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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 7 Urban Changes During the British Period Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Urban Changes During the British Period

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Ancient town are
a) Harappa and Mohenjadaro
b) Delhi and Hyderabad
c) Bombay and Calcutta
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Harappa and Mohenjadaro

2. Coastal towns developed by the British were
a) Surat
b) Goa
c) Bombay
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

3. A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half of 19th century as a result of
a) Opening of Suez Canal
b) Introduction of steam navigation
c) Construction of railways
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

4. The British arrived India for
a) for trading
b) for preaching their religion
c) for working
d) for ruling
Answer:
a) for trading

5. Fort St. George was constructed by the British in
a) Bombay
b) Cuddalore
c) Madras
d) Calcutta
Answer:
c) Madras

6. Which of the following port was the East India Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
a) Fort William
b) Fort St. David
c) Fort St. George
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Fort St. George

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The network of railroads in India was introduced in ……………. .
Answer:
1853

2. ……………. rightly regarded as the Father of Local Self – Government in India.
Answer:
Lord Ripon

3. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced ……………. in the provinces.
Answer:
Dyarchy

4. ……………. was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
Answer:
Sis Josiah child

5. Francis Day and Andrew Cogan got permission to establish a factory cum trading post at Madrasapatnam in …………….
Answer:
1639

III. Match the following.

1. Bombay	a) Religious centres
2. Cantonment towns	b) Hill stations
3. Kedamath	c) Ancient town
4. Darjeeling	d) Seven islands
5. Madurai	e) Kanpur

Answer:

1. Bombay	d) Seven islands
2. Cantonment towns	e) Kanpur
3. Kedamath	a) Religious centres
4. Darjeeling	b) Hill stations
5. Madurai	c) Ancient town

IV. State true or false.
1. Towns flourished since pre-historic times in India.
Answer:
True

2. British acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
True

3. Fort William is in Madras.
Answer:
False

4. Army people began to live in cantonments.
Answer:
True

5. Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in 1998.
Answer:
False

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. Assertion : India became the agricultural colony of Britain.
Reason : The one-way free trade policy followed by British and the Industrial revolution destroyed Indian indigenous industries.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is Correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

2. Which of the following statements) is/are not true?
i) Srirangarayalu gave the English the grant of Madrasapatnam.
ii) Day and Cogan were jointly responsible for the construction of Fort St. George.
iii) In 1969 the state of Madras was rechristened as Tamil Nadu

a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Answer:
c) ii and iii

3. Assertion: British built up their alternative capitals in hilly areas.
Reason: They found the Indian summer inhospitable.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is Correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What is an urban area?
Answer:
An urban area is one that has a high population density engaged in occupations other than food production, living in a highly built environment.

2. Hilly areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Why?
Answer:
Hilly areas were few and had a small population and were often visited for specific purposes.

3. Name the three Presidency cities?
Answer:
In the late 18th century Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras rose as Presidency cities.

4. State any four reasons for the new trend of urbanization in the 19,h century.
Answer:

• Opening of Suez Canal
• Introduction of steam navigation
• Banking
• Shipping and insurance

5. Write a short note on Cantonment towns.
Answer:

• Since the British needed strong military camps and established the cantonment towns.
• Army people began to live in these places and gradually they were grown up in a city.
• E.g. Kanpur and Lahore.

6. What were the regions covered in the Madras presidency during the British regime?
Answer:
Modem day Tamilnadu, the Lakshwadeep island, Northern Kerala, Rayalaseema, Coastal Andhra, Districts of Karnataka, and various districts of southern Odisha.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Describe colonial urban development.
Answer:
(i) Port cities:

• The British arrived in India for trading. Madras, Calcutta, and Bombay became the important ports. They played important role in trade. These cities became prominent commercial areas with tall European – styled buildings.
• Fort St. George in Madras and Fort St. William in Calcutta were the best examples.

(ii) Cantonment towns:

• The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force. So they needed strong military camps and established the cantonments
• For e.g, Kanpur, Lahore.

(iii) Hill Stations:

• Hill stations were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Although Hill stations were not unknown, prior to their founding by the British in India, they were few and had a small population, and were often visited for a specific purpose.
• For e.g. Srinagar was a Mughal recreational centre, Kedamath and Badrinath were Hindu religious Centres.

(iv) Railway towns:

• Railway towns were also a type of urban settlements and were established in 1853 after the introduction of railways by the British.
• By the nature of railway transport, all the towns were located on the plains.

