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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to ………………
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Question 2.
The profounder of double entry system of book-keeping is ……………..
(a) J, R. Batlibai
(b) Luca Pacioli
(c) Old Kesal
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) Luca Pacioli

Question 3.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is
(a) Business Entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservatism
Answer:
(b) Going concern

Question 4.
GAAPs are …………….
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Question 5.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of ……………….
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservatism
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservatism

Question 6.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ……………
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 7.
Which of the following does not follow dual aspect concept?
(a) Increase in one asset and decrease in other asset
(b) Increase in both asset and liability
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset
(d) Increase in one asset and increase in capital
Answer:
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define book-keeping.
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. (J.R.Batlibai)
“Book-keeping is the science and art of recording correctly in the books of account all those business transactions of money or money’s worth”. (R.N. Carter)

Question 2.
What is meant by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts are the basic assumptions or conditions upon which accounting has to be laid. The word concept means a notion or abstraction which is generally accepted. Accounting concepts provide a unifying structure to the accounting process and accounting reports.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about revenue recognition concept.
Answer:
According to the accrual concept, the effects of the transactions are recognized on a mercantile basis, i.e., when they occur and not when cash is paid or received. Revenue is recognized when it is earned and expenses are recognized when they are incurred. All expenses and revenues related to the accounting period are to be considered irrespective of the fact that whether revenues are received in cash or not and whether expenses are paid in cash or not.

Question 4.
What is the “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting?
Answer:

1. It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement.
2. This is important because the management is different from the owners in most organizations.
3. The disclosure should be full, fair, and adequate so that the users of the financial statements can make a correct assessment of the financial position and performance of the business unit.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on the ‘Consistency’ assumption.
Answer:
The consistency convention implies that the accounting policies must be followed consistently from one accounting period to another. The results of different years will be comparable only when the same accounting policies are followed from year to year.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the matching concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept?
Answer:
1. According to this concept, revenues during an accounting period are matched with expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenue during that period.
2. This concept is based on the accrual concept and periodicity concept.
3. Periodicity concept fixes the time frame for measuring performance and determining financial status.
4. Based on this the adjustments are made for outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.
5. It matches the revenues earned during an accounting period with the expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenues before sharing any profit or loss.

Question 2.
Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
This concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money, are recorded in the accounts. Since money serves as the medium of exchange transactions expressed in money are recorded and the ruling currency of a country is the measuring unit for accounting. Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts. For example, working conditions in the workplace, strike by employees, the efficiency of the management, etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Question 3.
“Business units last indefinitely”. Mention and explain the concept on which the statement is bused.
Answer:
1. It is based on Going Concern Concept.
2. It influences accounting practices in relation to the valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses, and accrued and unearned revenues.
3. Business will be continued for a foreseeable future.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on Accounting Standards.
Answer:
Accounting Standards provide the framework and norms to be followed in accounting so that the financial statements of different enterprises become comparable. It is necessary to standardize the accounting principles to ensure consistency, comparability, adequacy, and reliability of financial reporting. Thus, Accounting Standards are written policy documents issued by the expert accounting body or by government or other regulatory bodies covering the aspects of recognition, measurement, treatment, presentation, and disclosure of accounting transactions and events in the financial statements.

11th Accountancy Guide Books of Prime Entry Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
ASB was constituted in India in the year………………
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1976
Answer:
(a) 1977

Question 2.
Business is distinct from the owner. This concept is called …………….
(a) Going Concern Concept
(b) Separate Entity Concept
(c) Money measurement Concept
(d) Revenue Realization Concept
Answer:
(b) Separate Entity Concept

Question 3.
According to ……………… concept, every transaction or event has two aspects i.e.,’dual effect.
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 4.
Financial or business transaction is recorded, according to accrual concept of accounting ………………
(a) When cash is received or paid
(b) When a transaction occurs
(c) When profit is computed
(d) When the balance sheet is prepared
Answer:
(b) When a transaction occurs

Question 5.
……………… requires analytical skill.
(a) Accounting
(b) Single entry
(c) Book-keeping
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 6.
Which of the following is not the main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertaining profit or loss
(c) Ascertainment of financial position
(d) Solving tax disputes
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes

Question 7.
Capital + Liabilities = Assets
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 8.
A business enterprise is separate from its owner according to ……………… concept.
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Entity concept

Question 9.
The non-financial transactions are not entered because of …………..
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) Money measurement concept

Question 10.
Historical cost concept requires the recording of an asset………..
(a) At its cost
(b) At the market value
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) At its cost

Question 11.
The rule ‘every transaction affects two or more ledger accounts’ is based on the concept of …………….
(a) Going concerned
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping
(c) Money measurement
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping

Question 12.
Which of the following is correct about ‘Accounting Concept’?
(a) Accounting concepts are based on accounting conventions
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices
(c) Accounting concepts are methods or procedures accepted by general agreement
(d) Personal judgment has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.
Answer:
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a fundamental accounting assumption?
(a) Going concerned
(b) Consistency
(c) Prudence
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Prudence

Question 14.
A businessman purchased goods for Rs. 25, 00,000 and sold 80% of such goods during the accounting year ended 31st March 2015. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs. 4,00,000. He valued the dosing inventory at cost. He violated the concept of
(a) Money measurement
(b) Conservatism
(c) Cost
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Conservatism

Question 15.
Total sales during the year amount to Rs.70,000; cash sales Rs.10,000; Balance of trade receivables at the end of the year Rs.25,000. Cash received from customers during the year will be …………….
(a) Rs. 35,000
(b) Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 37,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Rs. 35,000

Question 16.
Selection of accounting policies is based on …………..
(a) Prudence
(b) Substance over form
(c) Materiality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
As per the dual aspect concept, every business transaction has ………….
(a) Three aspects
(b) One aspect
(c) Two Aspects
(d) Four Aspects
Answer:
(c) Two Aspects

Question 18.
XCAI stands for ……………….
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) Institute of Cost Accountants of India
(c) International Chartered Accounts Investigation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 19.
if land is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and its market value is Rs. 5,00,000. At the time of preparing final accounts the land value is recorded only for …………
(a) Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,00,000
(c) Rs. 8,00,000
(d) Rs. 2,00,000
Answer:
(b) Rs. 3,00,000

Question 20.
The direct advantage of accounting does not include ………..
(a) Preparation of financial statements
(b) Competitive advantage
(c) Ascertainment of profit or loss
(d) Information to interested groups
Answer:
(b) Competitive advantage

Question 21.
Going concern assumption tells us the life of the business is ……………..
(a) very short
(b) very long
(c) short
(d) none
Answer:
(b) very long

Question 22.
The cost incurred should be matched with the revenues of the particular Period is based on …………….
(a) matching concept
(b) historical cost concept
(c) full disclosure concept
(d) dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) matching concept

Question 23.
IFRS is…………………
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards
(b) International Final Reporting Standards
(c) India Financial Reporting Standards
(d) India Final Reporting Standards
Answer:
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards

Question 24.
…………… said, “Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”.
(a) J.R. Batliboi
(b) R.N. Carter
(c) Luca Pacioli
(d) Menhir
Answer:
(b) R.N. Carter

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two features of book-keeping.
Answer:
The main features of Book-keeping are:

1. It is the process of recording transactions in the books of accounts.
2. Monetary transactions only are recorded in the accounts.

Question 2.
What are the limitations of book-keeping?
Answer:
Only monetary transactions are recorded in the books of accounts.
1. Effects of price level changes are not considered.
2. Financial data recorded are historical in nature, i.e., only past data are recorded

Question 3.
Write any two advantages of book-keeping.
Answer:
The advantages of Book-keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.

Question 4.
what is meant by IFRS?
Answer:

1. International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are issued by the International Accounting Standard Board (IASB).
2. IFRS is a set of International Accounting Standards stating how particular types of transactions and other events should be reported in financial statements.
3. IFRS is issued to develop Accounting Standards that would be acceptable worldwide and to improve financial reporting internationally.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of book-keeping?
Answer:
The main objectives of book-keeping are:

1. To have a complete and permanent record of all business transactions in chronological order and under appropriate headings.
2. To facilitate ascertainment of the profit or loss of the business during a specific period.
3. To facilitate ascertainment of financial position.
4. To know the progress of the business.
5. To find out the tax liabilities.
6. To fulfill the legal requirements.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Book-Keeping?
Answer:
Book-keeping has the following advantages:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by businesses serve as legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information over the years is possible. Also, a comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Book-keeping is useful to find out the tax liability.

Question 3.
Differentiate Book-Keeping with Accounting.
Answer:

Question 4.
What are the advantages of book-keeping?
Answer:
The advantages of book-keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by businesses serve as legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Bookkeeping is useful to find out the tax liabilities.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Concepts of Accounting. (Any Five)
Answer:
Business Entity Concept:

• A business unit is separate from the owner or owners
• Accounts are prepared from the point of view of the business and not from the owner’s point of view.
• Only business transactions are recorded.

Money Measurement Concept:

• Those transactions which can be expressed in terms of money are recorded in the accounts.
• Money serves as the medium of exchange transactions.
• Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.

Going Concern Concept:

• It is the basic assumption that business is a going concern and will continue its operations for the foreseeable future.
• It influences accounting practices in relation to the valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of the fixed assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses, and accrued and unearned revenues.

Dual Aspect Concept:

• Every transaction or event has two aspects
• This concept recognizes the fact that for every debit, there is a corresponding and equal credit.
• This the basis of the entire system of double-entry book-keeping.
• This concept arises the basic accounting equation that it:
  Capital + Liabilities = Assets.

Realization Concept:

• Any change in the value of an asset is to be recorded only when the business realizes it.
• When assets are recorded at historical value, any change in value is to be accounted for only when
  it realizes.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.3 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.3

Question 1.
Given the following pay – off matrix (in rupees) for three strategies and two states for nature.

Select a strategy using each of the following rule (i) Maximin (ii) Minimax
Solution:

(i) Max min
Max ( 40, -20, -40) = 40. Since the maximum pay-off is 40, the alternative S, is selected.

(ii) Minimax
min (60, 10, 150) = 10, Since the minimum payoff is 10. the alternative S₂ is selected.

Question 2.
A farmer wants to decide which of three crops he should plant on his 100 – acre farm. The profit from each is dependent on the rainfall during the growing season. The farmer has categorized the amount of rainfall as high medium and low. His estimated profit for each is shown in the table.

In the farmer wishes to plant only crop, decide which should be his best crop using (i) Maximin (ii) Minimax
Solution:

(i) Maximin
Max ( 3500, 4500, 2000) = 4500. Since the maximum pay-off is 4500, the alternative ‘Medium’, is selected.

(ii) Minimax
min (8000, 5000, 5000) = 5000, Since the minimum pay-off is 5000. the alternatives both ‘Medium’ and ‘Low’ are selected.

Question 3.
The research department of Hindustan Ltd. has recommended to pay marketing department to launch a shampoo of three different types. The marketing types of shampoo to be launched under the following T estimated pay-offs for various level of sales.

What will be the marketing manager’s decision if (i) Maximin and (ii) Minimax principle applied?
Solution:

(i) Maximin
Max ( 10, 5, 3) = 10. Since the maximum pay of is 10, “Egg Shampoo”, is selected.

(ii) Minimax
min (30, 40, 55) = 30, Since the minimum pay-off is 30. the alternative “Egg Shampoo” is selected

Question 4.
Following pay – off matrix, which is the optimal decision under of the following rule (i) maximin (ii) minimax

Solution:

(i) Maximin
Max ( 5, 7, 9, 8) = 5. Since the maximum pay-off is 5, the alternative A₁ is selected.

(ii) Minimax
min (14, 11, 11, 13) = 11, Since the minimum pay-off is 11. the alternative alternatives A₂ and A₃ are selected.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.2

Question 1.
What is the Assignment problem?
Solution:
Suppose that we have ‘m1 jobs to be performed on ‘n’ machines. The cost of assigning each job to each machine is C_ij (i = 1, 2, … n and j = 1, 2, … , n). Our objective is to assign the different jobs to the different machines (one job per machine) to minimize the overall cost. This is known as an assignment problem.

Question 2.
Give mathematical form of assignment problem.
Solution:
Consider the problem of assigning n jobs to n machines (one job to one machine). Let C_ij be the cost of assigning i^th job to the j^th machine and x_ij represents the assignment of i^th job to the j^th machine.

x_ij is missing in any cell means that no assignment is made between the pair of job and machine.(i.e) x_ij = 0.
x_ij is present in any cell means that an assignment is made their. In such cases x_ij = 1
The assignment model can written in LPP as follows
Minimize Z = \(\sum_{i=1}^{m}\) \(\sum_{j=1}^{n}\) C_ij x_ij
Subject to the constrains
\(\sum_{i=1}^{n}\) x_ij = 1, j = 1, 2, …. n
\(\sum_{j=1}^{n}\) x_ij = 1, i = 1,2,….n and x_ij =0 (or) 1 for all i, j

Question 3.
What is the difference between Assignment Problem and Transportation Problem?
Solution:

Question 4.
Three jobs A, B, and C one to be assigned to three machines U, V, and W. The processing cost for each job machine combination is shown in the matrix given below. Determine the allocation that minimizes the overall processing cost.
(cost is in Rs per unit)

Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Look for atleast one zero in each row and each column.
Here each and every row and columns having exactly one zero No need for step 2 go to step 3.

Step 3.

Mark the zero by □ Mark other zeros in its column by X.
Since each row and each column contains exactly one assignment, all three machines have been assigned a job.

The Optimal assignment (minimum) cost = 46

Question 5.
A computer centre has got three expert programmers. The centre needs three application programmes to be developed. The head of the computer centre, after studying carefully the programmes to be developed, estimates the computer time in minutes required by the experts to the application programme as follows.

Assign the programmers to the programme in such a way that the total computer time is the least.
Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and subtract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3. (Assignment)
Examine the rows with exactly one zero, mark the zero by □. Mark other zeros in its column by X.

Step: 4
Now examine the columns with exactly one zero marks the zero by □. Mark other zeros in its row by X.

Thus all three assignments have been made. The optimal assignment schedule and total cost is

The optimal assignment (minimum) cost = Rs 280

Question 6.
A departmental head has four subordinates and four tasks to be performed. The subordinates differ in efficiency and the tasks differ in their intrinsic difficulty. His estimates of the time man would take to perform each task is given below.

How should the tasks to allocated to subordinates so as to minimize the total man-hours?
Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and subtract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3. (Assignment)
Examine the rows with exactly one zero Mark the zero by □. Mark other zeros in its row by X.

Step 4.
Now examine the columns with exactly one zero. Mark the zero by □ Mark other zeros in its row by X.

Step 5.
Cover all the zeros of table 4 with three lines, since three assignments were made check (✓) row S since it has no assignment.

Step 6.
Develop the new revised tableau. Examine those elements that are not covered by a line in table 5. Take the smallest element. This is 1 (one) our case. By subtracting 1 from the uncovered cells.

[Adding 1 to elements (Q, S, R) that line at the intersection of two lines]

Step 7.
Go to step 3 and repeat the procedure until you arrive at an optimal assignment.

Step 8.
Determine an assignment.

