பதுபோல அவனை ஒரு பிரியத்தோடு பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருந்தான் அன்னமய்யா

Question 45.
(அ) கர்மவீரர் காமராசர் என்னும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை ஒன்று எழுதுக.
Answer:
கர்ம வீரர் காமராசர்
முன்னுரை:
தென்னாட்டு காந்தியாய் தமிழ் மண்ணில் அவதரித்து தமிழகத்தை மலர்ச்சியுறச் செய்த காமராசர், 1903-ஆம் ஆண்டு ஜூலை 15ல் விருதுநகரில் பிறந்தார். இவர் பெற்றோர் குமாரசுவாமி-சிவகாமியம்மாள் என்பவர்கள் ஆவர். தமிழ் மண்ணின் தவப்புதல்வராய் இருந்து ‘என் கடன் பணிசெய்து கிடப்பதே’ எனும் நோக்கில் இம்மண்ணிற்காக வாழ்ந்த திருமகன் இவர் என்றால் மிகையாகாது.

வளர்ச்சி:
நிமிர்ந்த நடையும், நேர்கொண்ட பார்வையும் அஞ்சாமல் கருத்தினை எடுத்து வைப்பவர் திருநாட்டிற்காக திருமணத்தைத் துறந்தவர்.

முயற்சி:
1954-ஆம் ஆண்டு காமராசர் முதல்வராகத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டார். இவரின் ஆட்சிக் காலத்தினைத் தமிழகத்தின் பொற்காலம் எனக் கூறலாம். மக்களோடு மக்களாய்க் கலந்து மக்கள் படும் துன்பத்தினைத் தீர்த்து வைக்கும் இவர் ‘ஏழைகளின் நண்பன்’ எனப் போற்றப்பட்டார்.

நெகிழ்ச்சி:
கிராமங்கள்தோறும் பள்ளிகள் திறந்திடச் செய்தார். ஏழை மாணவர்களின் அல்லல் கண்டு இலவச மதிய உணவுத் திட்டத்தை’ வகுத்து செயல்படுத்தினார்.
சின்னஞ்சிறுவர்களிடையே வேறுபாடுகளைக் களைந்திட சீருடைத் திட்டத்தினைக் கொண்டு வந்தார். தொழில் துறையில் தம் பார்வையைத் திருப்பி பல்வேறு தொழிலகங்களுக்கு வழிகளை ஏற்படுத்தினார்.

மகிழ்ச்சி :
1963 வரை ஒன்பது ஆண்டு காலம் அரும்பணிகள் ஆற்றிய இவர், காங்கிரஸ் கட்சியை வலுப்படுத்த ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்ட திட்டத்தின் மூலம் மூத்த தலைவர்களை பதவி விலகச் சொல்லி தாமும் தம்முடைய முதல்வர் பதவியிலிருந்து விலகினார்.

முகமலர்ச்சி:
மக்கள் அவரை பல்வேறு பெயர்களாலும், படிக்காத மேதை, ஏழைகள் நண்பன், கரும வீரர், காலாகாந்தி என அழைத்தலால் அனைத்துப் பெயர்களும் காமராசருக்கே உரித்தாயிற்று.

அழற்சி:
காமராசரின் நிலச் சீர்திருத்த உச்சவரம்பு சட்டமும், மும்மொழியாக்கத் திட்டமும் (இந்தியுடன்) பின்னடைவை ஏற்படுத்தின. திராவிடக் கட்சியானது தனது பேச்சு, எழுத்து மூலம் தடுமாற்றம் ஏற்பட வழிவகை செய்தது.

முடிவுரை:
‘காலா காந்தி’ என்ற பெயரினுக்கு ஏற்ப காந்தி பிறந்த தினத்தன்று, 1975 அக்டோபர் 2ல் காமராசர் மறைந்தார். காந்தி பிறந்த தினமானது காமராசரின் நினைவு தினமாக ஆயிற்று. காமராசரின் பிறந்த தினம், இனி ‘தியாகிகள் தின’ மாகக் கொண்டாடப்படுகிறது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் – நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல் – குறைபாடுகள் – திட்டம் – நன்மைகள் – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
தேசிய நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டம்
முன்னுரை:
21 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் மிகப்பெரிய பிரச்சினையாக உருவெடுப்பது தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையாகும். இதனைத் தீர்க்க தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையைச் சமாளிக்க நதிகளை இணைக்க வேண்டும் என்பது. பல்லாண்டுகளாகப் பேசப்பட்டு வருவதொன்றாகும். இதற்கு ஓராண்டில் 56 கோடி ரூபாய் செலவாகும் என்று திட்டமிடப்படுகிறது.

முறையான ஒப்பந்தம்:
ஆயிரம் கிலோ மீட்டர் நீளத்திற்குக் கால்வாய்கள் அமைத்து 30 நதிகளை அடுத்த இரண்டு ஆண்டுகளில் ஒன்றாக இணைக்கலாம். 10 ஆயிரம் மெகா வாட் மின்சாரம் எடுக்க முடியும். 11 ஆயிரம் 164 Super20 தமிழ் கியூசெக்ஸ் நீர் தேவைப்படும். இதற்கு 400 புதிய நீர்நிலைகள் அமைக்கப்பட்டு நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டத்தைச் செயல்படுத்த எந்த இடத்தின் வழியாகக் கால்வாய் அமைத்தால் பயனுள்ளதாக அமையும் எனத் திட்டமிட வேண்டும். மகாநதி, கோதாவரி ஆகிய நதிகளில் நீர் அதிகம் உள்ளது. ஆனால் வல்லுநர்களிடையே விவாதம் நடத்தி முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் ஏற்படவேண்டும்.

நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல்:
மழைக் காலங்களில் வட இந்தியாவில் பாயும் பல நதிகளில் வெள்ள அபாயம் ஏற்படுகிறது. இதைத் தடுக்க வேண்டுமானால், கால்வாய்கள் வெட்டி அந்நீரை ஒருநிலை படுத்தவேண்டும். இதற்காக வெட்டப்படும் கால்வாய்கள் மூலம் ஏராளமான தொழிலாளர்களுக்கு வேலை கிடைப்பதுடன் கூடுதல் வருவாயும் கிடைக்கும். அதிகமாகக் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீரைச் சேமித்து வைக்கத் தேவையான திட்டங்கள் நிறைவேற்றப்படவேண்டும். இந்தியாவில் வறட்சி ஏற்படும் பெரும்பாலான பகுதிகளில் நீர் தேவையை எளிதாகச் சமாளிக்க முடியும்.

குறைபாடுகள்:
தமிழகத்தில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகள் இல்லாத காரணத்தால் மழைக்காலங்களில் மட்டுமே இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் நீர் பெறமுடியும். காவிரி டெல்டா பகுதியிலுள்ள நிலத்தடி நீர்வளம், குடிநீருக்கு ஆதாரமாக உள்ளது. இதனால் இப்பகுதிகளில் தண்ணீருக்காகக் கிணறுகள் தோண்ட வேண்டிய நிலை உள்ளது. இந்நிலையில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகளான கிருஷ்ணா, கோதாவரி, மகாநதி போன்ற தென்னிந்திய நதிகளை தமிழகத்தின் நதிகளோடு இணைத்தால் மட்டுமே ஆண்டு முழுவதும் நீர்வளம் குறையாமல் இருக்கும். இன்றைய நிலையில் பல கடைக்கோடி கிராமங்களில் வசிக்கும் மக்களுக்குச் சராசரி இரண்டு லிட்டர் குடிநீர் கூடக் கிடைப்பதில்லை.

மூன்று நீர்வழித்திட்டம்:
மூன்று நீர்வழிகளைக் கொண்டதாக இத்திட்டம் அமைக்கப்பட்டு ஒன்றன் பின் ஒன்றாக நிறைவேற்றலாம்.
1. இமயமலை நீர்வழி: இது கங்கை பிரம்மபுத்திரா நதிகளை இணைக்கும்.
2. மத்திய நீர்வழி: கங்கை, மகாநதி, தபதி ஆகிய நதிகளை இணைக்கிறது.
3. தென்னக நீர்வழி: இது கோதாவரி, கிருஷ்ணா , காவிரி மற்றும் கேரள நதிகளை இணைக்கும் இந்நீர்நிலைகள் 120 மீட்டர் அகலமும் 10 மீட்டர் ஆழமும். கொண்டதாக இருக்கும். இவை உரிய வழியில் ஒன்றுடன் ஒன்று இணைக்கும். நீர் சேமிப்பு போக்குவரத்து மற்றும் நீரைப் பல்வேறு நதிகளில் பகிர்ந்தளித்தல் போன்ற பல நன்மைகளைக் கொண்டதாக விளங்கும்.

நன்மைகள்:
மழைக்காலங்களில் ஏற்படும் கட்டுப்படுத்த முடியாத வெள்ளத்தை இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் கட்டுப்படுத்தலாம். இதனால் அசாம், பீகார், உத்தரப் பிரதேசம், மேற்கு வங்கம் போன்ற மாநிலங்களில் ஏற்படும் அபாய வெள்ள அளவைக் குறைக்கலாம்.
வெள்ளத்தினால் ஏற்படும் பாதிப்பு குறைந்து வெள்ள நிவாரணப் பணிக்கு ஒதுக்கப்படும் தொகையும் வெகுவாகக் குறையும். அனைத்து முக்கிய நகரங்களுக்கும், கிராமங்களுக்கும் போதுமான குடிநீர் வசதியை ஆண்டு முழுவதும் வழங்க முடியும்.

முடிவுரை:
தேவையான அளவு நீர்வள மேலாண்மைத் திட்டங்கள் செயல்படுத்தாத காரணத்தால் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீர் அனைத்தும் கடலில் வீணாகக் கலந்து நாட்டில் நீர்ப் பற்றாக்குறை ஏற்பட்டு உழல்கிறோம். அதனால் தேசிய நதிகளை இணைத்து சிறந்த முறையில் சுற்றுச் சூழலைப் பாதுகாத்து வாழ்வோம்.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 The World after World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 5.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 6.
When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 7.
Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Syria
Answer:
(a) Cairo

Question 8.
When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. was known as the “Father of modern China”.
2. in 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ………………. University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat-Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ……………….
4. ……………….. treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
5. The treaty of ………………. provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in ……………….
7. ………………. was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
8. ………………. treaty signed on February 7,1992 created the European Union.

Answers:

1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
2. Peking
3. Chiang-Kai-Sheik
4. Central Treaty organisation
5. Versailles
6. 1955
7. Strasbourg
8. Maastricht

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
(ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
(iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
(ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
(iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the region.
(iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war¬. ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A)and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
Answer:
Three causes of the Chinese Revolution of 1911 are

1. The government of Manchu dynasty began to disintegrate with the death of the Empress Dowager Cixi in 1908. The new emperor was two-years old and the provincial governors began to assert their independence. In October 1911 the local army mutinied and the revolt spread.
2. There were a few middle class leaders. Dr. Sun Yat-sen was one among them. He took part in the rising against the Manchus in 1895. The rising failed and Sun Yat-Sen was sent in the prison. But he continued to spread nationalist ideas.
3. Yuan Shih-Kai, who had earlier served as a minister in the Manchu administration, persuaded those responsible for the ascension of the young Emperor to prevant on him to abdicate.

Question 2.
Explain how in 1928 Kuomintang and Chiang-Kai Shek established Central Government in China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China. Starting from Canton, in 1928, he captured Peking and also removed all communists in the Kuomintang party. Thus, he established Central government in China.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mao’s Long March.
Answer:
Mao was an active leader who had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party, by 1933. In 1934, he organised communist army of about 100,000 and set out on a long March. The marchers were continually harassed by Kuominatang forces, by local war lords and by unfriendly tribesmen of the 100,000 who set out, only 20,000 finally arrived in northern Shemi in late 1935, after crossing nearly 6000 miles. They were soon poined by other communist armies. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. Mao’s Long March, as it is called so, has become legendary in the history of China.

Question 4.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Iran and Pakistan signed a pact known as Baghdad pact. In 1958, when United States joined, then it was called as Central Treaty organization. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in their region. It was dissolved in 1979.

Question 5.
What was the Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to and Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economies after the end of World War II. It operated for four years beginning in April 1948. The goals of the United States were to rebuild war-tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 6.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests-Elaborate.
Answer:
In 1956, Egypt invaded Suez Canal under Colonel Nasser and nationalized it. With the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force. They bombed Egyptian air fields as well as Suez Canal area. However, United States and United Nations pressure, all the three invaders withdrew from Suez Canal.

Question 7.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:
The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World. During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 8.
How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
Answer:
In April 1961, on the island of Bay of Pigs, U.S bombed Cuban airfields and surrounded Cuba, with their warships. At the same time, USSR was secretly installing nuclear missiles in Cuba. Finally when Soviet President Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles, the Cuban missile-crisis defused.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Cold War

(a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
Answer:
United States and the Soviet Union were the two military blocs that emerged in the post World War-II.

(b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
Answer:
The term Cold war was first coined by the English writer George Orwell in 1945 and it was used for the first time by Bernard Baruch, a multimillionaire from USA.

(c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw Pact was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO.

(d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
With the Break-up of USSR in 1991, the Warsaw Pact was dissolved.

Question 2.
Korean War

(a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
Answer:
Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.

(b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
Answer:
Syngman Rhee

(c) How long did the Korean War last?
Answer:
The Korean War lasted three years

(d) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

Question 3.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

(a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
Answer:
At Belgrade, in 1961, the first conference on NAM was held.

(b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
Answer:
The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nikrumah (Ghana), Sukrano (Indonesia),.

(c) What were the objectives of NAM?
Answer:
Peaceful co-existence, commitment to peace and security.

(d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade Conference.
Answer:

1. Non-Alignment with any of the two super powers (USA/USSR).
2. Fight all forms of colonialism and Imperialism.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:

1. Mao was greatly influenced by the ideas of Max and Lenin. He wanted to make China a communist country. So, he became active in the political activities of Hunan from the year 1912.
2. After the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925, The Kuomintang was organised under the leadership of Chang Kai-Shek. Being an avowed critic of communists, Chiang removed all the important position holders in the Communist Party including Mao Tse Tung to weaken the party. However, the communists continued to influence the workers and peasants the Kuomintang represented the interests of landlords and capitalists.
3. Mao had understood that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong. So, he started organising the peasantry. When the relationships between Kuomintang and Communist Party broke, a few hundred Communist-led by Mao retreated into the wild mountains on the border between the provinces of Kiangsi and Hunan. The Kuomintang could not penetrate the mountains.
4. Meanwhile, the campaign against the communists got distracted as Chiang Kai-Shek had to deal with the constant threat from Japan.
5. By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party. In 1934, he set out on a long march with the help of about 100,000 communist army. He also got support of other communist armies.
6. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. He organised workers and peasants councils in villages of Shensi and Kansu and finally got success in making China a communist country.

Question 2.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-lsraeii wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:

1. Before the creation of the State of Israel in 1948, all Arabs and their . descendants lived in the Palestine.
2. Ever since the formation, the Palestinian Liberation organisation (PLO). Israel came to be attacked by the Palestinian Guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan.
3. Israel resorted to violent military force .
4. In November 1966, an Israeli strike on the village of Al-Samu in the west bank of Jordan killed 18 people and wounded 54 people.
5. Israel’s air battle with Syria in April 1967 ended in the shooting down of six Syrian MIG fighter jets.
6. After air battle with Syria, when Arab States were mobilized by Nasser on June 5th Israel staged a sudden air strike that destroyed more than, 90% of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac.
7. Later, Egypt and Syria under Presidents Anwar Sadat and Hafez-al- Assad respectively concluded a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.
8. When peace deals did not work out with Israel, Egypt and Syria launched a sudden and surprise attack on the Yom Kippur religious holiday on 6^th October 1973.
9. Though Israel suffered heavy casualities, it finally pushed back the Arab forces.
10. Due to U.N intervention, Israel was forced to return and Arabs gained nothing.
11. U.S succeeded in showing their control on their region and oil resource, led to U. S led war against Iraq in 1991.

Question 3.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Divide the class into two groups. Let one group act as supporters of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union, Organise a debate.
Answer:
One group of students act as the supports of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union on their role in the cold war era.
(Students can have debate based on the following aspects)

During the time of cold war, the two super powers that emerged was USA and USSR.

Strengths of USA:

1. Strongest navy both the Pacific and Atlantic.
2. Continued and strong economic position that the USA held in the beginning till the end.
3. Foreign policy of the USA. The actions of USA during the cold war era, very powerful and could guarantee others the strong power of the nation is to prevent communism spreading elsewhere.
4. The country was able to generate the vast amount of wealth necessary to sustain the investment in weapons, technology and other operations.
5. USA was also technologically powerful in target finding, tracking, sensors etc.
6. The Truman’s doctrine was used throughout the war time. The doctrine helped USA to negotiate with other states to adopt capitalism.

Strengths of USSR:

1. Strongest land based military, especially tanks.
2. USSR developed air defense equipment and networks.
3. Spread of Communism joined together backed USSR.
4. As against NATO, USSR also formed military block, the Warsaw pact.
5. With Western European countries USSR facilitated trade relations.
6. Highly strengthened space exploration.

In the end of cold war, the Soviet Union fell, and the Communism expired.

Question 2.
Involving the entire class, an album may be prepared with pictures relating to Korean, Arab-lsraeli and Vietnam Wars to highlight the human sufferings in terms of death and devastation.
Answer:
Students should go to the search engine in google and type “The War’s impact on the Korean peninsula and trace the article of the journal of America – East Asia Relations” for a detailed Report.

Korean War: To give a sample answer: According to a U.S. Department of state publication, the number of killed, wounded and missing from the Armed forces of the Republic of Korea exceeded 4,00.000. From the U.S. side, 1,42,000. In addition, the heavy toll in death and injuries to the civilian population as well as wide property damage.

Arab-Israel War: Students should trace the answer from the google search engine as: The U.N. Report on Israel’s Gaza War.

To give a sample answer: From the 183 page report of the U.N. report, it is very clear that many civilians died. More than 6,000 Israeli airstrikes, 14,500 tank shells and 35,000 artillery shells led to the destruction of about 18,000 dwellings in Gaza. Nearly 1,462 Palestinian civilians, 299 women and 551 children were killed (According to U.N. Investigation). In Israel six civilians and 67 soldiers were killed.

Vietnam War: Students should trace the answer in the google search engine as “The War’s effect on the Vietnamese Land and People” for a detailed report.

To give a sample answer: About 58,000 American soldiers were killed and another 3,04,000 were wounded. Since most of the fighting took place in Vietnam, an estimated 4 million Vietnamese were killed on both sides including as many as 1 -3 million civilians. Many Vietnamese in country side turned into homeless refuges. Many forms and forests were destroyed.

Along with the detailed report, students should collect pictures showing Korea, Arab-Israel and Vietnam War, highlighting human sufferings. Students should click to google search engine and go to → Images → then type Korean War pictures / Arab Israel War pictures / Vietnam War pictures, download it take a print out of its and paste it in a A4 sheet paper or an a chart paper neatly and create an album.

