Category: Class 5

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 2 Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Fission is a way of ______ reproduction
(a) sexual
(b) asexual
(c) viviparous
(d) oviparous
Answer:
(b) Asexual

Question 2.
______ is an oviparous animal.
(a) Cow
(b) Deer
(c) Goat
(d) Duck
Answer:
(d) Duck

Question 3.
Endangered animals are protected in ______.
(a) museums
(b) circus
(c) farm
(d) sanctuary
Answer:
(d) Sanctuary

Question 4.
Mundanthurai sanctuary is located in ______ district.
(a) Thiruppur
(b) Tiruvarur
(C) Thirunelveli
(d) Thiruvallur
Answer:
(c) Thirunelveli

Question 5.
The vision of Blue Cross is ______ animal.
(a) Hunting
(b) capturing
(c) saving
(d) neglecting
Answer:
(c) Saving

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Animals which give birth to young ones directly are named as ______.
Answer:
Mammals

Question 2.
______ of animals leads to endangered condition.
Answer:
Hunting

Question 3.
Gir National Park is famous for ______.
Answer:
Asiatic Lions

Question 4.
Blue Cross is an ______ welfare organization.
Answer:
Animal

Question 5.
Nilgiri Tahr is an ______ species.
Answer:
Endangered

III. Match the following:

1. Zygote	a. Asexual Reproduction
2. Viviparous	b. Elephant
3. Endangered animal	c. Cat
4. Mudhumalai	d. Fertilised Egg
5. Fragmentation	e. Rhinoceros

Answer:

1. Zygote	a. Fertilised Egg
2. Viviparous	b. Cat
3. Endangered Animal	c. Rhinoceros
4. Mudhumalai	d. Elephant
5. Fragmentation	e. Asexual Reproduction

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is fertilization?
Answer:
When the male gamete reaches the female gametes they begin to fuse together. The fusion of gametes is known as fertilization.

Question 2.
What are the different stages of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction consists of the following stages.

• Pre-fertilization
• Fertilization
• Post-fertilization.

Question 3.
Mention the different types of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Fission, Budding, Fragmentation, and Spores are the different types of asexual reproduction.

Question 4.
Differentiate between oviparous and viviparous animals.
Answer:

Oviparous animals	Viviparous animals
The development of the embryo takes place outside the animal.	The development of the embryo takes place inside the animal.
They produce their young ones by laying eggs.	They directly give birth to the young ones.
The embryo receives the nutrients from the egg yolk.	The embryo receives the nutrients from the mother.
Examples for oviparous animals are insects, fish, reptiles and birds.	Examples for viviparous animals are cats, dogs, humans and lions.

Question 5.
Write anote on Blue Cross.
Answer:

• Blue Cross is a registered animal welfare charity in the United Kingdom.
• It was established in 1897 with the vision that every pet will enjoy a healthy life in a happy home.
• The charity provides support for pet owners who cannot afford private veterinary treatment.
• Helps to find homes for unwanted animals, and educates the public in the responsibilities of animal ownership.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the methods of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Fission :

• Fission occurs in some invertebrate (organisms without backbone), multi-celled organisms.
• In this method, an organism splits itself into two parts.
• For example, flatworms, sea anemones, and sea cucumbers divide into two halves and regenerate the other half in each of the resulting individuals.

Budding:

• Budding is a form of asexual reproduction that results from the outgrowth of a part of the body.
• Then the bud is separated from the original organism forming two individuals.
• Budding occurs commonly in some invertebrate animals such as hydras and corals.

Fragmentation:

• Fragmentation is the breaking of an individual into parts followed by regeneration.
• Reproduction through fragmentation is observed in sponges and sea stars.
• Fragmentation may occur through accidental damage, damage from predators, or as a natural form of reproduction.

Spores:

• Some protozoan, bacteria, plants, and fungi reproduce via spores.
• Spores are the structures naturally grown as part of an organism’s life cycle.
• They are separated from the organism and dispersed through a medium such as air or water.
• In a suitable environment, the spores will develop into a fully grown organism.

Question 2.
What are the causes of the extinction of animals?
Answer:

• Forests are destroyed for human needs.
• More animals are hunted for their horns, skin, teeth, and many other valuable products.
• Pollutions like air pollution and water pollution affect the animals.
• Sometimes animals are taken to new habitats by people. They cannot survive there.
• Pesticides and chemicals are used to get rid of insects, pests, or weeds, poison the plants and animals.
• Natural disasters like floods, cyclones, and fire also destroy animals.

Question 3.
Write an essay about National parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer:
A National park is an area which is strictly reserved for the betterment of the wild life. In these areas, activities like forestry, grazing, or cultivation are not permitted.
Some Important National parks:

Jim Corbett National Park:

• It is located close to Nainital, in Uttarakhand.
• Tigers are found in this park.
• Several species of deer, leopards, jackals, red foxes, black bears, sloth bears, and are also found.

Gir Forest National Park:

• It is located in Gujarat.
• Asiatic lions in their natural habitat can be seen here. Other animals sambar, chinkara, chital, porcupine, wild boar, and blackbuck can be seen here.

Kaziranga National Park:

• Wild animals such as Rhinoceros, Tiger, Elephant, Wild Buffalo, and Swam are seen here.
• Also has bears, leopards, and several species of local and migratory birds.
• This park is famous for one-horned Rhino.

Sundarban National Park:

• Located in West Bengal.
• The Sundarban National Park is a Tiger and Biosphere Reserve on the Ganges
• Bengal tiger, saltwater crocodile, wild boars, foxes, leopard cats, huge turtles, ( river dolphins, and several other varieties of mammals and reptiles, along with a variety of local and migratory birds can be seen here.

Kanha National Park:

• Kanha National Park located in Madhya Pradesh was established as a part of Project Tiger.
• Apart from tigers, animals such as elephants, jackals, leopards, striped hyenas, monkeys, and several varieties of deer including black buck, swamp deer, chital, and sambhar are seen here.

Periyar National park:

• Periyar National Park is in Thekkady, Kerala.
• Various species including the majestic elephants, royal tigers, and fishes, reptiles and birds can be seen here.

Guindy National park:

• This park is located at the heart of Chennai city.
• It is home to spotted deer, blackbucks, white bucks, river otter, hyena, bonnet monkey, civet cat, jackals, pangolin, hedgehog and common mongoose, etc.

Wildlife Sanctuary:
Kalakkad Wildlife Sanctuary:

• The Kalakkad wildlife sanctuary is famous for Tigers.
• Lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri langur, bonnet macaque, langur, Nilgiri tahr, sambar, sloth bear, gaur, elephant, flying squirrel, panther, wild dog, and pangolin are some of the animals found here.

Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is located in Ooty.
• Bengal Tiger, Giant Elephant, and Leopard are found here.
• Elephant safari is famous in this sanctuary.

Mundanthrai Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is located in Thirunelveli District.
• The major wildlife animal found here is Tiger.

Activities:

Activity 1.
List out any three oviparous and viviparous animals in the table given below.
Answer:

Oviparous animals	Viviparous animals
Insects	Cats
Fish	Dogs
Reptiles	Lions
	Human

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Animals Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
______ is the biological process by which an organism gives rise to a new organism.
(a) Species
(b) Generation
(c) Reproduction
Answer:
(c) Reproduction

Question 2.
______ is the first stage of sexual reproduction.
(a) Fertilisation
(b) Pre-fertilisation
(c) Post-fertilisation
Answer:
(b) Pre-fertilisation

Question 3.
______ fertilisation takes place in frogs and fish.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Post
Answer:
(b) External

Question 4.
The zygote divides repeatedly into a group of cells, which develops into different tissues and organs constituting a full body. This structure is known as ______.
(a) egg
(b) embryo
(c) zygote
Answer:
(b) Embryo

Question 5.
Animals in which an embryo develops outside the body are called ______ animals.
(a) oviparous
(b) viviparous
(c) oviparous
Answer:
(a) Oviparous

Question 6.
______ lay thousands and sometimes millions of small, soft eggs in water.
(a) Oviparous
(b) Amphibians
(c) Viviparous
Answer:
(b) Amphibians

Question 7.
The eggshell protects the ______ from the outer environment.
(a) embryo
(b) yolk
(c) larva
Answer:
(a) Embryo

II. Fill In the blanks:

Question 1.
________ are organisms without backbone
Answer:
Invertebrate

Question 2.
The type of reproduction in which only a singe parent, gets divided into two new offspring is known as ______.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction

Question 3.
________ is one of the asexual method of reproduction.
Answer:
Fission

Question 4.
In ______ animals, the development of the embryo takes place inside the body.
Answer:
viviparous

Question 5.
_________ is a form of asexual reproduction that results from the outgrowth of a part of the body.
Answer:
Budding

Question 6.
________ is the breaking of an individual into parts followed by regeneration.
Answer:
Fragmentation

III. Say True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 1.
Spores are the structures naturally grown as part of an organism’s life cycle.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
An animal is said to be endangered if its population is currently less than 50 or less than 2500 for the past three years
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An animal is said to be endangered if its population is currently less than 50 or less than 250 for the past three years.

Question 3.
Biodiversity is the term used to describe different plants, animals, micro-organisms and insects, etc.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Hunting and poaching animals should be encouraged.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Hunting and poaching animals should be prohibited.