Thus all the four assignment have been made. The optimal assignment schedule and total time is

The optimum time (minimum) = 41 Hrs.

Question 7.
Find the optimal solution for the assignment problem with the following cost matrix.

Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and sub tract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3. (Assignment)
Examine the rows with exactly one zero. Mark the zero by □ Mark other zeros in its column by X

Thus all the four assignments have been made. The optimal assignment schedule and total cost.

The Optimum cost (minimum) = Rs 37

Question 8.
Assign four trucks 1, 2, 3 and 4 to vacant spaces A, B, C, D, E and F so that distance travelled is minimized. The matrix below shows the distance.

Solution:
Since the number of columns is less than the number of rows, the given assignment problem is unbalanced one. To balance it, introduce two dummy columns with all the entries zeros.
The revised assignment problem is

Here only 4 tasks can be assigned to 4 vacant spaces.
Step 1.
It is not necessary, since each row contains zero entry. Go to step 2.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and subtract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3. (Assignment)
Since each row contains more than one zeros. Go to step 4.

Step 4.
Examine the columns with exactly one zero, mark the zero by □ Mark other zeros in its rows by X.

Step 5.
Here all the four assignments have been made we can assign d₁ for D then we will get d₂ for E.

The optimal assignment schedule and total distance is

∴ The Optimum Distant (minimum) = 12 units

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The root of financial accounting system is
(a) Social accounting
(b) Stewardship accounting
(c) Management accounting
(d) Responsibility accounting
Answer:
(b) Stewardship accounting

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertainment of the profitability of the business
(c) Ascertainment of the financial position of the business
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a branch of accounting?
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 4.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

Question 5.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define accounting.
Answer:
American Accounting Association has defined accounting as “the process of identifying, measuring and communicating economic information to permit informed judgments and decisions by users of the information.”

Question 2.
List any two functions of accounting.
Answer:
Measurement:
The main function of accounting is to keep a systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger, and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. It is also possible to compare with the accounting policies. Effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the process of accounting?
Answer:

Question 4.
Who are the parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
The following are the parties interested in accounting information

Question 5.
Name any two bases of recording accounting information.
Answer:
Cash Basis:
The actual amount of cash received and cash paid is recorded in this. Any kind of income received and expenditure paid will be entered in this.

Accrual or Mercantile Basis:
The income which is not received but has been earned or accrued and the expenses incurred, which is paid and not recorded, is known as Accrual or Mercantile Basis.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of accounting.
Answer:
Accounting is the systematic process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarising, interpreting and communicating financial information. Accounting gives information on:

1. The resources available
2. How the available resources have been employed and
3. The results achieved by their use.

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the branches of accounting.
Answer:

The following are the branches of accounting:
Financial Accounting:
It involves recording financial transactions and events. It provides financial information to the users for taking decisions.

Cost Accounting:
It involves the collection, recording, classification and appropriate allocation of expenditure for the determination of the costs of products or services and for the presentation of data for the purposes of cost control and managerial decision making.

Management Accounting:
It is concerned with the presentation of accounting information in such a way as to assist management in decision making and in the day-to-day operations of an enterprise.

Social Responsibility Accounting:
It is concerned with presentation of accounting information by business entities and other organisations from the view point of the society by showing the social costs incurred such as environmental pollution by the enterprise and social benefits such as infrastructure development and employment opportunities created by them.

Human Resources Accounting:
It is concerned with identification, quantification and reporting of investments made in human resources of an enterprise.

Question 3.
Discuss in detail the importance of accounting.
Answer:

Systematic records:
1. All the transactions of an enterprise which are financial in nature are recorded in a systematic way in the books of accounts.
2. The records are classified under common heads and summaries are prepared.

Preparation of financial statement:
1. Results of business operations and the financial position of the concern can be ascertained from accounting periodically through the preparation of financial statements namely, income statement or trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet.

2. This helps in distribution of profits to the owners and to provide funds for future growth of the business.

Assessment of progress:
Analysis and interpretation of financial data can be done to assess the progress made in different areas and to identify the areas of weaknesses.

Aid to decision making:
1. Management of a firm has to make routine and strategic decisions while discharging its functions.
2. Accounting provides the relevant data to make appropriate decisions. Future policies and programmes can be planned by the management based on the accounting data provided.

Satisfies legal requirements:
Various legal requirements like maintenance of Provident Fund (PF) for employees, Employees State Insurance (ESI) contributions, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS), filing of tax returns are properly fulfilled with the help of accounting.

Information to interested groups:
Accounting supplies appropriate information to different interested groups like owners, management, creditors, employees, financial institutions, tax authorities and the government.

Legal evidence:
Accounting records are generally accepted as evidence in courts of law and other legal authorities in the settlement of disputes.

Computation of tax Accounting:
Records are the basic source for computation and settlement of income tax and other taxes.

Settlement during merger:
When two or more business units decide to merger, accounting records provide information for deciding the terms of merger and any compensation payable as a consequence of merger.

Question 4.
Why are the following parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
1. Investors: Persons who are interested in investing their funds in an organisation should know about the financial condition of a business unit while making their investment decisions. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk-bearing capacity of the organisation which will affect the return to the investors.

2. Government: The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Information about the performance of business units in different industries helps the government in policy formation for the development of trade and industry, allocation of scarce resources, grant of subsidy, etc.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of an accountant in the modern business world:
Answer:

The important role of an accountant is:
1. Recordkeeper: The accountant maintains a systematic record of financial transactions.

2. Provider of information to the management: The accountant assists the management by providing financial information required for decision making and for exercising controls.

3. Protector of business assets: The accountant maintains records of assets owned by the business which enables the management to protect and exercise control over these assets.

4. Financial advisor: The accountant analysis financial information and advises the business managers regarding investment opportunities, strategies for cost savings, capital budgeting, provision for future growth and development, expansions of enterprise, etc.

5. Tax managers: The accountant ensures that tax returns are prepared and filed correctly on time and payment of tax is made on time

6. Public relation officer: The accountant provides accounting information to various interest users for analysis as per their requirements.

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In 1494, ……………. an Italian developed double-entry bookkeeping system.
(a) Luca Pacioli
(b) Kautilya
(c) Wheeler
(d) R.N.Cart
Answer:
(a) Luca Pacioli

Question 2.
Accounts of persons with whom the business deals are known as …………….
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account
Answer:
(a) Personal Account

Question 3.
Which one is not a role of an accountant?
(a) Recordkeeper
(b) Tax manager
(c) PRO
(d) Owner
Answer:
(d) Owner

Question 4.
The main aim of the proprietor is to earn …………….
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Cash
(d) Capital
Answer:
(a) Profit

Question 5.
The original entry is otherwise called ………………
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(a) Journal

Question 6.
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called …………….
(a) Receipt
(b) Credit Note
(c) Debit Note
(d) Voucher
Answer:
(a) Receipt

Question 7.
Financial information for managerial decision making caused the emergence of ……………… accounting.
(a) Management
(b) Cost
(c) Financial
(d) Corporate
Answer:
(a) Management

Question 8.
……………… involves the recording of transaction and events which are financial in nature.
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Financial accounting

Question 9.
The balance in the trading account is the gross profit or ……………….
(a) Net profit
(b) Net loss
(c) gross loss
(d) balance
Answer:
(c) gross loss

Question 10.
Goodwill is an example of …………….
(a) Liabilities
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Intangible assets
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Intangible assets

Question 11.
Two or more business units forming a single entity is known as ……………….
(a) Joint
(b) Merger
(c) Link
(d) Compound
Answer:
(b) Merger

Question 12.
………….. refers to choosing a desirable course of action from alternative courses of actions.
(a) Control
(b) Forecasting
(c) Decision Making
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Decision Making

Question 13.
Unsold goods lying in a business on a particular date are known as ……………….
(a) Stock
(b) creditor
(c) debtor
(d) cash
Answer:
(a) Stock

Question 14.
A person who owns a business is called as …………………
(a) Borrower
(b) Landlord
(c) Owner
(d) Salesman
Answer:
(c) Owner

Question 15.
………………. is the amount incurred in order to produce and sell the goods and services.
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Stock
(d) Expense
Answer:
(d) Expense

Question 16.
……………. is said to be the root of accounting.
(a) Cost Accounting
(b) Stewardship Accounting
(c) Management Accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Stewardship Accounting

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two objectives of Accounting.
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.

Question 2.
What is a Voucher?
Answer:
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called a voucher. Examples: Cash receipt, invoice, cash memo, bank pay-in-slip, etc.

Question 3.
What are goods?
Answer:
It includes articles, things or commodities in which a business is dealing with. Examples: Furniture will be goods for those who deal in furniture.

Question 4.
What is mean by solvency?
Answer:
Solvency is the capability of a person or an enterprise to pay the debts.

Question 5.
What do you mean by depreciation?
Answer:
A person who gives a benefit without receiving money or money’s worth immediately but to claim in future.

Question 6.
What are bad debts?
Answer:
It is a loss to the business arising out of the failure of a debtor to pay the dues. It is irrecoverable debt.

Question 7.
What is depreciation?
Answer:
It refers to the gradual reduction in the value of fixed assets due to usage and passage of time.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the attributes of account emerge.
Answer:
The following are the main attributes of accounting.
1. Accounting is an art. It requires the expertise and skill of accountants design accounting system and policies, to decide the accounting process in order to suit the requirements of an organization.

2. The transactions or events of a business must be recorded in monetary terms.

3. Accounting process involves recording, classifying and summarizing of transactions and analysis and interpretation of the results.

4. The results of such analysis must be communicated to the persons who are interested in such information.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the process of accounting cycle.
Answer:

Identifying the transactions and journalizing:
1. The first step in the accounting process is identifying the financial transactions of a business.
2. All the monetary transactions are recorded in the books of original entry called journals.
3. Recording the transactions in the journal is called journalizing.
4. Entries are made in the journals on the basis of source documents in the chronological order, i.e., the order of occurrence of the transactions.

Posting and Balancing:
1. Transferring the entries from the journal to the ledger is called posting.
2. In the ledger, entries are made in each account after classifying them under common heads.
3. Finding the difference between the total of the debit column and credit column of all the ledger accounts is called balancing.

Preparation of trial balance:
1. The list of ledger balances namely trial balance is prepared as the next step.
2. On the basis of ledger balances the financial statements are prepared.

Preparation of trading account:
1. Next step is preparation of trading account for a particular accounting period.
2. All the direct revenues and direct expenses are transferred to trading account.
3. The balance in the trading account is the gross profit or gross loss.

Preparation of profit and loss account:
1. It is prepared next for a particular accounting period. Alt the indirect revenues and indirect expenses along with gross profit or gross loss are transferred to profit and loss account.
2. The balance in the profit and loss account is the net profit or net loss.

Preparation of balance sheet:
1. A statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities namely balance sheet is prepared as the final step in the accounting process.
2. It is prepared on a particular date, normally, on the last day of the accounting period.
3. The closing balances of an accounting year are taken as the opening balances for the next accounting year.
4. The transactions identified and recorded for the next year are followed by posting and other steps.
5. The results are communicated to the users of accounting information for the purpose of analysis and decision making.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cash transactions and credit transactions?
Answer:
Cash transaction:
It is a transaction which involves immediate cash receipt or immediate cash payment.

Credit transaction:
It is a transaction in which cash is not received or paid immediately, but will be received or paid later.

Question 3.
Explain the Functions of Accounting.
Answer:
The main functions of accounting are as follows:
Measurement:
1. The main function of accounting is to keep a systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger, and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

2. Accounting works as a tool for measuring the performance of business enterprises. It also shows the financial position of the business enterprises.

Forecasting:
With the help of the various tools of accounting, future performance and financial position of the business enterprises can be forecasted.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. Through comparison of the actual financial results of the business enterprises with projected figures and standards, effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Decision making:
Accounting provides relevant information to the management for planning, evaluation of performance and control. This will help them to take various decisions concerning cost, price, sales, level of activity, etc.

Control:
As accounting works as a tool of control, the strengths and weaknesses are identified to provide feedback on various measures adopted. It serves as a tool for evaluating compliance of business policies and programmes.

Assistance to government:
Government needs full information on the financial aspects of the business for various purposes such as taxation, grant of subsidy, etc. Accounting provides relevant information about the business to exercise government control on business enterprises.

Question 4.
Write a note on the Evolution of Accounting.
Answer:
1. In the earliest days of civilization, accounting was done by stewards who managed the properties of wealthy people.

2. stewardship accounting is said to be the root of accounting.

3. In 1494, Luca Pacioli an Italian developed a double-entry book-keeping system.

4. To safeguard the interest of owners and investors, the business establishments required detailed information about the business which paved the way for the development of a comprehensive financial accounting information system.

5. In the 20th century, the need for analysis of financial information for managerial decision making caused the emergence of Management Accounting as a separate branch of accounting.

6. Though accounting was individual-centric in the initial stage of evolution of accounting, it has gradually developed into Social Responsibility Accounting in the 21st century.

Question 5.
Write a note on Transaction.
Answer:
An activity that involves the transfer of money or money’s worth (goods, services, ideas) from one person to another, is known as a Transaction. It is of two types, namely.
Cash transaction:
It is a transaction which involves immediate cash receipt or immediate cash payment.

Credit transaction:
It is a transaction in which cash is not received or paid immediately, but will be received or paid later.

Question 6.
Who are all the internal users of Accounting Information?
Answer:
The internal users are owners, management, and employees who are within the organization.
Owners:
1. The owners of a business provide capital to be used in the business.

2. They are interested to know whether the business has earned profit or not during a particular period and also its financial position on a particular date.

3. They want accounting reports in order to have an appraisal of performance and also for an assessment of future prospects to ensure that they will get their expected returns from the business and get back their capital.

Management:
1. Accounting data are the basis for most of the decisions made by the management.

2. The trends in sales and purchases, relationship of expenses to the sales, efficiency of employees, comparative profitability of different departments, capital structure and solvency position are some of the vital data required by management for planning and controlling the business operations.

3. Financial statements and other reports prepared under financial accounting provide this information to the management.

Employees:
The employees are interested in the profit earning capacity of the business which will affect their remuneration, working conditions and retirement benefits and stability and growth of the enterprise.

Question 7.
Explain the External Users of Accounting Information.
Answer:
External users are the persons who are in outside of the organisation but make use of the information for their own purpose. The following are the external users:
Creditors and Financial Institutions:
1. Suppliers of goods and services, commercial banks, public deposit holders and debenture holders are included in this category,
2. They are interested in knowing the liquidity position and repaying capacity of the business to ensure the safety of getting the amount due to them or interest and the principal amount.

Investors:
1. Persons who are interested in investing their funds in an organisation should know about the financial condition of a business unit while making their investment decisions.
2. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk bearing capacity of the organisation.

Customers:
1. Customers who buy and use the products and services of business enterprises are interested in knowing the details of the products and the prices charged to them.
2. They are interested in knowing the stability and profitability of an enterprise to ensure the continued supply of the products or services by the enterprise.

Tax authorities and other regulatory bodies:
1. Accounting information helps the tax authorities in computing income tax and taxes on goods and services and other taxes to be collected from business units.
2. Other regulatory bodies also require information about revenues, expenses, and other financial aspects of the business to ensure that the enterprises comply with statutory requirements.