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The emergence of ……………. and ……………. as super powers resulted in the division of the World into two block after World War II.
(a) Japan, USA
(b) USA, USSR
(c) China, Japan
(d) USA, Germany
Answer:
(b) USA, USSR

Question 2.
Dr.Sun yat-sen was born in a poor family near ………
(a) Canton
(b) France
(c) Spain
Answer:
(a) Canton

Question 3
……………. was called the father of modern China.
(a) Chiang-Kai-Shek
(b) Yuan-Shi-Kai
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Answer:
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen

Question 4.
Mao was born in ……… in South – East China.
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Hunan
Answer:
(c) Hunan

Question 5.
Yuan-Shi-Kai died in the year …………….
(a) 1912
(b) 1913
(c) 1915
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of Indo – China?
(a) Cambodia
(b) China
(c) Vietnam
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7.
The Historical Long March set out in China in …………….
(a) 1935
(b) 1937
(c) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 8.
In which of the following was indentured Vietnamese labour widely used?
(a) Rice cultivation
(b) Rubber plantation
(c) Industry
Answer:
(b) Rubber plantation

Question 9.
……………. was the leader of the people’s Republic of China.
(a) Marshall
(b) Truman
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Chiang-Kai-shek
Answer:
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung

Question 10.
Ho Chi Minh means ………
(a) He, Who enlightens
(b) Enlightenment
(c) The Enlightened one
Answer:
(a) He, Who enlightens

Question 11.
The Idea of European self-help programme financed by the United States was called as …………….
(a) NATO
(b) SEATO
(c) ECA
(d) Marshall plan
Answer:
(d) Marshall plan

Question 12.
EURATOM was established by the ………
(a) Treaty of Nanking
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) Treaty of London
Answer:
(b) Treaty of Rome

Question 13.
The term ‘cold war’ was first coined by the English writer …………….
(a) Shakespeare
(b) George Orwell
(c) William Dexter
(d) Peter Alphonse
Answer:
(b) George Orwell

Question 14.
As a part of Marshall plan financing, European nations received nearly ……………. billion in aid.
(a) $ 12
(b) $ 11
(c) $ 15
(d) $ 13
Answer:
(d) $ 13

Question 15.
Greece and Turkey joined NATO in the year …………….
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1955
Answer:
(c) 1952

Question 16.
……………. was otherwise called as pact.
(a) NATO
(b) CENTO
(c) SEATO
(d) EC SC
Answer:
(d) EC SC

Question 17
……………. are included as member countries in NATO.
(a) Canada, Belgium
(b) U.K., Portugal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
NATO had ……………. members by the year 2017.
(a) 30
(b) 51
(c) 29
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 19.
In December 1954, a conference of eight European nations took place in Moscow. This was called as …………….
(a) Warsaw pact
(b) Counter to NATO
(c) SEATO
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
The headquarters of the Warsaw pact was …………….
(a) Belgium
(b) Poland
(c) Moscow
(d) Romania
Answer:
(c) Moscow

Question 21.
The Korea was partitioned into North and South Korea in the year …………….
(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1945

Question 22.
With the collapse of the ……………. the idea of non-alignment lost relevance.
(a) Berlin
(b) CIA
(c) ECA
(d) Soviet Union
Answer:
(d) Soviet Union

Question 23.
The NAM held its first conference at ……………. in 1961.
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Thailand
(d) Philippine
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 24.
The World Zionist Organisation was founded in the year …………….
(a) 1857
(b) 1887
(c) 1897
(d) 1867
Answer:
(c) 1897

Question 25.
Castro nationalised the U.S. owned ……………. companies.
(a) cotton
(b) sugar
(c) oil
(d) petrol
Answer:
(b) sugar

Question 26.
The Cuban Missile crisis was defused by ……………. as the agreed to withdraw the missiles.
(a) Khrushchev
(b) Fidel Castro
(c) Leumi
(d) Stem Gang
Answer:
(a) Khrushchev

Question 27.
In the Arab World, it is treated as the ……………. when large number of Arabs become refugees.
(a) Catastrophe
(b) Nakbah
(c) Negev and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
For resolving the Suez Canal Crisis, ……………. from Indian played a crucial role.
(a) Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Bose
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(b) Nehru

Question 29.
Arab-lsrael war took place in the years …………….
(a) 1967,69
(b) 1969,74
(c) 1967,73
(d) 1972,73
Answer:
(c) 1967,73

Question 30.
……………. became the first president of the state of Palestine in 1989.
(a) Anwar Sadat
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser Arafat
(d) Nasser Hussain
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 31.
By the end of second world war, ……………. controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
(a) Vietminh
(b) Ho-Chi-Minh
(c) Ngo Dinh Diem
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Vietminh

Question 32.
……………. controlled the southern half of the Vietnam.
(a) Viet Minh
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Ngo Dinh Diam
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Bao Dai

Question 33.
The North and the South Vietnam were formally united as one country in …………….
(a) 1973
(b) 1976
(c) 1975
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 34.
In May 1949, ten countries met in ……………. and signed to form a council of Europe.
(a) Japan
(b) Syria
(c) London
(d) France
Answer:
(c) London

Question 35.
To prevent further European War ……………. was founded.
(a) Council of Europe
(b) Council of Trent
(c) ECSC
(d) EU
Answer:
(a) Council of Europe

Question 36.
……………. did not join the EEC, when it was formed.
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) USSR
(d) Italy
Answer:
(a) U.K

Question 37.
Britain, voted to exit the EU in the year …………….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2017
(d) 2019
Answer:
(c) 2017

Question 38.
West Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 39.
East Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(c) USSR

Question 40.
Germany was officially united on …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 41.
in 1985, ……………. became the head of the USSR.
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev
(b) Reagen
(c) Stalin
(d) Kohl
Answer:
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev

Question 42.
The Chernobyl disaster took place in the year …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 2006
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 43.
Gorbachev announced his resignation on …………….
(a) 21st November
(b) 25th December
(c) 2nd October
(d) 15th August
Answer:
(b) 25th December

Question 44.
USSR dissolved formally In the year …………….
(a) 31st Dec. 1990
(b) 30th Dec. 1991
(c) 31st Dec. 1991
(d) 28,h Feb. 1991
Answer:
(c) 31st Dec. 1991

Question 45.
……………. was an ally of Gorbachev.
(a) Yeltsin
(b) Brezhnev
(c) Khrushchev
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Yeltsin

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… and ………………… were the Superpowers after the World War II.
2. The cold war period ended with the fall of …………………
3. Empress Dowager died in ………………… led to the disintegration of the Manchu dynasty.
4. Kuomintang party of China was otherwise called as ………………… party.
5. ………………… was the ultimate aim of Dr. Sun Yat-sen’s party.
6. The Chinese revolution broke out in the year …………………
7. The first director of the Whampoa Military academy was …………………
8. The campaign against the communists led by Chiang-Kai-Shek was distracted by ………………… and warlords.
9. By ………………… Mao became the leader of the Chinese people.
10. Over ………………… delegates from various countries attended the people’s political consultative conference.
11. When Japanese surrendered in 1945, the Japanese areas were occupied by the …………………
12. By the year …………………, communist control has been established over most parts of China.
13. The two mighty communist powers in the world were ………………… and …………………
14. The term cold war was first coined by …………………
15. ………………… nations became a part of Marshall’s plan of self-help programme.
16. The Marshall plan funding ended in …………………
17. ………………… was created to resist Soviet aggression in Europe.
18. NATO means …………………
19. NATO was formed in the year …………………
20. The members of NATO agreed that, any armed attack on any one of them would be considered attack on …………………
21. For the collective security of the South-east Asia, ………………… was formed in 1954.
22. Member of SEATO were committed to prevent …………………
23. SEATO was formed in 1954, after signing of the …………………
24. ………………… was formed by Soviet Union as a counter to NATO.
25. ………………… European nations attended the Warsaw pact in December 1954.
26. The treaty on Warsaw pact was concluded on …………………
27. The Warsaw pact was dissolved in …………………
28. The Warsaw pact dissolved because of the break-up of …………………
29. The Baghdad pact was otherwise called as …………………
30. Turkey, Iran, Iraq, Pakistan and Great Britain signed a treaty in 1955, known as …………………
31. When U.S.A joined the Baghdad pact, it was called by name …………………
32. USA joined the Baghdad pact in the year …………………
33. CENTO was dissolved in the year …………………
34. Korea was partitioned as North Korea and South Korea in the year …………………
35. The president of North Korea was …………………
36. The party of Kim II was called as …………………
37. The president of the South Korea was …………………
38. The party of Syngman Rhee was …………………
39. Korean War lasted for ………………… years.
40. NAM refers to the …………………
41. NAM was signed in ………………… at the ………………… conference.
42. Bandung is a city in …………………
43. With the collapse of ………………… the idea of NAM lost importance.
44. CIA is a Central Intelligence Agency of …………………
45. The Act of ………………… in Cuba, threatened American economic interests.
46. USA bombed Cuban ………………… with the aim of overthrowing Castro’s regime.
47. ………………… was the president of USSR, when the Cuban Missile crisis took place.
48. Cuba was helped by …………………
49. When USSR remove missile from Cuba, USA had to agree to remove missile from ………………… and …………………
50. ………………… was a Zionist Terrorist Organisation.
51. The Zionist Para-military organization was called as …………………
52. The World Zionist organization was founded in the year …………………
53. Jews living outside their ancient home scattered around North America and Europe was called as …………………
54. ………………… Nationalised Suez Canal.
55. India represented by ………………… played a crucial role in resolving the crisis.
56. The Arab-lsraeli War took place in the years ………………… and …………………
57. PLO refers to …………………
58. PLO was formed in …………………
59. ………………… was the prominent leader of Palestine.
60. By the end of the Second World War, ………………… Controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
61. South Vietnam was ruled by …………………
62. America supported troops of ………………… Vietnam.
63. The city of ………………… was renamed as Ho-Chi-Minh city.
64. To create a United Europe to resist any threat from Soviet Russia, ………………… was formed.
65. European Economic Community was otherwise called as …………………
66. SEA refers to …………………
67. According to the SEA, each member was given ………………… votes.
68. The ………………… Treaty created the European Union.
69. Maastricht is in …………………
70. EU was created on Maastricht treaty signed on …………………
71. The headquarters of the EU is at …………………
72. Brussels is at …………………
73. ………………… Germany was prosperous.
74. ………………… Germany was suffering from lack of democracy and freedom.
75. Germany was officially reunited on …………………
76. Glasnost means …………………
77. Perestroika means …………………
78. ………………… was introduced by Gorbachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.
79. After Gorbachev, power fell into the hands of …………………
80. For ………………… days, Soviet Union, continued to exist only in name.
81. Soviet Union dissolved formally on 31st December …………………
82. USSR split into ………………… countries.
83. ………………… was the president of the newly independent Russian State.
84. U.S.A. troops used ………………… weapons in their war against Vietnam.
85. Napalm and Agent Orange are the names of incendiary …………………

Answers:

1. USA and USSR
2. Berlin Wall
3. 1908
4. National People’s Party
5. Socialism
6. 1911
7. Chiang-Kai-Shek
8. Japan
9. 1937
10. 650
11. Kuomintang
12. 1948
13. Soviet Union, People’s Republic of China
14. George Orwell
15. Sixty
16. 1951
17. NATO
18. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
19. 1949
20. NATO
21. SEATO
22. Communism
23. Manila Pact
24. Warsaw Pact
25. 8 (eight)
26. May 14, 1955
27. 1991
28. USSR
29. Central Treaty Organisation
30. Baghdad Pact
31. Central Treaty Organisation
32. 1958
33. 1979
34. 1945
35. Kim II
36. People’s Republic of Korea
37. Syngman Rhee
38. The Republic of Korea
39. three
40. Non-Aligned Movement
41. 1955, Bandung
42. Indonesia
43. Soviet Union
44. America
45. Castro
46. Airfields
47. Khrushchev
48. USSR
49. Turkey, Italy
50. Stem Gang
51. Irgun Zvai Leumi
52. 1897
53. Diaspora
54. Colonel Nasser
55. Nehru
56. 1967, 1973
57. Palestine Liberation Organisation
58. 1948
59. Yasser Arafat
60. Viet Minh
61. Ngo Dinh Diem
62. South
63. Saigon
64. Council of Europe
65. European Common Market
66. Single European Act
67. multiple
68. Maastricht
69. Netherlands
70. Feb 7, 1992
71. Brussels
72. Belgium
73. West Berlin’s
74. East Berlin
75. 3rd October 1990
76. openness
77. restructuring
78. Perestroika
79. Boris Yeltsin
80. Six 81.1991
81. 15
82. Boris Yeltsin
83. Bacteriological
84. bombs

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) The cold war period ended with the fall of Berlin Wall
(ii) Mao concentrated mainly on organizing the peasantry.
(iii) In 1937, the communist army of about 100,000 set out on the Long march.
(iv) Marshall plan funded nearly $ 15 billion.
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The USSR was much concerned about the destruction caused by the Second World War.
(ii) The South East Asia Treaty organization was organised for the collective security of countries in South East Asia.
(iii) The Communist States led by the Soviet Union came to be known First World Countries.
(iv) The Capitalist countries led by the U.S.A. were politically designated as Second World Countries.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) NAM refers to the Non-Aligned Movement.
(ii) The Single European Act of the EU as called as SEA.
(iii) Anwar Sadat was the president of the Palestine in 1989.
(iv) The fighters of South Vietnam were trained in guerrilla warfare.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The Third World principally consist of the developing World.
(ii) With the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalization, the term has lost its relevance.
(iii) The former colonies of Asia, Africa, and Latin America were called as Third World Countries.
(iv) The division of Germany into West and East led to glaring differences in living standards.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the four are correct.

Question 5.
(i) Yeltsin worked as a Mayor of Moscow.
(ii) Yeltsin was returned to power with overwhelming support of a Moscow in 1899.
(iii) For twelve days, the Soviet Union continued to exist only in name.
(iv) On 28th February 1991, USSR was formally dissolved.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) CENTO was otherwise called as Manila pact.
(ii) As a counter to SEATO, NATO was formed.
(iii) The Korean war helped to bring down the intensity of the Cold war.
(iv) The EEC eliminated barriers to the movement of goods, Capital and labour.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong

Question 7.
(i) The Berlin Wall was just a physical barrier.
(ii) Berlin Wall divided East Germany and West Germany.
(iii) USA supported East Berlin.
(iv) USSR supported West Berlin.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Yuan Shih-Kai of China lost prestige in his country.
Reason (R): He agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The rivalry that developed after World War 11 is referred to as “Cold War”.
Reason (R): This war did not take recourse to weapons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): There was High military expenditure on both sides of USA and USSR.
Reason (R): Soviet Union tested the nuclear bomb and America used the nuclear bomb against Japan.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and its European allies formed the NATO to wage war against Vietnam.
Reason (R): As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organised the Warsaw pact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R.) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): A small country had succeeded in winning Independence and the greatest power of the World-The country Vietnam.
Reason (R): The help given to Vietnam by the Socialist Countries, the political support given by Asia and Africa is evident.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Sun Yat-sen sent Chiang Kai-shek to Moscow, in Russia. The Russians in turn sent Michael Borodin to China.
Reason {R): Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China from Canton.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): U.S.A. supported Diem government in South Vietnam. Reason (R): U.S. wanted to establish a strong government in South Vietnam.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (vi)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Describe about Zionist movement.
Answer:
(i) In Palestine, the ancient home of Jews, only a few thousand Jews were living in 1900.
(ii) Some 15 million were scattered around Europe and North America.
(iii) These Jews had been subjected to systematic persecution for centuries.
(iv) But in the late nineteenth century, the persecution in Russia (Where two-thirds of the world’s jews lived), France and Germany was intense.
(v) Some Jews emigrated to Palestine, while many more went to the United States and Britain.
(vi) In 1896, Thodore Herzel, a Viennese journalist, published a pamphlet called the Jewish state in which he called for the creation of a Jewish national home. In 1897 the world zionist organisation was founded.

Question 2.
What was Truman’s policy?
Answer:
Truman, the president of USA announced a policy of containment of communism. This implies U.S. would support those countries which were threatened by USSR to spread communism.

Question 3.
Mention the initial member countries of the EU.
Answer:

1. Belgium
2. France
3. Italy
4. Luxemburg
5. Netherlands
6. West Germany

Question 4.
What is meant by SEA?
Answer:
SEA refers to the single European Act which came into force on July 1,1987. According to the SEA, each member was given multiple votes depending on the country’s population. Its main aim is establishing a single market.

Question 5.
Name the organs of the EU.
Answer:

1. European parliament
2. Council of the European Union
3. European commission
4. Court of Justice
5. Court of Auditors

Question 6.
Write a note on European Union.
Answer:
On February 7, 1992, the Maastricht Treaty that signed in Netherlands created the European Union. All the member countries of the EU will use common currency Euro, a single market and common Act. EU at present has 28 members with head quarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 7.
How was the European union formed?
Answer:
According to the Merger Treaty of 1967, the three communities namely the European coal and steel community, the European Economic community and the European Atomic Energy community were merged together to form the European union.

VII. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
People’s Republic of China

(a) Who was the leader of the People’s Republic of China?
Answer:
Mao Tse-Tung was the leader of the People’s Republic of China.

(b) Name the two mighty Communist powers of the world?
Answer:
The Soviet-Union and the people’s Republic of China.

(c) Who did not recognise People’s Republic of China and for how long?
Answer:
The UNO refused to recognise people’s Republic of China for more than twenty years.

(d) How did the government of Taiwan got recognition?
Answer:
The government of Chiang Kai-shek in Taiwan was given recognition ‘ due to the pressure from USA.

Question 2.
Achievements of EU

(a) What is the symbol of the Euro?
Answer:
The symbol of the Euro is €.

(b) What did the Euro eliminate?
Answer:
The Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border.

(c) How many members are there in the EU at present?
Answer:
At present, there are 28 members in the EU.

(d) Who allocates funds to European research projects?
Answer:
The European Research council.

Question 3.
Disintegration of The Soviet Union.

(a) Who became the head of USSR in 1985?
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev became the head of the USSR in 1985.

(b) What is meant by “thaw”?
Answer:
The “Thaw” refers to the period from the early 1950’s and 1960’s when repression and censorship in the Soviet Union was relaxed and millions of political prisioners were released. It was the period of Khrushchev’s reign.

(c) What is meant by Glasnost?
Answer:
Glasnost means openness. It was the policy of more transperancy and openness in the government policy of former Soviet Russia introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev.

(d) What is meant by Perestroika?
Answer:
Perestroika means restructuring. It refers to the programme introduced by Mikhail Gorbhachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.

Question 4.
Berlin Wall

(a) Who constructed a wall which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin? and when?
Answer:
East German began to construct a wall in 1961 which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin.

(b) How was it guarded?
Answer:
It was guarded with watchtowers and other lethal impediments to stop people from the east.

(c) What does the Berlin wall symbolise?
Answer:
It was symbolic boundary between Communism and Capitalism.

(d) What happened with the fall of the Berlin wall?
Answer:
With the fall of the Berlin wall , followed by the collapse of the Soviet Union, the cold war came to an end.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief account of the life and achievements of Ho Chi Minh.
Answer:
He was born in a small town in Central Vietnam. He studied in French school that produced great leaders. After his studies he worked on a French liner operating between Saigon and Marseilles. He was greatly inspired by European communist parties, became member of commintem and was instrumental in bringing together competing nationalists groups to form the Vietnamese communist party in 1930. It was later renamed the Indo-Chinese communist party. After spending 30 years abroad in Europe, China Thailand, he returned to Vietnam in 1941. He became President of the Vietnam Democratic Republic in 1943.

After the split of Vietnam, he and the communists took control of North Vietnam. With the help of his government, National Liberation Front in the south fought for unification of the country. He fought hard to maintain the autonomy of Vietnam and till the end proved true to his name. Ho Chi Minh meaning He, Who Enlightens.

Question 2.
Illustrate the cold war developments in case of the Vietnam war. Narrate how North and South Vietnam unified as Independent Nation.
Solution:

1. By 1945, the end of the second world war, Viet Minh controlled the northern half of Vietnam, led by Ho-chi- Minh.
2. Viet Minh and french reached an agreement by which North Vietnam would be a free state.
3. While French was helped by America, Viet Minh was helped by the new Chinese communist government.
4. War broke out between them. Eventually , France troops were defeated.
5. The Geneva conference that met on Korea and Indo China in 1954, decided that of Laos. Combodia and Vietnam. The independent states would be Laos and Cambodia. Vietnam, temporarily divided.
6. While North Vietnam controlled by Viet Minh with leader Ho-Chi-Minh and south Vietnam would be under the leadership of Bao Dai.
7. At the same time, South Vietnam was ruled by Ngo Dinh Diem.
8. When U.S wanted to establish a strong Non-communist government in South Vietnam. In 1965, marines landed on Danang naval base and namely 2,10,000 traps in the country, j (ix) The U.S bombed both North and South.
9. The fighters of North Vietnam trained in Guerrilla warfare sustained.
10. America suffered heavy casualties , vast devastated and many were killed.
11. The youth rebelled against the horrors of the war.
12. The protest against the war spread all over the world.
13. By 1975, the armies of the North and the only one party of South Vietnam called National Liberation front of South Vietnam attacked America.
14. By 30th April 1975, all the American troops had withdrawn and capital of South Vietnam Saigon was liberated.
15. North Vietnam and South Vietnam formally united as one country in 1976.
16. The city of Saigon was renamed as the Ho-Chi-Minh city .
17. Thus, the emergence of Vietnam as a united and Independent nation was an historic event.

Question 3.
Explain the breakup of the Soviet Union.
Answer:

1. In the middle of 1980’s Soviet Union economy was suffering.
2. In 1985, Mikhail Gorbachev took over as the president of USSR.
3. Gorbachev spoke about the need for openness (Glasnost) and Perestroika (restructuring).
4. But his ideas of reform did not work out for him because, to compete with U.S, USSR need to allocate more funds to the military.
5. The economic stagnation of the Soviet Union aggrevated tension and promoted nationalist feelings.
6. In the year 1988, Mass protest broke out in Armenia and in the Baltic states.
7. Gorbachev made attempts to stabilize his position by relying on conservative forces in 1989, 1991.
8. But the massive miner’s strike interrupted. The series of worker’s strike under mined the communist regimes first in Poland, then in Hungary.
9. The fall of Berlin wall in Germany, encouraged people to be united.
10. Gorbachev made a last attempt to take a hard line against miner’s strike and huge demonstrations in Moscow in 1991.
11. In response, the conservative forces in his government used troops in Moscow and held Gorbachev under house arrest.
12. Power fell into the hands of Boris Yeltsin.
13. In November 1991, eleven republics announced that they would establish a common wealth of independent states.
14. On 25th Dec 1991 , Gorbachev resigned.
15. For six days, the Soviet Union continued to remain only in name and at midnight on 31st December 1991 it was formally dissolved.
16. The USSR was no more.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 2 Optics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Optics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31,1.43,1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(a) A

Question 2.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens:
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 3.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex lens ______.
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is _____.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at:
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is:
(a) 4 m
(b) -40 m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m
Answer:
(d) -2.5 m

Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed _____.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot.
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) Bi focal lenses
Answer:
(d) Bi focal lenses

Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
Answer:
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The path of the light is called as ………
2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ……….
3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the ………. scattering of light is called as scattering ……….
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ……….
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ……….

Answer:

1. ray
2. unity
3. elastic
4. wavelength
5. iris

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium.
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens.
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image.

Answer:

1. False – Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium than in denser medium.
2. True
3. True
4. False – The convex lens does not give small virtual image always.

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

V. Assertion and reasoning type.

Mark the correct choice as-
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light.

2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.
Answer:
1. (a)
2. (a)

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\) = \(\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}\)

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that, “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering ‘S’ ∝\(\frac{1}{λ^4}\)

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is the power of accommodation of the eye?
Answer:

• The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called the power of accommodation of the eye.
• This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:

1. The lengthening of eye ball.
2. The focal length of eye lens is reduced.
3. The distance between eye lens and retina increases.
4. The far point will not be at infinity.
5. The far point comes closer.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear blue in colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear blue in colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through a fog, rain etc.

VII. Give the answer in detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light?
Answer:

• Light is a form of energy.
• Light always travels along a straight line.
• Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through a vacuum.
• The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
• Since light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (λ) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = vλ (c = velocity of light).
• Different coloured light has a different wavelength and frequency.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule-2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule-3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction : A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working : The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u > F₀). A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens. This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (B’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece. This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A”B”) on the same side of the object.

Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Answer:
Distance of an object u = 20 cm
Focal length of a convex lens f = 10 cm
Let the image distance be v
We know

v = 20 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\) = \(\frac{20}{20}\) = 1
Hence a real image of same size is formed at 20 cm.
Image distance = 20 cm

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Answer:
Object distance u = 10 cm
Focal length of a concave lens f= -15 cm
Let v be the image distance,

Distance of image v = 6 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\) = \(\frac{6}{10}\) = 0.6
And Magnification m = \(\frac{h’}{h}\)
Where h’ – height of image
h – height of object
0.6 = \(\frac{h’}{3}\)
∴ h’ = 3 × 0.6 = 1.8 cm
∴ Height of image = 1.8 cm

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,
(a) can he get the image?
(b) Is there any change in the focal length?
Answer:
(a) He can get the image.
(b) The focal length of the lens will be doubled.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

• The large pupil opens wider and allows the maximum amount of light to enter the eye in the dark.
• Their lens is large and situated near the retina. This also allows a lot of light to register on the retina. The retina contains 2 types of light-sensing cells rods and cones.
• Cones are responsible for the coloured vision and require bright, focused light.
• Rods are extremely sensitive to light and have a photosensitive pigment called rhodopsin which plays a vital role in night vision.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The scattering of sun light by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the Earth’s atmosphere is known as:
(a) Mie scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Rayleigh scattering
(d) Raman scattering
Answer:
(c) Rayleigh scattering

Question 2.
Mie scattering is responsible for the _____ appearance of the clouds.
(a) red
(b) blue
(c) colourless
(d) white.
Answer:
(d) white

Question 3.
In an inelastic scattering the energy of the incident beam of light is ……….. that of scattering beam.
(a) greater than
(b) less than
(c) equal to
(d) different from
Answer:
(d) different from

Question 4.
As per Rayleigh’s scattering law, amount of scattering is:
(a) directly proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(c) inversely proportioanl to square of wavelength
(d) directly proportional to square of wavelength
Answer:
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

Question 5.
The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the _____ of the light.
(a) wavelength
(b) strength
(c) density
(d) refraction.
Answer:
(a) wavelength

Question 6.
The scattering of light by colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called:
(a) Raman scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Mie scattering
(d) Elastic scattering
Answer:
(b) Tyndall scattering

Question 7.
A piece of transparent material bounded by curved surfaces is called:
(a) mirror
(b) prism
(c) slab
(d) lens
Answer:
(d) lens

Question 8.
If the energy of the incident and the scattered beam of light are not the same, then it is called as _____.
(a) Elastic
(b) Raman
(c) Inelastic
(d) Mie.
Answer:
(c) Inelastic

Question 9.
A convex lens does not produce:
(a) real magnified image
(b) virtual magnified image
(c) virtual diminished image
(d) real diminished image
Answer:
(c) virtual diminished image

Question 10.
A lens which is thicker in the middle than at the edges is known as:
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) bifocal lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) convex lens

Question 11.
The object is always placed on the _____ side of the lens.
(a) left
(b) right
(c) top
(d) bottom.
Answer:
(a) left

Question 12.
The parallel rays from the outer edge are deviated towards the middle in a:
(a) convex mirror
(b) concave lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(d) convex lens

Question 13.
The light rays passing through the optic centre will:
(a) diverged
(b) scattered
(c) converged
(d) emerge undeviated
Answer:
(d) emerge undeviated

Question 14.
All the distances are measured from the ______ of the lense.
(a) centre of curvature
(b) optical centre
(c) principal focus
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) optical centre

Question 15.
A ray passing through the principal focus and incident on the lens will:
(a) converge
(b) diverge
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis
(d) not emerge out
Answer:
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis

Question 16.
When the object is placed at infinity from the convex lens, the image is formed at:
(a) F
(b) C
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(a) F

Question 17.
The human eye is ____ in nature.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) transparent glass
(d) Plano – concave.
Answer:
(a) convex

Question 18.
The image formed by a concave lens is:
(a) virtual
(b) diminished
(c) virtual and diminished
(d) virtual and enlarged
Answer:
(c) virtual and diminished

Question 19.
To get a real image using convex lens, the object must be placed at:
(a) infinity
(b) principal focus
(c) beyond principal focus and infinity
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 20.
_____ is the centre part of the iris.
(a) cornea
(b) retina
(c) pupil
(d) eye lens.
Answer:
(c) pupil

Question 21.
For a convex lens the point at which the parallel rays converge is called of the lens.
(a) pole
(b) centre of curvature
(c) principal focus
(d) none
Answer:
(c) principal focus

Question 22.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always:
(a) erect
(b) magnified
(c) inverted
(d) diminished
Answer:
(c) inverted

Question 23.
The law of distances is given by:

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\) + \(\frac{1}{v}\)

Question 24.
The unit of focal length is:
(a) dioptre
(b) metre
(c) ohm
(d) ampere
Answer:
(b) metre

Question 25.
The sign of focal length of a convex lens is ………. sign.
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) negative or positive
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) positive

Question 26.
The focal length of concave lens has ……… sign.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) positive or negative
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 27.
The magnification in terms of object distance u and image distance v is m :
(a) \(\frac{u}{v}\)
(b) u + v
(c) \(\frac{v}{u}\)
(d) uv
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 28.
In terms of object distance u and focal length/, magnification is given by m =

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{f}{u-f}\)

Question 29.
The magnification in terms of v and/:
(a) f
(b) v – f
(c) \(\frac{f}{v-f}\)
(d) \(\frac{v-f}{f}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v-f}{f}\)

Question 30.
The unit of power is:
(a) m
(b) ohm
(C) dioptre
(d) ampere
Answer:
(C) dioptre

Question 31.
If the focal length of a convex lens is 1 m then its power is:
(a) 1 dioptre
(b) 0.1 dioptre
(c) 10 dioptre
(d) 0.01 dioptre
Answer:
(a) 1 dioptre

Question 32.
In a simple microscope, the magnification can be increased by:
(a) lens of long focal length
(b) lens
(c) lens of short focal length
(d) lens of infinite focal length
Answer:
(c) lens of short focal length

Question 33.
Convex lenses are used:
(a) as camera lenses
(b) as magnifying lenses
(c) to correct hypermetropia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 34.
Which lens is used in wide angle spyhole in doors?
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) parabolic lens
Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 35.
The mathematical form of lens maker’s formula is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 36.
If f is the focal length of the lens then its power is given by:
(a) P = \(\frac{2}{f}\)
(b) p = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
(c) p = f
(d) p = f₁
Answer:
(b) p = \(\frac{1}{f}\)

Question 37.
Which part of the human eye changes the focal length of the eye lens?
(a) pupil
(b) retina
(c) ciliary muscles
(d) cornea
Answer:
(c) ciliary muscles

Question 38.
On which part of human eye, image is formed?
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupil
Answer:
(c) retina

Question 39.
For normal human eye the value of near point is:
(a) 25 cm
(b) 25 m
(c) 2.5 m
(d) 25 mm
Answer:
(a) 25 cm

Question 40.
In hypermeteropia, the focal length of the eye lens is:
(a) decreased
(b) remains the same
(c) increased
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) increased

Question 41.
Presbyopia can be corrected by using:
(a) convex lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) concave lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) bifocal lens

Question 42.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using:
(a) bifocal lens
(b) cylindrical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) concave lens
Answer:
(b) cylindrical lens

Question 43.
The magnifying power of compound microscope is:
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 50 to 200
Answer:
(d) 50 to 200

Question 44.
The accuracy of travelling microscope is of the order of:
(a) 0.01 cm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.1 cm
Answer:
(b) 0.01 mm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The velocity of light in vacuum is ……….
2. If v is the frequency and λ is the wavelength then velocity of the wave is c = ……….
3. Among colours of visible light ……… colour has the highest wavelength.
4. According to Snell’s law refractive index, µ₂ = ……….
5. In a medium having high value of refractive index then speed of light in that medium is ……….
6. Angle of refraction is the smallest for ……… and the highest for ……….
7. The refractive index depends on ………. of light.
8. Colours having shorter wavelength scattered more than longer wavelength colours according to ……….. law.
9. After passing through a convex lens ……….. rays ………. at the principal focus.
10. For a convex lens, as the object distance increases, the image distance ……….
11. A ray passing through the optic centre of a lens emerges …………
12. ……… is due to irregular curvature of the surface of the eye lens.
13. When a parallel beam of light passes through a convex lens, the rays from the outer edges are …………
14. A ray parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens after refraction passes through …………
15. When the object is placed between ………….. and ………… of a convex lens a virtual image will be formed.
16. For a convex lens, as the object approaches the lens the image becomes …………
17. In a phographic camera ………… lens is used.
18. The shorter the focal length, the ………. is the magnification.
19. The nature of the image formed by a simple microscope is ……….., ………… and …………
20. Real images are formed by a ……….. lens.
21. Concave lens produces ………… images.
22. The value of power of a lens having focal length one metre is ………..
23. For a normal eye the value of far point is …………
24. …………. is known as short sightedness.
25. Hyper metropia is known as ………..
26. The mathematical form of focal length of a concave lens used to correct myopia is f = ……….
27. ……….. lenses are used to correct astigmatism.
28. For a normal eye, the value of least distance of distinct vision is ………..
29. The objective of the compound microscope has …………. focal length.
30. The focal length of ………. is greater in a compound microscope.
31. ……… is an optical instrument to see the distant objects.
32. A terrestrial telescope produces ……… image.
33. Elaborate view of galaxies and planets is obtained by ………
Answer:
1. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
2. vλ
3. red
4. \(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\)
5. low
6. red, violet
7. wavelength
8. Rayleigh scattering
9. parallel, converge
10. will decrease
11. undeviated
12. Astigmatism
13. deviated towards the centre of the lens
14. the principal focus
15. principal focus, optical centre
16. bigger
17. biconvex
18. greater
19. virtual, erect, magnified
20. convex
21. virtual
22. One dioptre
23. infinity
24. Myopia
25. long sightedness
26. xy/x – y
27. Cylindrical
28. 25 cm
29. shorter
30. eye piece
31. Telescope
32. an erect
33. Telescope

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Light does not travel along a straight line.
2. All coloured light has same wavelength.
3. In refraction incident ray, refracted ray and normal lie in the same plane.
4. Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium is greater than that in denser medium.
5. For red colour angle of refraction is the least.
6. The refractive index of a medium ¡s independent of wavelength.
7. Tyndall scattering, is the scattering of light by colloids.
8. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, red colour is scattered to a greater extent than blue colour.
9. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter is larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
10. The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies lower than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. In front of a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity the formed image is smaller than that of the object.
12. When an object is placed at finite distance from the concave lens a virtual image is formed between optical centre and focus of the concave lens.
13. Pupil of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. For a normal human eye, the value of far point is 25 cm.
15. Astigmatism is corrected by cylindrical lenses.
Answer:
1. False – Light always travels along a straight lines.
2. False – Different coloured light has different wavelength.
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False – The refractive index of a medium depends on wavelength.
7. True
8. False – According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than red colour.
9. True
10. False – The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. True
12. True
13. False – Cornea of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. False – For a normal human eye, the value of near point is 25 cm.
15. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 2.
Position of the object placed infront of a convex lens are given in Column
I. Match them with the natures of the images formed by the convex lens given in column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reasoning type.

Question 1.
Assertion : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and sunset than during day.
Reason : In detraction light rays bend around the edges of the obstacle.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Colours can be scan in thin layers of oil on the surface water. Reason: White light is composed of several colours.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Raman spectrum of a liquids contains lines whose frequencies are not equal to that of incident radiation.
Reason: If a photon strikes an atom in a liquid that is in existed state photon losses energy.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the material of the prism.
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends upon the refracting angle and angel of minimum deviation.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 5.
Assertion: A single lens produces a coloured image of an object illuminated by white light.
Reason: The refractive index of material of lens is different for different wavelength of light.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: If a convex lens is placed in water, its convergence power decrease.
Reason: Focal length of lens is independent of refractive index of the medium.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 7.
Assertion: Light waves travel in straight lines.
Reason: Rectilinear propagation of light confirm the above mentioned properly.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Raman scattering the scattering of monochromatic light by atoms and molecule of a liquid.
Reason: The wavelength of Raman lines is same.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length.
Reason: The unit of power is one dioptre when the unit of focal length is one metre.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: Presbyopia is due to ageing of human beings.
Reason: For those persons, ciliary muscles of the eye become weak.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is meant by refraction?
Answer:
When a ray of light travels from one transparent medium into another obliquely, the path of the light undergoes deviation. This deviation of ray of light is called refraction.

Question 2.
State laws of refraction.
Answer:
First law of refraction: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Second law of refraction: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{sin i}{sin r}\) = \(\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}\)

Question 3.
Define refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as refractive index ‘p’ of that medium.

Question 4.
What is meant by monochromatic source?
Answer:
If a source of light produces a light of single colour, it is known as a monochromatic source.

Question 5.
When white light is refracted by a transparent medium what will you get? Why?
Answer:

1. When white light is refracted by a transparent medium, a spectrum is obtained.
2. This is because, different coloured lights are bent through different angles.

Question 6.
What is scattering of light?
Answer:
When sunlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, the atoms and molecules of different gases present in the atmosphere refract the light in all possible directions. This is called as ‘Scattering of light’.

Question 7.
State the types of scattering.
Answer:

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

Question 8.
What is elastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

Question 9.
What is inelastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 10.
How are different types of scattering formed? Mention the types of scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer results in different types of scattering. They are

1. Rayleigh scattering
2. Mie scattering
3. Tyndall scattering
4. Raman scattering

Question 11.
What is Rayleigh scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of sunlight by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the earth’s atmosphere is known as Rayleigh scattering.

Question 12.
Why the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon. Hence, most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 13.
When does Mie scattering take place?
Answer:
Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.

Question 14.
What are the causes of Mie scattering?
Answer:
Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.

Question 15.
Why the clouds have white appearance?
Answer:
Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 16.
What is Tyndall Scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called Tyndall Scattering or Tyndall Effect.

Question 17.
What is meant by colloid? State few examples.
Answer:
Colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material. Eg: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 18.
What is meant by Raman Scattering?
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

Question 19.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 20.
What is Rayleigh line?
Answer:
The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’.

Question 21.
What are Raman lines?
Answer:
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’.

Question 22.
What are stokes lines and Antistokes lines?
Answer:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 23.
What is a lens?
Answer:
A lens is an optically transparent medium bounded by two spherical refracting surfaces or one plane and one spherical surface.

Question 24.
How is lens classified?
Answer:
Lens is basically classified into two types. They are:

1. Convex Lens
2. Concave Lens.

Question 25.
What is biconvex lens?
Answer:
Convex or bi-convex lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thicker at the centre than at the edges. A beam of light passing through it, is converged to a point. So, a convex lens is also called as converging lens.

Question 26.
What is meant by biconcave lens?
Answer:
Concave or bi-concave Lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thinner at the centre than at the edges. A parallel beam of light passing through it, is diverged or spread out. So, a concave lens is also called as diverging lens.

Question 27.
What are
(i) Plano-convex lens?
(ii) Plano-concave lens?
Answer:
(i) If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a plano-convex lens.
(ii) If one of the faces of a bi-concave lens is plane, it is known as a plano-concave lens.

Question 28.
State the applications of convex lenses.
Answer:

1. Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
2. They are used as magnifying lenses.
3. They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
4. They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 29.
Draw diagrams of different types converging lenses.
Answer:

Question 30.
Represent different types of lenses by diagram.
Answer:

Question 31.
What is the nature of the image formed by an object is placed behind the centre of curvature of a convex leas. Draw a ray diagram.
Answer:
When an object is placed behind the center of curvature (beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

Question 32.
Draw a ray diagram to indicate the nature of the image formed when an object is placed in between the centre of curvature and principal focus of a convex lens.
Answer:
When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

Question 33.
Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image (by the concave lens) when object is at infinity.
Answer:
When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Question 34.
What are the applications of concave lens?
Answer:

1. Concave lenses are used as eye lens of‘Galilean Telescope’.
2. They are used in wide angle spy hole in doors.
3. They are used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’.

Question 35.
What do you know about lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
\(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{v}\) – \(\frac{1}{u}\)

Question 36.
Define magnification.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’. If height of the object is h and height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by lens is,

Question 37.
What is lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula relates the focal length of a lens with the distance of object and image.

where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R₁ and R₂ are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 38.
What is meant by power of lens?
Answer:
The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) light rays is called as its power.

Question 39.
Define power of a lens. State its unit.
Answer:
Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 40.
What is meant by dioptre.
Answer:
Dioptre is the power of a lens, whose focal length is 1 metre.
1 Dioptre = 1 m^-1.

Question 41.
Differentiate convex lens from concave lens.
Answer:

Question 42.
What are
(i) Pupil &
(ii) Retina?
Answer:
(i) Pupil: It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.
(ii) Retina: This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Question 43.
What is persistence of vision?
Answer:
If the time interval between two consecutive light pulses is less than 0.1 second, human eye cannot distinguish them separately. It is called persistence of vision.

Question 44.
What is least distance of distinct vision?
Answer:
The minimum distance required to see the objects distinctly without strain is called least distance of distinct vision. It is called as near point of eye. It is 25 cm for normal human eye.

Question 45.
What is far point?
Answer:
The maximum distance up to which the eye can see objects clearly is called as far point of the eye.

Question 46.
What is Presbyopia?
Answer:
Due to ageing, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye-lens become rigid (inflexible) and so the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an aged person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. So, it is also called as ‘old age hypermetropia’.

Question 47.
What is meant by astigmatism?
Answer:
In this defect, eye cannot see parallel and horizontal lines clearly. It may be inherited or acquired. It is due to the imperfect structure of eye lens because of the development of cataract on the lens, ulceration of cornea, injury to the . refracting surfaces, etc. Astigmatism can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses (Torrid lenses).

Question 48.
State the principle of microscope. How is it classified?
Answer:
It works under the principle of angular magnification of lenses. It is classified as

1. Simple microscope
2. Compound microscope

Question 49.
What are the uses of simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

1. By watch repairers and jewellers.
2. To read small letters clearly.
3. To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
4. To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 50.
How is telescope classified?
Answer:
According to optical property, it is classified into two groups:

1. refracting telescope
2. reflecting telescope

Question 51.
Mention the advantages of telescope.
Answer:

1. Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
2. Camera can be attached for taking photograph for the celestial objects.
3. Telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Question 52.
What are the disadvantages of telescope?
Answer:

1. Frequent maintenance is needed.
2. It is not easily portable.

VII. Give the answer in Detail.

Question 1.
State the Laws of Refraction.
Answer:
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.
Second law of Refraction:

1. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
   \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
2. Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.
3. The speed of light in a medium is low if the refractive index of the medium is high and vice versa.
4. When light travels from a denser medium into a rarer medium, the refracted ray is bent away from the normal drawn to the interface.
5. When light travels from a rarer medium into a denser medium, the refracted ray is bent towards the normal drawn to the interface.

Question 2.
Describe Raman Scattering.
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

The scattered light contains some additional frequencies (or wavelengths) other than that of incident frequency (or wavelength). This is known as Raman scattering or Raman Effect.

Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’ and the spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’. The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 3.
With the help of ray diagram, explain the nature, size and position of the image formed by a convex lens. When object is placed at
(i) infinity
(ii) beyond C
(iii) placed at C
(iv) Placed between F and C,
(v) placed at F
(vi) placed between F and optical centre O.
Answer:
(i) Object at infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a real image is formed at the principal focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

(ii) Object placed beyond C (>2F): When an object is placed behind the center of curvature(beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. Th e size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iii) Object placed at C: When an object is placed at the center of curvature, a real and inverted image is formed at the other center of curvature. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iv) Object placed between F and C: When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

(v) Object placed at the principal focus F: When an object is placed at the focus, a real image is formed at infinity. The size of the image is much larger than that of the object.

(vi) Object placed between the principal focus F and optical centre O: When an object is placed in between principal focus and optical centre, a virtual image is formed. The size of the image is larger than that of the object.

Question 4.
Explain the formation of images formed by a concave lens.
Answer:
Object at Infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Object anywhere on the principal axis at a finite distance: When an object is placed at a finite distance from the lens, a virtual image is formed between optical center and focus of the concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

But, as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased, the distance between the image and the lens also keeps decreasing. Further, the size of the image formed increases as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased.

Question 5.
Explain Mie Scattering.
Answer:
Mie scattering:

1. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light. It is also an elastic scattering.
2. The amount of scattering is independent of wavelength.
3. Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.
4. Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
5. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which, together form the white light.

Question 6.
With the help of a diagram, explain the structure and working of human eye.
Answer:
Structure of the eye:
The eye ball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. It consists of a tough membrane called sclera, which protects the internal parts of the eye.

Cornea : This is the thin and transparent layer on the front surface of the eyeball as shown in figure. It is the main refracting surface. When light enters through the cornea, it refracts or bends the light on to the lens.

Iris : It is the coloured part of the eye. It may be blue, brown or green in colour. Every person has a unique colour, pattern and texture. Iris controls amount of light entering into the pupil like camera aperture.

Pupil : It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.

Retina : This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Ciliary muscles : Eye lens is fixed between the ciliary muscles. It helps to change the focal length of the eye lens according to the position of the object.

Eye Lens : It is the important part of human eye. It is convex in nature.

Working of the eye : The transparent layer cornea bends the light rays through pupil located at the centre part of the Iris. The adjusted light passes through the eye lens. Eye lens is convex in nature. So, the light rays from the objects are converged and a real and inverted image is formed on retina. Then, retina passes the received real and inverted image to the brain through optical nerves. Finally, the brain senses it as erect image.

Question 7.
Describe simple microscope.
Answer:
Simple microscope: It has a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small objects.
Let an object (AB) is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’), The image formed is in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D) (For normal human eye D = 25 cm).

Question 8.
Write short notes on
(i) Astronomical telescope
(ii) Terrestrial telescope.
Answer:
(i) Astronomical Telescope: An astronomical telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets, galaxies and satellites.