Question 5.
Pesticides and chemicals used to get rid of insects, pests or weeds, poison the plants and animals.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

1. Jim Corbett National park	a. Thekkady
2. Periyar National park	b. Kancheepuram
3. Guindy National park	c. Coimbatore
4. Anaimalai Wildlife sanctuary	d. Uttarkhand
5. Vedanthangal bird sanctuary	e. Chennai

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. c
5. b

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the two ways by which fertilisation in animals takes place.
Answer:
Fertilisation in animals takes place in two ways. They are: External fertilization and Internal fertilization

Question 2.
Explain the term reproduction.
Answer:

• Reproduction is the biological process by which an organism gives rise to a new organism.
• This process is seen in all living organisms – both plants and animals. Reproduction is essential for the continuation of similar kinds of species, generation after generation.
• In animals, sexual and asexual reproduction are seen.

Question 3.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:

• External fertilization takes place outside the animal’s body.
• It usually takes place in aquatic environments where both eggs and sperm are released into the water.
• Fertilization in frogs and fish takes place by this method.

Question 4.
What are oviparous animals?
Answer:

• Animals in which an embryo develops outside the body are called oviparous animals.
• They produce their offspring by laying eggs. In the case of birds, new ones are produced from the eggs.
• The egg shell protects the embryo from the outer environment and the embryo receives its nutrients from the egg yolk.

Question 5.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:

• Only a single parent, gets divided into two new offspring, which is known as asexual reproduction.
• It takes place in microorganisms like hydra and amoeba.
• It produces offspring that are identical to the parent.

Question 6.
Name some endangered species in India
Answer:
Snow Leopard, Bengal Tiger, Asiatic Lion, Purple Frog, and Indian Giant Squirrel are some of the endangered animals in India.

Question 7.
How to save endangered species? (any 2 methods)
Answer:
We need to take some measures to protect the endangered species.

1. Hunting and poaching animals should be prohibited.
2. We should hot pollute the environment.

Question 8.
What is Red data book?
Answer:
The Red Data Book is a book maintained for recording rare and endangered species of animals and plants. This book is created to identify and protect the species which are about to extinct.

Question 9.
Expand IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Question 10.
What is meant by conservation?
Answer:

• Conservation is the protection, preservation, management of wildlife, and natural resources.
• Endangered species are maintained in certain protected areas such as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Question 11.
Name the wild animals that are protected at Kaziranga National park.
Answer:

• Wild animals such as Rhinoceros, Tiger, Elephant, Wild Buffalo, and Swamp Deer are seen here.
• This park also has bears, leopards, and several species of local and migratory birds. This park is famous for one-horned Rhino.

Question 12.
Expand UNESCO.
Answer:
UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation).

Question 13.
What is the advantage of conservation?
Answer:

• Species can be adapted to their habitat.
• Species can interact with each other.
• The natural habitat of the animals is maintained.
• It is less expensive and easy to manage.

Question 14.
What is meant by cruelty?
Answer:
Cruelty to animals includes capturing, trapping, poisoning of any wild animal collectively.

Question 15.
Name 2 government organizations which work for the welfare of animals.
Answer:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India.
2. National Institute of Animal Welfare

VI. Answer In detail:

Question 1.
Explain the two types of fertilisation.
Answer:
Fertilisation:
Fertilisation in animals takes place in two ways. They are: External fertilization and Internal fertilization
External fertilisation:

• It takes place outside the animal’s body.
• It usually takes place in aquatic environments where both eggs and sperm are released into the water.
  Fertilization in frogs and fish takes place by this method.

Internal fertilisation:

• Fertilization takes place inside the. animal’s body.
• Internal fertilization takes place in animals like cats, dogs, cows, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the formation of the embryo.
Answer:

• The zygote (fertilized egg) further divides repeatedly into groups of cells.
• These cells develop into different tissues and organs constituting a full body.
• This structure is known as an embryo.
• The embryo continues to develop in the uterus and it is developed into body parts such as the head, face, hands, legs, etc.
• Based on the embryo develops outside or inside the body, animals are classified into oviparous and viviparous respectively.

Question 3.
How can we protect endangered species?
Answer:

• Hunting and poaching animals should be prohibited.
• We should not pollute the environment.
• Limiting the usage of plastic and recycling can save endangered animals.
• Pesticides and chemicals which pollute the environment should be avoided.
• Planting native trees will provide food to the animals.
• We should buy eco-friendly products only.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of the Red data book?
Answer:

• It helps to evaluate the population of a particular species.
• The data given in this book can be used at the global level.
• The risk of a species becoming globally extinct can be estimated with the help of this book.
• It provides the necessary guidelines for implementing protective measures.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 3 Continents of the World Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Continents of the World

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Continents of the World Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There are _______ continents in the world.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
Answer:
b) Seven

Question 2.
The largest continent is _______.
a) Africa
b) Asia
c) North America
Answer:
b) Asia

Question 3.
_______ is the longest river in the world.
a) Kaveri
b) Sanga
c) Nile
Answer:
c) Nile

Question 4.
Lake Superior is located in _______.
a) North America
b) Australia
c) Europe
Answer:
a) North America

Question 5.
Penguins are found in _______.
a) Asia
b) Antarctica
c) Africa
Answer:
b) Antarctica

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Asia is the third largest continent.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
India has one of the eight wonders of the world.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Brazil is one of the largest coffee producers in the world.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The great barrier reef is in India.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Antarctica has half year of light.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following Questions:

Question 1.
Name the continents.
Answer:

• Asia
• Africa
• North America
• South America
• Antarctica
• Europe and
• Australia.

Question 2.
Where is the Taj Mahal is located?
Answer:
Taj Mahal is situated in Agra on the banks of river Yamuna.

Question 3.
Describe North America’s important features.
Answer:

• North America is the third largest continent by area, following Asia and Africa.
• The largest fresh water lake, Lake Superior is located in this continent.
• The world’s third longest river the Mississippi, is located in North America.
• The United States of America (USA) is a part of North America.

Question 4.
Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef is located in Australia.

Question 5.
Which continent is called the Frozen continent?
Answer:
Antarctica continent is called the Frozen continent.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Questions 1.
Write a short note on any two continents.
Answer:

• Asia – Asia is the world’s largest continent in size and population.
• Asia has the highest point on earth, the peak of Mount Everest which is in the Himalayas. Asia is the birth of great ancient civilisations: Harappan civilisation, Chinese civilisation, and Mesopotamian civilisation.
• Africa – Africa is the second largest continent of the world.
• The world’s longest river: the Nile and the world’s largest desert: the Sahara, both are home in Africa. More than 50% of the world’s gold and diamonds come from the mineral rich continent of Africa. Ethiopia in Africa is the hottest place.

Question 2.
Write a note on the monuments of India.
Answer:

• India has several historical monuments. Taj Mahal is one such monument.
• Taj Mahal is built completely using white marble stone. This most beautiful monument is recognised as one of the seven wonders of the world.
• Other historic monuments in India include India gate and Qutub Minor in Delhi, Gateway of India in Mumbai, Charminar in Hyderabad, Brihadeeshwara Temple, and GangaiKonda Cholapuram in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Give a detail study of Australia.
Answer:

• Australia is the Island continent covered by a single country with unique landscapes and natural wonders.
• The Great Barrier Reef, the pride and joy of Australia are made up of nearly 2,500 individual reefs and visible from space.
• Australia includes the islands of Tasmania and numerous small islands.

Activity:

Question 1.
Write the name of the country and its continent in the table below.
Answer:

Country	Continent
China and India	Asia
Kenya, Egypt	Africa
Ottawa, Canada	North America
Argentina, Brazil	South America
Norway,Sweden	Europe

Think Zone:

Question 1.
Is it correct to pollute our rivers?
Answer:
No, it is not correct to pollute our rivers.

Question 2.
Which state is called the Bread Basket of India?
Answer:
The punjab and Haryana regions are considered the bread baskets of India.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Continents of the World Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_______ is the world’s largest continent in size and population.
a) Asia
b) India
c) Africa
Answer:
a) Asia

Question 2.
_______ is the capital of India.
a) Calcutta
b) Bombay
c) Delhi
Answer:
c) Delhi

Question 3.
The world’s third longest river the Mississippi is located in _______ .
a) North America
b) South America
c) Asia
Answer:
a) North America

Question 4.
_______ is the highest peak in the Andes.
a) Mt. Cotopaxi
b) Mt. Aconcagua
c) Mt. Everest
Answer:
b) Mt. Aconcagua

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Asia is the birth of great ancient civilisations.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Europe is also called the Frozen continent.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The world’s smallest country, the Vatican city, is in Europe.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Antarctica is the hottest continent on Earth.
Answer:
Flase

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Pangaea?
Answer:
Billions of years ago, the seven continents of the world were joined together as a single huge landmass called Pangaea.

Question 2.
Why do we say India has unity in diversity?
Answer:
India is called “Land of unity in diversity” because India consists of; various religion people and all of them live together happily in the land of India. India has different forms of language, dresses, food but still our Indian live unite.

Question 3.
What is Dark Continent?
Answer:
The continent was uninhabitable(Not fit for habitation) and remained unknown for thousands of years, earning it the name of ‘Dark Continent’.

Question 4.
What is called the land of Lakes?
Answer:
Finland, in Europe, is called the ‘Land of Lakes’ because melting ice sheets have created a lot of lakes here.