2. Trace the origin and growth of Madras.
Answer:

• The English East India Company was started in 1600.
• When famine struck Masulipatnam English looked for a new site.
• Francis Day chose Madrasapatnam in 1637 and set up factory.
• In 1639 the deed was signed by Francis Day and Andrew Cogan to establish a factory aim trading port and fortified it and called fort St. George.
• Fort St. George was called the white town and the nearby villages were called Black town which was collectively called Madras.

3. India became an agricultural colony of Britain. How?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, the policies of the British proved harmful to the process of urbanisation.
2. Later the economic policies followed by the British led to the rapid transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy and the development of cities.
3. The one-way free trade predominance of British, Indian manufacturing industries was destroyed.
4. There was a sudden collapse of the urban handicrafts industry.
5. Towns and cities long famed for their specialized products gazed continually shrinking market.
6. The manufacturing towns lost their previous importance.
7. The industrial revolution, high import duties, and other restrictions imposed on the import of Indian goods into Britain and Europe led to the decline of Indian industries.
8. Thus, India became the agricultural colony of Britians.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. ……………….. was an alternative capital for Calcutta.
a) Dehradun
b) Darjeeling
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
b) Darjeeling

2. ……………….. was founded during the Gurkha war.
a) Dehradun
b) Delhi
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
c) Shimla

3. ……………….. established municipal administration in the three presidency towns.
a) The Character Act of 1793
b) The Character Act of 1773
c) The Character Act of 1813
d) The Character Act of 1833
Answer:
a) The Character Act of 1793

4. The English East India Company was started in AD.
a) 1600
b) 1500
c) 1556
d) 1608
Answer:
a) 1600

5. ……………….. is the power centre of the Tamilnadu state government.
a) Fort St. George
b) Fort St. William
c) Fort St. David
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Fort St. George

6. The white and Black towns were collectively called …………………
a) Madras
b) Delhi
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
a) Madras

7. Madras was the East India Companys principal settlement until …………………
a) 1664
b) 1774
c) 1556
d) 1600
Answer:
b) 1774

8. A town or district that has local government is …………………
a) Municipality
b) corporation
c) Panchayat
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Muncipality

9. The chief of the Masulipatnam factor,
a) Andrew cogon
b) Francis
c) David
d) Jar
Answer:
a) Andrew Cogan

10. Making of Chennai in the year …………………
a) 1640
b) 1641
c) 1638
d) 1639
Answer:
1639

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The introduction of the railways resulted in the diversion of …………………
Answer:
trade routes

2. The Presidency cities were earlier ……………….. Villages.
Answer:
fishing and wearing

3. The port cities became prominent commercial areas with fall ……………….. buildings.
Answer:
European – styled

4. The ……………….. were an entirely new kind of urban centre.
Answer:
containment

5. ……………….. was a Mughal recreational centre.
Answer:
Srinagar

6. ……………….. and ……………….. were Hindu religious centres.
Answer:
Kedarnath, Badrinath

7. ……………….. was an alternative capital for Calcutta.
Ans: Darjeeling

8. ……………….. was an alternative for Delhi.
Answer:
Dehradun

9. ……………….. was founded during the ……………….. war.
Answer:
Simla, Gurkha

10. The chief of the Armagon factors was ……………….. .
Answer:
Francis Day

11. The Government of India 1935 introduced …………………
Answer:
Provincial Autonomy

12. The official interpreter of chandragiri was …………………
Answer:
Beri Thimmappa

13. ……………….. was well protected from monsoon winds.
Answer:
Masulipatnam .. f

14. In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at …………………
Answer:
Sultanate

15. Srirangarayalu issued a new grant to English in 1645 called …………………
Answer:
Srirangarayapatnam

III. Match the Following.

1. Cantonment towns	a)1853
2. Port cities	b) Headquarters of principalities
3. Hill stations	c) Military forces
4. Medieval towns	d) Colonial urban development
5. Railway towns	e) European-styled

Answer:

1. Cantonment towns	c) Military forces
2. Port cities	e) European-styled
3. Hill stations	d) Colonial urban development
4. Medieval towns	b) Headquarters of Principalities
5. Railway towns	a) 1853