Government:
The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Information about the performance of business units in different industries helps the government in policy formulation, for development of trade and industry, allocation of scarce resources, grant of subsidy, etc. Government also administers prices of certain commodities.

Researchers:
Researchers to carry out their research can use accounting information and make use of the published financial statements for analysis and evaluation.

General public:
From accounting information, the general public at large can get a view of the earning capacity and stability of the enterprise as well as the social responsibility measures undertaken by the enterprise particularly in its area of operation and also the employment opportunities provided to the local people.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms

11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

I. Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
Which image format was standardize by W3C?
a) JPEG
b) SVG
c) GIF
d) PNG
Answer:
b) SVG

Question 2.
The tag used to insert an image in HTML:
a) Image
b) Picture
c) Img
d) Pic
Answer:
c) Img

Question 3.
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using:
a) <marquee>
b) <img>
c) <embed>
d) <text>
Answer:
a) <marquee>

Question 4.
Inline sound can be inserted using which of the following tag?
a) <inline>
b) <backgroundsound>
c) <bgsound>
d) <sound>
Answer:
c) <bgsound>

Question 5.
Which value causes the audio play as long as the page is in view?
a) Stop
b) Never Stop
c) Continue
d) Infinite
Answer:
d) Infinite

Question 6.
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are
a) method and action
b) name and size
c) post and get
d) type and name
Answer:
a) method and action

Question 7.
The tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML is:
a) <dropdown>
b) <select>
c) <listbox>
d) <input>
Answer:
b) <select>

Question 8.
Match the following:

a) 3 1 4 2
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 2 1 3 4
Answer:
b) 3 4 1 2

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
List out the popular image formats.
Answer:

1. GIF (Graphical Interchange Format)
2. JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group)
3. PNG (Portable Network Graphics)
4. SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics)

Question 2.
Write down the general format of marquee.
Answer:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>

Question 3.
What is inline sound or movie?
Answer:
The inline refers to audio(sound) or video (movie) files are handled as part of the page. These media files play the audio or video when the page is visible in the browser window.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of <input> tag?
Answer:
Most of the form controls are created by using <input> tag. The <input> is an empty tag used to create different form elements or controls such as text box, radio buttons so on.

Type attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag.

Question 5.
Which tag is used to specify the list of items in dropdown list box?
Answer:

• The <select> tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML.
• The <option> tag is used to specify list items.

Attributes of <Option> tag:
Selected – Indicate default selection Value – Value to be submitted to server

Example:

Question 6.
What are the major attributes are available in <textarea> tag?
Answer:
The main attributes of <Textarea> are:

• Name – Used to define name to the control
• Rows – Specifies the number of rows in the text area control
• Cols – Specifies the number of columns in the text area, (number of characters in a line)

Example:
<Textarea rows=5 cols=50 name=comments> </Textarea>

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on familiar images format.
Answer:
Familiar Image Formats – GIF (Graphical Interchange Format):
This format is one of the popular format for animated images. It was developed by CompuServe. Usually this image format is suitable for presenting tiny animated images, logos, icons, line art etc., It is not suitable for photographic work, because it uses maximum of 256 colours. Animated GIF do not support sound or playback control.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG is the most popular image format supported by all web browsers. This format is suitable for photographic images. Unlike GIF, JPEG can include any number of colours.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
PNG is designed as a replacement for GIF. It is also supported by all browsers.

SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics):
SVG is a graphics format that was developed for web. It was standardized by World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) in 2001.

Question 2.
How will you scroll the text in HTML?
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive.

General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>

Example:
<marquee direction=right> Welcome to <b> The State Council of Educational Research and Training </b>, Tamilnadu </marquee>

Question 3.
Explain the main attributes used with <form> tag.
Answer:
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are method and action attributes.

Method: The method attribute of the form tag is used to identify how the form element names and values will be sent to the server.

The get method will append the names of the form elements and their values to the URL.
The post method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets.

Action:
The action attribute identifies the server side program or script that will process the form. The action will be the name of a Common Gateway Interface (CGI) program written in programming languages like Perl, JavaScript, PHP or Active Server Pages (ASP).

Question 4.
Explain the values of <input> tag’s type attribute.
Answer:
<Input> Tag
Most of the form controls are created by using <input> tag. The <input> is an empty tag used to create different form elements or controls such as text box, radio buttons so on.

Type attribute of <input> tag:
This attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag. The values of type attribute is listed below:

Example:
<Form action=”mailto:abcd.xyz@com” method=post>

<p> Student Name:
<Input type=text name=name size=30 maxlength = 25></p>

<p> Gender:
<input type=radio name=gender value=boy> Boy
<input type=radio name=gender value=girl> Girl
</p>

<p> Subjects:
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Tam> Tamil
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Tel> Telugu
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Eng> English
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Phy> Physics
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Eco> Economics
</p>
<input type=reset name=reset value=”Clear”>
<input type=submit name=submit value=”Submit”>
</Form>

Question 5.
Explain the attributes of <select> and <option> tags.
Answer:
<Select> Tag
The <select> tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML. It provides a list of various options as a dropdown list. This element is more helpful when a number of options are to be displayed in a limited space. The <option> tag is used to specify list items.

Attributes of <Select> tag:
1. Name – Provide the name to the control, which is sent to the server.

2. Size – Determine the style of dropdown list box.

• o Size = 1 dropdown list box
• o Size = 2 List box

3. Multiple – Allows user to select multiple values:

Attributes of <Option> tag:

• Selected – Indicate default selection
• Value – Value to be submitted to server

Example:

11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

I. Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
________ are used to depict many complex concepts in simple way.
a) Images
b) Tables
c) Formatted text
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Images

Question 2.
To make more attractive and communicative web pages, ________ should be added in the appropriate places.
a) Images
b) Tables
c) Formatted text
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Images

Question 3.
Host of the browsers supports ________ image format.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 4.
HTML-5 introduces ________ images.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) SVG
Answer:
d) SVG

Question 5.
One format of image can be converted to another format by using ________ Image editing application.
a) Photoshop
b) Picasa
c) GIMP
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 6.
Expand GIF.
a) Graphical Interchange File
b) Grade Interchange Format
c) Graphical Interchange Format
d) Graphical Integrated Format
Answer:
c) Graphical Interchange Format

Question 7.
GIF format was developed by ________.
a) CompuServe
b) Microsoft Corporation
c) Graphics Group
d) Borland International
Answer:
a) CompuServe

Question 8.
GIF image format is suitable for ________.
a) presenting tiny animated images
b) logos
c) icons / line art
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 9.
________ image format is not suitable for photographic work.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) SVG
Answer:
a) GIF

Question 10.
GIF uses maximum of ________ colours.
a) 1024
b) 256
c) 512
d) All natural
Answer:
b) 256

Question 11.
________ do not support sound or playback control.
a) Animated GIF
b) MP4
c) Quick Time Format
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Animated GIF

Question 12.
Expand JPEG.
a) Joint Photo Experts Group
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group
c) Joint Photographic Express Group
d) Joint Photographic External Group
Answer:
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 13.
________ is the most popular image format supported by all web browsers.
a) JPEG
b) MP4
c) Quick Time Format
d) None of these
Answer:
a) JPEG

Question 14.
________ image format is suitable for photographic work.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) MP4
d) None of these
Answer:
b) JPEG

Question 15.
Expand PNG.
a) Portable Network Graphics
b) Portable Network Group
c) Physical Network Graphics
d) Portable Natural Graphics
Answer:
a) Portable Network Graphics

Question 16.
Expand SVG.
a) Support Vector Graphics
b) Scalable Vector Graphics
c) Script Vector Graphics
d) Scalable Vector Group
Answer:
b) Scalable Vector Graphics

Question 17.
________ tag is used to insert an image in web page.
a) <IMG>
b) <IMAGE>
c) <PIC>
d) <SRC>
Answer:
a) <IMG>

Question 18.
________ is the main attribute of <IMG> tag.
a) Source
b) SRC
c) HREF
d) DYNSRC
Answer:
b) SRC

Question 19.
________ is the attribute of <IMG> tag.
a) Alt
b) Width and Height
c) Vspace and Hspace
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 20.
The ________ attribute within <img> tag is used to describe the image, so that some text is conveyed even when the image cannot be displayed.
a) Alt
b) Width and Height
c) Vspace and Hspace
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Alt

Question 21.
________ attribute is used to set the width of an image.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
a) Width

Question 22.
________ attribute is used to set the height of an image.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
b) Height

Question 23.
________ attribute is used to set the vertical space between the images.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
c) Vspace

Question 24.
________ attribute is used to set the horizontal space between the images.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
d) Hspace

Question 25.
The ________ attribute used to align the image with respect to the base line of the text.
a) align
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
a) align

Question 26.
Align attribute has the ________ value.
a) Bottom
b) Middle
c) Top
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 27.
Using ________ value with align attribute, displayed the image on the left side of the text.
a) Left
b) Right
c) Start
d) End
Answer:
a) Left

Question 28.
Using ________ value with align attribute, displayed the image on the right side of the text
a) Left
b) Right
c) Start
d) End
Answer:
b) Right

Question 29.
Scrolling text using ________ tag.
a) <Marquee>
b) Scroll>
c) <Move>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Marquee>

Question 30.
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using ________ tag.
a) <Marquee>
b) <Scroll>
c) <Move>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Marquee>

Question 31.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behavior
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 32.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 33.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 34.
________ attribute is used to specify the direction of the movement of text or image.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behaviour
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Direction

Question 35.
________ is the possible value of direction attribute.
a) Up
b) Down
c) Left / Right
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 36.
________ attribute is used to specify the type of scrolling.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behaviour
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Behaviour

Question 37.
________ is the value of behaviour attribute.
a) Scroll
b) Slide
c) Alternate
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 38.
________ attribute is used to define the time delay between each jump.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
a) Scrolldelay

Question 39.
The time unit of scrolldelay should be in ________.
a) Minutes
b) Seconds
c) Hours
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Seconds

Question 40.
________ attribute is used to define the speed of the scroll.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
b) Scrollamount

Question 41.
________ attribute is for defining how many times the marquee element should repeat on the screen.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
c) Loop

Question 42.
The default value of loop attribute is ________.
a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) Endless
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Infinite

Question 43.
________ attribute is used to specify the background color to the marquee elements.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Bgcolor

Question 44.
________ attribute is for defining the horizontal space around the marquee.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace.
c) Vspace
d) Behaviour
Answer:
b) Hspace.

Question 45.
________ attribute is for defining the vertical space around the marquee.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Vspace

Question 46.
The value of Vspace and Hspace attribute can be in ________
a) Pixels
b) Percentage
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 47.
________ is the core part of the modern web pages.
a) Video
b) Sound
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 48.
In HTML, a video or audio content may be included as ________ data.
a) Inline
b) External
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 49.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) The inline refers to audio or video files are handled as part of the page.
b) Inline media files play the audio or video when the page is visible in the browser window.
c) The external refers, linking external audio or video files as url.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 50.
The ________ tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage.
a) <embed>
b) <Bgsound>
c) <Img>
d) All the above
Answer:
a) <embed>

Question 51.
________ tag includes the controls of the multimedia automatically in the browser.
a) <Embed>
b) <Bgsound>
c) <Img>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Embed>

Question 52.
The ________ tag may be used as an alternate to display some other media file, in the case of the browser does not support <embed> tag.
a) <Cancel>
b) <Noembed>
c) <Skip>
d) None of these
Answer:
b) <Noembed>

Question 53.
________ is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag.
a) Src
b) Source
c) File
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Src

Question 54.
________ is the attribute of <embed> tag.
a) Align
b) Height / Width
c) Align
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 55.
The ________ tag is used to attach an inline sound file in HTML.
a) <Bgsound>
b) <Background>
c) <Inline>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Bgsound>

Question 56.
The ________ attribute is used to define the location of the media file.
a) Src
b) Source
c) File
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Src

Question 57.
________ attribute of <bgsound> tag is used to adjust volume control.
a) Volume
b) Slider
c) Sound
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Volume

Question 58.
The ________ attribute of <bgsound> tag defines the duration of play.
a) Duration
b) Loop
c) Repeat
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Loop

Question 59.
The ________ value causes the audio play as long as the page is in view.
a) Infinite
b) Endless
c) Complete
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Infinite

Question 60.
________ is used to receive information from the user.
a) Frame
b) Container
c) Form
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Form

Question 61.
Forms are commonly used to allow users ________.
a) to register on a Web site
b) to log in to a Web site
c) to send feedback
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 62.
In search engines, ________ are used to accept the keywords for search.
a) Frames
b) Containers
c) Forms
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Forms

Question 63.
The tag is used to create a form.
a) <Form>
b) <Frame>
c) <Container>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Form>

Question 64.
Forms contain ________ element.
a) Text boxes / Radio buttons
b) Check boxes
c) Buttons / Drop-down lists
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 65.
The form has ________ button, which will submit the entries of a form to a server application to process the entries.
a) Submit
b) Send
c) OK
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Submit

Question 66.
Each element in the form is assigned a name using the ________ attribute.
a) Title
b) Name
c) Heading
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Name

Question 67.
In a form, users enter values into the ________.
a) Text boxes
b) Radio buttons
c) Check boxes
d) Drop down lists
Answer:
a) Text boxes

Question 68.
In a form, users make selections from the ________.
a) Drop down lists
b) Radio buttons
c) Check boxes
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 69.
The important attribute used with the <form> tag is ________.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 70.
The ________ attribute of the form tag is used to identify tow the form element names and values will be sent to the server.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Method

Question 71.
The_______ method will append the names Of the form elements and their values to the URL.
a) Post
b) Get
c) Append
d) Add
Answer:
b) Get

Question 72.
The ________ method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets.
a) Post
b) Get
c) Append
d) Add
Answer:
a) Post

Question 73.
The ________ attribute identifies the server side program or script that will process the form.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Action

Question 74.
CGI means ________.
a) Common Gateway Interaction
b) Common Gateway Induction
c) Common Gateway Interface
d) Classic Gateway Interface
Answer:
c) Common Gateway Interface

Question 75.
CGI is a program written in programming language ________.
a) Peri / PHP
b) JavaScript
c) ASP
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 76.
ASP means ________.
a) Active Server Pages
b) Additional Server Pages
c) Accumulate Server Pages
d) All Server Pages
Answer:
a) Active Server Pages

Question 77.
________ is a control used in a form to collect the data.
a) Text box / Password box
b) Checkbox / Radio buttons / Text area,
c) Select box/Submit Button/Reset Button
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 78.
Most of the form controls are created by using ________ tag.
a) <Input>
b) <Control>
c) <Content>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Input>

Question 79.
________ attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag.
a) Text
b) Input
c) Content
d) None o these
Answer:
b) Input

Question 80.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a text box.
a) Text
b) Reset
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
a) Text

Question 81.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a password text box.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
b) Password

Question 82.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a checkbox.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
c) Checkbox

Question 83.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a radio button.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
d) Radiobutton

Question 84.
________ is used to select multiple option.
a) Text box
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
c) Checkbox

Question 85.
________ is used to select any one of the multiple options from the list.
a) Text box
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
d) Radio button