Question 5.
Why Europe is called the Bread of Basket?
Answer:
Ukraine’s Steppe region is called the Bread Basket of Europe because it produces a large amount of wheat.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Describe South America’s important features.
Answer:

• South America is a subcontinent, mostly in the Southern Hemisphere, with a relatively small portion in
• the Northern Hemisphere.
• The world’s largest river which is also the second longest is the Amazon river in South America. Brazil a country in South America is one of the largest coffee producers in the world.
• The Andes form the highest mountain range in South America.
• Mt. Aconcagua is the highest peak in the Andes.
• One of the highest volcanoes of the world, Mt. Cotopaxi is found on this continent.
• The Amazon rainforest is a moist, broadleaf forest.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 2 Matter and Materials Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Matter and Materials

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Matter and Materials Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following are the states of matter?
a) Solid, Liquid, Water
b) Solid, Liquid, Gas
c) Solid, Liquid, Wood
d) Solid, Liquid, Sugar
Answer:
b) Solid, Liquid, Gas

Question 2.
Which of the following is a solid?
a) Kerosene
b) Air
c) Water
d) Apple
Answer:
d) Apple

Question 3.
Jute fibre is obtained from
a) leaf
b) stem
c) flower
d) root
Answer:
b) Stem

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
__________ soil is suitable for growing cotton.
Answer:
Black soil and alluvial soil

Question 2.
The process of making cotton yarn from cotton fibre is __________ .
Answer:
Spinning

Question 3.
Ginning is done to separate _______ from the seeds.
Answer:
Raw fibres

Question 4.
Synthetic fibre is also called _________ fibre.
Answer:
Artificial fibre

Question 5.
Woolen clothes are manufactured from _______.
Answer:
Plant / animals

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. e
4. c
5. d

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Coir is the outer covering of coconut.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Beans and peas are pulses.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Table is a household good.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Sweet corn is not a product of maize.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Cotton balls contain jute fibre.
Answer:
False

V. Complete the given analogy:

Question 1.
Solid: Table:: _______ : Water.
Answer:
Liquid

Question 2.
Cotton seed: _______ :: Lint: Spinning.
Answer:
Ginning

Question 3.
Coir fibre: _______ :: Cotton fibre: Cotton Plant.
Answer:
Coconut tree

Question 4.
Black Pepper: Spice:: Sweat corn: _______.
Answer:
Cereal

VI. Answer brief:

Question 1.
What is known as ginning?
Answer:
The raw fibres are separated from the seed by a process is known as ginning.

Question 2.
Give two examples of food products made from wheat.
Answer:
Wheat products are breads, cakes, pasta, wheat germ and cracked wheat.

Question 3.
What are synthetic fibres?
Answer:
The fibres made by human beings with the help of chemical process are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres. These fibres are obtained from coal, petroleum and natural gas.
Eg: Rayon, nylon, polyester, Acrylic.

Question 4.
What is known as upthrust?
Answer:
When an object is immersed into a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the object. It is known as upthrust.

Question 5.
Name the list of whole grains.
Answer:
Wheat, maize, rice, beans, peas, barley, and millets are some of the whole grains.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Discuss briefly about three states of matter.
Answer:
Matter is anything that has mass and occupies space. Matter can exist in three states: Solid, liquid and gas.
a) Solid: In solids, molecules are very closely packed, solids are incompressible. They have a definite shape, size and volume.
Eg: Table, Book, Metals.

b) Liquid: In liquids, molecules are loosely packed. Hence, liquids are ineligibly compressible. They have a definite volume but no definite shape and size.
Eg: Water, Milk, Petrol

c) Gas: In gases, molecules are very loosely poked. Hence gases are highly compressible.
Eg: Air, LPG, Oxygen.

Question 2.
Draw a flow chart to indicate the process of making fabrics from cotton ball.
Answer:

VIII. Give Reason:

Question 1.
Why umbrellas are made up of synthetic clothes?
Answer:
Umbrellas are made up of synthetic clothes because synthetic fibres are more hydrophobic than natural fibres. Nylon and polyester, the two fabrics most commonly used in umbrellas. Synthetic are not naturally absorb water like natural fibres. (Cotton, wool).

Question 2.
What determines whether an object floats or sinks in a fluid?
Answer:
Whether an object floats or sinks is determined by its density. When an object is immersed into a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the object. It is known as upthrust. If the weight is greater than the upthrust, it sinks. But it is less on the empty water bottle and so it floats.

Book Activities:

Activity 1.
Look at your surroundings. Give some examples of solid, liquid, and gases.

Answer:

Solids	Liquids	Gases
Stone	Water	Nitrogen
Book	Milk	Oxygen
Metals	Diesel	Hydrogen
Wood	Oil	Chlorine

Activity 2.
Classify the following Natural Fibres:
Polyster, Jute, Silk, Nylon, Cotton, Wool, Acrylic, Rayon.
Answer:

Synthetic Fibres	Natural Fibres
Dacron	Jute
Nylon	Coir
Rayon	Cotton
Acrylic	Wool

 

Activity 3.
Take water in a bucket and drop the following items in the water.
Apple, Scissors, Silver fork, Marbles, Plastic ball.

Fill the table with your observation.

Things	Float	Sink
Apple	Yes	No
Scissors	No	Yes
Silver fork	No	Yes
Marbles	No	Yes
Plastic ball	Yes	No

Activity 4.
Collect some samples of solid substances such as salt, sugar, chalk powder, sand and saw dust.
Take five beakers filled with water and add. a small amount of sugar to the first beaker, salt to the second and similarly, add small amounts of other substances in other beakers. Stir the content with a glass rod. Wait for few minutes. What happens to the substances added? Note your observation.

Answer:

Substances	Disappear in water / Does not disappear / Disappear completely in water
Salt	Disappear completely in water
Sugar	Disappear completely in water
Chalk powder	Does not disappear in water
Sand	Does not disappear in water
Saw Dust	Does not disappear in water

Activity 5.
Collect samples of coconut oil, kerosene, mustard oil, lemon juice, and vinegar. Take five test tubes, fill them up to half with water. Add a spoon full of one liquid to this and stir it well. Keep it in a test tube stand and wait for few minutes. Observe whether the liquid mixes with water. Repeat the experiment with other liquids and tabulate your observation.

Answer:

Liquid	Mixes well	Does not mix
Lemon Juice	Yes	No
Vinegar	Yes	No
Mustard oil	No	Yes
Coconut oil	No	Yes
Kerosene	No	Yes

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of these is a synthetic fibre.
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Rayon
d) Hemp
Answer:
c) Rayon

Question 2.
The natural fibre obtained from animal is ___________.
a) Rayon
b) Nylon
c) Silk
d) Jute
Answer:
c) Silk

Question 3.
__________ is used for making dhotis and sarees.
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Coir
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Cotton

Question 4.
A cotton plant is a bushy plant of __________ feet hight.
a) 4-5
b) 5-6
c) 6-7
d) 7-8
Answer:
b)5-6

Question 5.
Which state of matter has a definite shape.
a) liquid
b) solid
c) gas
d) all the above
Answer:
b) solid

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is an important process for making fabric from the yarn.
Answer:
knitting

Question 2.
Impurities of the cotton fibre can be removed by the process _______.
Answer:
combing

Question 3.
The world’s most valuable fibre is __________.
Answer:
Vicuna

Question 4.
__________ is used as a sweetener instead of sugar.
Answer:
Corn syrup

Question 5.
The process of making yarn from lint is called _____________.
Answer:
spinning

Question 6.
The artificial fibres are also known as _______.
Answer:
synthetic

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

Question 3.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Solids are compressible.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Dacron is an example of artificial fibres.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The fibrous material left after separating cotton seeds is called lint.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Barley and maize are grains.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Maize is also known as rice.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
White rice contains essential nutrients.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Coir fibre is obtained from the Jute.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
White rice is usually considered much healthier than Brown rice.
Answer:
False

V. Complete the Analogy:

Question 1.
Solids: incompressible:: Gas: _______
Answer:
Compressible

Question 2. Hemp: _______ :: Wool
Answer:
Animal fibre Plant fibre

Question 3.
Maize product: Tortilla chips:: _______ : Pasta
Answer:
Wheat products

Question 4.
_______ : Films:: Nylon: Fishing nets.
Answer:
Polyester

VI. Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Ginning
b) Spinning
c) Filling
d) Weaving
Answer:
Filling

Question 2.
a) Sweet corn
b) Tortilla chips
c) Pasta
d) Taco
Answer:
Pasta

Question 3.
a) Chalk powder
b) Sand
c) Sugar
d) Sawdust
Answer:
Sugar

Question 4.
a) Vinegar
b) Mustard oil
c) Kerosene
d) Coconut oil
Answer:
Vinegar

Question 5.
a) Wool
b)Nylon
c) Rayon
d) Acrylic
Answer:
Wool

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is material?
Answer:
A material is a mixture of substances that constitute an object. They can be pure or impure, natural or man-made.

Question 2.
What kind of soil needed for growing cotton?
Answer:
Cotton grows well in black soil and alluvial šoil.

Question 3.
What is cotton balls?
Answer:
The cotton plant bears a large number of small green pods called cotton balls.

Question 4.
What is Ginning?
Answer:
The raw fibres are separated from the seeds by a process known as Ginning.

Question 5.
Mention the two uses of cotton?
Answer:
Uses of cotton

• It is used to manufacture cotton textiles and garments.
• It is used as fillers in pillows and mattresses.
• It used for making surgical bandages.

Question 6.
Why jute fibre is called as Golden fibre?
Answer:
It is also referred to as the golden fibre due to its colour and cost effectiveness.

Question 7.
Write the uses of Jute?
Answer:
Uses of Jute

• It is used for making bags, carpets, curtains and ropes.
• It is used for making clothes for wrapping bales of raw cotton and to make socks for storing grains.
• It is used for making wall hangings for decoration.

Question 8.
What do you mean by synthetic fibre?
Answer:
These fibres are made by human beings with the help of chemical process. Hence, they are called synthetic fibres or manmade fibres.

Question 9.
Give an example of food products made from rice?
Answer:
Rice, idly, Idiappam and Rice aval (Flattened rice) are the food items made from rice.