IV. True or False.
1. Dalhousie Square in Chennai was close to the commercial area.
Answer:
False

2. Dyarchy is a Government by two independent authorities.
Answer:
True

3. Bombay was initially six islands.
Ans: False

4. The company established Fort William at Calcutta.
Answer:
True

5. Chennai was once a group of villages.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
i) Harappa, Mohenjadaro, Varanasi, Allahabad, and Madurai are well- known modem towns.
ii) Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, and Nagpur are fort city or port city.
iii) Three main cities are – Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkatta as the administrative headquarters and trading centres.
a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Answer:
c) ii and iii

2. Assertion: The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force.
Reason: They needed strong military camps and established the cantonments.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

3. i) Bombay was initially seven islands. It was under the control of the Portuguese from 1534 onwards.
ii) Charles II of England King leased it to the East India Company.
iii) The English East India Company transferred its headquarters from Calcutta to Bombay, a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) iii only
Answer:
b) i and ii

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Name a few ancient towns of India.
Answer:
Harappa, Mohenjadaro, Varanasi, Allahabad, and Madurai are the ancient towns of India.

2. What are the fort cities in the Medieval towns of India.
Answer:
Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, and Nagpur.

3. Name the coastal town which was developed first.
Answer:
Surat, Daman, Goa, and Pondicherry were developed first.

4. Mention a few manufacturing towns which lost importance because of de – industralisation
Answer:
Dacca, Murshidabad, Surat, and Lucknow

5. What are Presidency cities?
Answer:
The Britishers divided colonial India for administrative purposes into three presidency cities. There are Calcutta, Bombay, Chennai.

6. How were Hill stations useful for the Britishers?
Answer:
It became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers, and launching campaigns.

7. What does the term ‘Sanatorioums’ mean?
Answer:
‘Sanatoriums’ are places for soldiers for rest and recovery from illness.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. What do you know about Bombay.
Answer:

• Bombay was initially seven islands that were under the Portuguese from 1534.
• Portuguese king gave Bombay as dowry to Charles II, in 1661. King gave to the company.
• The city began to grow when the company used it as its main port.
• In 1687 the company transferred its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

2. How did Calcutta become a Presidency city in India?
Answer:

• In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at Sultanate.
• In 1698 they secured zamindari rights over Sutanuti, Calcutta, and Gobindpur.
• The Company established Fort William at Calcutta.
• Thus Calcutta became president with a Governor and Council to manage its affairs.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 6 Friendship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Prose Chapter 6 Friendship

8th English Guide Friendship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 151)

1. Do you have any childhood friendship that is still strong today?
Answer:
Yes, I have my childhood friendship which is still strong today.

2. Do you make friendship with others easily?
Answer:
No, I make friendship with others only after a good understanding.

3. Share an incident that you remember proudly about your friends.
Answer:
Once I had to attend an interview and my friend Arun had come with me. When we got down from the bus, an iron rod tom my shirt. I hesitated to attend the interview with the tom shirt. Without thinking even for a single second. Arun took his shirt off and asked me to exchange the shirts. I had no other option and I did so Even today I remember proudly of Aran.

Section – I
Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 152)

Fill in the blanks:

1. …………………. constructions was once a leading company
Answer:
Vetri

2. He took a …………………. to run his company.
Answer:
loan

3. Vetri’s friend is ………………….
Answer:
Asif

Section – II
Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 153)

Say True or False.

1. Keelakudi was the native of Vetri.
Answer:
True

2. The school was a middle school.
Answer:
True

3. Vetri and Asif were good in studies.
Answer:
True

4. Vetri never visited Chennai.
Answer:
True

5. Asif was a businessman.
Answer:
True

Section – III
Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 153)

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 153)