(ii) Terrestrial Telescope: The image in an astronomical telescope is inverted. So, it is not suitable for viewing objects on the surface of the Earth. Therefore, a terrestrial telescope is used. It provides an erect image. The major difference between astronomical and terrestrial telescope is erecting the final image with respect to the object.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
A needle of size 5 cm is placed 45 cm from a lens produced an image on a screen placed 90 cm away from the lens.
Answer:
(i) Identify the types of lens.
Calculate focal length of the lens.
Height of the object h₁ = 5 cm
Distance of the object u = -45 cm
Distance of the image v = 90 cm
We know that

Focal length of the lens = 30 cm
Since focal length is positive the lens is convex lens.

(ii) Identify the size of the image

∴ h₂ = -10 cm
The negative sign indicates that the image is real and inverted.

Question 2.
A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image 10 cm from the lens?
Answer:
v = -10 cm; f =-15 cm; u = ?
Lens formula:
\(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{v}\) – \(\frac{1}{u}\)
Type of lens: Concave lens

u =-30 cm
Thus, the object distance is 30 cm.

Question 3.
An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. An erect and virtual image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the magnification.
Answer:
Type of lens is Cancave lens.
Formula:
Magnification m = \(\frac{v}{u}\)
Object distance u = -30 cm
Image distance v = -10 cm
m = \(\frac{-10}{-30}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) = +0.33

Question 4.
The focal length of a concave lens is 2 cm. Calculate the power of the lens.
Answer:
Formula:
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
Type of lens is concave lens.
Focal length of concave lens,
f = -2 m power of the lens.
P = \(\frac{1}{-2 m}\)
P = -0.5 dioptre

Question 5.
A needle placed at 30 cm from the lens forms an image on a screen placed 60 cm on the other side of the lens. Identify the type of lens and determine the focal length.
Answer:
u = -30 cm
v = 60 cm
u is negative because image is formed on the on the other side of the lens.

It is a convex lens.

Question 6.
A 3 cm tall bulb is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a diverging lens having a focal length of 10.5 cm. Determine the distance of the image.
Answer:
u = -20 cm
f = -10.5 cm

The distance of the image is -6.88 cm

Question 7.
A ray from medium 1 is refracted below while passing through medium 2. Find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to medium 1.
Answer:
Refractive index µ

Refractive index = 0.707

Question 8.
The optical prescription of a pair of spectacle is
Right eye: -3.5 D, Left eye: -4.00 D.
(i) Name the defect of the eye.
Answer:
Shortsighted (Myopia)

(ii) Are these lenses thinner at the middle or at the edges?
Answer:
These lenses are thinner in the middle.

(iii) Which lens has a greater focal length?
Answer:
power = \(\frac{1}{focal length}\)
Right eye: power P = -3.5 D

Left eye: Power P = -4 D

Hence the lens having power of -3.5 D has greater focal length.

Question 9.
The radii of curvature of two surfaces of a double convex lens are 10 cm each. Calculate its focal length and power of the lens in air and liquid. Refractive indices of glass and liquid are 1.5 and 1.8 respectively.
Answer:
Radius of curvature of first surface R₁ = 10 cm
Radius of curvature of second surface R₂ = 10 cm
In air

p_l = -3.33 d

Question 10.
An object 2 cm tall is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.
Answer:
Focal length of a convex lens f = 15 × 10^-2 m
Weight of the object ho = 2 × 10^-2 m
Let weight of the image be h_v
Distance of the object u = 10 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image v = 15 × 10^-2 m
We know

∴ v = -30 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image = 30 × 10^-2 m

Hence a virtual image 6 × 10^-2 m height is formed at a distance of 30 × 10^-2 m from the lens on the same side of the lens.

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
Ramu passes white light through a quartz prism. For which colour refractive index is greater?
Answer:
Refractive index is maximum for violet light when white light passes through a quartz prism.

Question 2.
Sita has kept a stud consists of diamond. What will she observe? Give reason.
Answer:
The diamond stud appears bright because of total internal reflection.

Question 3.
Guna passes a ray light through a glass slab. Which optical phenomenon will take place? What can he observe with reference to wavelength?
Answer:
When a ray of light enters a glass slab he can observe refraction of light. He observed that wavelength of light decreases.

Question 4.
A prism is placed in the minimum deviation position. Chari has passed a ray of light at an angle of 45°, then what is the value of angle of emergence? Why?
Answer:
The angle of emergence = 45°.
Since, in the minimum deviation positron, angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.

Question 5.
Mani is using a lens of power 2 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
Focal length = \(\frac{1}{power}\)
F= \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m

Question 6.
Surya has placed a lens of power 1 D in side water. What will happen to power of the lens?
Answer:
The power of the lens will be more than original power.

Question 7.
Sonu has observed some lines in solar spectrum are absorbed by the elements present in the atmosphere. What are the lines?
Answer:
The lines are Fraunhofer lines.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 3 World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
Answer:
(a) 2 September, 1945

Question 2.
Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein
Answer:
(b) Battle of Midway

Question 4.
Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
Answer:
(c) Hiroshima

Question 5.
Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians
(b) Arabs
(c) Turks
(d) Jews
Answer:
(d) Jews

Question 6.
Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Lloyd George
(d) Stanley Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Chamberlain

Question 7.
When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942
(b) June 26, 1945
(c) January 1, 1942
(d) January 1, 1945
Answer:
(b) June 26, 1945

Question 8.
Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York
(b) Chicago
(c) London
(d) The Hague
Answer:
(d) The Hague

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Hitler attacked ……………… which was a demilitarized zone.
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ………………
3. ……………… started the Lend-Lease programme.
4. Britain Prime Minister ……………… resigned in 1940.
5. Saluting the bravery of the ……………… Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many to so few”.
6. ……………… is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
7. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in ……………… articles.
8. After the World War II ……………… was voted into power in Great Britain.

Answers:

1. Rhineland
2. Rome – Berlin
3. Roosevelt
4. Chamberlain
5. Royal Air force
6. Radar
7. 30
8. Labour party

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
(ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
(iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
(iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason (R): He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the Following

Answers:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.
2. Germany had to be disarmed and was allowed to retain only a very restricted army, navy and air force.
3. Germany was expected to pay huge military and civilian cost of the war to the allied nations (approx. $ 25 billion).

Question 2.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
Answer:
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 3.
How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was able to sway away the emotions of the German people by his great speeches. He promised them that he will return back the glorious Germany. His racial superiority of the Germans as a pure Aryan race and a deep-rooted hatred for jews made him get the support of his people.

Question 4.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed. The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 5.
What do you know of Beveridge Report?
Answer:
The Report that was published in the United Kingdom in 1942 to improve the general welfare of the people is called as Beveridge Report. It proposed that the government should provide citizens with adequate income, healthcare, education housing and employment to overcome poverty and disease thereby improve general welfare.

Question 6.
Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
Answer:
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of the IMF?
Answer:

1. To foster global monetary co-operation
2. To secure Financial Stability
3. To facilitate International Trade
4. To promote high employment and sustainable economic growth.
5. To reduce poverty around the world.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Battle of Stalingrad

(a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
In August 1942, Germany attacked Stalingrad.

(b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.

(c) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
Fall Blau or Operation Blue

(d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The people of Russia were grateful for Stalin’s conduct of the war. They regarded him as ‘a prodigy of patience, tenacity and vigilance, almost omnipresent, almost omniscient.

Question 2.
Japanese Aggression In South-east Asia

(a) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
Answer:
Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies and the Burma all fell to the Japanese.

(b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
Answer:
The Allies had a setback in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparation. The local people had to face the atrocities of the Japanese.

(c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
Answer:
The U.S. navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway. Thus, the battle is in favour of the Allies.

(d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
The Indians living in Burma walked all the way to the Indian border facing many hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion.

Question 3.
General Assembly and Security Council

(a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
Answer:
The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.

(b) What is the Holocaust?
Answer:
The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.

(c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
Answer:
The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.

(d) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Answer:

1. Adolf Hitler Was the founder of the National Socialist party, generally known as the Nazi party.
2. His great oratorical skill, his promise to bring back the glorious past of Germany, his support for the German race and hatred towards the Jews helped him to get people support.
3. He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
4. He began to re-arm Germany and recruitment of new armed forces.
5. The manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force with large spending from government resulted in the revival of the economic condition and helped to solve the unemployment problem in the economy.
6. He followed aggressive policy and therefore in 1936, he invaded Rhine land, the demilitarized zone.
7. His alliance with Italy and Japan became Rome-Berlin-Tokyo axis.
8. He signed Munich pact stating Germany would not conquer any other territory, rather in 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.
9. His attack on Poland resulted in the declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany.
10. In 1941, German army invaded Russia. But the resistance of the German army and Russian winter defeated German army.
11. When the allied forces fought back, Germany also retaliated. Finally, Hitler committed suicide in 1945.
12. In 1945, allies occupied Berlin and Germany was divided as two sections after the war.

Question 2.
Analyse the effects of World War II.
Answer:
World War II was the most devastating war in history. It left a deep impact on the entire world. It changed the world in fundamental ways. Here are the effects of this War:

(i) The world got polarised into two main blocs led by superpowers, one led by the United States which followed anti-communist ideology, and the other by Soviet Russia which was essentially communist in nature. Europe was thus divided into two: Communist and non-communist.

(ii) The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear powered World War II 43 weapons. They built a large stockpile of such weapons. Meanwhile, Britain and France developed their own nuclear weapons.

(iii) Gradually there arose competition among countries. They began to devote large amount of resources in developing more and more powerful weapons with great destructive power, and defence spending skyrocketed in many countries.

(iv) It was realised that the League of Nations was ineffective and weak. So countries of the world decided not to repeat the mistake. Instead, many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large and small.

(v) Many other important social and economic changes also took place in the post-War world. Colonial powers were forced to give independence to former colonies in a process of decolonisation. India was the first country to get independence.

(vi) Women became the part of labour force in huge numbers. They became economically independent.

Question 3.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:
The charter of the United Nations was signed on June 26, 1945 by 51 nations. Now, the United Nations has 193 member states and each one has an equal vote in the UN.

Structure of UN:

The General Assembly: Meets once in a year. Issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.

The Security Council: Consist of five permanent members (USA, Britain, France, Russia, China) and ten non-permanent members (elected in rotation). Each permanent member has the right to veto (A right to reject a decision).

UN Secretariat: Headed by the Secretary by law General. He is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. He, with his cabinet and officials run the UN.

International Court of Justice: Headquarters at the Hague in Holland.

The Economic and the Social Council: Co-ordinates all the social and economic work of the U.N. Headed by economists like Gunnar Myrdal.

Activities of the UN:

1. Human Rights, Refugees problem, climatic change, gender equality are the important issues taken over and deals with it. Earlier in 1960’s decolonisation was also a part of their activity.
2. UN peace keeping force acted in many areas of conflict all over the World. Indian army has been a part of it.
3. The preamble of the UN declares, its activities include human rights, equality of men and women.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
A debate in the class on the success or failure of the UN in preserving World Peace.
Answer:
The students can take the following topics for debate and finally conclude, UN is successful as it has stopped the nations from bringing another war. Small to big clashes were/are handled by UN efficiently.

Argument for:
The topics of discussion for debate are:

1. Solving International conflicts: Since 1945, UN peacekeepers have undertaken over 60 field missions and negotiated 172 peaceful settlements that ended Regional conflicts.
2. Liberation from Colonial rule: Eighty nations and more than 750 million people have been freed from colonialism.
3. Human Rights: Custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, Children’s rights, torture, missing persons etc. in many countries.
4. Enhancing Human life: Specialised agencies of the UN engaged in enhancing all aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, climate change.
5. Treaties: More than 560 multilateral treaties on human rights, refugees, disarmament.

Argument against:

Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT): Signed by 190 nations, all live superpowers owned nuclear weapons. Later, several countries North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India developed nuclear weapons.

Veto Power: Veto power has limited its effectiveness at critical times.

War Criminals: The International criminal court has prosecuted several war criminals. But it has been criticised for prosecuting only African leaders. But Western powers too have committed war crimes.

Israel Attack: Israel attacked homes schools, U.N. shelters in Gaza killing 2,200 Palestinians. The U.N. Security Council has failed any action against Israel.

Conclusion: U.N. is imperfect but it is also indispensable. It is successful as, it is avoiding any other war.

Question 3.
Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in a world map.
Answer:

IX. Map Work

Question 1.
Mark the following on the world map.
1. Axis Power Countries
2. Allied Power Countries
3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawai Island, Moscow, San Fransico
Answer:
(2)

(3)

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The financial cost of the II World War was ……………….. times higher than that of the I World War.
(a) one
(b) three
(c) five
(d) seven
Answer:
(c) five

Question 2.
The coal mines given to France were ………
(a) Jharia
(b) Saar
(c) Bokaro
Answer:
(b) Saar

Question 3.
“Money in wheelbarrows to buy bread” in the 1920’s. Which country referred to here.
(a) Italy
(b) Austria
(c) Germany
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Germany

Question 4.
The principles of war and conquests was glorified by ………
(a) Moderates
(b) Dictators
(c) Extremists
Answer:
(b) Dictators

Question 5.
Hitler broke the Munich pact by invading ……………….. in 1939.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Sudetenland
(c) Poland
(d) Czechoslovakia
Answer:
(d) Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Hitler demanded the surrender of ………
(a) Danzig
(b) Jutland
(c) Estonia
Answer:
(a) Danzig

Question 7.
The attack of ……………….. by Germany was the final act which result in the initiation of II World War.
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) Poland
Answer:
(d) Poland

Question 8.
The British Prime Minister during the Second World War was ………
(a) Sir Winston Churchill
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Lloyd George
Answer:
(a) Sir Winston Churchill

Question 9.
The tactic followed by Germany to overrun other countries was called as:
(a) Sea-borne invasion
(b) Blitzkrieg
(c) Dunkirk
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Blitzkrieg

Question 10.
In ………, Hitler invaded Russia.
(a) 1940
(b) 1941
(c) 1943
Answer:
(b) 1941

Question 11.
“We shall fight in the fields and in the streets” ……………….. but, we shall never surrender.”- said by
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Napoleon Bonaparte
(c) George Washington
(d) Roosevelt.
Answer:
(a) Winston Churchill

Question 12.
……………….. used the device radar for detecting aircraft at a distance in World War II.
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) USA
Answer:
(c) Britain

Question 13.
In September 1940, London was bombed mercilessly by German Air force. This action was called as:
(a) Spit fires
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Blitz
(d) Dunkirk
Answer:
(c) Blitz

Question 14.
Land lease programme of USA took place between the years:
(a) 1939 – 1945
(b) 1941 – 1945
(c) 1936 – 1940
(d) 1914 – 1918
Answer:
(b) 1941 – 1945

Question 15.
In the war between Germany and Russia in 1941, ……………….. was defeated.
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 16.
Stalingrad I situated along the banks of the river:
(a) Miami
(b) Volga
(c) Hwang-Ho
(d) Marne
Answer:
(b) Volga

Question 17.
In the battle of Stalingrad, Germans used the code word ……………….. on Russia.
(a) Alamein
(b) Land lease
(c) Fall Blau
(d) Montegomary
Answer:
(c) Fall Blau

Question 18.
Mussolini was killed by a ……………….. partisan.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Italy

Question 19.
Mussolini was killed in:
(a) May 1945
(b) April 1944
(c) April 1945
(d) May 1946
Answer:
(c) April 1945

Question 20.
In 1945 ……………….. was divided into two sections.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Bengal
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 21.
Japanese army indulged in the biggest slaughter in the place ……………….. in China.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Nanking
(c) Peking
(d) Shangai
Answer:
(b) Nanking

Question 22.
Japan announced surrendered to U.S on ……………….. 1945.
(a) 2nd September
(b) 15th August
(c) 3rd August
(d) 5th February
Answer:
(b) 15th August

Question 23.
The Security council has ……………….. members.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 24.
At present, the United Nations has ……………….. member states.
(a) 196
(b) 195
(c) 194
(d) 193
Answer:
(d) 193

Question 25.
The World Bank is located at:
(a) Sweden
(b) New Zealand
(c) Washington
(d) New York
Answer:
(c) Washington

Question 26.
IMF has at present ……………….. member countries.
(a) 200
(b) 187
(c) 189
(d) 190
Answer:
(c) 189

Question 27.
IMF help the countries to solve their ……………….. position.
(a) debt
(b) Balance of payment
(c) Independency
(d) Trade
Answer:
(b) Balance of payment

Question 28.
The report published in 1942, in United Kingdom for the general welfare of the people was called as ……………….. report.
(a) Bretton Woods
(b) Beveridge
(c) Blitzkrieg
(d) Common wealth
Answer:
(b) Beveridge

Question 29.
……………….. party in Great Britain promised for a welfare state to the people.
(a) Communist party
(b) Democratic party
(c) Socialised party
(d) Labour party
Answer:
(d) Labour party

Question 30.
The benefits to the people can be achieved either through ……………….. transfers or free services.
(a) Cash
(b) Country
(c) State
(d) Regional
Answer:
(a) Cash

II. Fill in the blanks

1. World War II began in ……………… and ended in ………………
2. The Treaty of ……………… was signed at the end of World War I in 1919.
3. The Germans offered to pay ……………… billion gold marks to the allies.
4. The United States was faced with great depression after ………………
5. The National Socialist party in Germany was generally known as ………………
6. In 1938, Hitler signed the Munich pact with Prime Minister ………………
7. In 1939, Hitler invaded ……………… as against his promise in Munich pact.
8. Hitler showed hatred against ………………
9. Hitler came to power in ……………… and ruled till ………………
10. World War II was a ……………… war fought with tanks, submarines, bomber planes etc.
11. Britain and France declared war on Germany in ………………
12. In ………………, Italy and Japan joined the axis powers.
13. In September 1940, London war bombed by Germans mercilessly. This action was known as ………………
14. Blitzkrieg means ………………
15. The name of the Britain navy was ………………
16. The war between Britain and ……………… took place in Dunkirk in 1940.
17. The fighter planes of the British Royal force was called as ……………… and ………………
18. ……………… of America started the Land Lease programme.
19. Caucasus was famous for its ……………… in Russia.
20. Mussolini of Italy was killed by an ……………… partisan.
21. The battle of ……………… was considered to be the Great patriotic war by the Russians.
22. Italy surrendered to the allies in ………………
23. The Allied forces under the command of ……………… invaded Normanday in France.
24. Canton was called as ……………… in China.
25. On December 1941, ……………… attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour.
26. Guadalcanal is in the ……………… islands.
27. USA dropped an atomic bomb on ……………… and ……………… cities of Japan.
28. Japan announced their surrender on ………………
29. Japan formally signed their surrender marking the end of the World War II was ………………
30. ……………… and ……………… are the two super powers after the II World War.
31. US and Soviet Russia entered into a race to have more ………………
32. ………………, ………………, and ……………… came into existence after the II World War.
33. ……………… started entering into labour force in huge number after World War II.
34. In the process ofdecolonisation ……………… was the first country toget Independence.
35. The word ……………… refers the genocide of Jews by the Germans during Second World War.
36. A major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of ………………
37. ……………… became the Homeland for Jews after II World War.
38. The Un efforts to protect human rights at the global levei resulted in the UN commission on ………………
39. The Un adopted the Human Rights Charter on ………………
40. ……………… is observed globally as Human Rights Day.
41. Britain and United States gave a joint declaration called as ……………… in 1941 that helped in the formation of UNO.
42. ……………… were the axis powers of the II World War.
43. The initial member States of the UN were ……………… nations.
44. The Charter of the United Nations was signed on ………………
45. Each member State in U.N.has ……………… vote.
46. The UN functions almost like a ………………
47. There are ………………, ………………, ………………, ……………… wing for the UN.
48. Veto means ………………
49. ……………… has veto power.
50. ……………… permanent members are there in UN.
51. WHO means ………………
52. UNICEF means ………………
53. FAO means ………………
54. UNESCO expansion is ………………
55. UNDP expansion is ………………
56. The ……………… has been a port of peace keeping force of the UN in deployment to many parts of the World.
57. The World Bank and the IMP are referred to as ………………
58. The two main organs of the World Bank are ……………… and ………………
59. IBRD expansion is ………………
60. IDA expansion is ………………
61. The IDA lends money to the ……………… for development activities.
62. The loans sanctioned by IDA at low interest rates for development purposes are called as ………………
63. Soft loans are given for ……………… years.
64. The ……………… functions with private enterprises in developing countries.
65. IFC expansion is ………………
66. The World Bank is actively promoting the cause of improving the and eradicating the ………………
67. The IMF was the brainchild of ……………… and ………………
68. The initial member countries of IMF were ………………
69. Its primary objective is to ensure ……………… and development across the World.
70. The fund gives resources to countries facing ……………… problem.
71. The number of member countries of IMF at present are ……………… countries.
72. All the countries in the Western Europe are now ………………
73. The ……………… in Great Britain after World War I promised to look at the people from the cradle to the grave.
74. Legislations was enacted to provide comprehensive free health coverage to the citizens in Britain through ………………
75. The monetary benefits after World War II by Labour party was ………………, ……………… etc.