Question 10.
Will eating millets reduce weight?
Answer:
Yes. It helps in weight loss. It is rich in fibre.

Question 11.
What are household goods?
Answer:

• These are the products that we use in our house.
• The goods that are found in a house permanently are called household goods.
• Household goods are:
  • Furniture
  • Kitchenware,
  • Cloths, Towels,
  • Beddings
  • Boots
  • Electronic goods.

Question 12.
What insoluble substance? Give examples.
Answer:
Substances which do not dissolve in water are said to be insoluble Substance.
Eg. chalk powder, sand, sawdust.

VIII.Answer in Detail :

Question 1.
Write a note on fibres.
Answer:

• Fibre is a thin thread of natural or artificial substances.
• It is used to make clothes with the help of power looms or weaving machines.
• The fibres we get from plants and animals are called natural fibres. Cotton, jute, coir, flax, hemp are examples for plant fibres.

• Wool and silk are examples for animal fibres
• Fibres made by humans by chemical synthesis are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres.
• Rayon, nylon, acrylic and dacron are examples for artificial fibres.
• These fibres are obtained from petroleum by complex chemical processes.

Question 2.
Write the uses of synthetic fibres.
Answer:

• Rayon is used to make rope, cloth, cap, tyre cords and carpets.
• Nylon is used to make fishing nets/ropes, parachutes, fabrics and bristles for brushes.
• Polyester is used to make fabric for suits and shirts, hoses, conveyer belts, films, PET bottles and wires.
• Acrylic is used to make sweaters, shawls and blankets.

Question 3.
Explain about the solubility of solids in water with examples.
Answer:

• Some substances completely dissolve in water. We say that these substances are soluble in water.
• Other substances do not dissolve in water even after we stir for a long time. These substances are insoluble in water.
• Examples: Salt, Sugar, Chalk powder, Sand, Sawdust

• Wool and silk are examples for animal fibres.
• Fibres made by humans by chemical synthesis are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres.
• Rayon, nylon, acrylic and dacron are examples for artificial fibres.
• These fibres are obtained from petroleum by complex chemical processes.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 2 Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.

_______ is the cultivation of crops.
a) Irrigation
b) Agriculture
c) Excavation
Answer:
b) Agriculture

Question 2.
A _______ is a person who is engaged in agriculture.
a)doctor
b)teacher
c) farmer
Answer:
c) farmer

Question 3.
_______ farming refers to the raising of animals along with the crops.
a) Commercial
b) Mixed
c) Subsistence
Answer:
b) Mixed

Question 4.
_______ monitors the level and nature of groundwater.
a) Central Ground Water Board
b) Metro Water Board
c) Sewage Water Board
Answer:
a) Central Ground Water Board

Question 5.
_______ is the largest cotton producing district in Tamil Nadu.
a) Coimbatore
b) Chennai
c) Cuddalore
Answer:
a) Coimbatore

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Rice is the leading food crop in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu has two soil types.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Drip irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Jackfruit is an example of plantation crop.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Mango is the leading fruit crop of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is agriculture?
Answer:

• Agriculture is the art and science of preparing the soil for cultivation, growing crops and raising livestock,
• Agriculture led to the development of human civilisation.

Question 2.
Write about farmers.
Answer:

• A farmer is a person who cultivates crops and rears animals (poultry and other livestock). India is a land of farmers.
• It is called so because majority of Indians are directly or indirectly involved in agricultural activities.

Question 3.
Name the different types of farming.
Answer:
There are several types of farming.

• Subsistence farming
• Commercial farming
• Plantation farming
• Mixed farming

Question 4.
What is well irrigation?
Answer:
Well irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.

Question 5.
What is well irrigation?
Answer:

• Well irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.
• Government of India is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of groundwater resources of the country.
• CGWB monitors the level and nature of groundwater.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about mixed and plantation farming.
Answer:

• Mixed Farming: Mixed Farming refers to the rearing of animals along with the cultivation. This type of farming is economical.
• Plantation Farming: Plantation Farming is done in an estate where a single cash crop is cultivated on a large scale.
  Examples: Tea, Coffee and Rubber.

Question 2.
Explain any two types of irrigation.
Answer:

• Well Irrigation: Well Irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.
• Canal Irrigation: Canal Irrigation is the most important form of irrigation in India. Most of the North Indian canals are perennial. The main canal irrigated areas are in the northern plains of India such as Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Bihar.

Question 3.
Write about the important crops of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu is suitable for the production of fruits, vegetables, spices, plantation crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants.
• Horticulture is the fastest growing sector within agriculture in Tamil Nadu.
• Paddy is grown in large areas because rice is the main staple food of the state.
  iv) The principal food crops are rice, maize, jowar (cholam), bajra (Kambu), ragi, and pulses (Bengal gram,
  red gram, green gram, black gram, and horse gram).

Activity:

Find out the Following.
Question 1.
One who produces food for us _______.
Answer:
Farmer

Question 2.
It is used for ploughing _______.
Answer:
Tractor

Question 3.
It is used for separating grain from hay _______.
Answer:
Winnower

Think Zone:

Question 1.
Which state is known as the Rice bowl of India?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is known as the Rice bowl of India.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Agriculture Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ of our national’s income comes from agriculture.
a) One-third
b) Two-third
c) One-forth
Answer:
a) One-third

Question 2.
_______ is a land of farmers.
a) Europe
b) India
c) Japan
Answer:
b) India

Question 3.
_______ method of farming is done by using modern tools and techniques.
a) Plantation farming
b) Subsistence farming
c) Commercial farming
Answer:
c) Commercial farming

Question 4.
_______ is the most important form of irrigation in India.
a) Well irrigation
b) Canal irrigation
c) Sprinkler irrigation
Answer:
a)Well irrigation

Question 5.
_______ is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
a) Thanjavur
b) Chennai
c) Madurai
Answer:
a) Thanjavur

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is the branch of agriculture.
Answer:
Animal husbandry

Question 2.
_______ has become a necessity for humans.
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 3.
Agricultural development contributes to the _______ of our country.
Answer:
Economy

Question 4.
_______ type of farming is economical.
Answer:
Mixed farming

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu depends on _______ and monsoon.
Answer:
Northeast, South west

Question 6.
_______ has been practised in Tamil Nadu for many generations.
Answer:
Well Irrigation

Question 7.
Water is sprayed through pipes in the air through _______.
Answer:
Sprinklers

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Agriculture led to the development of human civilisation.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Agriculture is the backbone of our economy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In commercial farming, crops, are cultivated and used only for own family consumption.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Canal irrigation is the most important form of irrigation in India.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sprinkler irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that saves water and soil nutrients.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Chennai is known as the Manchester of South India
Answer:
False

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following:
Question 1.
Define micro farmers.
Answer:
Farmers who cultivate in an area less than 1 hectare are called micro farmers.

Question 2.
Write a short note on subsistence farming.
Answer:
In subsistence farming, crops are cultivated and used only for own family consumption. Such type of farming is adopted by small and marginal farmers on fragmented land holdings. The cultivated crops are usually food crops.

Question 3.
Write about FCI.
Answer:
The Government has set up agencies like the Food Corporation of India to purchase the farm products directly from the farmers at reasonable rates.

Question 4.
What is Green revolution?.
Answer:
Green revolution is a process which brought an increase in crop production by using new varieties of seeds, pesticides and new agricultural techniques.

Question 5.
Who is the father of Green revolution in India?
Answer:
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan of Tamil Nadu is known as the Father of Green Revolution in India.

Question 6.
What is animal husbandry?
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture. It is to raise animals for meat, fur, milk, eggs and other products.

Question 7.
What is Horticulture?
Answer:
Horticulture is the science or art of cultivating fruits, vegetables, flowers or ornamental plants.

Question 8.
Name some important cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Navarai
• Sornavari
• Kar
• Kuruvai
• Samba
• Thaladi.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What is Irrigation? and types of Irrigation.

Answer:
Irrigation is the supply of water to land or crops for the purpose of agricultural production.
Types of Irrigation

• Well Irrigation
• Canal Irrigation
• Sprinkler Irrigation
• Drip Irrigation.

Question 2.
Write about sprinkler and Drip Irrigation.
Answer:

• Sprinkler irrigation: Sprinkler irrigation is similar to natural rainfall. Water is sprayed through pipes in the air through sprinklers.
• Drip Irrigation: Drip Irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that saves water and soil nutrients. In this system water drips slowly into the roots of plants through pipes. Pipes can be either above the soil surface or buried below the surface. The water directly reaches the roots and minimises evaporation.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 1 Organ System Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Organ System

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
What is the length of the alimentary canal?
a) 3-5 m
b) 5-6 m
c) 9-11 m
d) 6-9 m
Answer:
d) 6-9 m

Question 2.
Which organ is involved in respiration?
a) Kidney
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Brain
Answer:
b) Lungs

Question 3.
How many kidneys do we have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
Answer:
a) 2

Question 4.
Functional unit of brain is
a) Neuron
b) Nephron
c) Brain stem
d) Nerves
Answer:
a) Neuron

Question 5.
Blood is bumped by
a) Lungs
b) Heart
c) Kidneys
d) Bones
Answer:
b) Heart

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
A group of organs together make up an _______ system.
Answer:
organ system

Question 2.
The process by which the body removes waste is called _______.
Answer:
Excretion

Question 3.
The number of chambers in human heart is _______.
Answer:
Four

Question 4.
The functional unit of kidney is _______.
Answer:
Nephron

Question 5.
The human nervous system is divided into _______ parts.
Answer:
Two

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
The circulatory system is made up of the heart, blood, and blood vessels.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Important function of the heart is to transport blood with nutrients, oxygen, waste, and hormones.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The brain is protected by the rib cage.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The functional unit of kidney is neuron.
Answer:
False

IV. Circle the odd one:

Question 1:

Answer:

V. Match the following:

Answer:

1. C
2. e
3. d
4. a
5. b

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the salivary glands in our mouth?
Answer:
The three parts of salivary glands in our mouth are parotid, sublingual and submandibular glands.