A. Choose the correct answer.

1. Vetri went to Asif’s
a) home
b) office
c) room
Answer:
b) Office

2. Vetri came to Chennai to visit his.
a) father
b) friend
c) brother
Answer:
b) friend

3. Asif saw his friend through the
a) camera
b) window
c) glas
Answer:
a) camera

B. Choose correct synonyms for the italic word.

1. Vetri constructed a bungalow.
a) designed
b) built
c) demolished
d) destroyed
Answer:
b) built

2. The brothers started a business separately.
a) apart
b) alone
c) united
d) combined
Answer:
b) alone

3. I am living in the outskirts of the village.
a) border
b) outpost
c) center
d) region.
Answer:
a) border

4. Asif quarreled with his friend.
a) fought
b) differ
c) peace
d) fun
Answer:
a) fought

5. He stood astounded.
a) happy
b) surprised
c) shocked
d) exicted
Answer:
b) surprised

C. Choose correct Antonyms for the italic word.

1. Vetri’s wife replied angrily.
a) calm
b) annoyed
c) irritate
Answer:
a) calm

2. The vegetables look fresh.
a) rotten
b) dull
c) new
Answer:
a) rotten

3. Vetri had a strong will to start a new business.
a) desire
b) thin
c) weak
Answer:
c) weak

4. Vetri was surprised bv his friend.
a) unsurprised
b) expected
c) shocked
Answer:
a) unsurprised

5. He spoke nervously.
a) scared
b) confident
c) anxious
Answer:
a) confident

D. Answer the following questions in one or two words. (Text Book Page No. 156)

1. What was the name of Vetri’s company?
Answer:
The name of Vetri’s company was ‘Vetri Constructions’.

2. Why did he sell his properties?
Answer:
He took loans to run his company, but he could not pay the loan. So he sold all his properties in order to re- pay the loans.

3. Which was the home town of Vetri and Asif?
Answer:
The home town of Vetri and Asif was Keelakudi village.

4. When did Vetri receive a call from Asifs office?
Answer:
Two days later after reaching his home, Vetri received a call from Asif’s office.

E. Answer the following questions in 100 words.

1. How did Vetri lose his properties?
Answer:
Once Vetri was a successful businessman of Vetri constructions. It was a leading company. His company constructed many complexes, houses, and a few apartments in Coimbatore. After the death of his father, his brothers demanded him to divide the wealth because they wanted to start their business personally. Thereafter it was really difficult for him to establish his business. He took loans to run his company, but he could not pay back the loan. So, he sold his properties in order to re-pay the loans.

2. What happened when Vetri met Asif?
Answer:
Vetri boarded the train and went straight to Asif’s office. When Vetri was enquiring about Asif, he got a pat on his back. It was Asif, who came to receive Vetri, after seeing him through the CCTV camera. Vetri was speechless. He apologized to Asif saying that he never got a chance to visit Chennai. So he couldn’t meet him at all. They spoke about their school days and the fun they had. They also discussed their business. Asif took Vetri to his home for lunch. Vetri was surprised to see that everyone knows him. In the evening, Asif dropped him at the station.

3. How did Asif show his friendship?
Answer:
By understanding Vetri’s current situation Asif decided to give the project to him. Two days later, Vetri received a call from Asif’s office. They said “Our MD Mr. Asif, has assigned a project to you. He wants to meet you. Will you come to Chennai.” Through this Asif shower his friendship.

Vocabulary (Text Book Page No. 156)
Commonly Confused Words:

Complete the following sentences using appropriate confusable words.

1. The sugar had a negative on the science experiment, (effect/affect)
Answer:
effect

2. I am going to down for an hour, (lie/lay)
Answer:
lie

3. The gas prices continue to (raise/rise)
Answer:
rise

4. She always gives me good (advice/advise)
Answer:
advice

5. The war had no on oil prices, (affect/effect)
Answer:
effect

Anagram (Text Book Page No. 158)
Exercise

Antigram (Text Book Page No. 158)
Exercise

Listening (Text Book Page No. 158)

Listen carefully to the passage and answer the following questions.
Note: The listening passage is given at page no. 230

1. Whose speech is it?
Answer:
It is Rahim’s speech.

2. What did Rahul engrave?
Answer:
Rahul engraved Rahim’s help in his heart.

3. Who is lucky?
He, who finds a person who brightens our day, lends an ear, and inspires us,is

4. Who bagged the ‘all-rounder’ award?
Answer:
Rahul bagged an all-rounder award.

5. Whose birthday party is it?
Answer:
It was Rahul’s birthday party.

Speaking (Text Book Page No. 158)

Picture Description:

Describe the things in the picture using the descripture words given below.

Descriptive Words

Description:
1. An applicant should not write anything in the space meant for office use.
2. Name of the saving scheme has to be mentioned.
3. Name and gender residential address have to be written in capital letters.
4. The applicant must specify whether it is self or joint account.
5. Two documents with photos and addresses must be submitted.
6. The amount deposited must be written in numerals and in number name.
7. Nomination facility must be utilized.

Writing (Text Book Page No. 160)

POST OFFICE SAVINGS BANK
ACCOUNT OPENING/PURCHASE OF CERTIFICATE APPLICATION FORM FOR INDIVIDUALS

For Applicant(s)
1. I/We request you to open:- Savings/Basic Savings/RD/TD Year//MIS/SCSS/PPF/SSA or issue NSC(8th/9,h issue) or KVP in
my/our name.