Question 86.
________ command button is used to clear all the entries made in the form.
a) Reset button
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
a) Reset button

Question 87.
________ command button is used to submit all the entries made in the form to the back end server.
a) Reset button
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Submit button

Question 88.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create a standard button on the form used to call functions on dick.
a) Reset
b) Button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Button

Question 89.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create command button is used to submit all the entries made in the form to the back.
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Submit

Question 90.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create command button is used to clear all the entries made in the form.
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
a) Reset

Question 91.
________ is the attribute of <input> tag.
a) Name / Value
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 92.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to assign a name to the input controls.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
a) Name

Question 93.
________ attribute of <input> is used to define default value to some controls.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
d) Value

Question 94.
________ attribute of <input> is used to set the width of the input text in terms of characters.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
b) Size

Question 95.
The <input> tag attribute ________ is applicable only for textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 96.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to set the length of the input character to the textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 97.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to set the number of characters to be inputted to the textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 98.
The ________ tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML.
a) <select>
b) <ddown>
c) <dropdn>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <select>

Question 99.
In form design, ________ element is more helpful when a number of options are to be displayed in a limited space.
a) Text box
b) Checkbox
c) Dropdown list box
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Dropdown list box

Question 100.
The ________ tag is used to specify list Items in a dropdown list box.
a) <Option>
b) <U>
c) <LItem>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Option>

Question 101.
________ is the attribute of <Select> tag.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 102.
________ is the attribute of <Option> tag.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 103.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ provides the name to the control, which is sent to the server.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Name

Question 104.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ determines the style of dropdown list box
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Size

Question 105.
The <Select> tag attribute size ________ to create a dropdown list box.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
a) 1

Question 106.
The <Select> tag attribute size ________ to create a list box.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
b) 2

Question 107.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ allows user to select multiple values.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Multiple

Question 108.
The attribute of <Option> tag ________ indicates default selection.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Selected

Question 109.
The form value to be submitted to server using ________ attribute of <Option> tag.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Value

Question 110.
The ________ tag used to receive multiline text data as input.
a) <Textarea>
b) <Text>
c) <MultiText>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Textarea>

Question 111.
________ is the main attribute of <Textarea> tag.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ is used to define name to the control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cots
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Name

Question 113.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of rows in the text area control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Rows

Question 114.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of columns in the text area control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Cols

Question 115.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of characters in a line.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Cols

Question 116.
Photoshop is a familiar photo editing tool developed by ________.
a) Adobe
b) Lifescape
c) Microsoft
d) Apple
Answer:
a) Adobe

Question 117.
________ is a free image organizer and editing tool developed by Lifescape.
a) GIMP
b) Photoshop
c) Picasa
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Picasa

Question 118.
________ is a open source image editing tool.
a) GIMP
b) Photoshop
c) Picasa
d) None of these
Answer:
a) GIMP

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
How will add background music In a web page?
Answer:
Background music:
Music can be played in the background to a webpage, while the page is viewed. This is known as ‘inline’ sound or movie. The <bgsound> tag is used to attach an inline sound file in HTML.

• The src attribute is used to define the location of the media file.
• Volume attribute used to adjust volume control.
• The loop attribute defines the duration of play.

The ‘infinite’ value causes the aydio play as long as the page is in view.

General Format:
<bgsound src=music file name with location >

Example:
<bgsound src=”D:\CS_Videos\TamilThai Vazhthu.mp3″ loop=infinite>

Question 2.
Write note on form in HTML.
Answer:
Forms are used to receive information from the user. Forms are commonly used to allow users to register on a Web site, to log in to a Web site, to order a product, and to send feedback. In search engines, forms are used to accept the keywords for search.

The <form> tag is used to create a form. An HTML from starts with <form> and ends with </ form> tag. Forms contain many types of form elements, such as text boxes, radio buttons, check boxes, buttons and drop-down lists.

Question 3.
What are the form controls?
Answer:
In HTML, there are different types of form controls are used to collect data. They are Text box, Password, Checkbox, Radio buttons, Text area, Select box, Submit and Reset Button.

Question 4.
What are the popular image format supported by most of the browsers?
Answer:
Most of the browsers supports, GIF, JPEG and PNG images formats. HTML-5 introduces SVG images.

Question 5.
List some of the Image editing applications.
Answer:
Image editing applications are Photoshop, Picasa, GIMP etc.

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
How will you insert an image in a HTML document?
Answer:
Inserting Images with HTML document
The <IMG> tag along with the attribute src (Source) is used to add images in HTML document.

General format:
<img src = image_name_with_extension> (OR) <img src = URL>

Example:
<img src = image1.gif>

Src attribute is the main attribute used to specify the file name of the image to be inserted. If the image is not in the current working folder, the image file name should dearly specify with the path of the file or URL, where the file is available.

Example:
<img src = “D:\images\animals\cat.jpeg”>

An HTML code to insert an inline image:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 2.
Explain align attribute of <IMG> tag with suitable example.
Answer:
Align attribute:
The align attribute used to aligns the image with respect to the base line of the text. This attribute has the following values.

Bottom – Aligns the bottom of the image with the baseline of the text. This is the default setting.
Middle – Aligns the middle of the image with the baseline of the text.
Top – Aligns the top of the image with the baseline of the text.

Left and Right values of Align attribute:
Using left and right values with align attribute, displayed the image on the left and right side of the text.

An HTML code to demonstrate baseline of text:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 3.
How wilt you insert video and sound in a webpage?
Answer:
The <embed> tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage. This tag includes the controls of the multimedia automatically in the browser. The <poembed> tag may be used as an alternate to display some other media file, in the case of the browser does not support <embed> tag.

Src is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag. The src attribute used to specify the name of the media file with its source location. Other attributes such as alt, height, width and align are used as it is used with <img>.

General Format:
<embed src = audio / video file name with location > </embed>

An HTML code to demonstrate adding audio and video files (internal source):

Output:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Explain all the attributes of <IMG> tag with suitable HTML code.
Answer:
Attributes of <img> tag:
Other than src, the <img> tag has many attributes the enable to control how the image is presented on the page.

Alt (Alternative Text)
The alt attribute within <img> tag is used to describe the image, so that some text is conveyed even when the image cannot be displayed.

Example:
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”>

Width and Height:
Width and Height attributes are used to set the width and height of an image. The values of these attributes should be either pixels or percentage of its actual size. If these attributes are not specified, the browser displays the image in its original size.

Vspace (Vertical Space) and Hspace (Horizontal Space):
Vspace and Hspace attributes are used to set Vertical and Horizontal space between the images.

An HTML code to demonstrate <img> attributes:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 2.
Explain scrolling text using <Marquee> with its attribute.
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive.

General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>
Attributes of <marquee>

Height and Width:
These attributes are used to set height and width of the marquee. The values should be either in pixels or in percentage of browser window.

Direction:
This is used to specify the direction of the movement of text or image. The text or image will move towards right to left by default. So, the default direction is left. The Possible values are ‘up’, ‘down’, ‘left’ or ‘right’.

Behaviour:
This attribute is used to specify the type of scrolling. The values are ‘scroll’, ‘slide’ and ‘alternate’.

Scrolldelay:
This attribute is used to define the time delay between each jump. The. time unit should be in seconds.

ScroUamount:
This is used to define the speed of the scroll.

Loop:
This is for defining how many times the marquee element should repeat on the screen. The default value is ‘infinite’ which means the marquee element scrolls endlessly.

Bgcolor:
This is used to specify the background color to the marquee elements.

Hspace and Vspace:
This is for defining the horizontal and vertical space around the marquee, The value can be in pixels or percentage.

An HTML code to demonstrate marquee:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.1

Question 1.
What is transportation problem?
Solution:
The objective of transportation problem is to determine the amount to be transported from each origin to each destinations such that the total transportation cost is minimized.

Question 2.
Write mathematical form of transportation problem.
Solution:
Let there be m origins and n destinations. Let the amount of supply at th i th origin is a_i. Let the demand at j th destination is b_j.
The cost of transporting one unit of an item from origin i to destination j is C_ij and is known for all combination (i,j). Quantity transported from origin i to destination j be x_ij.

The objective is to determine the quantity x_ij to be transported over all routes (i,j) so as to minimize the total transportation cost. The supply limits at the origins and the demand requirements at the destinations must be satisfied.
The above transportation problem can be written in the following tabular form:

Now the linear programming model representing the transportation problem is given by
The objective function is Minimize Z = \(\sum_{\mathbf{i}=\mathbf{1}}^{\mathbf{m}}\), \(\sum_{\mathbf{j}=\mathbf{1}}^{\mathbf{n}}\) c_ij x_ij
Subject to the constraints
\(\sum_{\mathbf{j}=\mathbf{1}}^{\mathbf{n}}\) = x_ij = a_i, i = 1, 2 …….. m (supply constraints)
\(\sum_{\mathbf{i}=\mathbf{1}}^{\mathbf{m}}\) = x_ij = b_j, i = 1, 2 …….. n (demand constraints)
x_ij ≥ 0 for all i, j (non- negative restrictions)

Question 3.
What are feasible solution and non-degenerate solutions to the transportation problem?
Solution:
Feasible Solution: A feasible solution to a transportation problem is a set of non-negative values x_ij (i = 1, 2,.., m, j = 1, 2, …n) that satisfies the constraints.
Non-degenerate basic feasible Solution: If a basic feasible solution to a transportation problem contains exactly m + n – 1 allocation in independent positions, it is called a Non-degenerate basic feasible solution. Here m is the number of rows and n is the number of columns in a transportation problem.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a balanced transportation problem?
Solution:
In a transportation problem if the total supply equals the total demand (Σa_i = Σb_j) then it is said to be balanced transportation problem.

Question 5.
Find an intial basic feasible solution of the following problem using north west corner rule.

Solution:
Here total Supply 19 + 37 + 34 = 90
Total demand = 16 + 18 + 31 + 25 = 90
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation problem
∴ we can final an initial basic feasible solution to due given problem.

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (Q₁, D₁). Allocate as much as possible in this cell so that either the capacity of first row is exhausted or the destination requirement of the first column’s exhausted.
(i.e) x₁₁ = min (19, 16) = 16

Now the cell in the north west corner is (O₁, D₂) Allocate as much as possible in the first cell so that either the capacity of second row is exhausted or the destination requirement of the first column is exhausted.
(i.e) x₁₂ = min (3, 18) = 3

Reduced transportation table is

Now the cell in the north west corner is (O₂, D₂)
x₂₂ = min (37, 15) = 15

Now the cell in the north west corner is (O₂, D₃)
x₂₃ = min (22, 31) = 9

Now the cell in the north west corner is (O₃, D₃)
x₃₃ = min (34, 9) = 9

Thus we have the following allocations

Transportation schedule:
O₁ → D₁, O₁, → D₂, O₂ → D₂; O₂ → D₃ O₃ → D₃; O₃ → D₄
= (16 × 5) + (3 × 3) + (15 × 7) + (22 × 9) + (9 × 7) + (25 × 5)
= 80 + 9 + 105 + 198 + 63 + 125
= 580

Question 6.
Determine an intial basic feasible solution of the following transportation problem by north west corner method.

Solution:
Here total capacity (a_i) = 30 + 40 + 50 = 120
Total demand (b_j) = 35 + 28 + 32 + 25 = 120
(i.e) Total capacity = Total demand
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation.
∴ We can find an initial basic feasible solution to the given problem.

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (chennai, Bangalore)
x₁₁ = min (30, 35) = 30
Reduced transportation table is

Now the cell in the North west corner is (Madurai, Bangalore)
x₂₁ = min(40, 5) = 5

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (Nasik, Madurai)
x₂₂ = min (35, 28) = 28

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (Bhopal, Madurai)
x₂₂ = min (7, 32) = 7

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (Trichy, Bhopal)
x₃₃ = min (50, 25) = 25
Reduced transportation table is

x₃₄ = min (25, 25) = 25
Thus we have the following allocations

Transportation Schedule:
Chennai → Bangalore; Madurai → Bangalore;
Madurai → Naisk; Madurai → Bhopal
Trichy → Bhopal; Trichy → Delhi
The total transportation cost =
(30 × 6) + (5 × 5) + (28 × 11) + (7 × 9) + (25 × 7) + (25 × 13)
= 180 + 25 + 308 + 63 + 175 + 325
= 1076

Question 7.
Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by using least-cost method.

Solution:
The given transportation table is

Total supply = 25 + 35 + 40 = 100
Total demand = 30 + 25 + 45 = 100
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand
∴ The given problem is a balanced transportation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem.
The least cos is 4 corresponds to the cell (O₂, D₃)
Allocate min (35, 45) = 35 units to this cell

The least cost corresponds to the cell (O₁, D₃)
Allocate min (25, 10) = 10 units to this cell

The least cost is 6 corresponds to the cell (O₃, D₂)
Allocate min (40, 25) = 25 units to this cell

The least cost is 7 corresponds to the cell (O₃, D₁)
Allocate min (15, 30) = 15

Thus we have the following allocations

Transportation Schedule:
O₁ → D₁; O₁, → D₃; O₂ → D₃; O₃ → DI; O₃ → D₂
Total Transportation cost
= (15 × 9) + (10 × 5) + (35 × 4) + (15 × 7) + (25 × 6)
= 135 + 50 + 140 + 105 + 150
= 580

Question 8.
Explain vogel’s approximation method by obtaining initial feasible solution of the following transportation problem.

Solution:
Here Σ ai = 6 + 1 + 10 = 17
Σ bj = 7 + 5 + 3 + 2 = 17
Σ ai = Σ bj
(i.e) Total supply = Total Demand
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation problem
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem.
First let us find the difference (penalty) between the first two smallest costs in each row and column and write them in brackets against the respective rows and columns.

Choose the largest difference. Here the largest difference is 6 which corresponds to column D₄
In this column choose the least cost. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₂, D₄)
Allocate min (1, 2) = 1 unit to this cell the reduced transportation table is

choose the largest difference 5 which corresponds to column D₂. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₁, D₂).
Allocate min (6, 5) = 5 units in this cell

Choose the largest difference 5 which corresponds to row O₁. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₁, D₁)
Allocate min (1, 7) = 1 unit in this cell

Choose the largest difference 4 which corresponds to row O₃. Here least cost corresponds to (10, 6) = 6 units in this cell.

Choose the largest difference 6 which corresponds to row O₃. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₃, D₄).
Allocate min (4, 1) = 1

Thus we have the following allocations

Transportation schedule
O₁ → D₁; O₁ → D₂; O₂ → D₄;
O₃ → D₁; O₃ → D₃; O₃ → D₄
Total transportation cost:
= (1 × 2) + (5 × 3) + (1 × 1) + (6 × 5) + (3 × 15) + (1 × 9)
= 2 + 15 + 1 + 30 + 45 + 9
= 102

Question 9.
Consider the following transportation problem.