Question 2.
What is respiration?
Answer:
The process of providing oxygen to the tissues of the body and removing carbon dioxide from the tissues is called respiration.

Question 3.
What is the function of pericardial fluid?
Answer:
The space between the membranes is filled with pericardial fluid. This fluid protects the heart from shock.

Question 4.
Name the chambers in human heart?
Answer:
The heart is divided into four chambers. Two upper chambers are called atria or auricles. Two lower thicker chambers are called ventricles. The upper and lower chambers are separated by a muscular wall or tissue known as auriculo-ventricular septum of the heart.

Question 5.
Arrange the excretory system in correct sequence.
(Urinary bladder, Ureter, Kidney, Urethra).
Answer:
Kidney, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra.

Question 6.
What are the two parts of peripheral nervous system?
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system consists of nerves extending from spinal cord to all parts of the body. It is made up of 2 parts.

• Somatic nervous system
• Autonomous nervous system.

Question 7.
What are the functions of blood?
Answer:

• Blood transports nutrients, oxygen, wastes, and hormones.
• It regulates the water level and body temperature.
• It takes oxygen to tissues and cells finally reaches the lungs to take oxygen again.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of the digestive system.

Answer:

• The process of conversion of complex food molecules into simpler molecules is called digestion.
• Saliva moistens food.
• Salivary enzymes which break down complex starch into simple carbohydrate molecules.
• Digestive enzymes are used for digesting fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.

Question 2.
Explain the main parts of the circulatory system.
Answer:

• In circulatory system, Blood is circulated to transport oxygen and nutrients to every part of the body through circulatory system.
• Circulatory system consists of the
  1. Heart
  2. Blood
  3. Blood Vessels

1. Heart:

• The heart is a hollow, muscular organ conical in shape.
• It is covered by a double walled pericardium membrane, filled with pericardial fluid.
• This fluid protects the heart from shock.
• Heart is placed inside the rib cage between the two lungs.
• Heart has 4 chambers, the two upper chambers called auricles.
• The two lower thicker chambers called ventricles.
• The upper and lower chambers of the heart are separated by muscular wall known as auriculo-ventricular septum.
• The right side of the heart receives de-oxygenated blood from various parts of body and pumped to the lungs for oxygenation.
• The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps to different parts of the body.

2. Blood:

• It transports nutrients’ oxygen, wastes and hormones.
• It regulates the water level and body temperature.
• Blood pumped through out the body by the heart.
• It takes oxygen to the tissues and cells from the lungs.

3. Blood vessels:
Blood vessels consists of arteries and veins. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary arteries which carries deoxygenated blood from the heart vein carries deoxygenated blood except pulmonary veins which carries oxygenated blood to heart.

Question 3.
Explain three major parts of human brain.
Answer:
Human brain is divided into 3 major parts.

1. Fore Brain (Cerebrum)
2. Mid Brain (Cerebellum)
3. Hind Brain (Medulla Oblongata)

1. Fore Brain – Cerebrum
The fore brain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus.

• It is the largest part of the brain.
• It is the centre of human memory.
• It is responsible for intelligence, imagination and reasoning.

2. Mid Brain – Cerebellum

• It lies behind the cerebrum.
• It co-ordinates the movements of the muscules of body.
• It helps to maintain the balance of the body.

3. Hind Brain – Medulla Oblongata

• The hind brain comprises of pons and medulla oblongata.
• It is also called the brain stem.
• It controls breathing, heartbeat, and other involuntary muscles, so it is called “Vital Knot”.
• It connects the brain to the spinal cord.

Question 4.
Label the diagram given below.

Answer:

VIII. Questions based on higher order thinking (HOT):

Question 1. Why It is important to wear helmet while riding a bike?
Answer:
Wearing helmet helps to protect your life and protect your head from danger. The head and brain is the most vulnerable to injury in a motorcycle accident. Drivers and passengers wearing helmets increase their chances of survival over non-helmet wearers. Riders who do not wear helmets are at risk of suffering a traumatic brain injury, if they are in accident. Brain trauma often results in spinal cord injuries and disability that requires extended care and physical therapy. The damaged brain may deteriorate after hospitalization and die days to weeks after the injury due to secondary injury.

Question 2.
Eating fast-food and junk food affects our health. Justify.
Answer:

• Fast food is usually higher in fat, calories cholesterol, and sodium in comparison to homemade meals.
• Eating too much fast food can increase the risk for health problems such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and obesity.
• Eating a poor quality diet high in junk food is linked to a higher risk of obesity, depression, digestive issues, heart diseases and stroke, type 2 diabetes, cancer, and early death.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The brain is kept in a bony case called
a) Cranium
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla Oblongata
Answer:
a) Cranium

Question 2.
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from
a) Lung
b) Heart
c) Liver
d) Kidney
Answer:
a) Lung

Question 3.
Name the functional unit of brain
a) Neurons
b) Nephrons
c) Fibrous membrane
d) Capsule
Answer:
a) Hind Brain

Question 4.
The brain loses the ability to function when it does not get oxygen for more than.
a) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 4 minutes
d) 5 minutes
Answer:
4 minutes

Question 5.
The volume of blood in human adults is _______.
a) 4-5 litres
b) 5-6 litres
c) 3-5 litres
d) 4-8 litres
Answer:
a) 4-5 litres

Question 6.
The volume of blood in human adults is _______.
a) 4-5 litres
b) 5-6 litres
c) 3-5 litres
d) 4-8 litres
Answer:

a) 4-5 litres

Question 7.
Heart ¡s covered with double walled membrane called
a) cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) pericardium
d) rib cage
Answer:
c) pericardium

Question 8.
____________ carries sensation’s from the organs to the brain.
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomous nervous system
c) Central nervous system
d) Spinal cord
Answer:
Somatic nervous system

Question 9.
____________ is the largest part of the brain.
a) Fore Brain
b) Mid Brain
c) Hind Brain
d) Centre Brain
Answer:
a) Fore Brain

Question 10.
Medulla oblongata is called as
a) pia meter
b) durameter
c) vital knot
d) pons verolli
Answer:
c) vital knot

Question 11.
Which of the following statement is correct about cerebellum?
a) It is the largest part of the brain
b) It co-ordinates the movements of the muscles of the body.
c) It controls involuntary action
d) It lies behind the cerebrum
Answer:
Both (b) and (d)

II. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
Salivary glands secrete _______.
Answer:
saliva

Question 2.
Name the organism which lives in the digestive system of human _______.
Answer:
Tapeworm

Question 3.
Liver produces for the digestion of fat.
Answer:
Bile

Question 4.
________ is sac – like in shape.
Answer:
Urinary bladder

Question 5.
Kidneys receive approximately ________ litres of blood.
Answer:
250 liter

Question 6.
The kidneys are made up of millions of excretory units called _______.
Answer:
Nephrons

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Liver transport nutrients, oxygen, wastes, and hormones.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Blood vessels consist of arteries and veins.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Crab has blue blood.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Autonomous nervous system carries sensation from the organs_______ to the brain.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Average weight of human brain ¡s 2.3 kg.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Brain is made up of eight immovable bones.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Fore brain lies behind the cerebrum.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Fore brain is the centre of human memory.
Answer:
True

IV. Circle the odd one out:

Question 1.
(a) Heart
(b) Blood vessels
(c) Airway
(d) Pancreatic juice
Answer:
(d) Pancreatic juice

Question 2.
(a) Air way
(b) Lungs
(c) Liver
(d) Muscles of respiration
Answer:
(c) Liver

Question 3.
(a) pancreatic juice
(b) Bile
(c) Digestive enzymes
(d) paracardial fluid
Answer:
(d) paracardial fluid

Question 4.
(a) Nasal cavity
(b) Pharynx
(c) Nostrils
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(d) Pancreas

Question 5.
(a) Dura mater
(b) Cranium
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pia meter
Answer:
(b) Cranium

Question 6.
(a) Pharynx
(b) Larynx
(c) bronchi
(d) Arteries
Answer:
(d) Arteries

V. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. b
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is digestion?
Answer:
The process of conversion of complex food molecules into simpler molecules is called digestion.

Question 2.
What are the compounds present in the food?
Answer:
The food contain complex compounds like carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

Question 3.
Mention the 3 important digestive glands in the process of digestion?
Answer:
Three important digestive glands in the process of digestion are:

• Salivary glands
• Pancreas
• Liver.

Question 4.
Why do we eat?
Answer:
Food contains sources of energy that the body needs to stay alive and to repair itself.

Question 5.
What happens when we swallow our food?
Answer:

• Our tongue squeezes off a portion and pushes down into your throat to the top of the esophagus.
• When we swallow muscular waves push the food along the digestive tract from the mouth down the esophagus to the stomach.
•  From the stomach, it moves on to the small and large intestine.

Question 6.
What are the most important toxic gases in smoke?
Answer:
Smoke contains many toxic gases. The most common is carbon monoxide.

Question 7.
What is the primary organ of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The lungs are the primary organs of the respiratory system. They are paired cone-shaped organs. They are located near the backbone on both sides of the heart.