2. Full Name of applicant/Guardian (in case of minor/Lunatic A/C), in CAPITAL Letters (leave space between words) Mr./Mrs./Ms./Other First Name Middle Name Last name Gender (M/F)

1.
2.
3.

1.	Miss	Radha Thangarajan	Female
2.
3.

4. Residential Address

5. Ap plicant’s Date of Birth (dd/mm/yy) PAN Number orForm 60/61) CIF ID (if already exists)

1
2
3

1	27.09.2000	Aelpa 2009F
2
3

6. Oper Instruction (please tick ✓ the empty box)

7. Deyail of Know Your Customer (KYC) documents submitted:-

8. Detail of First deposit:- Amount Rs.(figures) ______________ (word) _____________
Mode of Deposit ___________________
Detail of First deposit:- Amount Rs.(figures) 2,00,000 (word) two lakhs
Mode of Deposit ___________________

9. Nomination:- I/We nom into the person(s) named below under Section of the Govemment Saving Bank Act, 1873 (5 or 1873) to be the sole recipient(s) of the amount standing at the credit of the account in the event of my/our death.

I. Fill in the form given below.

Direct and Indirect Speech:

A) Change the following into Indirect Speech: (Text Book Page No. 167)

1. “What do you want?” he said to her.
Answer:
He asked her what she wanted.

2. He said, “How’s your father?”
Answer:
He asked how my father was.

3. “Are you coming home with me?” he asked.
Answer:
He asked whether I was coming home with him.

4. The poor man exclaimed, “Will none of you help me?”
Answer:
The poor man sadly exclaimed that none of us would help him.

5. “Don’t you know the way home?” asked I.
Answer:
I asked if he knew the way home.

B) Change the following into Indirect Speech: (Text Book Page No. 168)

1. “Bring me a glass of milk,” said the swami to the villagers.
Answer:
Swami said to the villagers to bring him a glass of milk.

2. “Sit down, boys,” said the teacher.
Answer:
The teacher told the boys to sit down.

3. “Halt!” shouted the officer to his men.
Answer:
The officer shouted his men to halt.

4. “Take off your hat,” the king said to the Hatter.
Answer:
The king ordered the Hatter to take off his hat.

5. The teacher said to him, “Do not read so fast.”
Answer:
The teacher ordered him not to read so fast.

6. He said to me, “Wait until I come.”
Answer:
He told me to wait until he came.

7. “Hurry up,” he said to his servant, “do not waste time.”
Answer:
He ordered his servant to hurry up and not to waste time. .

8. “Runaway, children,” said their mother.
Answer:
The mother told her children to run away.

9. He said, “Daughter, take my golden jug, and fetch me some water from the Well.”
Answer:
He told his daughter to take his golden jug and fetch him some water from the well.

10. “Go down to the bazaar. Bring me some oil and a lump of ice.” ordered his master.
Answer:
The master ordered to go down to the bazaar and bring him some oil and a lump of ice.

D) What were the actual words used in each instance below? The sentences containing the actual words are jumpled in the box. Write them out in the same order as the actual words. (Text Book Page No. 168)

1. Punitha asked Pushpa what she was reading.
Answer:
“What are you reading, Pushpa”? asked Punitha.

2. Pushpa told her that he was reading Robinson Crusoe.
Answer:
“I am reading Robinson Crusoe”, Pushpa told her.

3. Punitha asked her what it was all about.
Answer:
“What is it all about”? Punitha asked.

4. Pushpa said it was about a man wrecked on an island.
Answer:
“It is about a man wrecked on an island,” said Pushpa.

5. Punitha then asked her friend who gave her the book.
Answer:
“Who gave you the book, Pushpa?” Punitha then asked.

6. Pushpa answered that her uncle gave it to her at Christmas.
Answer:
“Uncle gave it to me at Christmas,” answered Pushpa.

7. Finally Punitha inquired if she could borrow it.
Answer:
“May I borrow it?” inquired Punitha.

8. Pushpa replied that she would certainly lend it to her.
Answer:
“Of course I will lend it to you,” replied Pushpa.

• “May I borrow it?” inquired Punitha.
• “What are you reading, Pushpa?” asked Punitha.
• “It is about a man wrecked on an island,” Pushpa said.
• “Of course I will lend it to you,” replied Pushpa.
• “Uncle gave it to me at Christmas,” answered Pushpa.
• “What is it all about?” Punitha asked.
• “I am reading Robinson Crusoe, Pushpa told her.
• “Who gave you the book, Pushpa?” Punitha then asked.