Determine initital basic feasible solution by VAM
Solution:
Given Transportation problem is

Here Σ ai = Σ bj = 100
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem.
First let us find the difference (penalty) between the first two smallest costs in each row and column and write them in brackets against the respective rows and columns

Choose the largest difference. Here the difference is 3 which corresponds to D₂
In this column choose the least cost. Here the least cos corresponds to (O₃, D₂)
Allocate min (20, 40) = 20 units to this cell

Choose the largest difference is 4 which corresponds to column D₃. In this column choose the least cost. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₁, D₃).
Allocate min (30, 20) = 20 units to this cell

Choose the largest different is 3 which corresponds to column D₂. In this column choose the least cost. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₂, D₂)
Allocate min (50, 20) = 20 units to this cell

Choose the largest difference is 2 which corresponds to column D₄. In this column choose the least cost. Here the least cost corresponds to (O₂, D₄).
Allocate min (30, 10) = 10 units to this cell

Allocate min (20, 30) = 20 units to this cell

Here
x₁₁ = 10
x₁₃ = 20
x₂₁ = 20
x₂₂ = 20
x₂₄ = 10
x₃₂ = 20
Transportation schedule
O₁ → D₁; O₁ → D₃; O₂ → D₁;
O₂ → D₂; O₂ → D₄; O₃ → D₂
The transportation cost
= (10 × 5) + (20 × 3) + (20 × 4) + (20 × 5) + (10 × 4) + (20 × 2)
= 50 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 40 + 40
= 370

Question 10.
Determine basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem using North west Corner rule.

Solution:
Here total supply = 4 + 8 + 9 = 21
Total demand = 3 + 3 + 4 + 5+ 6 = 21
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation problem.
∴ we can find an initial basic feasible solution to the given problem.
From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (P, A)
Allocate as much as possible in this cell so that either the capacity of first row is exhausted or the destination requirement of the first column is exhausted.

Form the above table we can choose the cell in North west corner. Here the cell is (P,B)
x = min (1, 3) = 1

From the above table we can choose the cell in north west corner. Here the cell is (Q, B)
x = min (2, 8) = 2

From the above table, we can choose the cell in North west corner. Here the cell is (Q, C)

From the above table, we can choose the cell in North west corner. Here the cell is (Q, D)
x = min (2, 5) = 2

From the above table, we can choose the cell in North west corner. Here the cell is (R, D)
x = min (9, 3) = 3

Thus we have the following table

Transportation Schedule:
P → A; P → B; Q → B; Q → C; Q → D R → D; R → E
Total transportation cost:
= (3 × 2) + (1 × 11) + (2 × 4) + (4 × 7) + (2 × 2) + (3 × 8) + (6 × 2)
= 6 + 11 + 8 + 28 + 4 + 24 + 72
= 153

Question 11.
Find the initial basic feasible solution of the following transportation problem:

Using
(i) North West corner tule
(ii) Least Cost method
(iii) Vogel’s approximation method
Solution:
(i) North west corner rule:
Here the total supply = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30
Total demand = 7 + 12 + 11 = 30
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand
The given problem is balanced transportation problem.
∴ we can find an initial basic feasible solution to the given problem.
From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (A, I)
x₁₁ = min (7, 10) = 7

From the above table we can choose the cell in the north west corner. Here the cell is (B, I)
x = min (3, 12) = 3

From the above table we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (B, II)
x = min (9, 10) = 9

Here the cell in the North west corner is (C, II)
x = min (11, 1) = 1

Thus we have the following allocations

Transportation schedule:
A → I; B → I; B → II; C → II; C → III
Total transportation cost:
= (7 × 1) + (3 × 0) + (9 × 4) + (1 × 1) + (10 × 5)
= 7 + 0 + 36 + 1 + 50
= 94

(ii) Least cost method:
The given transportation table is

Here Total supply = Total demand = 30
∴ The given problem is a balanced transportation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem.
The least cost is 0 corresponds to the cell (B, I)
Allocate min (12, 10) = 10 units to this cell

The least cost 1 corresponds to the cell (C, II)
Allocate min (11, 10) = 10 units to this cell

Here the least cost 2 corresponds to the cell (B, III)
Allocate min (2, 10) = 2 units to this cell.

Here the least cost is 5 corresponds to the cell (C, III)

Transportation schedule:
A → III; B → I; B → III; C → II; C → III
Total transportation cost:
= (7 × 6) + (10 × 10) + (2 × 2) + (10 × 1) + (1 × 5)
= 42 + 0 + 4 + 10 + 5
= 61

(iii) Vogel’s approximation method:
Here Σ ai = Σ bj = 30
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand
∴ This given problem is balanced transportation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem.


A → I; B → I; B → III; C → I; C → II
Total transportation cost:
= (7 × 1) + (2 × 0) + (10 × 2) + (1 × 3) + (10 × 1)
= 7 + 0 + 20 + 3 + 10
= 40

Question 12.
Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by north west corner method.

Solution:
Here the total available = 250 + 300 + 400 = 950
Total Required = 200 + 225 + 275 + 250 = 950
(i.e) Total Available = total required
∴ The given problem is balanced transportation problem.
we can find an initial basic feasible solution to the given problem.
From the above table, we can choose the cell in the North west corner. Here the cell is (A, D).
x₁₁ = min (250, 200) = 200

From the above table we can choose the cell in North west corner. Here the cell is (A, E)
x = min (50, 225) = 50

From the above table, the north west corner cell is (B, E)
x = min (300, 175) = 175

From the above table, the north west corner cell is (B, F)
x = min (125, 275) = 125

Here the north west corner cell is (C, F)
x = min (400, 150) = 150

Transportation schedule:
A → D; A → E; B → E; B → F; C → G
Total Transportation cost:
= (200 × 11) + (50 × 13) + (175 × 18) + (125 × 14) + (150 × 13) + (250 × 10)
= 2200 + 650 + 3150 + 1750 + 1950 + 2500
= 12,200

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Operations Research Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
The following table summarizes the supply, demand and cost information for four factors S₁, S₂, S₃, S₄ Shipping goods to three warehouses D₁, D₂, D₃.

Find an initial solution by using north west corner rule. What is the total cost for this solution?
Solution:
The given transportation table is

Here total supply = 5 + 8 + 7+14 = 34
Total amount =7 + 9 + 18 = 34
(i.e) Total supply = Total demand.
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
We can find an initial basic feasible solution to the given problem.
First allocation:



Transportation schedule:
S₁ → D₁; S₂ → D₁; S₂ → D₂;
S₃ → D₂; S₃ → D₃; S₄ → D₃
The transportation cost:
= (5 × 2) + (2 × 3) + (6 × 3) + (3 × 4) + (4 × 7) + (14 × 2)
= 10 + 6 + 18 + 12 + 28 + 28
= 102

Question 2.
Consider the following transportation problem

Determine an initial basic feasible solution using (a) Least cost method (b) Vogel’s approximation method.
Solution:
(a) Least cost method
Given transportation table is

Total Availability = Total Requirement = 100
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem
First allocation:



Here
x₁₂ = 10; x₁₃ = 20; x₂₁ = 30;
x₂₂ = 10; x₂₄ = 10; x₃₂ = 20
Transportation Scheme:
O₁ → D₂; O₁ → D₃; O₂ → D₁;
O₂ → D₂; O₂ → D₄; O₃ → D₂
The transportation cost:
=(10 × 8) + (20 × 3) + (30 × 4) + (10 × 5) + (10 × 4) + (20 × 2)
= 80 + 60 + 120 + 50 + 40 + 40
= 390

(ii) Vogel’s approximation method:
Here Σai = Σbj = 100
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem
First allocation:



Here
x₁₁ = 30; x₁₃ = 20; x₂₂ = 20;
x₂₄ = 10; x₃₂ = 20
Transportation Scheme:
O₁ → D₁; O₂ → D₃; O₂ → D₂;
O₂ → D₄; O₃ → D₂;
Total transportation cost:
= (30 × 5) + (20 × 3) + (20 × 5) + (10 × 4) + (20 × 2)
= 150 + 60 + 100 + 40 + 40
= 390

Question 3.
Determine an initital basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by using (i) North West Corner rule (ii) least cost method.

Solution:
(i) North West Corner rule:
The given transportation table is

Total supply = 25 + 35 + 40 = 100
Total Requirement = 30 + 25 + 45 + 100
(i.e) Total supply = Total requirement.
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem
First allocation:


Transformation schedule:
S₁ → D₁; S₂ → D₁; S₂ → D₂;
S₃ → D₃; S₃ → D₃;
The transformation cost:
= (25 × 9) + (5 × 6) + (25 × 8) + (5 × 4) + (40 × 9)
= 225 + 30 + 200 + 20 + 360 = 835

(ii) Least cost method
The given transportation table is

(i.e) Total supply = Total requirement = 100
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem
First allocation:


Transportation schedule:
S₁ → D₃; S₂ → D₃; S₃ → D₁
S₃ → D₂;
The transportation cost:
= (10 × 5) + (35 × 4) + (15 × 7) + (25 × 6) + (40 × 9)
= 50 + 140 + 105 + 150 + 360 = 805

Question 4.
Explain Vogel’s approximation method by obtaining initial basic feasible solution of the following transportation problem.

Solution:
The given transportation table is

Here Σai = Σbj =17
(i.e) Total supply = Total Demand
∴ The given problem is balanced transformation problem.
Hence there exists a feasible solution to the given problem
First allocation:



Here
x₁₁ = 1; x₁₂ = 5; x₂₄ = 1;
x₃₁ = 6; x₃₃ = 15;
Transportation schedule:
O₁ → D₁; O₁ → D₂; O₂ → D₄
O₃ → D₁; O₃ → D₃
The transportation cost:
=(1 × 2) + (5 × 3) + (1 × 1) + (6 × 5) + (3 × 15) + (1 × 9)
= 2 + 15 + 1 + 30 + 45 + 9
= 102

Question 5.
A car hire company has one car at each of five depots a,b,c,d and e. A customer in each of the fine towers A, B, C, D and E requires a car. The distance (in miles) between the depots (origins) and the towers (destinations) where the customers are given the following distance matrix.

How should the cars be assigned to the customers so as to minimize the distance travelled?
Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and subtract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3. (Assignment)
Examine the rows with exactly one zero, mark the zero by □ mark other zeros, in its column by X

Step 4.
Now Examine the rows with exactly one zero, mark the zero by □ mark other zeros, in its column by X

Step 5.
Cover all the zeros of table 4 with three lives. Since three assignments were made please note that check [✓] Row C and E which have no assignment.

Step 6.
Develop the new revised tableau. Examine those elements that are not covered by a line in Table 5. Take the smallest element in each row and subtract from the uncovered cells, depots

Step 7.
Go to step 3 and repeat the procedure until you arrive at an optimal assignments.
depots

Step 8.
Determine an assignment

Here all the five assignments have been made. The optimal assignment schedule and total distance is

∴ The optimum Distance (minimum) 575 kms

Question 6.
A natural truck – rental service has a surplus of one truck in each of the cities 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and a deficit of one truck in each of the cities 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12. The distance (in kilometers) between the cities with a surplus and the cities with

How should the truck be dispersed so as to minimize the total distance travelled?
Solution:
Here the number of rows and columns are equal.
∴ The given assignment problem is balanced.
Step 1.
Select the smallest element in each row and subtract this from all the elements in its row.

Step 2.
Select the smallest element in each column and subtract this from all the elements in its column.

Step 3.
Examine the rows with exactly one zero, mark the zero by □ mark other zeros, in its column by X

Step 4.
Examine the Columns with exactly one zero. If there is exactly one zero, mark that zero by □ mark other zeros in its rows by X

Step 5.
Cover all the zeros of table 4 with five lines. Since three assignments were made

Step 6.
Develop the new revised tableau. Examine those elements that are not covered by a line in Table 5. Take the smallest element. This is l(one) in our case. By subtracting 1 from the uncovered cells.

Step 7.
Go to step 3 and repeat the procedure until you arrive at an optimal assignments.

Step 8.
Determine an assignment

Here all the six assignments have been made. The optimal assignment schedule and total distance is

∴The optimum Distance (minimum) = 125 kms

Question 7.
A person wants to invest in one of three alternative investment plans: Stock, Bonds and Debentures. It is assumed that the person wishes to invest all of the funds in a plan. The pay – off matrix based on three potential economic conditions is given in the following table

Solution:

(i) Maximin
Max (3000, 1000, 6000) = 6000. Since the maximum pay of is 6000, the alternative ‘Debentures’, is selected.

(ii) Minimax
Min (10000, 8000, 6000) = 6000, Since the minimum pay-off is 6000. the alternative ‘Debentures’ is selected.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers

11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Computers Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
First generation computers used _________.
a) Vacuum tubes
b) Transistors
c) Integrated circuits
d) Microprocessors
Answer:
a) Vacuum tubes

Question 2.
Name the volatile memory _________.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
d) EPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 3.
Identify the output device _________.
a) Keyboard
b) Memory
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
Answer:
c) Monitor

Question 4.
Identify the- input device _________.
a) Printer
b) Mouse
c) Plotter
d) Projector
Answer:
b) Mouse

Question 5.
_________ Output device is used for printing building plan, flex board, etc.
a) Thermal printer
b) Plotter
c) Dot matrix
d) inkjet printer
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 6.
In ATM machines, which one of the following is used _________.
a) Touch Screen
b) Speaker
c) Monitor
d) Printer
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 7.
When a system restarts, which type of booting is used?
a) Warm booting
b) Cold booting
c) Touch boot
d) Real boot
Answer:
a) Warm booting

Question 8.
Expand POST _________.
a) Post on self Test
b) Power on Software Test
c) Power on Self Test
d) Power on Self Text
Answer:
c) Power on Self Test

Question 9.
Which one of the following is the main memory?
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Flash drive
d) Hard disk
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 10.
Which generation of computer used IC’s?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer:
c) Third

Part – II

Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
It is an electronic device that processes the input according to the set of instructions provided to it and gives the desired output at a very fast rate.

Question 2.
Distinguish between data and information.
Answer:
Data:

• It is an unprocessed collection of raw facts.
• It will not give any meaning.

Information:

• It is a collection of processed facts from which conclusion may be drawn.
• It convey meaning.

Question 3.
What are the components of a CPU?
Answer:
The CPU has three components. They are:

1. Control Unit
2. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
3. Memory Unit.

Question 4.
What is the function of an ALU?
Answer:
The ALU performs operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

Question 5.
Write the functions of control unit.
Answer:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

Question 6.
What is the function of memory?
Answer:
The memory is used to store the data for processing and for future reference.

Question 7.
Differentiate Input and output unit.
Answer:

1. Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer for further processing.
2. Output unit conveys information to users in an understandable form.

Question 8.
Distinguish Primary and Secondary memory.
Answer:

1. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data to execute currently. It is volatile in nature.
2. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently. It is non-volatile.

Part – III

Explain In Brief

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a computer?
Answer:
Characteristics of Computer:

1. Speed : Very high speed i.e. more than 10^-12 second.
2. Accuracy : Very high accuracy even with high speed.
3. Storage : Computer can store any volume of data for a long time.
4. Diligence : Computer can work for hours without any break and creating error. It is suitable for repetitive jobs.
5. Versatility : Computer can perform variety of task.
6. Power of remembering : It can remember data for us.
7. No IQ : Computer itself having no thinking power. It works based on the given instruction.
8. No Feeling : Computer does not have emotions, knowledge, experience, feeling.