Question 8.
Name the muscles of respiration?
Answer:
Muscles of respiration include diaphram and intercostal muscles.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw a flow chart to explain the function of digestive system in human being.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the parts for the structure of kidney.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the structure of heart.
Answer:

• The heart ¡s a hollow, muscular organ. It ¡s conical ¡n shape.
• It ¡s covered with double walled membrane called pericardiurn.
• The space between themembranes is filled with pericardial fluid. .
• The pericardial fluid protects the heart from shock.
• Heart ¡s placed inside the thoracic chamber (rib cage) ¡n between the two lungs.
• The heart ¡s divided into four chambers.
• Two upper chambers are called atrio or auricles.
• Two lower thicker chambers are called ventricles.
• The upper and lower chambers of the heart are separated by a muscular wall or tissue known as the auriculo-ventricular septum of the heart.
• The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body and pumps it to the lungs for
  oxygenation.
• The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it into different parts of the body.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 3 Educational Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Educational Rights

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Educational Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ is the first step for a child’s development.
a) Education
b) Exploration
c) Excavation
Answer:
a) Education

Question 2.
Education is more than ________.
a) Numeracy
b) Literacy
c) all of the above
Answer:
b) Literacy

Question 3.
“Education is the manifestation of the perfection already in man” is the famous quote of ________.
a) Mahatma Sandhi
b) Dr. Radhakrishnan
c) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
c) Swami Vivekananda

Question 4.
________ describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children.
a) The Right to Literacy Act
b) The Right to Education Act
c) The Right to School Act
Answer:
b) The Right to Education Act

Question 5.
The Government of India has framed the ________ to promote education.
a) National Education Policy
b) National Policy on Elementary Education
c) National Policy on Literacy
Answer:
a) National Education Policy

II. Match the following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Every child has the right to have free and compulsory education.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Education helps in increasing awareness of surroundings, social and political issues.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Right to School Act describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Numeracy is the first step towards making one educated.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, K.Kamaraj was implemented Free mid-day meal programme.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write about the importance of education.
Answer:
Education doesn’t mean that one should be literate. It is more than literacy. Education helps to

• analyse the reason.
• build skills to live.
• know what is right and wrong.
• lead a moral life.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Educational Rights.
Answer:

• Every child has right to have free and compulsory education.
• The Right to Education Act (RTE) specifies different responsibilities to the local authorities and government to ensure free and compulsory education.

Question 3.
What is the role of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:

• The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), the Right to Education Act (RTE) Act have improved the educational performance.
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) (Education for All) was launched in the year 2001.

Question 4.
Give a short note on National Education Policy.
Answer:

• In 2019, the Government of India has framed the National Education Policy (NEP) to promote education among the people of India.
• The NPE covers all educational systems from primary to college level.

Question 5.
Write any two features of Samagra Shiksha.
Answer:

• Providing quality education and improving learning outcomes of students.
• Focusing on girl education.
• Focusing on digital education.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Indian education system.
Answer:

• In ancient time India has the Gurukula system of education in which anyone who visited to study went to a teacher’s house and requested to be taught.
• The modern school was brought to India, including the English language, originally by Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay in the
• Education in India is provided by public school (controlled and funded by three levels: central, state and local) and private schools.
• Under various articles of the Indian Constitution, free and compulsory education is provided as a fundamental right to children between the ages of 6 and 14.

Question 2.
Write about the Right to Education Act in detail.
Answer:

• Right to Education Act (2009) describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 to 14 years of age.
• Education should be affordable to the common people. There should be no discrimination in education.
• The child should be at the centre of an education system.
  Important features of RTE
• Until the completion of elementary education, no student is stopped from school.
• Improvement in the quality of education.
• School infrastructure should be improved every three years.

Question 3.
Write about Samagra Shiksha in detail.
Answer:

• Samagra Shiksha is an integrated scheme for school education from pre-school to senior secondary levels.
• The scheme has been prepared with the broader goal of improving school effectiveness measured in terms of equal opportunities for schooling and equitable learning outcomes.
• The scheme is an integration of three already existing schemes – Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SAA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE).

Activity:

Solve the Puzzles:

Question 1.
I am white when I am dirty and black when I am clean. Who am I?
Answer:
Black Board

Question 2.
I am tall when I am young and I am short when I am old. Who am I?
Answer:
Pencil

Question 3.
I am wet when I am drying. Who am I?
Answer:
Towel

Question 4.
I have a neck but no head. Who am I?
Answer:
A bottle

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Educational Rights Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ is important for people as well as the nation.
a) Education
b) Exploration
c) Excavation
Answer:
a)Education

Question 2.
Education develops ________.
a) ability
b) power
c) wisdom
Answer:
c) wisdom

Question 3.
________ is best known for his speech which began with the words.
a) Dr. Radha Krishnan
b) Swami Vivekananda
c) Mahatma Sandhi
Answer:
b) Swami Vivekananda

Question 4.
The legislative section is divided into ________ lists.
a) two
b) three
c) four
Answer:
b) three

Question 5.
Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in ________.
a) 1968
b) 2000
c) 2009
Answer:
c) 2009

Question 6.
________ birth anniversary is celebrated as Educational Development Day.
a) K. Kamaraj’s
b) Gandhi’s
c) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
a) K. Kamaraj’s

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
________ also helps in overall development of a country.
Answer:
Education

Question 2.
Education removes superstitious ________.
Answer:

beliefs

Question 3.
________ is the system of education that was practised in ancient India.
Answer:
Gurukulam

Question 4.
The first National Education Policy was implemented in ________.
Answer:
1968

Question 5.
________ was launched in the year 2001.
Answer:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

III. Write True or False:

Question 1.
Education is more than literacy.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The youth should be at the centre of an education system.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The NPE covers all educational systems from primary to college level.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Child labour is allowed in our country.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Samagra Shiksha scheme improves the quality of education and the learning of students.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write a short note on education given by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

• Literacy in itself is no education.
• Literacy is not the end of education.
• Real education consists in drawing the best out of yourself.

Question 2.
Write the classifications of Indian educational system.
Answer:
Indian educational system is mainly divided into four stages. They are:

• Lower primary
• Upper primary
• Secondary
• Higher secondary.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan.
Answer:

• Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) was launched in 2009.
• The aim of this programme – Raising the minimum level of education to class X.

VI. Answer in detail:
Question 1.
What are the objectives of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?.
Answer:
Objectives of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

• Increasing the enrolment in primary schools
• Getting access to free and compulsory education for children up to age 14.
• Improving the quality of education.

 

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 2 Towards History Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Towards History

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Towards History Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
Palaeolithic humans,
(a) Wore cotton clothes
(b) Wore woolen clothes.
(c) Wore leaves and skin of animals
Answer:
(c) Wore leaves and skin of animals

Question 2.
________ was the first pet animal of man.
(a) Cow
(b) Horse
(c) Dog
Answer:
(c) Dog

Question 3.
What was the first metal discovered by early human?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Gold
Answer:
(b) Copper

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Early man lived in ________.
Answer:
caves and holes of big tree

Question 2.
The Stone Age is the period in which Stones were used as________ .
Answer:
weapons

Question 3.
________ was used to produce fire.
Answer:
Scratching two stones

Question 4.
________ is the first scientific invention of man.
Answer:
Stone wheels

Question 5.
At the end of New Stone Age, ________ was invented.
Answer:
copper

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What is Stone Age?
Answer:
Stone age is a period in which stones were used as weapons.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Nomadic Life.
Answer:

• Early humans did not know to grow crops.
• They wandered in all the landscapes in search of food.
• They ate whatever they got and drank water from natural sources.
• This kind of life was called nomadic life.

Question 3.
Define Neolithic age.
Answer:
Man used bones, horns, stones, skin, branches of trees and sticks as their tools and weapons. This stage of development in history was called New stone age or Neolithic age.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Pottery.
Answer:

• Pottery was also one of the greatest inventions by humans.
• The baked pot was strong and looked beautiful.
• Stone Age people made all the household artefacts by themselves.

Question 5.
Name some Archaeological sites in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamilnadu, Athichanallur, Arikkamedu and Keeladi.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How can we classify the Stone Age?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about Chalcolithic Age and Iron Age.
Answer:

• Chalcolithic Age – At the end of new Stone Age copper was invented. In this age both stone and copper were used. This period was called Chalcolithic Age.
• Iron Age – After Chalcolithic Age, humans discovered iron and started using iron tools and weapons. This age was called Iron Age. In this age household articles and agricultural tools were made up of iron.

InText Activity

Question 1.
What were the food eaten by early humans?
Answer:
Flesh of animals, green leaves, roots and grains.

Question 2.
Why did early humans live in caves?
Answer:
To Protect themselves from wild animals and weather.

Question 3.
Why did they eat raw flesh?
Answer:
They did not know the use of fire.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide 2 Towards History  Additional Question and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Humans tamed ___________ as their pet at first.
(a) dog
(b) cow
(c) fox
(d) elephant
Answer:
(a) do

Question 2.
Palaeolithic age is in _________ years ago.
(a) 10,000 BCE
(b) 8,000 BCE
(c) 100 BCE
(d) 4,000 BCE
Answer:
(a) 10,000

Question 3.
Mesolithic age is known as ________ .
(a) Old stone age
(b) Middle stone age
(c) New stone age
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Middle stone age

Question 4.
Civilisations started around ________ years ago.
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 500
Answer:
(b) 30

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Early humans used the ________ tools to protect themselves.
Answer:
stone

Question 2.
________ stone is used for making tools and weapons.
Answer:
Quartzite

Question 3.
________ stone was used to produce fire.
Ans :
Flint

Question 4.
Study of coins is called ________
Answer:
Numismatics

Question 5.
________ people used bones, horns, stones, skin, branches of trees.
Answer:
Neolithic age

Question 6.
________ was the greatest inventions by humans.
Answer:
Pottery

Question 7.
The period which has written documents are called ________ period.
Answer:
Historical

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the uses of fire?
Answer:

1. To protect themselves from animals.
2. To find the path at night.
3. To protect themselves from winter.

Question 2.
What is the help of historical period document?
Answer:
Historical period documents help us to know about the life styles of the people, events, food habits, culture, art, architecture, literature etc.,

Question 3.
What is stone wheels?
Answer:
When the stones rolled down the mountains they acquired round shape. Humans observed them and thus wheel was invented. In the beginning it was made of stone and later by wood. This was the first scientific invention.