E) Change the following into Direct Speech:-

1. Nevin asked his father when the next letter would come.
Answer:
Nevin said to his father,” When will the next letter come?”

2. I wrote that I would visit him next day.
Answer:
I write, ” I will visit you tomorrow.”

3. I told them to be quiet.
Answer:
I said to them, “Be quiet.”

4. Lakshan asked me if I had anything to say.
Answer:
Lakshan said to me, “Do you have anything to say?”

5. An old mouse asked who would bell the cat.
Answer:
An old mouse said, ” Who will bell the cat?”

6. Mervin said that he wanted to be a soldier.
Answer:
Mervin said, “I want to be a soldier.”

7. Ebin asked me what I wanted.
Answer:
Ebin said to me, “What do you want?”

8. Bhagya said that she had seen that picture.
Answer:
Bhagya said, “I have seen that picture.”

9. The stranger asked Nasrin where she lived.
Answer:
The stranger said, “Where do you live?”

10. I asked Mary if she would lend me a pencil.
Answer:
I said to Mary, “Will you lend me a pencil?”

F) Sherlyn receives a postcard from her friend Pushpa who is holidaying in Sri Lanka. She calls her friend Galen and tells him what Pushpa has written. Help her by filling in the blanks, using reported speech. (Text Book Page No. 169)

Hello, Galen Today I received a postcard from Pushpa. Remember I had told you that She has gone to Sri Lanka on a holiday? Well, she has written from Colombo. She has written that she had visited Elephant Orphanage. It had 84 elephants. She said that it is the biggest herd of elephants in the world that is living under human supervision. She also added that she was glad that they had come there because she was learning a lot. The Elephant Orphanage was truly worth visiting. She said that the next day. they were going to the national park. She would be returning next week and added that she was looking forward to meeting me. then.

Friendship Summary in English

Vetri a businessman fell in debt. He lost his money. He needed money to start a new company. His wife advised him to ask his school friend Asif a successful business man at Chennai. Vetri was reluctant. Since he had no other alternative, he went to Chennai to meet his friend Asif.

Friendship Summary in Tamil

வெற்றி, வியாபாரம் செய்வதில் கடனாளி ஆனார். தன் பணத்தை இழந்தார். புதிய தொழில் தொடங்க பணம் தேவைப்பட்டது. அவரது மனைவி, அவரது பள்ளி நண்பர் ஆசிப்பிடம் உதவி கேட்க அறிவுரை கூறினார். அதில் வெற்றிக்கு தயக்கம் இருந்தது. இருப்பினும் வேறு வழியின்றி, தன் நண்பன் ஆசிப்பை சந்திக்க சென்னை சென்றார்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 8 Jack and the Beanstalk Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Prose Chapter 8 Jack and the Beanstalk

8th English Guide Jack and the Beanstalk Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Jack and the Beanstalk Textual Exercises

A) Say True or False.

1. The magic beans grew into a huge beanstalk.
Answer:
True

2. The beanstalk reached high into the sky in the evening.
Answer:
False

3. Everything is so big in the castle.
Answer:
True

4. The hen laid a perfect iron egg.
Answer:
False

5. Jack picked up the Giant’s hen.
Answer:
True

B) Fill in the blanks.

1. The Giant smells the blood of an ………………… .
Answer:
Englishman

2. Jack asked his mom for an ………………… .
Answer:
axe

3. Jack chopped down the ………………… .
Answer:
beanstalk

4. As soon as the giant was full, he fell fast ………………… .
Answer:
asleep

C) Answer the following questions.

1. Why was Jack’s mother angry?
Answer:
Jack’s mother was angry because she thought he was foolish in getting five magic beans for their cow.

2. Why was Jack surprised when reaching the sky?
Answer:
By morning the beanstalk reached high into the sky. Jack was so surprised.

3. What did Jack find when he reached the top?
Answer:
Jack found a huge castle when he reached the top of the beanstalk.

4. What did Jack see in the castle?
Answer:
The castle was very big. Things inside also were very big.

5. What did the Giant eat for a meal?
Answer:
The giant ate five sheep for his meal.

6. Where did Jack hide when he saw the Giant?
Answer:
Jack hid in a cupboard.

7. What did Jack intend to take when the Giant asleep?
Answer:
Jack intended to take away the hen that laid a golden egg, when the giant was asleep.