Question 2.
Write the applications of computer.
Answer:
The various applications of computers are:

1. Business – It is used in. business for Payroll preparation, Sales analysis, Budgeting, Financial forecasting,
2. Managing employees database and Maintenance of stocks etc.
3. Education – It is used for online teaching with CBTs and WBTs.
4. Marketing – It is used for Selling & Promoting product.
5. Banking – It is used for Home banking with internet, ATM etc.
6. Insurance – It is used to transact insurance operation.
7. Communication – Email, chatting etc,
8. Health Care – ECG’s, radiotherapy like monitoring devices.
9. Military – It builds the links between the soldiers and commanders through the satellite.
10. Engineering Design – Machine design, building plan, Interior design etc.

Question 3.
What is an input device? Give two examples.
Answer:

1. Input device is used to feed any form of data to the computer for further processing.
2. Keyboard – To feed text, numbers, special characters etc..
3. Mouse – Pointing device i.e. to select an item on the screen.
4. Bar Code Reader – Scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the computer.

Question 4.
Name any three output devices.
Answer:

1. Monitor – To display the information.
2. Printer – It is used to print the information on papers.
3. Plotter – It is used to produce graphical output like building plan on paper.
4. Speaker – It produces voice output.

Question 5.
Differentiate optical and Laser mouse.
Answer:
Optical Mouse:

• It uses light source instead of ball to judge the motion of the pointer.
• It is less sensitive towards surface.

Laser Mouse:

• Laser Mouse uses Laser Light.
• It is highly sensitive and able to work on any hard surface.

Question 6.
Write short note on impact printer.
Answer:
The impact printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi-part papers. Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers are impact printers.

Question 7.
Write the characteristics of sixth generation.
Answer:
The characteristics of sixth generation computers are:

1. Parallel and Distributed computing
2. Computers have become smarter, faster and smaller
3. Development of robotics
4. Natural Language Processing
5. Development of Voice Recognition Software.

Question 8.
Write the significant features of monitor.
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels.

Monitors may either be Monochrome or can be color.

Types of monitors:

• CRT (Cathode Ray Tube)
• LCD (Liquid Crystal Display)

Part – IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Explain the basic components of a computer with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The computer is the combination of hardware and software. Hardware is the physical component of a computer while software is the set of programs or instructions. Both hardware and software together make the computer system to function. Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle).

The functional components of a computer:
(i) Input Unit : Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer. Example: Keyboard, mouse, etc.

(ii) Central Processing Unit: CPU is the major component which interprets and executes software instructions. It also controls the operation of all other components such as memory, input and output units. The CPU has three components which are Control unit, Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) and Memory unit.

(iii) Arithmetic and Logic Unit : The ALU is. a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

(iv) Control Unit : The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

(v) Output Unit: An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

(vi) Memory Unit : The Memory Unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.

The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently. The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory.

The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples

Question 2.
Discuss the various generations of computers
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the following
a) Inkjet Printer
b) Multimedia projector
c) Bar code / QR code Reader
Answer:
a) Inkjet Printers: Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper.

The speed of Inkjet printers generally range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute). They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

b) Multimedia Projectors : Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

c) Bar Code Reader: A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

QR Code Reader : The QR (Quick response) code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image

11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Computers Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
Who is called as a father of computer?
a) William Oughtred
b) John Von Numan
c) Charless Babbage
d) Herman Hollerith
Answer:
c) Charless Babbage

Question 2.
The Analytical Engine was invented in the year _______.
a) 1837
b) 1937
c) 1847
d) 1873
Answer:
a) 1837

Question 3.
The Analytical Engine contained _______.
a) ALU
b) Basic flow control
c) Integrated memory
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 4.
Which led to the development of general purpose computers?
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Analytical Engine
c) Slide Rule
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Analytical Engine

Question 5.
Which computing method was slow and prone to errors?
a) computerized
b) manual
c) both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer:
b) manual

Question 6.
_______ is the first known calculating device.
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Slide Rule
c) Punched Card
d) Abacus
Answer:
d) Abacus

Question 7.
The Abacus was used for _______ operation,
a) Addition
b) Multiplication
c) Division
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Addition

Question 8.
Based on various stages of development, computers can be categorized in to ________ generations.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
d) 6

Question 9.
The period of first generation is ________.
a) 1942 – 1955
b) 1955 – 1964
c) 1964- 1975
d) 1975-1980
Answer:
a) 1942 – 1955

Question 10.
The period of second generation is ________.
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964 – 1975
d) 1975-1980
Answer:
b) 1955- 1964

Question 11.
The period of third generation is ________.
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964 – 1975
d) 1975 – 1980
Answer:
c) 1964 – 1975

Question 12.
The period of fourth generation is _______.
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964- 1975
d) 1975- 1980
Answer:
d) 1975- 1980

Question 13.
The period of fifth generation is _______.
a) 1980 – till date
b) 1955 – 1964
c) 1964 – 1975
d) 1975-1980
Answer:
a) 1980 – till date

Question 14.
The period of sixth generation is _______.
a) 1980 – till date
b) 1975 – 1980
c) 1964 – 1975
d) In future
Answer:
d) In future

Question 15.
_______ is a first generation computer.
a) ENIAC
b) EDVAC
c) UNIVAC
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 16.
_______ is a second generation computer.
a) IBM 1401
b) IBM 1620
c) UNIVAC 1108
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 17.
_______ is a third generation computer.
a) IBM 360 series
b) Honey well 6000 series
c) IBM 1620
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 18.
The weight of ENIAC was _______ tons.
a) 27
b) 37
c) 28
d) 17
Answer:
a) 27

Question 19.
The size of ENIAC was _______.
a) 8 feet x 100 feet x 3 feet
b) 3 feet x 100 feet x 8 feet
c) 100 feet x 8 feet x 3 feet
d) 8 feet x 3 feet x 100 feet
Answer:
a) 8 feet x 100 feet x 3 feet

Question 20.
The ENIAC conusmed _______ watts of power.
a) 150
b) 100
c) 1500
d) 15
Answer:
a) 150

Question 21.
The main component used in first generation computer is _______.
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Micro processor
Answer:
c) Vacuum Tube

Question 22.
The main component used in second generation computer is _______.
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Micro processor
Answer:
a) Transistors

Question 23.
The main component used in third generation computer is _______.
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Micro processor
Answer:
b) Integrated Circuits

Question 24.
The main component used in fourth generation computer is _______.
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
d) Microprocessor

Question 25.
The main component used in fifth generation computer is _______.
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Ultra Large Scale Integration
d) Micro processor
Answer:
c) Ultra Large Scale Integration

Question 26.
The first operating system was developed during _______ generation of computers.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth
Answer:
b) second

Question 27.
Batch processing and Multiprogramming was developed during _______ generation of computers.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth
Answer:
b) second

Question 28.
_______ language was used in first generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
a) Machine

Question 29.
_______ language was used in second generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 30.
_______ language was used in third generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
c) High Level

Question 31.
Micro computer series such as IBM and APPLE were developed during _______ generation.
a) Sixth
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Fourth

Question 32.
Portable computers were introduced in ______ generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Fourth

Question 33.
_______ generation computer can recognize Images and Graphics.
a) Sixth
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 34.
Artificial Inegelligence introduced in _______ generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 35.
Expert Syetem introduced in _________ generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 36.
_______ generation computers are capable of solving complex problems including decision making and logical reasoning.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 37.
Parallel processing introduced in _______ generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 38.
The ENIAC was invented by _______.
a) J.Presper
b) John Mauchly
c) Both A and B
d) Charless Babbage
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 39.
The ENIAC was developed at _______.
a) University of Pennsylvania
b) Oxford University
c) Microsoft
d) None of these
Answer:
a) University of Pennsylvania

Question 40.
The ENIAC was developed in the year _______.
a) 1947
b) 1943
c) 1942
d) 1843
Answer:
b) 1943

Question 41.
The ENIAC used _______ number of vacuum tubes,
a) 19000
b) 18000
c) 28000
d) 18900
Answer:
b) 18000

Question 42.
_______ is a component of Artificial Intelligence.
a) Natural Language Processing
b) Parallel Processing
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Natural Language Processing

Question 43.
_______ provides the ability to develop the computer program to understand human language.
a) Natural Language Processing
b) Parallel Processing
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Natural Language Processing

Question 44.
The term “computer” is derived from the word _______.
a) compute
b) calculate
c) process
d) None of these
Answer:
a) compute

Question 45.
The term “compute” means _______.
a) computer
b) calculate
c) process
d) None of these
Answer:
b) calculate

Question 46.
Before 19th century, the person who performs calculation is called as _______.
a) Computer
b) Calculator
c) Abacus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Computer

Question 47.
_______ is defined as an unprocessed collection of raw facts.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
c) data

Question 48.
_______ will not give meaning.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
c) data

Question 49.
_______ is a collection of facts from which conclusions may be drawn.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
a) information

Question 50.
_______ is a processed fact.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
a) information

Question 51.
A set of instructions are called _______.
a) pseudo code
b) program
c) walk through
d) all the above
Answer:
b) program

Question 52.
The _______ is the combination of hardware and software.
a) computer
b) analytical engine
c) calculator
d) all the above
Answer:
a) computer

Question 53.
_______ is the physical component of a computer.
a) software
b) hardware
c) freeware
d) Malware
Answer:
b) hardware

Question 54.
_______ is the set of programs or instructions.
a) software
b) hardware
c) freeware
d) Malware
Answer:
a) software

Question 55.
IPO menas _______.
a) Input-Process-Output
b) Intelligence Process Output
c) Integral Program Output
d) Internet Process Outcome
Answer:
a) Input-Process-Output

Question 56.
Every task given to the computer follows _______ cycle.
a) Input-Process-Output
b) Output-Process-Input
c) Process-Output-Input
d) Input-Output-Process
Answer:
a) Input-Process-Output

Question 57.
_______ unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer.
a Process
b) Arithmetic and Logic
c) Input
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Input

Question 58.
_______ of a computer interprets and executes software instructions.
a) Input unit
b) Main Memory
c) Central Process Unit
d) Secondary Memory
Answer:
c) Central Process Unit

Question 59.
_______ control the components such as memory, input and output units.
a) Input unit
b) Main Memory
c) Central Process Unit
d) Secondary Memory
Answer:
c) Central Process Unit

Question 60.
The CPU has _______ components.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
Answer:
b) 3

Question 61.
_______ is a component of CPU.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 62.
In _______ unit, various computing functions are performed on data.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
b) ALU

Question 63.
The result of an operation is stored in _______ of CPU.
a) Secondary storage
b) Main memory
c) Internal memory
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Internal memory

Question 64.
The _______ operations of ALU promote the decision-making ability of a computer,
a) arithmetic
b) logical
c) relational
d) increment/decrement
Answer:
b) logical

Question 65.
_______ controls the entire operation of a computer.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Control unit

Question 66.
The _______ unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Control unit

Question 67.
_______ unit is any hardware component that conveys information to user in an understandable form.
a) Input unit
b) Output unit
c) Memory unit
d) All the above types.
Answer:
b) Output unit

Question 68.
The memory is of _______ types.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 69.
The _______ memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 70.
The _______ memory is used to store the data permanently.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Secondary memory

Question 71.
The _______ memory is volatile.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 72.
In _______ memory, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off.
a) Primary memory
b) RAM
c) Secondary memory
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 73.
_______ is an example of a main memory.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
d) EPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 74.
The _______ memory is non-volatile.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Secondary memory

Question 75.
_______ memory, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.
a) Primary memory
b) RAM
c) Secondary memory
d) Either A or B
Answer:
c) Secondary memory

Question 76.
_______ is an example of a secondary memory.
a) CD-ROM
b) DVD-ROM
c) Hard disk
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 77.
_______ is the most common input device.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) bar code reader
d) none of these
Answer:
b) keyboard

Question 78.
The keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original _______.
a) typewriter
b) key punching machine
c) touch screen
d) None of these
Answer:
a) typewriter

Question 79.
_______ is a pointing device.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) none of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 80.
________ device is used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) none of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 81.
_______ device is used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) none of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 82.
_______ is a mouse action.
a) drag and drop
b) right dick
c) move
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 83.
_______ is a mouse type.
a) Mechanical
b) Optical
c) Laser
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Laser

Question 84.
The mechanical mouse was developed and introduced by _______.
a) Telefunken
b) Microsoft
c) Intel
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Telefunken

Question 85.
The mechanical mouse was developed and introduced in the year _______.
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1969
Answer:
a) 1968

Question 86.
The optical mouse introduced by _____was developed and introduced by _______.
a) Telefunken
b) Steve Krish
c) Richard Lyon
d) Both B and C
Answer:
d) Both B and C

Question 87.
The optical mouse was developed introduced in the year ________.
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1988
Answer:
d) 1988

Question 88.
The optical mouse has _______ Buttons.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) no
Answer:
c) 3

Question 89.
_______ mouse is highly sensitive andabie to work on any hard surface.
a) optical
b) mechanical
c) laser
d) all the above
Answer:
c) laser

Question 90.
Who invented Mouse?
a) Telefunken
b) steve
c) Richard Lyon
d) Douglas Engelbart
Answer:
d) Douglas Engelbart

Question 91.
Who assist Douglas Engel bard to invent moused?
a) Bill English
b) Steve Krish
c) Richard Lyon
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Bill English

Question 92.
_______ is used to ener the information directly into the computer’s memory.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 93.
The ________ device works like a Xerox machine.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) AU the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 94.
The ________ device is used for computer security.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 95.
_______ device uses biometric technology.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Track ball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 96.
________ scanner uses unique patterns of a person’s retiant blood vessels.
a) Retinal
b) Track ball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Retinal

Question 97.
________ is used to draw directly onto the screen.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) MICR
Answer:
b) Light Pen

Question 98.
________ is a pointing device.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 99.
________ is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 100.
The document scanned through _______ device can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 101.
A user can scan a page from a book using ________ and can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
c) OCR
c) OCR
b) Light Pen
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 102.
The ________ is two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QR code
Answer:
d) QR code

Question 103.
The ___________ system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.
a) Bar Code
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QR code
Answer:
a) Bar Code

Question 104.
_______ serves as a voice input device.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) OCR
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 105.
_______ captures images / videos directly in the digital form.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
c) Digital Camera

Question 106.
_______ uses a CCD electronic chip.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
c) Digital Camera

Question 107.
CCD means _______.
a) Charge Coupled Device
b) Change Coupled Device
c) Close Circuit Device
d) Charge Coupled Data
Answer:
a) Charge Coupled Device

Question 108.
________ converts fight rays into digital formats.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
c) Digital Camera

Question 109.
A _______ is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 110.
_______ is an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 111.
Touch screen is used on _______.
a) Smart phone
b) Information kiosks
c) Cash registers
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
_______ is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 113.
________ number of keys available in Keyer.
a) 4 to 50
b) 4 to 500
c) Question 14
d) 50
Answer:
a) 4 to 50

Question 114.
In _______ device, the keys are arranged in a cluster.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 115.
_______ is the most commonly used output device to display the information.
a) Plotter
b) Monitor
c) Speaker
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Monitor

Question 116.
Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called _______.
a) Pixels
b) Points
c) Dots
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Pixels