Question 4.
What is Numismatics?
Answer:
study of coins is called Numismatics. All types of coins right from metals to paper help to learn about the kings, and economic conditions of that period.

Question 5.
What is inscription?
Answer:
Scripts inscribed about a king’s rule, people or society on rocks and walls are called inscriptions, usually they are found on temple walls.

Question 6.
Classify Palaeolithic and Neolithic tools.
Answer:
Palaeolithic tools – Tools made of Quartzite stone.
Neolithic age tools – Tools made of bones, horns, skin, branches of trees and sticks.

Question 7.
What are the sources that help us to learn history?
Answer:
All the evidences or traces like, artifacts, pots, coins, idols, ornaments, weapons written documents etc, are valuable sources to construct history.

Question 8.
What is a museum?
Answer:
Museum is a place where objects which are rare and used by our ancestors are preserved. These give information about the lives of people.

Question 9.
Why were paintings drawn on rocks?
Answer:

• Paintings could have been drawn or rocks to convey their lifestyles to the future generations.
• They might have wished to record their activities through their paintings.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 1 Forts and Palaces Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Forts and Palaces

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Forts and Palaces Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ fort was built by Kings of Vijayanagar.
a) Udayagiri
b) Vellore
c) Gingee
Answer:
b) Vellore

Question 2.
Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is situated in _______.
a) Salem
b) Thirumalai
c) Madurai
Answer:
c) Madurai

Question 3.
_______ Mahal is considered as one of the oldest historical libraries in India.
a) Saraswathi
b) Lakshmi
c) Durga
Answer:
a) Saraswathi

Question 4.
Padmanabhapuram Palace is in _______.
a) Ooty
b) Kanyakumari
c) Chennai
Answer:
b) Kanyakumari

Question 5.
_______ fort is locally called Danish fort.
a) Dindigul
b) Gingee
c) Tharangambadi
Answer:
c) Tharangambadi

II. Match the following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1
Tamil Nadu has been ruled by many Rulers. Especially by the Chera, Chola, Pandya, and Pallava rulers.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Vellore Fort has five mahals.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Dindigul Fort was built by the Nayaks of Madurai.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Oomayan Kottai is the other name for Gingee fort.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The Padmanabhapuram Palace was built by the ruler of Travancore.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the prime attractions of Tamil Nadu tourism?
Answer:
palaces and forts are the prime attractions of Tamil Nadu tourism.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Tharangambadi fort.
Answer:

• Tharangambadi fort is locally called Danish fort. It is located on the shores of Bay of Bengal in Tharangambadi (Tranquebar), Tamil Nadu.
• The fort is trapezoidal in shape with three rooms in the left wing.
• The central pillar of the hall holds the entire weight of the domes.

Question 3.
Name some of the tourist attractions of Gingee fort.
Answer:
Gingee Fort is a huge fort with many attractions like Kalyan Mahal, temples, Aanaikulam pond, granaries and a watchtower.

Question 4.
Give a short note on Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace.
Answer:

• Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is a 17th-century architecture of Nayakkar dynasty. It is one of the most popular palaces in South India.
• Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is located in the city of Madurai. This is one of the tourist spots of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Who built the Thanjavur Maratha Palace? Write some of its tourist attractions.
Answer:

• Thanjavur Maratha palace was originally constructed by the rulers of Thanjavur Nayakkar kingdom.
• Thanjavur Palace Complex is a tourist attraction which houses three separate venues: the palace, the art gallery, and a manuscript library (Saraswathi Mahal).

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the Vellore fort.
Answer:

• Vellore Fort is a 16th-century fort situated in Vellore, Tamil Nadu. It was built by the Kings of Vijayanagara.
• Among the forts in Tamil Nadu, Vellore fort is considered to be one of the most invincible forts.
• It is surrounded by a deep and wide moat.
• The water of this moat was home to thousands of crocodiles.
• It was feared by many raiders of the fort. This fort is a good example of military architecture.

Question 2.
Write about Dindigul fort.
Answer:

• Dindigul Fort is a 17th-century hill fort situated in Dindigul, Tamil Nadu. It is also called Dindigul Malai Kottai.
• Dindigul Fort was built by the Nayakkars of Madurai, in order to defend their region from the invading Mysore army.
• Presently, the fort is maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• The fort was cemented with double walls to withstand heavy artillery.

Question 3.
Describe the architecture and various sections of Padmanabhapuram Palace.
Answer:

• Padmanabhapuram Palace is a beautiful historical monument that is situated at Padmanabhapuram, Kanyakumari District. It is also known as Kalkulam Palace.
• Padmanabhapuram Palace is a wooden palace which is built in Kerala style of architecture.
• The Padmanabhapuram Palace was built by the ruler of Travancore. The palace has various sections like Queen Mother QJ Palace, Council Chamber, Southern Palace, and so on.
• 

Activity:

Question 1.

Answer:

Prince

King

Princess

Queen

Question 2.

Connect the following objects with their names.
(Bow and Arrow, Sword, Throne, Shield, Crown)

Answer:

Throne

Crown

Shield

Bow and Arrow

Sword

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Forts and Palaces Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ are the prime attractions for tourists in Tamil Nadu.
a) Historical Places
b) Police Station
c) Hospital
Answer:
a) Historical Places

Question 2.
Vellore fort is a _______ century fort situated in Vellore.
a) 15th
b) 16th
c) 17th
Answer:
b) 16th

Question 3.
_______ fort is also called Dindigul Malai kottai.
a) Vellore
b) Gingee
c) Dindigul
Answer:
e) Dindigul

Question 4.
Thirumayam Fort is located in _______.
a) Madurai
b) Pudukottai
c) Chennai
Answer:
b) Pudukottai

Question 5.
Gingee fort is built across _______ is hills.
a) three
b) four
c) five
Answer:
a) Three

Question 6.
_______ is also known as kalkulam palace.
a) Thanjavur Maratha palace
b) Padmanabhapuram palace
c) Saraswathi mahal palace
Answer:
b) Padmanabhapuram palace

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is surrounded by a deep and wide moat.
Answer:
Vellore fort

Question 2.
Dindigul fort was cemented with double walls to withstand heavy _______.
Answer:
Artillery

Question 3.
_______ is functioning inside the George fort.
Answer:
State Secretariat

Question 4.
_______ is popular for its large rock inscriptions.
Answer:
Thirumayam fort

Question 5.
Thirumalai Nayakkar palace has an _______ museum.
Answer:
Archaeological

Question 6.
Thanjavur Maratha palace is popularly called _______.
Answer:
Thanjavur Aranmanai

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Write True or False:

Question 1.
Cholas, Pandyas, and Nayakkars constructed magnificent forts and palaces in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Gingee fort is a good example of military architecture.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Fort St. George is the first fort built by the British in India.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Thirumayam Fort is famous for its artistic work and architectural brilliance.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sadras Fort is located in Madurai.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Padmanabhapuram palace is a wooden palace which is built in kerala style of architecture.
Answer:
True

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the inside that Vellore fort?
Answer:
Inside the Vellore fort, there is a well-known temple called Jalakanteswarar temple, a church, a mosque, a museum and several government offices.

Question 2.
Name the important Mahals in Vellore fort.
Answer:
Vellore fort has five important Mahals. They are

• Hyder Mahal
• Tippu Mahal
• Begam Mahal
• Candy Mahal
• Badhusha Mahal

Question 3.
Write a short note on Fort 5t.George.
Answer:
Fort St. George is the first fort built by the British in India. Fort St. George is located in Chennai. State Secretariat is functioning inside the fort.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Tamukkarn Palace.
Answer:
Tamukkarn Palace was the summer residence.  Of the Queen Rani Mangammal of Nayak dynasty. It is located in Madurai.

Question 5.
What the major attraction of Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace?
Answer:
The major attraction of Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is the courtyard and the dancing hall.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the structure of Thirumayam fort.
Answer:

• Thirumayam Fort is famous for its artistic work and architectural brilliance.
• It is located in Pudukottai, Tamil Nadu.
• Thirumayam Fort is popular for its large rock inscriptions.
• It is also known as Oomayan Kottai.

Question 2.
Write about Saraswathi Mahal.
Answer:

• Saraswathi Mahal is considered as one of the oldest historical libraries in India.
• Saraswathi Mahal also has a museum.
• The library has more than a million manuscripts in languages like Tamil, Sanskrit, Marathi, Telugu, and Manipravalam.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 2 Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hydrosphere

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Hydrosphere is the total amount of _______ present on earth.
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) Plants
Answer:
b) Water

Question 2.
Select the odd one out.
a) Arabian
b) Indian
c) Arctic
d) Pacific
Answer:
a) Arabian

Question 3.
Water body that is surrounded by land on all sides is called _______.
a) River
b) Gulf
c) Lake
d) Bay
Answer:
c) Lake

Question 4.
Evaporation is the _______ stage of the water cycle.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer:
a) First

Question 5.
Water body that is partially enclosed by land and has wide opening to the sea is called _______.
a) Sea
b) Strait
c) Bay
d) Pond
Answer:
c) Bay

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
About 97.5% of water on the earth is salt water.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Water is not necessary for our basic needs.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Water in the sea is sweet.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We should keep the tap open throughout while washing utensils.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
We should save water.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Define hydrosphere.
Answer:
Hydrosphere is the total amount of water present on a planet. The hydrosphere includes water that is present on the surface of the planet, underground, and in the air.