Answers:

1. 1939, 1945
2. Versailles
3. 100
4. 1929
5. Nazis
6. Chamberlin
7. Czechoslovakia
8. Jews
9. 1933, 1945
10. modem
11. 1939
12. 1940
13. Blitz
14. Lightning strike
15. Royal Navy
16. France
17. Spitfires, Hurricanes
18. President Roosevelt
19. Oil fields
20. Italian
21. Stalingrad
22. 1943
23. General Elsenhower
24. Guangzhou
25. Japan
26. Solomon
27. Hiroshima, Nagasaki
28. 15th August 1945
29. 2nd Sept 1945
30. United States, Soviet Russia
31. Nuclear weapons
32. United Nations, World Bank, International Monetary Fund
33. Women
34. India
35. Holocaust
36. Israel
37. Israel
38. Human Rights
39. 10th Dec 1948
40. 10th Dec 1948
41. Atlantic Charter
42. Germany, Italy, Japan
43. 51
44. June 26, 1945
45. One
46. Government
47. Executive, Judicial, Legislative, Co-ordinating
48. The right to block major decisions
49. Permanent members
50. Five
51. World Health Organisation
52. United Nations Children’s Fund
53. Food and Agricultural Organisation
54. UN educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
55. United Nations Development programme
56. Indian Army
57. Bretton Woods Twins
58. IBRD, IDA
59. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
60. International Development Agency
61. Government
62. Soft loans
63. 50
64. IFC
65. International Finance Corporation
66. Environment, AIDS
67. Hary Dexter, John Maynard Keynes
68. 29
69. Financial Stability
70. Balance of payment
71. 189
72. Welfare states
73. Labour party
74. National Health Service
75. Old age pension, Child care services

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The axis powers of World War II were Germany, Italy and Japan.
(ii) Russia attacked the American naval base at Pearl Harbour in 1941.
(iii) The UN adopted the historic human rights charter on 10th December 1947.
(iv) The executive wing of the UN is the UN Secretariat.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(c) (i) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Reparations refers to the compensation exacted from a defeated nation by the victorious nation.
(ii) Slaughter is compulsory military service.
(iii) Japanese navy was defeated by the US Navy at the battle of mid way.
(iv) Progression taxation by taxing the higher income groups at relatively high rates.
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The Security Council of the UNO has fifteen members.
(ii) The mass killing of Jews in Nazi was called holocaust
(iii) Battle of Ex Alamein was considered one of the greatest battles by Russia.
(iv) The Japanese navy defeated the US navy in the battle of Midway.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The World Bank and the IMF are referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins.
(ii) The post World War I led to the rise of dictatorship in Italy, Germany, and Spain.
(iii) The post World War II changed the world into two blocks as communist and non communist.
(iv) The Shakespeare’s play the Merchant of Venice clearlv depicts the dislike and distrust of Jews among the Nazi people.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing balance of payment problem.
(ii) The Munich pact was signed between Germany and the Soviet Union.
(iii) Huge worthless money for bread often refers to the Britain’s severe inflation after II World War.
(iv) Franco of Spain was the only dictatorship that emerged after II World War.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
(d) (i) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Japanese extended their empire throughout South-east Asia.
(ii) Burma, Indonesia, Singapore, Malaya, Hong Kong, Philippines all fell to the Japanese.
(iii) Many Indians walked ail the way from Burma to the Indian border facing many sufferings.
(iv) Many Indians who stayed there suffered under the Japanese.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (i) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Hitler was killed by his countrymen in 1945
(ii) Mussolini committed suicide in April 1945
(iii) The United States declared war on Japan on December 1944.
(iv) In 1938, Japan invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 8.
(i) In the year 1940, the British Prime Minister Chamberlain resigned.
(ii) The newly elected British Prime Minister next was Winston Churchill.
(iii) The end of World War II signalled a change in the world order and political configurations among the major powers.
(iv) The Treaty of Versailles ended the World War II.
(a) (i) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): World War I (1914-18) and World War II (1939-45) are only referred as World wars.
Reason (R): The high death of the civilians and the soldiers and the extended area of the conflicts.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The League remained an ineffectual international body. Reason (R): Along with the USA, as a non-member mainly Germany was determined to maintain a non-interventionist attitude.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia in 1938.
Reason (R): Hitler claimed all the German speaking people should be united into one nation.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mood in Britain was not in favour of starting another war after World War I.
Reason (R): Just as the United States they wanted to be concerned with the revival of the economy after great depression.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Germany developed a fleet of sub-marines which caused havoc in the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): Germany ensured themselves for a sea-borne invasion on allies.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The long term objective of Germany was to exploit Russia’s natural Resource oil.
Reason (R): German army invaded Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Germans tried to capture the city of Stalingrad in Russia. Reason (R): Stalingrad was the militarised zone of Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right, A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Hitler committed suicide in April 1945.
Reason (R): The Allied forces in 1945, occupied parts of Berlin and began to attack Germany from the east.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): The United States declared war on Japan.
Reason (R): In 1931, the Japanese army invaded Manchuria and in 1937, invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but R is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion (A): U.S. dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima and another bomb was dropped on Nagasaki.
Reason (R): U.S. developed hatred over the development of two cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but it is the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and the Soviet Union followed communist and non¬communist ideas.
Reason (R): Countries began to devote large amount of resources in developing dangerous weapons.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but not relevant to R
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but not relevant to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

V. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (vi)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What are soft loans?
Answer:
The loans that are sanctioned by the International Development Agency to the Governments for developmental activities are called as soft loans. They are given at very low rate of interest of 50 years.

Question 2.
Did Munich Pact bring peace for some time? How?
Answer:

1. In September 1938, Hitler threatened Czechoslovakia.
2. The British Prime Minister Neville chamberlain initiated talks and signed Munich pact,
3. Hitler promised not to take any more Czech territory.
4. Chamberlain believed that he had achieved “Peace for some time”. But within six months Hitler seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So Munich pact has brought peace only for some time.

Question 3.
What do you know about the World Bank?
Answer:
The World bank consists of two main organs namely The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Agency (IDA). Together they are called as the World Bank.

Question 4.
Why did America declare war on Japan?
Answer:

1. The Japanese had attacked the American fleet stationed at Pearl Harbour on December 7, 1941.
2. This disastrous attack forced the Americans to enter into the war.
3. The very next day the USA declared war on Japan.

Question 5.
What are the axis powers and the ally powers of II World War?
Answer:
Germany, Italy, Japan – Axis powers.
Britain, France, Russia, USA – Ally powers.

Question 6.
Name the countries involved in World War II.
Answer:

1. The allies countries were under the leadership of Britain. [Britain, France, Russia and U.S.A]
2. The axis countries were under the leadership of Germany. [Germany, Italy and Japan]

Question 7.
What was the immediate cause of the II World War?
Answer:
The main and immediate cause of the II World War was the aggressive, military, dictatorship attitude of Germany, fast-developing Japan. Hitler’s attack on Poland in 1939, resulted in the declaration of the War by Britain and France.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on security council.
Answer:

1. The council has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
2. The five permanent members are the USA, UK, France, Russian Federation and China,
3. The non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two years term,
4. The permanent members have the right to veto for any council decision.
5. Its main responsibility is to maintain International peace and security.

Question 9.
What is ECOSOC? What are its organs?
Answer:
The Economic and Social Council, is the UN organ which is responsible for co-ordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations. The Regional Economic commissions functioning for regional development across the various regions of the World are its organs. (Asia pacific, West Asia, Europe, Africa, Latin America).

Question 10.
Name some of the specialized agencies of the UNO.
Answer:

1. The World Health Organisation [WHO]
2. The United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation(UNESCO)
3. The United Nation’s Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
4. The International Labour Organisation (ILO)
5. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO)
6. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
7. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

VII. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Causes of the Second World War.

(a) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
Answer:
Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.

(b) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
Answer:
Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.

(c) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
Answer:
The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.

(d) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
He violated the Munich Pact.

Question 2.
Munich Pact

(a) Who concluded the Munich pact with Germany?
Answer:
In 1938, Prime Minister Chamberlain concluded the Munich pact with Germany.

(b) What did Hitler do in 1939?
Answer:
In 1939, Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia breaking the munich pact that Germany would not attack any other country.

(c) Which act of Hitler made Britain and France declare war on Germany?
Answer:
His act of attack on Poland made Britain and France declare war on Germany.

(d) What were the weapons used in World War II?
Answer:
Heavy military equipment such as tanks, sub-marines, battleships, aircraft carriers, fighter planes and bomber planes.

Question 3.
Organs of the UNO

(a) Name the major organs of the UNO.
Answer:

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Economic and Social Council
4. The Trusteeship Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

(b) Who was elected as the President of the UN General Assembly in 1953?
Answer:
Mrs. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(c) What is the function of the Trusteeship Council?
Answer:
The Trusteeship Council looks after certain territories placed under the trusteeship of the UNO.

(d) How is the Secretary-General of the UNO appointed?
Answer:
The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly on the advice of the Security Council.

Question 4.
Birth of Israel.

(a) What is meant by Holocaust?
Answer:
Holocaust refers to the mass killing of jews by the Germans during World War II.

(b) What was the major outcome of the Holocaust?
Answer:
The major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of Israel as a homeland for the Jews.

(c) What did the Israel occupy?
Answer:
The Israel has occupied large parts of Palestinian homelands.

(d) From whom does Israel get the support from?
Answer:
Israel get the vast support from the United States.

Question 5.
The United Nations

(a) Who took the first initiative for the formation of the United Nations?
Answer:
The United states and the Britain in 1941.

(b) Name the joint declaration they issued?
Answer:
The Atlantic Charter was the name of the joint declaration they issued.

(c) How many countries accepted the declaration at first?
Answer:
The declaration of the United Nations was accepted by 26 countries, on New years Day 1942.

(d) How many nations signed the charter? When?
Answer:
On June 26, 1945, 51 nations signed the charter.

Question 6.
International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(a) On whose idea the International Monetary Fund was initiated?
Answer:
Harry Dexter white and John Maynard Keynes ideas brought the emergence of IMF.

(b) When was it formally organised?
Answer:
It was formally organised in 1945 with 29 member countries (at present 189).

(c) What were the three main agendas of the IMF?
Answer:

1. To promote International monetary co-operation.
2. To expand International trade.
3. To bring exchange stability.

(d) State the main reason of its funding?
Answer:
The IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing Balance of payment problems.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What were the results of Second World War?
Answer:

1. The destruction to life and property was on a much larger scale than the First World War.
2. Over 50 millions lost their lives.
3. It sounded the death knell to dictatorship in Germany and Italy.
4. Germany was occupied by the Allied forces, and later it was divided into two parts.
5. The West Germany was controlled by Britain, France and America and the East Germany by Russia.
6. At the end of the war, Japan was occupied by American forces under General Mc. Arthur.
7. The war weakened Britain and France.
8. America and Russia emerged as super powers.
9. The war did not end totalitarianism in Russia. A cold war started between Russia and America.
10. The war quickened the phase of national movements in Asia and Africa.
11. India, Burma, Egypt, Ceylon and Malaya won their freedom from Britain.
12. Philippines got independence from America.
13. Indo-china got independence from France.
14. Indonesia got independence from the Dutch.
15. The European countries gave up the policy of colonialism and imperialism.
16. The United Nations Organisation was set up to maintain international peace and harmony. It works hard to maintain international co-operation and for the promotion of human welfare.

Question 2.
Write a note on international Monetary Fund (IMF).
Answer:

1. International Monetary Fund was established in 1945 after the Bretton Woods conference in 1944 along with the World Bank.
2. It is located in the Washington in United States.
3. The idea of starting of IMF was given by Harry Dexter, White and John Maynard Keynes, a famous economist.
4. The initial members of the IMF were 29. Now, there are 189 member countries with IMF,
5. The main objectives of IMF include to foster global monetary co-operation, to secure financial stability, to facilitate trade, promote employment, to sustain economic growth and reduce poverty all over the world.
6. The fund lends money to its member countries to correct their balance of payment position if they are unable to pay for their imports.
7. The funding from IMF is not very easy as it strictly imposes restrictions on lending.
8. It imposes the developing nations to tighten the budgets and reduce fiscal expenditure.

Question 3.
Write a note on the UN Commission of Human Rights.
Answer:

1. Human Rights means the fundamental freedom for all human beings without any differences in race, sex, language and religion.
2. The UN efforts to protect human rights on a global basis resulted in the formation of the UN commission on Human Rights.
3. A committee was set up for its formation. It was headed by the wife of FDR of USA, after his death.
4. The other members of the commission included Charles Malik from Lebanon, P.C.Chang from China, Rene Casin from France.
5. The Commission set forth with 30 articles.
6. The UN adopted this historic charter on 10th December 1948.
7. This day, the 10th December is observed as Human Rights Day all over the World.
8. According to the Franklin and Eleanor institute in New York, reports, from 1948 till now, nearly 90 National constitutions are part of this Human Rights Commission of UN.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World Between Two World Wars Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Heman Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Heman Cortes

Question 3.
Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 4.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 5.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 6.
Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd
(b) Smut
(c) Herzog
(d) Botha
Answer:
(a) Verwoerd

Question 7.
Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(b) Napoleonic Invasion

Question 8.
Name the President who made amendment to Monroe Doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America.
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ……………
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ……………
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in ……………
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as ……………
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May ……………
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for …………… years
7. …………… were a military nation.
8. Boers were also known as ……………

Answers:

1. Ferdinand Lassalle
2. Josef Goebbels
3. 1927
4. The Gestapo
5. 1910
6. 27
7. Aztecs
8. Afrikaners

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front.
(ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
(iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
(iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason (R): This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason (R): The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.
(a) Both A and R are right.
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the Following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
Answer:
In general, the various periods of violent repression led by the counter-revolutionary forces in any country is called as White terror. In Indo-China, when a large number of peasants revolted against the French government, . headed by the communists. It was crushed by the White terror. Many rebels were killed in this incident.

Question 2.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:
Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932. In this summit the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.

Question 3.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:
The president of the USA, Monroe declared that if any of the Europeans interfere anywhere in America, it would be equal to waging a war against the Americans. This threat frightened the European powers. By 1930, the whole of South America was free from European domination. This was called the Monroe Doctrine.

Question 4.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:
In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome. Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 5.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884-85.
Answer:
The Berlin colonial conference of 1884-85 put forward the idea that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.

Question 6.
How did Great Depression impact on Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The Great Depression had a deep impact on Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce, declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant, remained unchanged. In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.

Question 7.
Explain the reason for the Smuts-Herzog alliance.
Answer:
When the world economic depression affected South Africa very badly, Smuts believed that coalition Government was necessary to solve the economic problems of the country. Therefore, the South Africa party and the United party made an alliance in 1934. The alliance continued till 1939,

Question 8.
Define “Dollar Imperialism”.
Answer:
‘Dollar Imperialism’ is the term used to describe the policy of the USA in maintaining and dominating over distant lands through economic aid.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China

(a) Define the concept of decolonisation.
Answer:
Decolonisation is a process through which colonial powers transferred institutional and legal control over their colonies to indigenous nationalist government.

(b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China?
Answer:
Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.

(c) How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
Answer:
Communist ideas from mainland China helped in developing the spirit of anti-colonalism in Indo-china. Many became convinced that the considerable wealth of Ind-ochina was benefiting only the colonial power. This aroused the feeling of nationalism which resulted in violence. In 1916 there was a major anti-colonial revolt which was crushed brutally. There were also guerrilla activities in Tongking.

(d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
The mainstream political party in Indo-china was the Vietnam Nationalist Party. It was composed of the wealthy and middle-class sections of the population.

Question 2.
Ho Chi Minh

(a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.

(b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
Answer:
In the Paris peace conference, he insisted the right for Vietnam independence. His articles on newspapers the Pamphlet, “French colonialism on Trial’’, made him popular as a Vietnam nationalist.

(c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
Answer:
In 1923, he went to Moscow and learnt revolutionary techniques. In 1925, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement.

(d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
League for Independence was called as Viet Minh in Indo-China.

Question 3.
Political developments in South America

(a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
Answer:
By 1830 the whole of South America was free from European domination.

(b) How many republics came into being from Central America?
Answer:
Five republics came into being from the Central America.

(c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
Answer:
The USA occupied Cuba in the year 1898.

(d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
Economic growth, urbanisation and industrial growth in countries like Argentina, Chile, Brazil, and Mexico helped consolidate the hold of middle class and the emergence of militant working class oganisations. At the same time American power and wealth came to dominate Central and South America. These factors made olgarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

VII. Answer in Detail

1. Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany’s defeat and humiliation at the end of the first world war causa! great shock to the German people.
2. A group of seven men including Adolf Hitler met in Munich and founded the National Socialist German Worker’s party which was in short called as Nazi party.
3. His attempt to capture Bavaria in 1923.
4. His National Revolution on the outskirts of Munch took him to the prison.
5. There he wrote his autobiography. Mein Kampf (My struggle) which contained his political ideas.
6. In 1932, Presidential election, the communist party won but refused to collaborate with the social democratics.
7. Thereafter, Hitler became chancellor in 1933, when Von Hindenburg as president.
8. The Nazi state of Hitler, known as Third Reich brought an end to the parliamentary democracy.
9. Hitler replaced the Weimar Republic flag by Swastika symbol of Nazi party.
10. He declared all the other political parties except Nazi party as illegal.
11. He expanded his army of brown shirt and Jack booted wearing men.
12. He abolished trade unions, their leaders were arrested. Strikes become illegal, Labour Front was used by the state to control industry, State also controlled press, theatre, cinema, radio and over education.
13. Hitler secret police, The Gestapo was formed and run by Himmler, and second in command was Heydrich, who concentrated on army camps.
14. Hitler’s foreign policy aimed at restoring the armed strength of Germany.
15. All the above circumstances helped the rise of Hitler in Germany.

Question 2.
Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39).
Answer:
(i) The decolonisation process started in India with the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905. The outbreak of the First world war in 1914 brought about rapid political and economic changes.
(ii) In 1919, the Government of India Act introduced Dyarchy that provided for elected provinical assemblies as well as for Indian ministers to hold certain portfolios under transferred subjects. The Indian National Congress rejected the arrangements under Dyarchy and decided to boycott the legislature.
(iii) The Government of British India provided incentives for the British iron and steel industry by guaranteeing purchasing contracts. But in case of indigenous industries, support was only in the form of providing ‘technical advice and education’ and the establishment of pioneer factories in new industries sponsored by the government.
(iv) The Government of British India also raised revenue tariffs in the Depression years to gain foreign currency earnings. Britain’s need for gold in the crisis years was met from the export of gold from India. By overvaluing Indian currency, the British made imports cheaper. The currency exchange policy pursued by the British government fuelled tensions between the colonial government and its subjects, and intensified the political agitation against British rule.
(v) The Great Depression shattered Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant remained intact. The great fall in prices prompted Indian nationalists to demand protection for internal economy. The 1930s saw the emergence of the Indian National Congress as a militant mass movement.

Question 3.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

1. The two main political parties in South Africa were:
   • (a) The Unionist party which was mainly British and
   • (b) The south Africa party which had mainly Afrikaners (or) Boers.
2. Botha was the first Prime Minister who belonged to the South African party ruled in co-operation with the British.
3. But, the militant section of the South African party formed the National party under Herzog.
4. In 1912, The African national Congress was formed by Nelson Mandela. But it was banned and he was put into prison for 27 years.
5. In 1920 elections, the National Party won, with 44 seats..
6. Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of Whites over the Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
7. The South African party was led by smuts, secured 41 seats.
8. In this moment, the Unionist party and the South African party merged together. Therefore Smuts gained majority over National party.
9. In 1924 elections, National party won supported by the Labour Movement, (composed of white miners)
10. The Act passed in 1924 prevented blacks from joining trade Unions. Native blacks suffered in Social, Political and Economic spheres.
11. The Great Economic depression brought sufferings to South Africa, therefore, the South African party and the Nationalist party unite in 1934. This smuts-Herzog alliance lasted till 1939.
12. Herzog resigned when the parliament decided infavour of second world war.
13. Smuts continued as prime minister. When Herzog died, many from that party joined the nationalist.
14. Therefore, in 1948, election Reunified National party won over United party.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Each student may be asked to write an assignment on how each sector and each section of population in the USA came to be affected by the Stock Market Crash in 1929.
Answer:
Agriculture sector: The prices of the agricultural crops dropped, so low that many farmers became bankrupt and lost their farms. Livestock was the main source of cash. Com was used to feed Cattle and Pigs. But nothing could help them.

Banking Sector: Confidence in the economy was shattered, Wall street and the banks were no longer seen as reliable. Many refused to put money into stocks. The Federal Reserve did not give aid to banks and small banks collapsed.

Industrial sector: As the country’s economy worsened, local industries affected badly. Production went down. Factories closed. Workers remain unemployed. Almost 15 million people were out of work.

Political Sector: The depression affected politics badly people started disliking Herbert Hoover, the president and his type of laissez faire economics. People voted for Franklin Roosevelt. There was dangerous high U.S debt.

Question 2.
A group project work on Vietnam War is desirable. An album or pictures, portraying the air attacks of the US on Vietnam and the brave resistance put up by the Vietnamese may be prepared.
Answer:
Vietnam war: During the 1950’s and 1960’s the United states fought war to stop communism. Vietnam was a French colony since 1880. They fought for independence and won in 1954. The country was split into North Vietnam and South Vietnam. The United states helped south Vietnam with men and materials. The North Vietnam could control South Vietnam.

In 1969, Richard Nixon, became the president of Vietnam. He started bringing more soldiers into force U.S also increased bombing of North Vietnam. Later, in 1973, they agreed to a cease fire. North, South Vietnamese and U.S.A agreed to stop the war. U.S.A returned home. But communism was not stopped in Vietnam.