8. What did the hen do when Jack picked it up?
Answer:
The hen began to squawk and flapped its wings.

9. What did Jack do when the Giant woke up?
Answer:
Jack hurried and climbed down the beanstalk as fast as he could when the giant woke up.

10. Why did Jack ask for an axe?
Answer:
Jack chopped down the beanstalk with the axe.

Use Grammar (Text Book Page No. 220)

Sentence of double meanings: (Text Book Page No. 220)

1. “Let’s eat grandpa”.
Answer:
Let’s eat grandpa,

2. “A woman, without her man is nothing”.
Answer:
A woman without her, man would be nothing.

3. “I love baking my family and my friends”.
Answer:
I love baking, my family and my friends?

4. “Kill him, not leave him”.
Answer:
‘Kill him not, leave him.’

Punctuation:

A) Punctuate the following sentences. (Text Book Page No. 223)

1. I like playing with my friends sandy sunny sameer
Answer:
I like playing with my friends, Sandy, Sunny, Sameer.

2. we went through the smoky mountains, near shimla on our way to leh
Answer:
We went through the smoky mountains, near Shimla on our way to Leh.

3. my favourite soap is pears and my favourite toothpaste is pepsodent
Answer:
My favourite soap is Pear and my favourite toothpaste is Pepsodent.

4. my friend priya speaks german and she is teaching me some words
Answer:
My friend Priya speaks German and she is teaching me some words.

5. he was honest sincere hardworking
Answer:
He was honest, sincere, hard-working.

6. Hindus Muslims Sikhs Christians live together in India
Answer:
Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians live together in India.

7. long ago in a town in Switzerland there lived a famous man called William
Answer:
Long ago in a town in Switzerland there lived a famous man called William.

8. Akbar the greatest of the Mughal emperors ruled wisely
Answer:
Akbar, the greatest of the Mughal Emperors, ruled wisely.

9. Tanya said to ilarahul is a nice guy
Answer:
Tanya said to Ilarahul, “Babu is a nice guy.”

10. when is your birthday
Answer:
When is your birday?

[Period (.) Comma (,) Exclamation Mark (!) Question Mark (?) Inverted Commas (“ ”)]

B) Write the correct punctuation mark that best completes each sentence.

1. Where is an exciting place to visit ……….
Answer:
?

2. Make sure to complete all your homework on time ……….
Answer:
.

3. Priya asked when are we going on a vacation ……….
Answer:
.

4. Terry Sam and Jeremy went to the movies together ……….
Answer:
.

5. Wow What a wonderful event ……….
Answer:
!

6. I am so excited to see my family for Christmas ……….
Answer:
.

7. What day of the week is your favourite ……….
Answer:
?

8. You need to do your homework right after dinner
Answer:
.

9. Please take out the trash when you get home ……….
Ans: .

10. My favorite team won the game ……….
Answer:
.

11. What did you want to eat for lunch ……….
Answer:
?

12. I had a great time at your party ……….
Ans: .

13. Do you know what time it is ……….
Answer:
?

14. How do we get to the amusement park ……….
Answer:
?

15.1 can’t wait to go on summer vacation ……….
Answer:
.

Jack and the Beanstalk Summary in English

Jack and his mother lived in poverty. Jack went to market to sell his cow. On his way an old man met Jack. He offered to buy the cow. Instead of money, he gave only five magic beans. Jack’s mother got angry. She threw the beans out of the window in anger. The next morning the beanstalk went and higher. Jack climbed it. He reached a giant’s castle. He took the hen that laid are golden egg a day from the castle and escaped.

Jack and the Beanstalk Summary in Tamil

ஜாக் என்ற சிறுவனும் அவன் அம்மாவும் வறுமையில் வாடினார்கள். ஜாக் தன் பசுமாட்டை விற்க சந்தைக்குப் போனான். வழியில் ஒரு வயதான மனிதர் அவன் மாட்டை வாங்கிக் கொண்டார். பணத்திற்கு பதிலாக ஐந்து மந்திர அவரை விதைகளைத் தந்தார். ஜாக்கின் அம்மா கோபம் அடைந்து, அவரை விதைகளை தூக்கி கீழே ஜன்னலுக்கு வெளியே எறிந்தார். மறுநாள் காலையில், அந்த இடத்தில் பெரிய அவரைக்கொடி மிக உயரமாய் வளர்ந்து சென்றது. ஜாக் அதில் ஏறி ராட்சதனின் கோட்டையை அடைந்தான். ராட்சதனின் பொன்முட்டையிடும் கோழியை எடுத்துக்கொண்டு தப்பித்து விட்டான்.