Question 2.
Why is the hydrosphere important?
Answer:
We need water to carry out many activities in our daily lives. We need water to drink, take bath, cook food, etc. Animals and plants also need water for their survival. If there is no water, it cannot evaporate and form clouds. So there will not be any rain.

Question 3.
Name the different types of water bodies.
Answer:
Oceans, Seas, Rivers, Lakes, Gulf. Bay, Lagoon, Strait, Waterfall.

V. Answer the following in detail :
Question 1.
What are the different stages of water cycle?
Answer:
Stage I : Evaporation – The heat of the sun falls on the water bodies like Ocean, Sea, Lakes, Rivers, etc. The water slowly evaporates as vapours into the air.

Stage II: Condensation – As the vapours rise high, the cooler temperatures make them cool down and turn back into liquid. This is called condensation. Wind and air move the liquid around, leading to the formation of clouds.

Stage III: Precipitation – Wind movements cause the clouds particles to collide. They become rain-bearing clouds and fall back on to the earth’s surface by the process known as precipitation. This may occur in the form of rain, hail, snow, or sleet depending upon the temperature conditions.

Stage IV: Runoff and Infiltration – The water either runs off into oceans, rivers and ground surface or is absorbed into the soil (infiltration). This cycle continues.

Question 2.
Give few steps to save water.
Answer:

• Check your toilet for leaks.
• Take shorter showers.
• Turn off the water while brushing your teeth.
• Check faucets and pipes for leaks.
• Use your automatic dishwater for full loads only.
• Water during the cool parts of the day.

Activity:

Question 1.
List out the uses of water in our daily life.
Answer:

• Domestic purpose: cooking, drinking, bathing, washing.
• Agricultural purpose: Farming, gardening, fishing.
• Industrial purposes: Manufacturing.
• Recreation: Swimming, rafting, boating.
• Hydropower: generation.

Think Zone:

Question 1.
What other water sources can be a part of the Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The hydrosphere includes water storage areas such as Oceans, Lakes, Ponds, Rivers, seas.

Question 2.
Name some water bodies in your locality.
Answer:
Oceans, Seas, Rivers, Ponds, Waterfalls.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Ancient Excavation Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
_______ is the total amount of water present on a planet.
a) Hydrosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) Biosphere
Answer:
a) Hydrosphere

Question 2.
_______ are vast water bodies that usually separate continents from one another.
a) Oceans
b) Seas
c) Rivers
d) Ponds
Answer:
a) Oceans

Question 3.
A _______ is a large area of an ocean or a sea that is surrounded by land.
a) Rivers
b) Lakes
c) Gulf
d) Bay
Answer:
c) GuIf

Question 4.
Wind movements cause the clouds particles to collide is _______.
a) Evaporation
b) Condensation
c) Precipitation
d) Infiltration
Answer:
c) Precipitation

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Hydrosphere covers about 97% of the planet Earth.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Animals and plants also need water for their survival.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sea water is salty in nature.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A lake is a body of water, which is partially enclosed by land.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Do not put plastic garbage when you go near beaches.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Lagoon?
Answer:
A lagoon is a lake separated from the open sea by sand or rocks. Lake Chilika in Odisha, India is an example of a lagoon.

Question 2.
What is strait? Give example.
Answer:
A strait is a narrow stretch of water which joins two larger water bodies. Example: Palk Strait joining the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.

Question 3.
What is waterfall? Give example.
Answer:
Water falling when a river flows over an edge of hard rocks from a great height is called waterfall.

Example: Courtallam Waterfall.

V. Answer the following in detail:
Question 1
Describe any five types of water bodies.
Answer:
Seas: Seas are also vast water bodies but smaller than oceans in size. They are partly closed by land and opens up to the Ocean. Sea water is salty in nature.
Example: Arabian Sea.

Rivers: Rivers are large streams that flow over the land. Rivers are fresh water bodies which generally begin at mountainous areas. They usually drain in oceans or seas.

Lakes: A lake is a water body surrounded by land on all sides. Lakes can have salt or fresh water. Example: Dal Lake.

Gulf: A gulf is a large area of an ocean or a sea that is surrounded by land.
Example: Gulf of kutch.

Bay: A bay is a body of water, which is partially enclosed by land. It has a wide-mouthed opening of land and is joined to the sea or other large water bodies.
Example: Bay of Bengal

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 1 Ancient Excavation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Ancient Excavation

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Ancient Excavation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
study the history of humans and places through excavation.
a) Archaeologists
b) Scientists
c) Excavationist
Answer:
a) Archaeologists

Question 2.
Small pyramids were made for the ______ in Egypt.
a) Prince
b) King
c) Queen
Answer:
c) Queen

Question 3.
Indus civilisation is also called as ______ Civilisation.
a) Egypt
b) Harappan
c) American
Answer:
b) Harappan

Question 4.
Adichanallur is in ______ .
a) Thoothukudi
b) Chennai
c) Pondicherry
Answer:
a) Thoothukudi

Question 5.
keezhadi revealed the ______ era.
a) Modern
b) Sangam
c) Middle age
Answer:
b) Sangam

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
During excavations many artifacts were found.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Indus Civilisation is located in Harappa.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Adichanallur is an archaeological site in Coimbatore district of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Keezhadi excavation revealed that it was not a developed city.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Roman lamps, glass, stone beads, gems etc. were found in Arikamedu.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is excavation?
Answer:
Excavation is the process in which people dig the Earth to find things that were used long ago.

Question 2
Who is an archaeologist?
Answer:
They study the history of humans and places through excavation and analyse the artefacts. Excavation gives us a glimpse of the past.

Question 3
Write a short note on pyramids.
Answer:
When the Pyramids were excavated it was found that the small pyramids were made for the Queens with personal chapels in it. They found huge tombs with super structures which were built for the burial of the royal family.

Question 4.
What are the artifacts that were found in Adichanallur?.
Answer:
The artefacts unearthed were Urns, pottery of various kinds (Red Ware, Black Ware), iron implements, daggers, swords, spears and arrows, some stone beads and a few gold ornaments.

Question 5.
Where is Keezhadi located?
Answer:
Keezhadi is located in Sivagangai District.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the Indus Civilisation.
Answer:
Indus Civilisation is also called Harappan Civilisation. This was the first site to be excavated in the early 20th century. Baked bricks were found underground. The city was a well-planned, proper sanitation systems, proper well and a way to direct waste water to closed drains. There were advanced granaries, Great bath and protective walls.

Question 2.
Give a detailed study of Keezhadi.
Answer:
Keezhadi is located in Sivagangai district and the village at Thiruppuvanam taluk. Excavations have produced evidence for brick buildings, and well laid – out drainage system. Tamil – Brahmi inscription on pottery, beads of glass, cornelian and quartz, pearl, gold ornaments and iron objects, shell bangles, ivory dice have been unearthed. The Roman artifacts found at the site add to the evidence of ancient Indo – Roman trade relations.

Question 3.
Write about Arikamedu in detail.
Answer:
Arikamedu is an archaeological site situated 4 km from Pondicherry. An archeologist found Roman lamps, glass, stone beads, gems etc. It was a small fishing village, which in earlier times, was a major chola port. Beads of glass, stone, gold and precious and semi-precious stones were made here. Arikamedu was unique because of its production of both stones and glass beads. It was considered as “mother of all bead centres”.

Think Zone:

Question 1.
If I dig the ground near my house, will I get artifacts?
Answer:
No, but if we have the chance to get lucky.

Question 2.
How do archaeologists identify the places with artifacts in it?
Answer:
Archaeologists also look at buildings, ruins, unusual mounds or sunken spots in the land. Sometimes, archaeologists can tell where old roads or walls once stood by looking at aerial photographs. Other times they can get clues from old books, documents and maps.

Question 3.
How do archaeologists get to know the history of a place by looking at the artifacts found in the site of excavation?
Answer:
Test pits are a small hole dug to determine the location, density and spread of artifacts. Then archaeologists excavate the site using trowels shovels and various other tools. They carefully remove dirt and note the precise location of any artifacts found.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Ancient Excavation Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
_______ is controlled exploration of what lies under the surface of earth.
a) Excavation
b) Archeologists
c) Scientists
Answer:
a) Excavation

Question 2.
_______ was the first site to be excavated in the early 20th century.
a) Mohenjodaro civilisation
b) Indus civilisation
c) None of these
Answer:
b) Indus civilisation

Question 3.
Arikamedu is an archaeological site situated 4 km from _______.
a) Chennai
b) Thoothukudi
c) Pondicherry
Answer:
c) Pondicherry

Question 4.
The process of digging the ground is called _______.
a) Archeologist
b) Excavation
c) Environment
Answer:
b) Excavation

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Excavation gives us a glimpse of the past.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Indus civilisation is also called mohenjodara civilisation.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Pyramids and Indus civilisation are excavation sites in the world.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Archaeological survey of India excavated an ancient town dating to sangam Age in Keezhadi village.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are artifacts?
Answer:
The things that Archeologists find during excavation are called artifacts.

Question 2
What is archaeological site?
Answer:
Any place where human activity has occurred and artifacts have been found is called an archaeological site.

Question 3
What are the important excavation sites in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Adhichanallur, Keezhadi and Arikamedu are important excavation sites in Tamil Nadu.