Question 117.
________ is a monitor type.
a) CRT
b) LED
c) LCD
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 118.
CRT stands for _______.
a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Carbon Ray Tube
c) Cathode Ray Terminal
d) Cathode Ray Tunnel
Answer:
a) Cathode Ray Tube

Question 119.
LED stands for _______.
a) Light Emitting Diodes
b) Light Emitting Device
c) Liquid Emitting Diodes
d) Light. Extracting Device
Answer:
a) Light Emitting Diodes

Question 120.
LCD stands for _______.
a) Liquid Crystal Display
b) Light Crystal Display
c) Large Crystal Display
d) Liquid Circuit Display
Answer:
a) Liquid Crystal Display

Question 121.
The monitor works with _______.
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 122.
VGA stands for _______.
a) Video Graphics Array
b) Video Generation Array
c) Video Graphics Adapter
d) Vector Generation Array
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Array

Question 123.
_______ acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor.
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 124.
The first computer monitor was released on _______.
a) March 1, 1973
b) March 31, 1973
c) March 21, 1973
d) March 1, 1963
Answer:
a) March 1, 1973

Question 125.
The first computer monitor was part of the _______ computer system.
a) Alto Xerox
b) Xerox Alto
c) Xerox
d) Alto
Answer:
b) Xerox Alto

Question 126.
The communicate with the screen.
a) Video Graphics Card
b) Video Graphics Channel
c) Video Group Card
d) Video Generation Card
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Card

Question 127.
_______ is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers.
a) Monitor
b) Plotter
c) Speaker
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 128.
Printers are divided into _______ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 129.
_______ printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) plotter
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Impact

Question 130.
_______ printer is an impact printer.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) Laser

Question 131.
A _______ printer prints using a fixed number of pins or wires.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
a) Dot matrix

Question 132.
The priting speed of a Dot matrix printer is _______ CPS.
a) 300 to 1550
b) 30 to 1550
c) 30 to 1555
d) 30 to 1505
Answer:
b) 30 to 1550

Question 133.
_______ printer uses a fixed print head for priting.
a) Dot matrix
b) More than 1000
c) Laser
d) less than 500
Answer:
b) More than 1000

Question 134.
The priting speed of a line printer _________ LPM.
a) Less than 1000
b) More than 1000
c) 300
d) less than 500
Answer:
b) More than 1000

Question 135.
CPS stands for _______.
a) Character Printing Speed
b) Character Per Second
c) Character Per Stroke
d) Character Per Session
Answer:
b) Character Per Second

Question 136.
________ printers do not use striking mechanism for printing.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Non-impact

Question 137.
_______ printer is a Non-impact printer,
a) Laser
b) Inkjet
c) Line
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 138.
The chief characteristics of laser printer is their ________.
a) printing speed
b) resolution
c) cost
d) All the above
Answer:
b) resolution

Question 139.
The resolution of a laser printer is measured in the unit _______.
b) LPM
d) None of these
b) Dots Per Instance
d) None of these
Answer:

Question 140.
DPI stands for _______.
a) Dots Per Inch
b) Dots per Insurance
c) Darkness Per Inch
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Dots Per Inch

Question 141.
The available resolution range of a laser printer around _______ DPI.
a) 1024
b) 12000
c) 1200
d) 1020
Answer:
c) 1200

Question 142.
The priting speed of a Laser printer is approximately _______ PPM.
a) 100
b) 1000
c) 1200
d) 1024
Answer:
a) 100

Question 143.
Inkjet printer uses ________ colour inks to create colour tones.
a) Magenta
b) Yellow
c) Cyan
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 144.
PPM stands for _______.
a) Paper Per Minute
b) Paper Per Moment
c) Pixels Per Minute
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Paper Per Minute

Question 145.
_______ produces voice output.
a) Plotter
b) Speaker
c) Mic
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Speaker

Question 146.
_______ is used to produce computer output on a big screen.
a) Speaker
b) Plotter
c) Multimedia projector
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Multimedia projector

Question 147.
A(n) _______ is a basic software that makes the computer to work.
a) Application software
b) Compiler
c) Loader
d) Operating system
Answer:
d) Operating system

Question 148.
POST sequence check the device .
a) RAM
b) Keyboard
c) Monitor
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 149.
If POST sequence is successful then _______ gets executed.
a) BIOS
b) Application program
c) Compiler
d) None of these
Answer:
a) BIOS

Question 150.
BIOS means _______.
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Basic Input Output Scheme
c) Best Input Output System
d) Beginners Input Output System
Answer:
a) Basic Input Output System

Question 151.
After POST sequence, BIOS gets execute is called _______.
a) booting
b) shutdown
c) hibernate
d) login
Answer:
a) booting

Question 152.
Booting process is of _______ types.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer:
d) 2

Question 153.
When the system starts from initial state when the computer is switched on is called ______ booting.
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Hard
d) Either B or C
Answer:
b) Cold

Question 154.
When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ______ to initiate the booting process.
a) RAM
b) CD-RAM
c) Hard disk
d) ROM
Answer:
d) ROM

Question 155.
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed _______ booting
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 156.
During _______ booting, there are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 157.
_______ interprets and executes software instructions.
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) CPU

Question 158.
There are totally ______ Symbols / Graphemes / Characters in the Indus Script.
a) 417
b) 407
c) 471
d) 147
Answer:
a) 417

Question 159.
_______ is a sub-field of Artificial Intelligence.
a) Neural Network
b) Nature Network
c) GUI
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Neural Network

Question 160.
Expand USB _______.
a) Universal Serial Bus
b) Unique Serial Bus
c) Universal Serial Board
d) Universal Serial Booting
Answer:
a) Universal Serial Bus

Question 161.
Transistor means _______.
a) Transfer resistance
b) Transfer register
c) Track resistance
d) Tangent resistance
Answer:
a) Transfer resistance

Question 162.
LPM stands for ______.
a) Lines Per Minute
b) Lines Per Moment
c) Line Print Machine
d) Line Print Mechanism
Answer:
a) Lines Per Minute

Part – II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Why Charles Babbage is called as father of modern computer.
Answer:
Charles Babbage is considered to be the father of computer, for his invention and the concept of Analytical Engine in 1837. The Analytical Engine contained an Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU), basic flow control, and integrated memory; which led to the development of first general purpose computer concept.

Question 2.
Write note on ENIAC.
Answer:
The ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Calculator) was invented by 1 Presper Eckert and John Mauchly at the University of Pennsylvania and began construction in 1943 and was not completed until 1946. It occupied about 1,800 square feet and used about 18,000 vacuum tubes, weighing almost 50 tons. ENIAC was the first digital computer because it was fully functional.

Question 3.
Write note on Optical Character Recognition Engine.
Answer:
Optical Character Recognition (Optical Grapheme Recognition) engine for the Indus Scripts has been developed using Deep Learning Neural Networks. Given photographs, scans, or any image feed of an Indus Valley Civilization ‘ artifact, the system will be able to recognize the inscriptions (the symbol / grapheme sequences) from the image. There are totally 417 Symbols/ Graphemes/ Characters in the Indus Scripts and just 3700+ text inscriptions of data for the machine to learn and attain expert-level status.

Question 4.
Define Data.
Answer:
Data is defined as an un-processed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.

Question 5.
Define Information.
Answer:
Information is a processed fact from which conclusions may be drawn.

Question 6.
Define Hardware.
Answer:
Hardware is the physical component of a computer like motherboard, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc.

Question 7.
Define Software.
Answer:
Software is the set of programs or instructions. It is classified into System software (Ex. Operating system) and Application software (Ex. MS-Word).

Question 8.
Write note on IPO cycle.
Answer:
Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle). It needs certain input, processes that input and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output.

Question 9.
Write note on Input unit.
Answer:
Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer, which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing.

Example:
Keyboard, mouse, etc.

Question 10.
Write note on output unit.
Answer:
An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

Question 11.
Write note on primary memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. Ex. Random Access Memory (RAM),

Question 12.
Write note on secondary memory.
Answer:
The secondary memory is non-volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.

Example: Hard disk, CD-ROM , DVD ROM etc.

Question 13.
Who invented Mouse?
Answer:
The computer mouse was invented and developed by Douglas Engelbart, with the assistance of Bill English, during the 1960’s and was patented on November 17, 1970.

Question 14.
What is use of scanner?
Answer:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written Information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Question 15.
What are the types of keyboard?
Answer:
The keyboard types are :

1. Wired keyboard.
2. Wireless keyboard.
3. Virtual keyboard.

Question 16.
Write short note on Track ball.
Answer:
Track bail is similar to the upside down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the bail in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Question 17.
What is the use of Retinal scanner?
Answer:
This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person s retinal blood vessels.

Question 18.
Write short note on Barcode reader.
Answer:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

Question 19.
Write short note on QR code reader.
Answer:
The QR (Quick response) code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.

Question 20.
What is the use of Voice Input System?
Answer:
Microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and send it to the computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer,

Question 21.
Write short note oh Digital Camera.
Answer:
It captures images / videos directly in the digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Question 22.
Write about Plotter.
Answer:
Plotter is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers. It uses single color or multi color pens to draw pictures,

Question 23.
Write short note on printer.
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on papers. Printers are divided into two main categories:

1. Impact Printers
2. Non Impact printers.

Question 24.
Write about Multimedia Projectors.
Answer:
Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

Question 25.
What do you mean by natural language processing?
Answer:
It is a method used in artificial intelligence to process and derive meaning from the human language.

Question 28.
Write about Robotics.
Answer:
Robot is a term coined by Karel Capek in 1921 to play RUR (Rossum’s Universal Robots). It is used to describe a computerized machine designed to respond to input received manually or from its surroundings.

Question 27.
Write note on Nanotechnology.
Answer:
Nanotechnology is an engineering, science and technology that develops machines or works with one atom or one molecule that is 100 nanometers or smaller.

Question 28.
Write note on Bioengineering.
Answer:
It is a discipline that applies engineering principles of design and analysis to biological systems and biomedical technologies.

Question 29.
What is high level language?
Answer:
A high level language is a computer programming language that is not limited by the computer, designed for a specific job and is easier to understand.

Question 30.
Write, about Integrated Circuits.
Answer:
The integrated circuit is a package containing many circuits, pathways, transistors and other electronic components all working together to perform a particular function or a series of functions.

Question 31.
Write note on punched card.
Answer:
It also known as Hollerith card is paper card containing several punched or perforated holes that were punched by hand or machine to represent data.

Part – III

Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Write note on keyboard.
Answer:
Keyboard is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

The data and instructions are given as input to the computer by typing on the keyboard) Apart from alphabet and numeric keys, it also has Function keys for performing different functions. There are different set of keys available in the keyboard such as character keys, modifier keys, system and GUI keys, enter and editing keys, function keys, navigation keys, numeric keypad and lock keys.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of Fingerprint scanner?
Answer:
Finger print Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security, equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Question 3.
Write note on Light Pen.
Answer:
A light pen is a pointing device shaped like a pen and is connected to a monitor. The tip of the light pen contains a light-sensitive element which detects the light from the screen enabling the computer to identify the location of the pen on the screen. Light pens have the advantage of ‘drawing’ directly onto the screen, but this becomes hard to use, and is also not accurate.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of Optical Character Reader.
Answer:
It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters in the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores. The Scanned document can be edited using a wordprocessor.

Question 5.
Write note on Touch screen.
Answer:
A touch screen is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger. It can be quite useful as an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI).

Touch screens are used on a wide variety of devices such as computers, laptops, monitors, smart phones, tablets, cash registers and information kiosks. Some touch screens use a grid of infrared beams to sense the presence of a finger instead of utilizing touch-sensitive input.

Question 6.
Write about Keyer.
Answer:
A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modern keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50. A keyer differs from a keyboard, which has “no board”, but the keys are arranged in a cluster.

Question 7.
Explain briefly about Monitor.
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called PIXELS. Monitors may either be Monochrome or can be color. There are many types of monitors available such as CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diodes).

The monitor works with the VGA (Video Graphics Array) card) The video graphics card helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen. It acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor. The first computer monitor was part of the Xerox Alto computer system, which was released on March 1, 1973.

Question 8.
Write about speaker? Where it is mostly used?
Answer:
Speakers produce voice output (audio). Using speaker along with speech synthesize software, the computer can provide voice output. This has become very common in places like airlines, schools, banks, railway stations, etc.

Question 9.
Compare assembly language and machine language.
Answer:
An assembly language is a low level programming language. Machine language is a collection of binary digits or bits that the computer reads and interprets directly.

Question 10.
Write note on i) Transistor ii) Vacuum tube
Answer:
i) Transistor : The transistor (transfer resistance) is made up of semi conductors. It is a component used to control the amount of current or voltage used for amplification / modulation of an electronic signal.

ii) Vacuum Tube : It contains electrodes for controlling electron flow and were used in early computers as a switch or an amplifier.

Part – IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Explain the types of Mouse.
Answer:
Different types of mouse available are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical, Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse, Ergonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse.

Question 2.
Explain briefly about impact printers.
Answer:
These printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi¬part (using carbon papers) by using mechanical pressure. Ex: Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers.

A Dot matrix printer that prints using a fixed number of pins or wires. Each dot is produced by a tiny metal rod, also called a “wire” or “pin” which works by the power of a tiny electromagnet or solenoid, either directly or through a set of small levers. It generally prints one line of text at a time. The printing speed of these printers varies from 30 to 1550 CPS (Character Per Second).

Line matrix printers use a fixed print head for printing. Basically, it prints a page-wide line of dots. But it builds up a line of text by printing lines of dots. Line printers are capable of printing much more than 1000 Lines Per Minute, resulting in thousands of pages per hour. These printers are also uses mechanical pressure to print on multi-part (using carbon papers).

Question 3.
Explain briefly about non-impact printers.
Answer:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic or laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers are better than Impact printers. Ex: Laser printers and Inkjet printers.

Laser Printers :
Laser printers mostly work with similar technology used by photocopiers. It makes a laser beam scan back and forth across a drum inside the printer, building up a pattern. It can produce very good quality of graphic images. One of the chief characteristics of laser printer is their resolution – how many Dots per inch (DPI). The available resolution range around 1200 dpi. Approximately it can print 100 pages per minute (PPM).

Inkjet Printers:
Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed) An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

Question 4.
Explain briefly about booting of computer. Explain its types.
Answer:
An Operating system (OS) is a basic software that makes the computer to work. When. a computer is switched on, there is no information in its RAM. At the same time, in ROM, the pre-written program called POST (Power on Self Test) will be executed first. This program checks if the devices like RAM, keyboard, etc), are connected properly and ready to operate.

If these devices are ready, then the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) gets executed) This process is called Booting. Thereafter, a program called “Bootstrap Loader” transfers OS from hard disk into main memory. Now the OS gets loaded (Windows/Linux) and will get executed.

Booting process is of two types:

• Cold Booting.
• Warm Booting.

Cold Booting :
When the system starts from initial state i.e. it is switched on, we call it cold booting or Hard Booting: When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ROM to initiate the booting process.

Warm Booting :
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed, we call it Warm Booting or Soft Booting. The system does not start from initial state and so all diagnostic tests need not be carried out in this case. There are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Sampling Techniques and Statistical Inference Ex 8.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Sampling Techniques and Statistical Inference Ex 8.2

Question 1.
Mention two branches of statistical inference?
Solution:
The two branches of statistical inference are estimation and testing of hypothesis.