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World Between Two World Wars Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The …………… change the political conditions in several countries.
(a) Fascism
(b) Nazism
(c) Depression
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(c) Depression

Question 2.
The Greatest craze in America was
(a) Trade
(b) Gambling
(c) Share market
Answer:
(c) Share market

Question 3.
HO-Chi-Minh was greatly influenced by the …………… ideas, that he made him to return to Indo China.
(a) Mas-Tse-Tung
(b) Hitler
(c) Bismarck
(d) Tonking
Answer:
(a) Mas-Tse-Tung

Question 4.
The founder of the fascist party was
(a) Adolf Hitler
(b) Benito Mussolini
(c) Stalin
Answer:
(b) Benito Mussolini

Question 5
…………… became the first Caribbean country to throw off slavery and French Colonial control.
(a) Haiti
(b) Mayapan
(c) Portugal
(d) Lisbon
Answer:
(a) Haiti

Question 6
The great relief was provided to the workers by
(a) ILO
(b) Factory Act
(c) Charter of Labour
Answer:
(c) Charter of Labour

Question 7.
The stock market crash took place in New York in the year:
(a) 1940
(b) 1939
(c) 1929
(d) 1909
Answer:
(c) 1929

Question 8
The Allied armies occupied the resources rich
(a) Rhineland
(b) Green land
(c) Sudentenland
Answer:
(a) Rhineland

Question 9.
In 1923, Hitler attempted to capture power in
(a) Munich
(b) Bavaria
(c) Leipzig
(d) Weimar
Answer:
(b) Bavaria

Question 10.
For some time Hitler was a
(a) Painter
(b) Teacher
(c) Tailor
Answer:
(a) Painter

Question 11.
About six million jews in Europe were killed and the Nazis termed it as:
(a) The final solution
(b) Concentraion camps
(c) Security
(d) Foreign policy
Answer:
(a) The final solution

Question 12.
The Allies were strengthened by the entry of
(a) Austria
(b) America
(c) Poland
Answer:
(b) America

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The unjust nature of the treaty of ………….. led to the rise of fascism in Italy and Germany.
2. Hitler developed violent political base against …………..
3. The Nazi state of Hitler was called as …………..
4. The Social Democratic party played a major role in the formation of the ………….. republic.
5. ………….. in his early days, worked as a cook in a London hotel and later lead a war against USA.
6. The two independent Boer states were Transvaal and the …………..
7. The Act of ………….. made it impossible for the blacks to acquire land in most of their country.
8. The voting right to Blacks was abolished in the …………..
9. The decrease in the value of a Country’s currency is called as …………..
10. Countries in the ………….. agreed to convert paper money into fixed amount of gold.
11. The secret police of Hitler was formed and run by …………..
12. Mein Kampf means …………..
13. A Spaniard named ………….. collapsed the Aztec empire.
14. ………….. declared Brazil’s independence from Portugal.
15. The doctrine of ………….. amended by Roosevelt authorised US intervention in Latin America.

Answers:

1. Versailles
2. Jews
3. Third Reich
4. Weimar
5. Ho-Chi-Minh
6. Orange Free States
7. 1913
8. Cape province
9. devaluation
10. gold standard
11. Himmler
12. My struggle
13. Herman cortes
14. Pedro I
15. 1904

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The depression changed the political conditions in several countries.
(ii) Mussolini was an elementary school master initially and later became a political journalist with socialistic ideas.
(iii) During World War I, Hitler served the Italian army.
(iv) With the fall of Mussolini, the social democratic party was revived.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) Only (Hi) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Decolonisation process was quickened during the Inter-war period in India.
(ii) The Munroe Doctrine prevented Colonisation of Latin American countries by European powers.
(iii) The economic slump originated in USA in 1929 affected all the countries of
(iv) British setup the Union of South Africa, which was racist in nature.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (in) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) in 1930, Civil disobedience Movement evoked tremendous response in rural India.
(ii) The decision of Britain to involve Indians in the Second World War was a welcoming effect from the Congress Ministry.
(iii) The Ottawa Submit of 1931, helped the colonies to give preference to non-imperial goods.
(iv) Decolonisation process started in India with the introduction of Swadeshi movement in 1905.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The American and French Revolutions provided inspirations to the Latin Americans.
(ii) Latin American nationalists fought not only with Spain and Portugal but also among each other.
(iii) U.S.A protected the South American republics from Europe.
(iv) U.S.A rejected its right to intervene in Cuban internal affairs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) aid (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After World War I, there was worldwide credit contraction and break down of the International system of exchange.
Reason (R): Many countries left the gold standard and followed devaluation of the currency.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In 1990, the ban on ANC was lifted and Mandela was freed.
Reason (R): Apartheid is based on the belief that the political equality of white and black in South Africa would mean Black rule.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Jews were removed from Government positions, deprived of citizenship and their establishments were attacked.
Reason (R): Hitler had developed violent political biases against Jews.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. ”
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Britain transmitted the effects of depression to its colonies. Reason (R): The great depression of 1929 favoured Britain trade and business.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not fhe correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Aztecs form Mexico conquered Maya country and ruled for nearly 200 years.
Reason (R): Spaniards, especially Hernan Cortes and Pizarro helped Aztecs to conquer Maya country.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

V. Match the Followings

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Why did Fascism emerged in Italy and Germany?
Answer:

1. The first world war gravely weakened the European powers. The trade and financial imbalances left by the war created instabilities throughout the world.
2. The conflict between the working and ruling classes that controlled the government became intense. As a result of this Fascism emerged in Italy and Germany.

Question 2.
How did FDR tackle economic depression?
Answer:

1. The policy formulated to tackle the economic depression by FDR was known as New Deal.
2. It includes Relief, Recovery and Reforms.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Gold Standard?
Answer:
It is a monetary system where a country’s currency value is directly linked to gold. Countries in the Gold standard agreed to convert paper money into a fixed amount of gold.

Question 4.
What are the four pillars of fascism?
Answer:

1. Charismatic Leadership
2. Single party rule under a dictator
3. Terror
4. Economic control

Question 5.
Who were called as Boers?
Answer:
The descendants of original Dutch settlers of South Africa, also known as Afrikaners were called Boers. Their language is Afrikaans. The Boers hated those people whom they referred to as Uitlanders (foreigners).

Question 6.
How did Mussolini seize power?
Answer:

1. On October 30, 1922, the fascists organized a march to Rome and showed their strength.
2. The Government surrendered and the emperor Victor Emanuel III invited Mussolini to form the Government.
3. The fascists seized power without bloodshed under the leadership of Mussolini.

Question 7.
What is meant by Good Neighbour policy.
Answer:
It was the policy of USA after 1933, put forward by Franklin Roosevelt, the president of America. According to the policy, USA would not intervene in the internal affairs of any state and would give economic and technical . assistance to Latin America.

Question 8.
How did Mussolini put an end to the conflict between the pope and King?
Answer:

1. In 1929, Mussolini signed the Latern Treaty with the Pope.
2. By this treaty Mussolini recognized the papacy of the Pope in the Vatican city and the Pope recognized the sovereigty of the King in Rome.
3. Thus the 60 years conflict between Papacy and the Italian Government came to an end.

Question 9.
Define Oligarchy.
Answer:
Oligarchy can be defined as a small group of people having control of a country.

VII. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Fascist Party
(a) Who was the founder of the Fascist party?
Answer:
Benito Mussolini

(b) Write the slogans of Mussolini.
Answer:
“Believe, Obey, Fight” and “The More Force, The More Honour”.

(c) What were the aims of Fascism?
Answer:

1. Exaltation of the state.
2. Protection of private property.
3. Spirited foreign policy.

(d) What was the motto of Fascism?
Answer:

1. Everything within the state.
2. Nothing against the state.
3. Nothing outside the state.

Question 2.
Mussolini

(a) When did Mussolini joined the Fascist party?
Answer:
When the fascist party was founded in 1919, he immediately joined the . fascist party.

(b) What did Mussolini organise?
Answer:
Mussolini organise the Fascist March on Rome and showed his force and strength in October 1922.

(c) How was he called?
Answer:
He was called as Duce (the leader) by his followers.

(d) What was made the religion of Italy?
Answer:
The Roman Catholic faith was made the religion of Italy.

Question 3.
Hitler’s Aggressive policy

(a) Why did Hitler conquer territories?
Answer:
Hitler conquered territories to accommodate the growing population and to accumulate resources.

(b) How did he violated the Lacarno treaty of 1925?
Answer:
In 1936, he reoccupied Rhine Land by violating the Lacamo treaty of 1925.

(c) What did he demanded from Poland?
Answer:
Hitler demanded the right to construct a military road connecting East Prussia with Germany through Poland and also the surrender of Danzig.

(d) When did he declared war on Poland?
Answer:
Hitler declared war on Poland on 1st September 1939.

Question 4.
Social Democratic Party

(a) When and where was the social Democratic party founded?
Answer:
Social Democratic party was founded on 23rd May 1863 in Leipzig by Ferdinand Lassalle.

(b) Why did Bismarck out lawed this party from 1878 to 1890?
Answer:
The German superior group of people considered the very existence of the party is a threat to the Security and stability of the newly formed Reich. .

(c) What happened to the social democrats when the party was outlawed?
Answer:
The social democrats were arrested and sent to concentration camps.

(d) When was the party revived?
Answer:
With the fall of Hitler, in 1945 the social Democratic party was revived.

Question 5.
Boer War

(a) Who were called as Boers?
Answer:
The descendants of original Dutch settlers of South Africa, were called as Boers.

(b) With whom did the Boers fought with?
Answer:
Boers fought with British and the last started for three years 1899-1902. British won finally.

(c) What were the states annexed by the British?
Answer:
The British annexed the two Boer states, the Transvaal and Orange free state,

(d) What happened to the two states of Boers and two colonies of British?
Answer:
The four states formed into a union of South Africa in May 1910.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Narrate the emergence of Mussolini and his triumph.
Answer:

1. After the treaty of Versailes, in 1919, Italian socialists proclaimed that they follow communism in Russia (Bolsheviks)
2. As a powerful speaker, he supported the use of violence and broke with socialists when they opposed Italy’s entry into the war.
3. In 1919, when Fascist party was founded, he joined it.
4. Fascist raised in strength with support of ex-soldiers, Industrialists and youth.
5. In 1922, he led a march to Rome and showed the king, his force and strength.
6. Impressed by that, the king invited Mussolini to form the government.
7. He advocated dictatorship, and radical authority called as Fascism.
8. In 1924 elections, Fascist secured 65% of votes.
9. When the fairness of the elections were questioned by Matteotti, a socialist leader, he was murdered and opposition party was banned.
10. Assuming the title of Duce in 1926, he became the dictator.
11. In 1929, he signed the Lateran treaty with pope and won over the Roman Catholic church by transferring the Vatican city as an Independent state.
12. He passed law forbidding strikes and locks outs.
13. In 1938, parliament was abolished and was replaced by a body representing the fascist party.

Question 2.
How did Hitler establish Nazi rule in Germany?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler:
He was born in 1889 in Austria. His father was a customs officer. He lost his parents from his earlyhood. So he went to Vienna for job and was a painter for sometime. During the First World War, he joined the army and fought bravely for which he was awarded the Iron cross.

Rise of Nazis party:
After the war, Hitler did not get any job. So he organized a group of men called the National socialists in 1919, which became the Nazist party.

Beer Hall Revolution:

1. In 1923, he made attempt to capture power. It was known as “Beer Hall Revolution”. But he failed in his attempt.
2. He was arrested for high treason and sentenced to five years imprisonment.
3. While he was in prison he wrote a book called “Mein Kampf” (My struggle), which became the Bible of the Nazis.

Capture of power:
Under the inspiring leadership of Hitler, the Nazi party grew in power and number.

1. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party became the 2nd largest group in the German parliament.
2. In 1933, the Nazists became the largest party in the German parliament and Hitler became the Chancellor and Hindenburg as president.
3. On the death of President Hindenburg, he made himself as President and Chancellor.
4. He abolished the Weimar Republic and himself became a dictator.

Question 3.
How did the Munroe Doctrine protected the South American Republics?
Answer:

1. When European kings wanted to help the king of Spain to crush the revolutionaries in the South America Colonies, America Interfered.
2. The President of the USA, Munroe declared that if Europeans interfered anywhere in America, North or South, it is equal to wage a war against the United states.
3. The threat of the president of USA frightened the European powers.
4. By this, in 1830, the whole of South America was free from European domination.
5. In 1898, after defeating the Spanish, USA occupied Cuba and Puerto Rico.
6. USA retained its right to intervene in Cuban internal affairs.
7. Later Roosevelt made an important amendment to the Munroe doctrine in 1904. It authorized U.S, Intervention in Latin America.
8. Thus, the Munroe Doctrine protected the American continent from European affairs.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

Question 2.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Question 3.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 4.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 5.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare
(b) trench warfare
(c) submarine warfare
(d) ship warfare
Answer:
(b) trench warfare

Question 6.
Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 7.
To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belongs?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 8.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Japan forced a war on China in the year ……………….
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ………………. signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ……………….
4. In the Balkans ………………. had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg ………………. suffered heavy losses.
6. ………………. as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. ………………. became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ………………..

Answers:

1. 1894
2. London
3. 1902
4. Macedonia
5. Russia
6. Clemenceau
7. Kerensky
8. 1925

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
(ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
(iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
(iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason (R): Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason (R): There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
How do you assess the importance of Sino-Japanese War?
Answer:
Sino-Japanese war took place in the years 1894 – 1895. China was defeated in the war. Japan annexed the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur inspite of warning given by three great powers, Russia, Germany and France. By this Japan had proved that it was the strongest nation of the East – Asia.

Question 2.
Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Answer:
Britain, France and Russia.

Question 3.
What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
Answer:
The three militant forms of nationalism were, England’s Jingoism, France’s Chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur.

Question 4.
What do you know of trench warfare?
Answer:
Trench warfare is a type of land warfare using occupied fighting lines consisting largely of military trenches, in which troops are well-protected from the enemy’s small arms fire and are substantially sheltered from artillery. It is a warfare in which opposing armed forces attack, counterattack, and defend from relatively permanent systems of trenches dug in the ground.

Question 5.
What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Answer:
When Britian attacked Turkey directly and tried to capture Constantinople, Turks put up a brave fight and Mustafa Kemal Pasha played a great role to win freedom for the country. He put an end to the sultanate and caliphate. He modernized it and changed it out for recognition.

Question 6.
Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution fired people’s imagination across the world. In many countries, communist parties were formed. The Russian communist government encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom and gave all support to them. Debates over key issues, land reforms, social welfare, workers’ rights, and gender equality taking place in a global context.

Question 7.
List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
League did not had the military power of its own , it could not enforce its decisions. Even though, it had world wide membership it become very much the center of European diplomacy.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Imperialism
(a) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
(b) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
(c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
(d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
(a) Capitalism based on the principle of free -trade without any control or regulation by the state is called monopoly Capitalism.
(b) Japan emerged as an imperial power by annexing the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur inspite of warning given by Russia, Germany and France.
(c) Because colonies acted as a market for surplus goods and vast supplies of raw materials.
(d) Capitalism produced extreme poverty and extreme wealth. Slum and skyscraper. Empire state and dependent exploited colony.

Question 2.
German Emperor

(a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
Answer:
Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.

(b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
Answer:
It was called Germany’s Kultur.

(c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
Answer:
The British agreement with France over the latter’s interest in Morocco was consented by Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany intentionally recognised the independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to decide on the future of Morocco.

(d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were attacked by the Allies. As these colonies were quite far off from Germany they could not receive any immediate help, and therefore had to surrender to the Allies.

Question 3.
Balkan Wars
(a) Why was Balkan League formed?
(b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
(c) Who were defeated in this war?
(d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
(a) To control Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro in succeeding Balkans from Turks, in March 1912 the Balkan League was formed.
(b) The Balkan League defeated the Turkish forces in the 1st Balkan war.
(c) Turkey and Bulgaria were defeated in this war.
(d) Treaty of Bucharest in August 1913.

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:
The causes of the First World War are given below:

1. Formation of European alliances and counter alliances
2. Emergence of violent forms of nationalism in countries like England, France and Germany
3. Aggressive attitude of the German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II
4. Hostility of France towards Germany
5. Opportunity for imperial power politics in the Balkans
6. The Balkans wars
7. Immediate cause which included the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, nephew and heir to Franz Joseph, Emperor of Austria-Hungary, by Princip, a Bosnian Serb, on 28 June 1914.

Question 2.
Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. All the central powers were directed to pay war indemnity especially Germany was to pay heavy amount for the losses suffered.
2. Germany had to pay 6,600 million pounds as per the Reparation Commission, but can be paid in installments.
3. The Germans should not have submarines and airforce, but can have a small navy and an army of one lakh men.
4. Austria and Germany separated and Austria was given independence.
5. All German colonies came under the mandated territories of League of nations.
6. Germany had to give up all her overseas possessions, rights and titles to the allies.
7. Germany surrendered Alsace-Lorraine to France.
8. She signed the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk with Russia and the treaty of Bucharest with Bulgaria.
9. Rhineland was to be occupied by the allies. East of Rhineland area was to be demilitarised.
10. Poland was recreated with a corridor to Baltic containing the port of Danzig of Germany.

Question 3.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

1. Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out in Russia. He wanted to continued revolution.
2. His slogan of “All power to the Soviets” soon won over the workers’ leaders. Devastated by war time shortages, the people were attracted by the slogan of ‘Bread, Peace and Land’.
3. In October Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on immediate revolution. Trotsky prepared a detailed plan
4. On 7 November the key government buildings, including the Winter Palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters, were seized by armed factory workers and revolutionary troops
5. On 8 November 1917a new Communist government was in office in Russia. Its head this time was Lenin. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 4.
Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
Answer:

1. League of nations was formed in 1920 with the twin objective of avoiding war and to maintain peace in the world.
2. The main work done by the League was to solve the dispute arose between Sweden and Finland over the sovereignity of Aaland Island. It ruled that the island should go to Finland.
3. League solved the frontier dispute between Poland and Germany in upper Silesia.
4. When dispute arose between Greece and Bulgaria in 1925, Greece invaded Bulgaria and the League ordered a ceasefire.
5. League had been successful in signing the Locarno Treaty in 1925 by which Germany,France, Belgium, Great Britain and Italy mutually guaranteed peace in Western Europe.
6. The main reason for the failure of the League was Italy, Japan and Germany headed by dictators refused to be bound by the orders of the League and started violation and League rules.
7. When League condemned the violation, they withdrew their membership.
8. League did not had a military power of its own.
9. Though it had a world-wide membership, it became the center of European diplomacy.
10. The League remained a passive witness to events, issues and incidents of violations therefore finally dissolved in 1946.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to mark the places of battles and the capital cities of the countries that were engaged in the War.
Answer:
(a) Battles of I World war:
(i) Battle of Tannenberg
(ii) Battle of Marne
(iii) Battle of Gallipoli
(iv) Battle of Jutland
(v) Battle of Verdun
(vi) Battle of Passchendaele
(vii) Battle of Caporetto
(viii) Battle of Cambrai
(ix) Battle of the Somme.

(b) Capital cities of countries engaged in the IWW.
Central powers & Capital:
(i) Germany – Berlin
(ii) Austria – Vienna
(iii) Hungary – Budapest
(iv) Italy – Rome
(v) Ottoman Empire – Istanbul, Bursa, Edirne, Sogut
(vi) Bulgaria – Sofia
(vii) Tu rkey – An ka ra
Allies- Capital:
(i) Great Britain – London
(ii) France – Paris
(iii) Russia – Moscow
(iv) Italy – Rome
(v) United States – Washington D. C

Question 2.
An assignment or a project work on the role of Indian soldiers in different battle fields across the globe and the casualties they suffered during the War be attempted by the students.
Answer:
During the War, the Indian Army contributed a large number of divisions and independent brigades to the European, Mediterranean and the Middle East. The Indian Army fought against the German Empire in German East Africa and on the Western Front. Indian divisions were also sent to Egypt, Gallipoli and nearly 700,000 served in Mesopotamia against the Ottoman Empire. While some divisions were sent overseas others had to remain in India guarding the North West Frontier and on internal security and training duties.

In addition to the permanent divisions, the Indian Army also formed a number of independent brigades. As part of the Southern Army the Aden Brigade was stationed in the Aden Protectorate on the strategically important naval route from Europe to India, where there was limited fighting.

The Bannu Brigade, the Derajat Brigade and the Kohat Brigade were all part of the Northern Army and they were deployed along the North West Frontier. The South Persia Brigade was formed in 1915 at the start of the Persian Campaign to protect the Anglo- Persian oil installations in south Persia and the Persian Gulf.

On the outbreak of war, the Indian Army had 150,000 trained men and the Indian Government offered the services of two cavalry and two infantry divisions for service overseas. The force known as Indian Expeditionary Force A was attached to the British Expeditionary Force and the four divisions were formed into two army corps: an infantry Indian Corps and the Indian Cavalry Corps.

Indian Expeditionary Force B consisted of the 27th (Bangalore) Brigade from the 9th (Secunderabad) Division and an Imperial Service Infantry Brigade, a pioneer battalion, a mountain artillery battery and engineers were sent to Tanganyika with the task of invading German East Africa. Force C was formed from the Indian Army’s 29th Punjabis, together with half battalions from the Princely states of Jind, Bharatpur, Kapurthala and Rampur. The largest Indian Army force to serve abroad was the Indian Expeditionary Force D in Mesopotamia, under the command of Lieutenant-General Sir John Nixon.

Over one million Indian troops served overseas, of whom 62,000 died and another 67,000 were wounded. In total at least 74,187 Indian soldiers died during the War. Field-Marshal Sir Claude Auchinleck, Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from 1942, commented that the British “couldn’t have come through both wars [World War I and II] if they hadn’t had the Indian Army.”

IX. Map Work

Mark the following countries on the world map.

1. Great Britain
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
5. Morocco
6. Turkey
7. Serbia
8. Bosnia
9. Greece
10. Austria-Hungary
11. Bulgaria
12. Rumania

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Treaty of serves was signed with:
(a) Austria
(b) Hungary
(c) Turkey
(d) Bulgaria
Answer:
(c) Turkey

Question 2.
The policy of imperialism followed by the European countries from 1870-1945 was known as ……
(a) New imperialism
(b) Military imperialism
(c) Neo-imperialism
Answer:
(a) New imperialism

Question 3.
President Woodrow Wilson put forward ………….. points in the League of nations.
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(d) 14

Question 4.
With a modem army and navy, ….. had emerged as an advanced industrialised
power.
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Italy
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 5.
Germany surrendered in:
(a) 1917
(b) 1918
(c) 1919
(d) 1916
Answer:
(b) 1918

Question 6.
The ‘Sphere of influence’ was adopted by the European countries in ……
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7
………….. is the name of the parliament of Russia.
(a) Tsar
(b) Trotsky
(c) Duma
(d) Rasputin.
Answer:
(c) Duma

Question 8.
The word “Imperialism” is derived from ……
(a) Greek
(b) German
(c) Latin
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 9.
Nicholas II abdicated from his throne on ……………. 1917.
(a) March 12
(b) March 15
(c) November 18
(d) October 14
Answer:
(b) March 15

Question 10.
The development of ……. speeded the movements of goods between colonies and other countries.
(a) Roadways
(b) Waterways
(c) Railways
Answer:
(c) Railways

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The biggest outcome of the first world war was the …………….
2. The Trust is an industrial organisation in the …………….
3. The Imperialist Prime Minister of South Africa was called …………….
4. Cartel means ……………. of enterprises in the same field of business.
5. The treaty of ……………. was signed after the Russo-Japanese war and Japan got back port Arthur.
6. The violent form of nationalism in Germany was called as …………….
7. France and Germany were old …………….
8. The enemity between and led to the outbreak of war in 1914.
9. The new state of Albania was created according to the treaty of ……………. signed in 1913.
10. Russia suffered heavy loses in the battle of …………….
11. Trench warfare was the style followed in the battle of …………….
12. Russia signed the treaty of ……………. with Germany.
13. Italy formally joined the allies in …………….
14. Battle of Jutland is a ……………. battle.
15. ……………. is the name of the American ship sunk by Germany.
16. ……………. was one of the principle in the fourteen points of Paris peace conference.
17. The war conditions led to the ……………. movement in India.
18. ……………. modernised Turkey and changed it out of all recognition.
19. £ is the symbol of …………….
20. The Bolshevik party was renamed as ……………. party.

Answers:

1. Russian Revolution
2. USA
3. Cecil Rhodes
4. Association
5. Portsmouth
6. Kultur
7. Rivals
8. Austria and Serbia
9. London
10. Tannenburg
11. Marne
12. Brest Litovsk
13. 1916
14. Naval
15. Lusitania
16. Self determination
17. Home Rule
18. Pound sterling
19. Kemal Pasha
20. Russian communist

III. Choose the correct statements.

Question 1.
(i) The Industrial achievements of Germany in the later half of the 19th Century gave her a dominating position in Europe.
(ii) When Germany came to the scene of exploitation, it became weak in its military power.
(iii) When there was nowhere else to expand, imperialist countries grab other’s possession.
(iv) Russia, Britain and France joined in the scramble for colonies.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are wrong
(c) (ii) and (iv) are wrong
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are wrong

Question 2.
(i) The Central powers consisted of Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey and Bulgaria.
(ii) Italy strongly supported Germany.
(iii) In April 1916, Britain, France and Italy signed the Treaty of London.
(iv) Italy agreed to enter the war against the central powers in-return of this territory after the war.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Trenches are ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers.
(ii) It was done to protect themselves from enemy fire.
(iii) The battle of Jutland is a memorable one for Trench war fare.
(iv) Trench system used in the first world war consisted of six to seven trench lines running parallel to each other.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The main provision of the Versailles treaty was that all central powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
(ii) All the German colonies became mandated territories under the League of nations.
(iii) The Saar coal mine was given to Bulgaria.
(iv) Northern Schleswig was given to France.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Triple Alliance was signed in 1882 between Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.
(ii) Entente cordiale was signed in 1906 between Britain and Russia.
(iii) Triple Entente was signed between Britain, France and Russia.
(iv) The Britain violation of Belgian neutrality forced German to enter the war.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Inspite of warning of the three great powers, Russia, Germany and France, Japan annexed the Liaotung Peninsula with Port Arthur.
Reason (R): Japan proved that it was the strongest nation of the East Asia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Two peace conferences were held at the Hague in Holland in 1899 and in 1907.
Reason (R): Lenin of Russia wanted to bring Universal peace and suggested these conferences.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Italy formally joined with the allies fighting with Austria, initially sustained, but finally collapsed.
Reason (R): Germans came to Austria’s help.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): In Germany and Austria, women and children suffered from hunger and privation.
Reason (R): Aeroplanes were used for bombing targeted Civilian population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Marxists in Russia had the fortune of getting Lenin as their leader.
Reason (R): Tsar Nicholas li was under the strong influence of his wife Alexandra.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The League of nations could apply the principle of collective security.
Reason (R): It was supported by Italy, Japan and Germany.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What was the aim of the capitalist countries?
Answer:
The aim of the capitalistic countries was to produce more and more. The surplus wealth that was produced was used to build more factories, railways, steamship and other such undertakings.

Question 2.
What is colonialism?
Answer:
(i) Colonialism refers to the policy of acquiring and maintaining colonies especially for exploitation.
(ii) It also means that it is a relationship between an indigenous majority and a minority foreign invaders.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause of the first world war?
Answer:
The nephew and heir to Franz Joseph, Emperor of Austria-Hungary. The Arch duke Franz Ferdinand was killed by Princip a Serbian of Bosnia. This was the immediate cause as Austria got help from Germany and Serbia got help from Russia. Thus the war began in 1914.

Question 4.
How did China became an International colony?
Answer:

1. The Boers were defeated by foreign powers.
2. When they reached Peking, the capital of China, Empress Dowager fled from the capital,
3. The U.S.A. and England formulated the Open Door Policy or Me Too Policy.
4. The Chinese territories were partitioned among the foreign powers for trade rights. Thus China became an international colony.

Question 5.
What do you understand by Paris peace conference?
Answer:
The Paris peace conference held in January 1919 two months after the signing of the armistice.
Woodrow Wilson of America and Lloyd George of Britain were the important personalities. On 28 June 1919, the peace treaty was signed in The Hall of Mirrors at Versailles.

Question 6.
What was the immediate cause of the First World War?
Answer:

1. In 1908, Austria annexed Bosnia and Herzegovina against the Congress of Berlin.
2. Austrian Prince Francis Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated at Sarajevo on June 28, 1914.
3. Austria sent an ultimatum to Serbia, but Serbia ignored it.
4. So Austria declared war on Serbia on 28th July 1914.

Question 7.
Write the slogans raised by Lenin that attracted soviet people.
Answer:
“All power to the soviets” and “Bread, Peace and Land” were the slogans raised by Lenin that attracted the soviet people who were devastated by war time shortages.

Question 8.
Write any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles.
Answer:

1. A huge war indemnity was imposed on Germany. Her army was reduced.
2. The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.

Question 9.
Write any two objectives of the League.
Answer:
The two main objective of the League of Nations was (i) To avoid war and to maintain peace in the world, (ii) To promote international co-operation in economic and social affairs.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The fall of monarch in February 1917 and the events of October are known as the Russian Revolution.

Question 11.
What is Duma? Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
Answer:
An elective legislative assembly established in 1905 by Nicholas II in Russia is known as Duma. Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority, so he dismissed the first Duma within 75 days.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

1. Characteristics of Imperialism

(a) What led to concept of Imperialism?
Answer:
Capitalism inevitably led to the concept of Imperialism.

(b) What was Lenin idea on Imperialism?
Answer:
According to Lenin, imperialism is the highest stage of Capitalism.

(c) What were the purposes for which the colonies were made use of?
Answer:
The colonies served as a market for goods and also vast suppliers of raw materials like cotton, Rubber etc.

(d) What was the logic behind Imperialism apart from colonisation?
Answer:
The logic behind Imperialism apart from colonisation was, total militarisation and total war.

2. The ambition of Germany

(а) Who was the ruler of Germany during the First World War?
Answer:
Kaiser Wilhelm II.

(b) What did he believe?
Answer:
He believed that Germany alone was competent to rule the whole world.

(c) What could not be tolerated by him?
Answer:
He could not tolerate the British saying that the Sun never sets in the British Empire.

3. Naval Battles

(a) Name the Naval battle that took place in 1916?
Answer:
In 1916, the Naval battle had taken place in the North sea called as Battle of Jutland.

(b) Which country started the Sub-marine warfare thereafter?
Answer:
Germany started their Submarine warfare thereafter.

(c) Name the ship that bombarded Madras?
Answer:
The ship that bombarded Madras was the famous Emden ship.

(d) Name the American ship torpedoed by a German Submarine.
Answer:
Lusitania, an American ship was torpedoed by a German Submarine.

4. Course of the First World War

(a) Give the duration of the First World War.
Answer:
From July 28, 1914 to November 11, 1918.

(b) Who were called the Central Powers?
Answer:
The countries which were on the side of Germany were called the Central Powers.

(c) Who were called the Allies?
Answer:
The countries which were on the side of Britain were called as the Allies.

(d) What and all were used in war?
Answer:
Artillery, Tanks and submarines were used in the war.

5. Lenin

(a) Where was he born?
Answer:
Lenin was bom in 1870 near the middle Volga to educated parents.

(b) What was his belief?
Answer:
Lenin believed that the wav for freedom was through mass action.

(c) When and why was he arrested?
Answer:
He was arrested in 1895 and kept in Serbia for encouraging the ideas of Marxism to the factory workers in St. Petersburg.

(d) How did he form the Bolshevik party?
Answer:
Lenin gained the support of small majority called Bolshmstvo known as Bolsheviks which later became the Bolshevik party.

6. Results of the war

(a) How were the terms of the treaties drafted?
Answer:
Based upon the fourteen points of the American President Woodrow Wilson.

(b) What did Germany surrendered to France?
Answer:
Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to Europe.

(c) Where was monarchy abolished?
Answer:
In Germany, Russia, Austria and Turkey.

(d) Name the new Republics.
Answer:
Czechoslovakia and Poland.

VIII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the structure and composition of its League of Nations.
Answer:

1. The covenant of the League of Nations was formed at the Paris peace conference after the first world war.
2. President of USA -Woodrow Wilson largely supported for this task to be accomplished.
3. The structure of the League consist of the Assembly, the council, the Secretariat, the permanent court of Justice and the International Labour organization.
4. Each member country was represented in the Assembly.
5. Each member country’ and had one vote and also possessed the right of veto.
6. Britain, France, Italy, Japan and United States were originally declared permanent members of the council.
7. The council was the executive of the League.
8. The staff of the secretariat was appointed by the Secretary General in consultation with the council.
9. The court of Justice consisted of fifteen Judges.
10. The International Labour organization comprised a Secretariat. The general conference will include four representatives from each country.
11. The first secretary general of League of Nations was Sir Eric Drummond from Britain.

Question 2.
What were the results of the first world war?
Answer:
The Paris Peace Conference:

1. The first world war came to an end by the Paris Peace Conference of 1919.
2. The city of Danzig was internationlized.
3. Lithuvania, Latvia and Estonia were granted independence.

The formation of the League of Nations:

1. The first world war brought untold miseries to people.
2. All the nations wanted a permanent body to maintain peace in the world. So the League of Nations was formed in 1920.
3. The victorious nations forced the defeated nations with unfair treaties. It sowed the seed for the second world war.

Question 3.
What was the impact of First world war on India?
Answer:

1. The first world war had multiple effects on the Indian economy, society and politics.
2. Indians had taken an active part in the war on the side of Britain, believing that they would reward Independence after the war.
3. But also, disappointment was rewarded to the Indians.
4. Indian soldiers asked to serve in Europe, Africa and West Asia.
5. India contributed £230 million in cash and over £125 million in loan towards war expenses.
6. India also sent war materials to the value of £ 250 million .
7. There were economic distress all over the country.
8. Towards the end of the war, India suffered under the world wide epidemic of influenza.
9. Home Rule Movement arose in India due to the war conditions.
10. The congress split of extremists and moderates reunited.
11. The Ottoman Empire under the Turkish Sultan was defeated in World war I and the territories shared between Britain and France.
12. This led to the formation of Khilafat Movement in India.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will ______.
(a) decrease by 50%
(b) increase by 50%
(c) decrease by 25%
(d) increase by 300%
Answer:
(c) decrease by 25%

Question 2.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in ______.
(a) A
(b)B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(a) A

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles ______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion (id) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
Which of the following represents 1 amu?
(a) mass of a C-12 atom
(b) mass of hydrogen atom
(c) 1/12th of the mass of a C-12 atom
(d) mass of 0-16 atom
Answer:
(c) 1/12th of the mass of a C-12 atom

Question 5.
______ is a relative periodic property.
(a) atomic radii
(b) Ionic radii
(c) Electron affinity
(d) Electron negativity
Answer:
(b) Ionic radii

Question 6.
Which of the following is the universal solvent?
(a) Acetone
(b) Benzene
(c) Water
(d) Alcohol
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 7.
Root hairs are ______.
(a) cortial cell
(b) projection of epidermal cell
(c) unicellular
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 8.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in ______.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 9.
9 : 3: 3 : 1 ratio is due to ______.
(a) Segregation
(b) Independent Assortment
(c) Crossing over
(d) Recessive factors
Answer:
(b) Independent Assortment

Question 10.
rDNA is a ______.
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA

Question 11.
Biogenesis was speculated by ______.
(a) Louis pasteur
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamark
(d) Oparin
Answer:
(a) Louis pasteur

Question 12.
Green house effect refers to ______.
(a) cooling of earth
(b) warming of earth
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) trapping of UV rays
Answer:
(b) warming of earth

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Newton’s laws of motion.
Answer:
Every body continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a straight line unless it is acted upon by some external force.

Question 14.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red Tight in able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 15.
What is co-efficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

Question 16.
Difference between atoms and molecules.
Answer:
Atom:

• An atom is the smallest particle of an element.
• Atom does not exist in free state except in a noble gas.
• Atoms does not have a chemical bond.

Molecules:

• A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or compound.
• Molecule exists in free state.
• Atoms in a molecule are held by chemical bonds.

Question 17.
Define Hydrated salt.
Answer:
The number of water molecules found in the crystalline substance or salts is called water of crystallization. Such salts are called hydrated salts.

Question 18.
What are synthetic auxins?
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxins, that have the properties like auxins are called as synthetic auxins. Eg. 2,4-D (2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy Acetic acid)

Question 19.
Mention the Medicinal value of Leech.
Answer:

• They can be used to treat cardiovascular diseases.
• Biochemical substances derived from leech saliva are used for preparation of pharmaceutical drugs that can treat hypertension.

Question 20.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
During double fertilization, one sperm fuses with the egg and forms a diploid zygote. The other sperm fuse with the secondary nucleus to form the primary endosperm, which is triploid in nature. This called triple fusion.

Question 21.
What are Analogous organs?
Answer:
The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern. E.g: The function of the wings of a bat, the wings of a bird and wings of an insect are similar, but their basic structures are different.

Question 22.
A current of 2A flows through a 12 V bulb then find resistance.
Answer:
Given: V = 12V;    I = 2A
V = IR
R = \(\frac{V}{I}=\frac{12}{2}\)
R = 6 Ω

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.

Let, ‘m’ be the mass of a moving body, moving along a straight line with an initial speed ‘u’ After a time interval of ‘t’, the velocity of the body changes to ‘v’ due to the impact of an unbalanced external force F.
Initial momentum of the body P_i = mu
Final momentum of the body P_f = mv
Change in momentum Δp = P_f – P_i.
= mv – mu

By Newton’s second law of motion,
Force, F ∝ rate of change of momentum
F ∝ change in momentum / time
F ∝ \(\frac{m v-m u}{t}\)
F ∝ \(\frac{k m(v-u)}{t}\)
Here, k is the proportionality constant, k = 1 in all systems of units. Hence,
F = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)

Since, acceleration = change in velocity / time, a = (v – u)/t. Hence, we have
F = m x a
Force = mass x acceleration

• No external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.
• When the net force acting on a body is not equal to zero, then definitely the velocity of the body will change.
• Thus, change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force. The change may take place either in magnitude or in direction or in both.

Question 24.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia.
Answer:
Myopia:

• Myopia, also known as short sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of eye ball.
• With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.
• The focal length of eye lens is reduced or the distance between eye lens and retina increases.
• The far point will not be infinity for such eyes and the far point has come closer.
• Due to this, the image of distant objects are formed before the retina.
• This defect can be corrected using a concave lens.

Hypermeteropia:

• Hypermeteropia, also known as long sightedness, occurs due to the shortening of eye ball.
• With this defect, distant objects can be seen clearly but nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
• The focal length of eye lens is increased or the distance between eye lens and retina decreases.
• Hence, the near point will not be at 25 cm for such eyes and the near point has moved farther.
• Due to this, the image of nearby objects are formed behind the retina.
• This defect can be corrected using a convex lens.

Question 25.
(i) Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Electric Potential Difference: The electric potential difference between two points is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another point against the electric force.

(ii) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:

1. The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit.
2. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected.
3. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.
4. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Question 26.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The salient features of “Modem atomic theory” are,

• An atom is no longer indivisible.
• Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
• Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
• Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, atom is no longer indestructible.
• Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
• Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
• The mass of an atom can be converted into energy [E = mc²].

Question 27.
(i) How will you classify Hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Hydrocarbons are classified into three classes such as Alkanes, Alkenes and Alkynes.
(a) Alkenes:
These are hydrocarbons, which contain only single bonds. They are represented by the general formula C_nH_{2n + 2} (where n = 1,2, 3) Ex: Methane (CH₄)

(b) Alkenes:
The hydrocarbons, which contain one or more C = C bonds are called alkenes. These are unsaturated compounds. They are represented by the general formula C_nH_2n.
Ex: Ethylene (C₂H₄)

(c) Alkynes:
The hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon triple bond are called alkynes. They have the general formula C_nH_{2n – 2} Ex: Acetylene (C₂H₂)

(ii) Write the characteristic of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

• Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature E.g. methane, ethane are gases.
• Alkanes are least reactive when alkynes are most reactive due to presence triple bond.
• Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
• They are insoluble in water.

Question 28.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Answer:
Hypothalamus, acts as a link between nervous system and endocrine system. It lies at the base of the thalamus. It controls involuntary functions like hunger, thirst, sleep, sweating, sexual desire, anger, fear, water balance, blood pressure etc. It acts as a thermo regulatory (temperature control) center of the body. It controls the secretion of hormones from anterior Pituitary gland.

Question 29.
(i) What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
(ii) What is Aneuploidy?
Answer:
(i) The rhythmic closure and opening of the valves causes heart sounds.
The first sound ‘LUBB’ is of longer duration and is produced by the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves after the beginning of ventricular systole.
The second sound ‘DUPP’ is of a shorter duration and produced by the closure of semilunar valve at the end of ventricular systole.

(ii) Aneuploidy is the loss or gain of one or more chromosomes in a set. It is of three types. Monosomy (2n – 1), Trisomy (2n + 1)andNullisomy (2n – 2).

Question 30.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed.

1. Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
2. Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
3. Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
4. Development of vaccines against various diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies
5. Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.

Question 31.
What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate, the changes in the ovary and uterus.
Answer:
The four phases of the menstrual cycle are:

1. Menstrual or Destructive phase
2. Follicular or Proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal or secretory phase

Events of menstrual cycle and changes in ovary and changes in uterus.

Question 32.
(i) Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under.
(1) By conduction:
As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of material medium. In thermos air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer in stopped by conduction mode.

(2) By convection:
As convection mode also require material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(3) By Radiation:
As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall. Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of innerwall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

(ii) Briefly write any four characteristics of group in the periodic table.
Answer:

• The element present in a group have the same valency.
• The element present in a group have identical chemical properties.
• The physical properties of the elements in the group vary gradually.
• The atomic radii of the elements present in a group increases downwards

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V.
∴V = IR

(ii) With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected in parallel.
Answer:
Resistors in Parallel:
A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

(i) Consider that three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected across two common points A and B.
(ii) The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is measured using the voltmeter.
(iii) The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I₁, I₂ and I₃ passing through R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, we have,

The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get

Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be Rp. Then,
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{p}}\) …….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we have

Thus,
(iv) When a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance.
(v) When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances Rare connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{R}{n}\)

Hence, R_p = \(\frac{R}{n}\)
(vi) The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

(OR)

(b) (i) A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Given Data
d = 680 m
t₁ = 0.9 s
t₂ = 1.1 s
v = ?

(ii) An electric heater of resistance 5 Ω is connected to an electric source. If a current of 6 A flows through the heater, then find the amount of heat produced in 5 minutes.
Answer:
Given resistance R = 5 Ω, Current I = 6 A,
Time t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 s = 300 s
Amount of heat produced, H = I²Rt
H = 6² × 5 × 300. Hence, H = 54000 J

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the gram molecular mass of NH₃.
Answer:
Atomic mass of N = 14
H = 1
Gram molecular mass of NH₃ = (14 × 1) + (1 × 3)
= 14 + 3 = 17 g

(ii) Calculate the percent by mass of glucose in a solution made by dissolving 500 g of glucose in 50 g of water.
Answer:

(iii) Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weights 0.18.
Answer:

Number of molecules = No. of moles x Avogadro number
= 0.01 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 0.06023 × 10²³
= 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules

(OR)

(b) (i) How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Answer:

• The pH of blood is almost 7.4. Any increase or decrease in this value leads to diseases.
• Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.
• If pH of rain water becomes less than 7, it becomes acid rain which is harmful in day-to-day life.
• pH changes cause tooth decay.
• During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation.

(ii) Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give their structural formula: (i) Propane (ii) Benzene (iii) Cyclobutane (iv) Furan
Answer:
(i) Propane is open chain or a cyclic compound because it contains an open chain.
CH₃ – CH₃ – CH₃ [Propane]

(ii) Benzene is a carbocyclic compound because it contains carbon atoms cyclic ring of 6 atoms.

(iii) Cyclobutane is a carbocyclic compound.

(iv) Furan is a hetrocyclic compound because in the cyclic chain one atom is oxygen atom.

Question 35.
(a) (i) What is Scratch?
(ii) Differentiate between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
(iii) Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
(i) ‘Scratch’ is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.

(ii)
Type-1 Diabetes mellitus:

• People with type-1 diabetes do not produce Insulin in pancreas.
• Immune system destroys insulin producing beta cells in the pancreas.
• Cannot be controlled without taking insulin.
• Diagnosed in childhood
• Not associates with excess body weight

Type-2 Diabetes mellitus:

• People with type-2 diabetes do not respond to insulin.
• Type 2 diabetes are Insulin Resistant.
• Possible to treat initially without medication or treating with tablets.
• Diagonsed over 30 years old.
• Associated with excess body weight.