Question 2.
What is an estimator?
Solution:
Any sample statistic which is used to estimate an unknown population parameter is called an estimator ie., an estimator is a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter.

Question 3.
What is an estimate?
Solution:
When we observe a specific numerical value of our estimator, we call that value is an estimate. In other words, an estimate is a specific value of a statistic.

Question 4.
What is point estimation?
Solution:
Point estimation involves the use of sample data to calculate a single value which is to serve as a best estimate of an unknown population parameter. For example the mean height of 145 cm from a sample of 15 students is‘a point estimate for the mean height of the class of 100 students.

Question 5.
What is interval estimation?
Solution:
Generally, there are situation where point estimation is not desirable and we are interested in finding limits within which the parameter would be expected to lie is called an interval estimation.

Question 6.
What is confidence interval?
Solution:
Let us choose a small value of a which is known as level of significance (1% or 5%) and determine two constants says c₁ and c₂ such that p(c₁ < θ < c₂|t) = 1 – α

The quantities c₁ and c₂ so determined are known as the confidence Limits and the interval [c₁, c₂] within which the unknown value of the population parameter is expected to lie is known as a confidence interval.(1 – α)is called as confidence coefficient.

Question 7.
What is null hypothesis? Give an example.
Solution:
According to prof R. A. fisher, “Null hypothesis is the hypothesis which is tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is true”, and it is denoted by H₀.

For example: If we want to find the population mean has a specified value µ₀, then the null hypothesis H₀ is set as follows H₀ : µ = µ₀

Question 8.
Define alternative hypothesis.
Solution:
A null hypothesis is a type of hypothesis, that proposes that no statistical significance exists in a set of given observations. For example, let the average time to cook a specific dish is 15 minutes. The null hypothesis would be stated as “The population mean is equal to 15 minutes”, (i.e) H₀ : µ = 15

Any hypothesis which is complementary to the null hypothesis is called as the alternative hypothesis and is usually denoted by H₁.

For example: If we want to test the null hypothesis that the population has specified mean µ i.e., H₀ : µ = µ₀ then the alternative hypothesis could be anyone among the following:
(i) H₁ : µ ≠ µ₀ (µ > or µ < µ₀)
(ii) H₁ : µ > µ₀
(iii) H₁ : µ < µ₀

Question 9.
Define critical region.
Solution:
A region corresponding to a test statistic in the sample space which tends to rejection of H₀ is called critical region or region of rejection.

Question 10.
Define critical value.
Solution:
The value of test statistic which separates the critical (or rejection) region and the acceptance region is called the critical value or significant value. It depends upon.
(i) The level of significance
(ii) The alternative hypothesis whether it is two-tailed or single-tailed

Question 11.
Define the level of significance.
Solution:
The level of significance is defined as the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis by the test when it is really true, which is denoted as α. That is P(Type 1 error) = α. For example, the level of significance 0.1 is related to the 90% confidence level.

Question 12.
What is a type I error
Solution:
There is every chance that a decision regarding a null hypothesis may be correct or may not be correct. The error of rejecting H₀ when it is true is called type I error.

Question 13.
What is single tailed test.
Solution:
When the hypothesis about the population parameter is rejected only for the value of sample statistic falling into one of the tails of the sampling distribution, then it is known as a one-tailed test. Here H₁: µ > µ₀ and H₁: µ < µ₀ is known as a one-tailed alternative.

Question 14.
A sample of 100 items, draw from a universe with mean value 64 and S.D 3, has a mean value 63.5. Is the difference in the mean significant?
Solution:
sample size n = 100 ; sample mean \(\bar { x}\) = 63.5
sample SD S = 3;
population mean µ = 64 population SD σ = 3
Null Hypothesis H₀ : µ = 64 (the sample has been drawn from the population mean µ = 64 and SD σ = 3)
Alternative Hypothesis H₁ : µ ≠ 64 (two tail) i.e the sample has not been drawn from the population mean µ = 64 and SD σ = 3
The level of significance α = 5% = 0.05
Test statistic
z = \(\frac { 63.5-64}{\frac{3}{\sqrt{100}}}\) = \(\frac { -0.5 }{(\frac{3}{10})}\) = \(\frac { -0.5 }{0.3}\) = -1.667
|z| = 1.667
∴ calculated z = 1.667
critical value at 5% level of
significance is z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} = 1.96
Inference:
At 5% level of significance Z < Z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} since the calculated value is less than the table value the null hypothesis is accepted.

Question 15.
A sample of 400 individuals is found to have a mean height of 67.47 inches. Can it be reasonably regarded as a sample from a large population with mean height of 67.39 inches and standard deviation 1.30 inches?
Solution:
sample size n = 400; sample mean \(\bar { x}\) = 67.47 inches
sample SD S = 1.30 inches population mean
µ = 67.39 inches
population SD σ = 1.30 inches
Null Hypothesis H₀ : µ = 67.39 inches (the sample has been drawn from the population mean µ = 67.39 inches; population SD σ = 1.30 inches)
Alternative Hypothesis H₁ = µ ≠ 67.39 inches(two tail)
i.e the sample has not been drawn from the population mean µ = 67.39 inches and SD σ = 1.30 inches
The level of significance α = 5% = 0.05
Test static:

Thus the calculated and the significant value or Z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} = 1.96
table value comparing the calculated and table values
Z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} (i.e.,) 1.2308 < 1.96
Inference: since the calculated value is less than value i.e Z > Z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} at 5% level of significance, the null hypothesis is accepted Hence we conclude that the data doesn’t provide us any evidence against the null hypothesis. Therefore, the sample has been drawn from the population mean µ = 67.39 inches and SD σ = 1.30 inches.

Question 16.
The average score on a nationally administered aptitude test was 76 and the corresponding standard deviation was 8. In order to evaluate a state’s education system, the scores of 100 of the state’s students were randomly selected. These students had an average score of 72. Test at a significance level of 0.05 if there is a significant difference between the state scores and the national scores.
Solution:
sample size n = 100
sample mean \(\bar { x}\) = 72
sample SD S = 8
population mean µ = 76
under the Null hypothesis H₀ : p = 76
Against the alternative hypothesis H₀ : µ ≠ 76 (two mail)
Level of significance µ = 0.05
Test statistic:

since alternative hypothesis is of two tailed test we can take |Z| = 5.
∴ critical value 5% level of significance is z > z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} = 1.96
Inference:
Since the calculated value is less than table value i.e z > z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} at 5% level of significance the null hypothesis H0 is rejected Therefore, we conclude that there is significant difference between the sample mean and population mean µ = 76 and SD σ = 8.

Question 17.
The mean breaking strength of cables supplied by a manufacturer is 1,800 with a standard deviation 100. By a new technique in the manufacturing process it is claimed that the breaking strength of the cables has increased. In order to test this claim a sample of 50 cables is tested. It is found that the mean breaking strength is 1,850. Can you support the claim at 0.01 level of significance.
Solution:
Sample size n = 50
Sample mean \(\bar { x}\) = 1800
Sample SD S = 100
population mean µ = 1850
Null hypothesis H₀ : µ = 1850
Level of significance µ = 0.01

= -3.5355
∴ z = -3.536
calculated value |z| = 3.536
Critical value at 1% level of significance is z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} = 2.58
Inference:
Since the calculated value is greater than table (ie) z > z_{\(\frac { α }{2}\)} at 1% level of significance, the null hypothesis is rejected, therefore we conclude that we is rejected, Therefore we conclude that we can not support we conclude that we can support the claim of 0.01 of significance.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Ex 9.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Applied Statistics Ex 9.1

Question 1.
Define Time series.
Solution:
When quantitative data are arranged in the order of their occurrence, the resulting series is called the Time Series.

Question 2.
What is the need for studying time series?
Solution:
Time series analysis is one of the statistical methods used to determine the patterns in data collected for a period of time. Generally, each of us should know about the past data to observe and understand the changes that have taken place in the past and current time. One can also identify the regular or irregular occurrence of any specific feature over a time period in a time series data.

Question 3.
State the uses of time series.
Solution:

Question 4.
Mention the components of the time series.
Solution:
There are four types of components in a time series. They are as follows
(i) Secular Trend
(ii) Seasonal variations
(iii) Cyclic variations
(iv) Irregular variations

Question 5.
Define secular trend.
Solution:
Secular Trend: It is a general tendency, of time series to increase or decrease, or stagnates during a long period of time. An upward tendency is usually observed in the population of a country, production, sales, prices in industries, the income of individuals, etc., A downward tendency is observed in deaths, epidemics, prices of electronic gadgets, water sources, mortality rate, etc…

Question 6.
Write a brief note on seasonal variations
Solution:
As the name suggests, tendency movements are due to nature which repeats themselves periodically in every season. These variations repeat themselves in less than one year time. It is measured in an interval of time. Seasonal variations may be influenced by natural force, social customs and traditions. These variations are the results of such factors which uniformly and regularly rise and fall in the magnitude. For example, selling of umbrellas’ and raincoat in the rainy season, sales of cool drinks in the summer season, crackers in the Deepawali season, purchase of dresses in a festival season, sugarcane in Pongal season.

Question 7.
Explain cyclic variations.
Solution:
Cyclic Variations: These variations are not necessarily uniformly periodic in nature. That is, they may or may not follow exactly similar patterns after equal intervals of time. Generally, one cyclic period ranges from 7 to 9 years and there is no hard and fast rule in the fixation of years for a cyclic period. For example, every business cycle has a Start- Boom-Depression- Recover, maintenance during booms and depressions, changes in government monetary policies, changes in interest rates.

Question 8.
Explain the stratified random sampling with a suitable example.
Solution:
These variations do not have a particular pattern and there is no regular period of time of their occurrences. These are accidental changes which are purely random or unpredictable. Normally they are short-term variations, but their occurrence sometimes has its effect so intense that they may give rise to new cyclic or other movements of variations. For example floods, wars, earthquakes, Tsunami, strikes, lockouts, etc.

Question 9.
Define seasonal index.
Solution:
Seasonal Index for every season (i.e) months, quarters, or year is given by
Seasonal Index (S.I) = \(\frac{\text { Seasonal Average }}{\text { Grand average }}\) × 100
Where seasonal average is calculated for month, (or) quarter depending on the problem and Grand Average (G) is the average of averages.

Question 10.
Explain the method of fitting a straight line.
Solution:
(i) The straight-line trend is represented by the equation Y = a + bX …………. (1)
Where Y is the actual value, X is time, a, b are constants.
(ii) The constants ‘a and ‘b’ are estimated by solving the following two normal Equations
ΣY = n a + b ΣX ………… (2)
ΣXY = a ΣX + b ΣX² …………… (3)
Where ‘n’ = a number of years given in the data.
(iii) By taking the mid-point of the time as the ori-gin, we get ΣX = 0
(iv) When ΣX = 0, the two normal equations reduces to
ΣY = na + b(0) ; a = \(\frac { ΣY }{n}\) = \(\bar { Y}\)
ΣXY = a(0) + bΣX² ; b = \(\frac { ΣXY }{ΣX^2}\)
The constant ‘a’ gives the mean of Y and ‘b gives the rate of change (slope),
(v) By substituting the values of ‘a and ‘b’ in the trend equation (1), we get the Line of Best Fit.

Question 11.
State the two normal equations used in fitting a straight line.
Solution:
The normal equations used in fitting a straight line are
ΣY = na + b ΣX and ΣXY = a ΣX + b ΣX²
Where n = number of years given in the data,
X = time
Y = actual value
a, b = constants

Question 12.
State the different methods of measuring trends.
Solution:
Following are the methods by which we can measure the trend.
(i) Freehand or Graphic Method
(ii) Method of Semi-Averages
(iii) Method of Moving Averages

Question 13.
Compute the average seasonal movement for the following series

Solution:
Computation of seasonal. Index by the method of simple averages.

Question 14.
The following figures relates to the profits of a commercial concern for 8 years

Find the trend of profits by the method of three yearly moving averages.
Solution:

Question 15.
Find the trend of production by the method of a five-yearly period of moving average for the following data:

Solution:
I Computation of five – yearly moving averages

Question 16.
The following table gives the number of small- scale units registered with the Directorate of Industries between 1985 and 1991. Show the growth on a trend line by the free hand method.

Solution:

Question 17.
The annual production of a commodity is given as follows:

Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares
Solution:

Therefore the required equation of the straight line
Y = a + bx
Y = 169.428 + 3.285 X
⇒ Y = 169.428 + 3.285 (x – 1998)

Question 18.
Determine the equation of a straight line which best fits the following data

Compute the trend values for all years from 2000 to 2004
Solution:
Computation of trend values by the method of least squares (ODD Years)

Therefore, the required equation of the straight line trend is given by
Y = a + bX
Y = 54 + 5.4X
Y = 54 + 5.4 (x – 2002)
The trend value can be obtained by when x = 2000
Yt = 54 + 5.4 (2000 – 2002)
Y = 54+ 5.4 (-2)
= 54 – 10.8
= 43.2
When x = 2001
Yt = 54 + 5.4 (2001 – 2002)
Y = 54 + 5.4 (-1)
= 54 – 5.4
= 48.6
When x = 2002
Yt = 54 + 5.4 (2002 – 2002)
V = 54 + 5.4 (0)
= 54
When x = 2003
Yt = 54 + 5.4 (2003 – 2002)
Y = 54 + 5.4 (1)
= 54 + 5.4
= 59.4
When x = 2004
Yt = 54 + 5.4 (2004 – 2002)
Y = 54 + 5.4(2)
= 54 + 10.8
= 64.8

Question 19.
The sales of a commodity in tones varied from January 2010 to December 2010 as follows: in year 2010 Sales (in tones)

Fit a trend line by the method of semi-average.
Solution:
Since the number of years is even (twelve). We can equally divide the given data it two equal parts and obtain averages of the first six months and the last six.

Question 20.
Use the method of monthly averages to find the monthly indices for the following data of production of a commodity for the years 2002, 2003, and 2004.

Solution:

Question 21.
Use the method of monthly averages to find T the monthly indices for the following data of production of a commodity for the years 2002, 2003, and 2004.

Solution:
Computation of Seasonal Index by the method of simple averages

Question 22.
The following table shows the number of salesmen working for a certain concern:

Use the method of least squares to fit a straight line and estimate the number of salesmen in 1997
Solution:
Computation of trend values by the method of least squares (ODD Years)

Therefore, the required equation of the straight line trend is given by
Y = a + bX
Y = 48.8 + 2X
(i.e) Y = 48.8 + 2 (x – 1994)
When x = 1992
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1992 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2 (-2)
= 48.8 – 4
= 44.8
When x = 1993
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1993 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2 (-1)
= 48.8 – 2
= 46.8
When x = 1994
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1994 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2(0)
= 48.8
When x = 1995
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1995 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2(1)
= 50.8
When x = 1996
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1996 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2 (2)
= 48.8 + 4
= 52.8
When x = 1997
Yt = 48.8 + 2 (1997 – 1994)
Y = 48.8 + 2 (3)
= 48.8 + 6
= 54.8