(iii) Formation of fossil fuels is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewal. Hence to be conserved.

[OR]

(b) (i) Write the dental formula of rabbit.
Answer:
(i) Dental formula is (I\(\frac{2}{1}\), C\(\frac{0}{0}\), PM\(\frac{3}{2}\), M\(\frac{3}{2}\)) in Rabbit, which is written as \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)
I – Incisors
PM – Premolar
C – Canines
M – Molars

(ii) With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:
Gene cloning:

The carbon copy or more appropriately, a clone means to make a genetically exact copy of an organism.
In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell, where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides.

Techniques involved in gene cloning:

• Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
• Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (plasmid) to make rDNA.
• Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation).
• Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
• Expression of cloned gene in host cell.

Students can download Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Unit Exercise 6 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Unit Exercise 6

Question 1.
Prove that
(i) cot² A \(\left(\frac{\sec A-1}{1+\sin A}\right)\) + sec² A \(\left(\frac{\sin A-1}{1+\sec A}\right)\) = 0
(ii) \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:


Hence it is proved

= 1 – cos² θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 2.
Prove that
\(\left(\frac{1+\sin \theta-\cos \theta}{1+\sin \theta+\cos \theta}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{1-\cos \theta}{1+\cos \theta}\right)\)
Answer:

LHS = RHS
Hence it is proved

Question 3.
If x sin² θ + y cos² θ = sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = y cos θ, then prove that x² + y² = 1.
Answer:
Given x sin² θ + y cos² θ = sin θ cos θ
x sin θ = y cos θ ……..(1)
x sin³ θ + y cos³ θ = sin θ cos θ
x sin θ (sin² θ) + y cos θ (cos² θ) = sin θ cos θ
x sin θ (sin² θ) + x sin θ (cos² θ) = sin θ cos θ
x sin θ (sin² θ + cos² θ) = sin θ cos θ
x sin θ = sin θ cos θ
x = cos θ
substitute x = cos θ in (1)
cos θ sin θ = y cos θ y = sin θ
L. H. S = x² + y² = cos² θ + sin² θ = 1
L.H. S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 4.
If a cos θ – b sin θ = c, then prove that (a sin θ + b cos θ) = ± \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}}\).
Answer:
Given a cos θ – b sin θ = c
Squaring on both sides
(a cos θ – b sin θ)² = c²
a² cos² θ + b² sin² θ – 2 ab cos θ sin θ = c²
a² (1 – sin² θ) + b² (1 – cos² θ) – 2 ab cos θ sin θ = c²
a² – a² sin² θ + b² – b² cos² θ – 2 ab cos θ sin θ = c²
– a² sin² θ – B² – cos² θ – 2 ab cos θ sin θ = – a² – b² + c²
a² sin² θ + b² cos² θ + 2 ab cos θ sin θ = a² + b² – c²
(a sin θ + b cos θ)² – a² + b² – c²
a sin θ + b cos θ = ± \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}}\)
Hence it is proved.

Question 5.
A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45° . The bird flies away horizontally in such away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30° . Determine the speed at which the bird flies. (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732)
Answer:

A is the initial position of the bird B is the final position of the bird Let the speed of the bird be “s”
Distance = speed × time
∴ AB = 2x
Let CD be x
∴ CE = x + 2s
In the ∆ CDA, tan 45° = \(\frac { AD }{ CD } \)
1 = \(\frac { 80 }{ x } \)
x = 80 ……..(1)
In the ∆ BCE
tan 30° = \(\frac { BE }{ CE } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac { 80 }{ x+2s } \)
x + 2s = 80 \(\sqrt { 3 }\)
x = 80 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2 s ………(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
80 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2 s = 80
80 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 80 = 2 s ⇒ 80 (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 1) = 2 s
s = \(\frac{80(\sqrt{3}-1)}{2}\) = 40 (1.732 – 1) = 40 × 0.732 = 29.28
Speed of the flying bird = 29.28 m/sec

Question 6.
An aeroplane is flying parallel to the Earth’s surface at a speed of 175 m/sec and at a height of 600 m. The angle of elevation of the aeroplane from a point on the Earth’s surface is 37° at a given point. After what period of time does the angle of elevation increase to 53°? (tan 53° = 1.3270, tan 37° = 0.7536)
Answer:
Let C is the initial and D is the final position of the aeroplane.
Let the time taken by the aeroplane be “t”
∴ CD = 175 t (Distance = speed × time)

Let AB be x
∴ AE = x + 175 t
In the right ∆ ABC


∴ Time taken is 1. 97 seconds

Question 7.
A bird is flying from A towards B at an angle of 35°, a point 30 km away from A. At B it changes its course of flight and heads towards C on a bearing of 48° and distance 32 km away.
(i) How far is B to the North of A?
(ii) How far is B to the West of A?
(iii) How far is C to the North of B?
(iv) How far is C to the East of B?
(sin 55° = 0.8192, cos 55° = 0.5736, sin 42° = 0.6691, cos 42° = 0.7431)
Answer:

(i) To find the distance of B to the north of A
In ∆ ABB,

Distance of B to the North of A = 24. 58 km

(ii) Distance from B to the west of A is AB’
In ∆ ABB’
cos 55° = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{AB}}\)
0.5736 = \(\frac{A B^{\prime}}{30}\)
∴ AB’ = 0.5736 × 30 = 17. 21 km
Distance of B to the West of A is 17. 21 km

(iii) Distance from C to the North of B is CD
In the right ∆ BCD, sin 42° = \(\frac { CD }{ BC } \)
0.6691 = \(\frac { BD }{ 32 } \)
∴ CD = 0.6691 × 32 = 21.41 km
Distance of C to the North B is 21. 41 km

(iv) The distance of C to the East of B is BD
In the right ∆ BDC, cos 42° = \(\frac { BD }{ BC } \)
0.7431 = \(\frac { BD }{ 32 } \)
∴ BD = 0.7431 × 32
= 23.78 km
Distance of C to the East of B is 23.78 km.

Question 8.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either side of the lighthouse. The angles of depression of two ships as observed from the top of the lighthouse are 60° and 45° respectively. If the distance between the ships is 200 \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) meters, find the height of the lighthouse
Answer:
Let A and B the position of the first ship and the second ship
Distance = 200 \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) m
Let the height of the light house CD be “h”

In the right ∆ ACD, tan 60° = \(\frac { CD }{ AD } \)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { h }{ AD } \)
∴ AD = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}\) ……….(1)
In the right ∆ BCD
tan 45° = \(\frac { DC }{ BD } \)
1 = \(\frac { h }{ BD } \)
∴ BD = h
Distance between the two ships = AD + BD
200 (\(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\)) = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}\) + h ⇒ 200 (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 1) = h + \(\sqrt { 3 }\) h
200 (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 1) = h(1 + \(\sqrt { 3 }\)) ⇒ h = \(\frac{200(\sqrt{3}+1)}{(1+\sqrt{3})}\)
h = 200
Height of the light house = 200 m

Question 9.
A building and a statue are in opposite side of a street from each other 35 m apart. From a point on the roof of building the angle of elevation of the top of statue is 24° and the angle of depression of base of the statue is 34° . Find the height of the statue. (tan 24° = 0.4452, tan 34° = 0.6745)
Answer:
Let the height of the statue be “h” m
Let AD be x
∴ EC = h – x
In the right ∆ ABD,

tan 34° = \(\frac { AD }{ AB } \)
0.6745 = \(\frac { x }{ 35 } \)
∴ x = 0.6745 × 35 ⇒ x = 23.61 m
In the right ∆ DEC ⇒ tan 24° = \(\frac { EC }{ DE } \)
0.4452 = \(\frac { h-x }{ 35 } \) ⇒ h – x = 0.4452 × 35
h – 23.61 = 15. 58 ⇒ h = 15.58 + 23.61 = 39.19 m
Height of the statue = 39.19 m

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His parents circled around raising a proud cackle.
(a) babble
(b) screech
(c) walk
(d) tackle
Answer:
(a) babble

Question 2.
A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) frail
Answer:
(d) frail

Question 3.
Nagen uncle’s tea shop stood next to a grocery shop.
(a) erected
(b) erased
(c) expunged
(d) severed
Answer:
(a) erected

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce
(b) vigour
(c) weakness
(d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 5.
Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

Question 6.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) thin
(d) strong
Answer:
(d) strong

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘Rhino’.
(a) rhinos
(b) rhinoes
(c) rhinoses
(d) rhinosses
Answer:
(b) rhinoes

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘flame’.
(a) ity
(b) graphy
(c) able
(d) er
Answer:
(c) able

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation BCCI.
(a) Board of Chess Control in India
(b) Board of Cricket Collector in India
(c) Board of Cricket Control Institute
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India
Answer:
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The advocate …………….. the case cleverly.
(a) dealt in
(b) dealt with
(c) dealt out
(d) dealt on
Answer:
(b) dealt with

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘mail to form a compound word.
(a) send
(b) box
(c) drop
(d) it
Answer:
(b) box

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He seized ………….. the opportunity to construct a solar panel for the school.
(a) seized with
(b) seized over
(c) upon
(d) seized on
Answer:
(c) upon

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form’of the verb given below:
Aditya’s father ……………….. the ancestral home and moved to Kolkata, where he had set up
his own business.
(a) has left
(b) had left
(c) is leaving
(d) were left
Answer:
(b) had left

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Promise me that you will phone me …………… reach home.
(a) before
(b) as soon as
(c) in case
(d) so that
Answer:
(b) as soon as

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How did the bird try to reach its parents without having to fly?
Answer:
The young bird trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other with his long grey legs stepping daintily, trying to find some means of reaching his parents without having to fly.

Question 16.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors was simply because it was warm and bright outside. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods and the Prussian soldiers were drilling in the open field, behind the sawmill. It was all much more tempting than the rule for participles.

Question 17.
What were the problems they faced during their training voyage? How was it a tutorial to them?
Answer:
As the boat was old, it had minor leaks and repairs. They also ran out of water and food soon. The trip was a tutorial for them on how to manage food, water and even electricity during the big voyage.

Question 18.
From the jeweller’s shop where did Aditya and his friend go? Why?
Answer:
From the jeweller’s shop Aditya went straight to Jogesh Kabiraj’s house where Mr. Sasanka Sanyal whom he met at Nagen uncle’s tea shop lived. Aditya wanted to meet Sasanka Sanyal.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) Is the poet afraid of future?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) No, the poet isn’t afraid of the future.

Question 20.
‘‘The worst thing is that if anyone stays Among them too long, he will learn their ways;”
(a) What is the worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them?
(b) What are the ways of the Grumble family?
Answer:
(a) The worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them is that they too will start complaining and become one with them.
(b) The ‘Grumble Family’ growl at anything and everything so much that they sometimes growl that they have nothing to grumble about.

Question 21.
“Not a crumb to be found On the snow-covered ground
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

Question 22.
“ We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit”
(a) What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
(b) Mention a few machines which are hammered to design.
Answer:
(a) The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.
(b) Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Cathy is not driving a car.
Answer:
A car is not being driven by Cathy.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
She asked me, “Could you help me with my luggage?”
Answer:
She asked me if I could help her with her luggage.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
i dont know what wed do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities
Answer:
I don’t know what we’d do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
He must work hard otherwise, he will be suspended.
Answer:
He must work hard to avoid suspension.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Sports / building / physical strength / necessary / are / for
(b) They / sportsmanship / cooperation / include / and
Answer:
(a) Sports are necessary for building physical strength.
(b) They include sportsmanship and cooperation.

Section – IV

Answer of the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Guide an old lady from the bus stand to the nearby Government Hospital (GH). Here you find the road map. Write three instructions by way of helping her.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first left cut.
• Walk a little distance, you will come across a pharmacy on to your right.
• Walk a little further, you’ll find the Government Hospital on the same side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an oldtimer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily- livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tarryhootin” around the house. On the contraryj the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times. Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr.

Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry
Nor do they act in haste”

Question 30.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world. It has totally transformed the life of an individual.

A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger. When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings.

When caught in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
“We are changing the world with Technology.”

Question 31.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past. He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek.

He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members. He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.
“Self-respect permeates every aspect of your life.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation.

This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe. So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.
“The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession.”

Question 34.
What qualities have made women powerful?
Answer:
The woman is made powerful due to her multifaceted personality. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute. They love to explore and venture into new horizons. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Her inner beauty, her supremacy and strength makes her all-powerful. She exhibits her power by showcasing her fearless nature. She is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs.

She is seen as all-powerful because of her determined nature. She may sigh, cry and moan but is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring and one dare not muddle with her. If anyone is a mischief maker, she will not spare them. The woman should be feared cautiously since she would thaw or saw you for your deeds against her.
“A Woman believes in being strong, even when things seem to go wrong.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines?
(li) Write the rhyme scheme of the poem.
(iii) Give another rhyming word for cold and street.
(iv) Name the poem and the poet.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are ‘cold and scold’ as well as ‘meet and street’.
(ii) The rhyme scheme for the above are, ‘aabb’ pattern. .
(iii) COLD – bold; STREET – treat
(iv) The Grumble family by Lucy Maud Montgomery is the name of the poem and the poet respectively.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
Answer:
The poet again retells us in that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i)
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room. .
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
I was just thirty-seven when my Uncle Philip died. A week before that event he sent for me; and here let me say that I had never set eyes on him. He hated my mother, but I do not know why. She told me long before his last illness that I need expect nothing from my father’s brother. He was an inventor, an able and ingenious mechanical engineer, and had much money by his improvement in turbine-wheels.

He was a bachelor; lived alone, cooked his own meals, and collected precious stones, especially rubies and pearls. From the time he made his first money he had this mania. As he grew richer, the desire to possess rare and costly gems became stronger. When he bought a new stone, he carried it in his pocket for a month and now and then took it out and looked at it. Then it was added to the collection in his safe at the trust company.

Questions.
(i) How old was the narrator when his uncle died?
(ii) What did the narrator’s mother tell him about his uncle?
(iii) What was Uncle Philip’s mania?
(iv) When did Uncle Philip call for his nephew to meet him?
(v) What was the profession of Uncle Philip?
Answer:
(i) The narrator was 37 years old when his uncle died.
(ii) The narrator’s mother told that he need expect nothing from his uncle.
(iii) Uncle Philip had the mania of collecting precious stones, especially rubies and pearls.
(iv) Uncle Philip called the narrator one week before he died.
(v) Uncle Philip was a ingenious mechanical engineer.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Singapore and Australia tours – free travel for child or discount.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Kirubakaran / Suganthi. You are interested in doing a short term course in Computer Programming during your summer vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Computer World, Sector-22, Kanchipuram, enquiring about the duration of such a course and the terms and conditions for admission.
Answer:
Kirubakaran / Suganthi
119, 2nd main road
Kanchipuram
10 May 20XX
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram
Sir,
Sub: Short term Course in Computer Programming
Kindly refer to your advertisement in Daily Thanthi dated 8th May 20XX regarding the above mentioned course. I have just passed the A.I. CBSE examination of XII Class with science stream. I am interested in doing a short term course in computer programming during my summer vacation. However, before joining the course, I would like to know the following
details:
(a) Duration of the course and fees
(b) Mode of payment: lump sum/installments
(c) Whether a diploma/certificate is issued
(d) Recognition and its validity
(e) Timings of classes and other relevant information
(f) Individual time on computer

In case you have-some printed material for information kindly send it to me. A self addressed and duly stamped envelope is enclosed for the purpose. An early response will enable me to join your course immediately.

Yours faithfully
Kirubakaran / Suganthi

Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram

Question 41.
Write a notice for the school notice-board inviting volunteers for an N.S.S. Camp. You are Sashilatha/Sashikumar the Group leader of S.D. Sr. Sec. School, Vellore.
Answer:

S.D. SR. SEC. School, Vellore 2 July 2020 Notice N.S.S. CAMP An N.S.S. camp of our unit will be held from 15th Aug. to 30th Aug. at village Vallimalai. Projects include Adult Literacy, Tree Plantation, Cleanliness Campaign and Health Awareness. Volunteers should give their names to the undersigned by 7th July 2020 Sashilatha/Sashikumar Group Leader N.S.S.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Civic sense is not common. A motorist should not cross the dividing concrete wall. He jeopardizes his own life and those who are likely to drive or walk on the road. If each motorist follows rules as per his convenience, there will be total chaos on the road. Let us respect road rules. Let us cross roads only in places where it is allowed.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Economics has become one of the important branches of social sciences. It is of great practical value in our daily life. In pure sciences, we study the subject to arrive at the truth. But an economist is a social scientist. He studies the subject not only to know the truth for its own sake, but to find out a way for many economic and social problems of the society. “Knowledge for knowledge’s sake” is not the goal of an economist.

Economics must be fruit bearing. Of course, an economist has no ready made answer for immediate problems. But he can help the government in making broad economic policies. According to J.M. Keynes, “the theory of economics does not furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to policy. It is a method, rather than doctrine, an apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct conclusions”.

Most of the problem of the modern state are economic in nature. So economists play an important role in the affairs of the state. During World War II, the German economy was damaged heavily. There was inflation, shortage of goods and mass unemployment. But the German economy recovered quickly by following the advice of an economist Ludwig Erhard. The German recovery is considered an economic miracle. Similarly, J.M. Keynes had great influence on the economic policies of the American government when it was in great economic trouble during the 1930s. In economics, we study about things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxation. All these affect every person in one way or the other. It has been rightly said, “you cannot be in any real sense a citizen, unless you are also in some degree an economist.”

Notes
Title: Importance of Economics

• one of the important branches of social sciences – economics
• Economist find out a way for many economical and social problems
• helps the government in making broad economic policies.
• During World War II heavy damage to German economy
• recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, – considered a miracle.
• American economic trouble – economist J.M. Keynes.
• we study things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxatidn
• Economic affects every individual

Summary

Title: Importance of Economics
Rough Draft

Economics one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist not only studies, but find out a way for more many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad-ecopomic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. Similarly in 1930, American government economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. In economics, we study about thmgsTiko-pirices, rent, wages,interest, profits and taxation.

Fair Draft:
Title: Importance of Economics

Economics is one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist find out solutions for many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad economic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. In 1930, American government’s economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. A citizen must be an economist to some degree.
No. of words: 79

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The workers formed an union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advises.
(c) Mohan is one of the best student in his class.
(d) Though his mother tongue is Tamil but he always speaks in English.
(e) If he had known of your arrival, he would come to receive you.
Answer:
(a) The workers formed a union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advice.
(c) Mohan is one of the best students in his class.
(id) Though his mother tongue is Tamil, he always speaks in English.
(.e) If he had known of your arrival, he would have come to receive you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Not hurrying …………… that pays its toll.
Answer:
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

(a) Men and Women created equal – man differentiates jobs – Mulan takes a stand – takes a stand – frail father – comfort and pride – responsibilities – martial art, Kung Fu inborn traits head of the family – times of crisis – rises to situations – powers of a woman – knowledge, experience – gender equality far and wide.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter.

He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war.

He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as She chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’ by developing the following hints. Saying – the crown of snow – elders – shapes our society – age – experiences to be intelligent – Theoretical knowledge – superficial – impact – wisdom-incomparable – learns from mistakes – elders optimistic – different challenges – survivors.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the eiders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences makes us to be intelligent. Theoretical knowledge is always superficial.

The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person learns from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes. They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Environmentalist are worried at the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and also at the disappearance of forests. The trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere. In a way much heat is released in the atmosphere, the larger part of that being Carbon Dioxide. ‘The green house effect’ occurs. This is the initial stages of global warming.

The ill effects of accumulated Carbon Dioxide can be minimized by trees and ample vegetation as they absorb it by photosynthesis and make Carbohydrates. Therefore, a well stocked ecosystem exercises. Considerable beneficial effects on human environment by moderating the climate, regulating the water supplies, purifying the air and helping in abating noise.

The most important environmental factors are micro – climate soil characteristics, moisture availability and interaction of animals and insects. Micro – climate is governed by solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature. Soil temperature is also influenced by the forests.

Questions.
(a) What are the two reasons which make the environmentalists worried?
(b) How does “green house effect” occur?
(c) How can trees counter the ill effects of carbon dioxide?
(d) What are the factors that govern the micro – climate?
Answer:
(a) The two reasons which make the environmentalists worried are the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and the disappearance of forests as a result.
(b) ‘The green house effect’ occurs because the trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere releasing much heat in the atmosphere.
(c) The ill effects of accumulated Carbon dioxide can be minimized by trees through their absorbing it by photosynthesis and making Carbohydrates.
(d) The factors that govern the micro – climate are solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature which is also influenced by the forests.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Bigot
The bigot insults his own religion When he slays a man of another faith.
Conduct the judges, not in the light of reason;
In the temple, he raises the blood-stained banner And worships the devil in the name of God.
All that is shameful and barbarous through the Ages,
Has found a shelter in their temples—
Those they turn into prisons;
O’ I hear the trumpet call of Destruction!
The time comes with her great broom Sweeping all refuse away.
That which should make man free,
They turn into fetters;
That which should unite, they turn into a sword;
That which should bring love From the fountain of the Eternal,
They turn into a prison
And with its waves, they flood the world.
They try to cross the river In a bark riddled with holes;
And yet, in their anguish, whom do they blame Oh Lord, breaking false religion,
Save the blind!
Break, O break
The altar that is drowned in blood.
Let your thunder strike Into the prison of false religion,
And bring to this unhappy land The light of knowledge

Questions.
(a) Who is a bigot?
(b) What does the word ‘Refuse’ refer to?
(c) What do the followers of false religion do?
(d) What is meant by the phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’?
Answer:
(a) A bigot is a human being who is narrow-minded in his religious views. In general he is an extremist.
(b) The word ‘Refuse’ refers to all the infirmities such a dirt and filth found in false religions.
(c) The followers of false religion turn religion into prison, fetters and swords to destroy one another.
(d) The phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’ means God Almighty who is everlasting.