Jack and the Beanstalk About the Author in English

Steven Kellogg (bom October 26, 1941 in Norwalk, Connecticut) is an American author and illustrator who has created more than 90 children’s books. On November 12, 2011, Kellogg was given an honorary Doctor of Humane Letters from the University of Findlay in Ohio.

Jack and the Beanstalk About the Author in Tamil

ஸ்டீவன் கெலாக், அக்டோபர் 26, 1941இல் நார்வாக், கனக்டிகட் மாகாணத்தில் பிறந்த அமெரிக்க எழுத்தாளர். இவர் 90க்கும் அதிகமான குழந்தைகளுக்கான புத்தகங்களை எழுதியுள்ளார். இவர் கௌரவ டாக்டர் பட்டம் வாங்கியுள்ளார். ஓகியோவில் உள்ள பின்லே பல்கலைக்கழகம் இவரது எழுத்துக்களை கௌரவித்து இப்பட்டத்தை வழங்கி உள்ளது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India?
a) Vasco da Gama
b) Bartholomew Diaz
c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
d) Almeida
Answer:
d) Almeida

2. Which of the following European Nation was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India?
a) Dutch
b) Portugal
c) France
d) Britain
Answer:
b) Portugal

3. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by ………………. .
a) The French
b) The Turks
c) The Dutch
d) The British
Answer:
b) The Turks

4. Sir William Hawkins belonged to ………………. .
a) Portugal
b) Spain
c) England
d) France
Answer:
c) England

5. The first fort constructed by the British in India was ………………. .
a) Fort William
b) Fort St.George
c) Agra fort
d) Fort St. David
Answer:
a) Fort William

6. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders?
a) The British
b) The French
c) The Danish
d) The Portuguese
Answer:
b) The French

7. Tranquebar on the Tamil Nadu coast was a trade centre of the ………………. .
a) The Portuguese
b) The British
c) The French
d) The Danish
Answer:
d) The Danish

II. Fill in blanks.
1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in ……………….
Answer:
New Delhi

2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by ……………….
Answer:
King John – II

3. The printing press in India was set up by ………………. at Goa in 1556.
Answer:
Portuguese

4. The Mughal Emperor ………………. permitted the English to trade in India.
Answer:
Jahangir

5. The French East India Company was formed by ……………….
Answer:
Colbert

6. ………………. the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.
Answer:
Christian IV

III. Match the following.

1. The Dutch	a) 1664
2. The British	b) 1602
3. The Danish	c)1600
4. The French	d) 1616

Answer:

1. The Dutch	b) 1602
2. The British	c) 1600
3. The Danish	d)1616
4. The French	a) 1664

IV. State true or false.
1. Auto biography is one of the written sources.
Answer:
True

2. Coins are one of the material sources.
Answer:
True

3. Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British.
Answer:
False

4. The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (✓) appropriate answer.
1. i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from India.
iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.
a) i & ii are Correct.
b) ii & iv are Correct,
c) iii is correct.
d) i, ii & iv are correct.
Answer:
d) i, ii & iv are correct.

2. Find out the wrong pair:
1. Francis Day – Denmark
2. Pedro Cabral – Portugal
3. Captain Hawkins – Britain
4. Colbert – France
Answer:
1. Francis Day – Denmark

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Give a short note on Archives?
Answer:
Archives is the place where historical documents are preserved. The National Archives of India (NAI) is located in New Delhi. It is the chief storehouse of the records of the government of India.

2. Write about the importance of Coins.
Answer:
Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

3. Why Prince Henry is called ‘Henry the Navigator’?
Answer:
Prince Henry of Portugal, who is commonly known as the “Navigator”, encouraged his countrymen to take up the adventurous life of exploring the unknown regions of the world.

4. Name the important factories established by the Dutch in India.
Answer:
Masulipatnam, Pulicat, Surat, Patna, Chinsura, Kasim bazaar, Nagapatnam, Balasore and Cochin.

5. Mention the trading centers of the English in India.
Answer:
The English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad, and Broach.

VII. Answer the following.
1. Give an account of the sources of Modern India.
Answer:
1. The sources for the history of modem India help us to know the political, socio-economic and cultural developments in the country.

2. The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

3. History can be written with the help of written sources and material sources.

4. Written Sources:
After the advent of the printing press, books were published in different languages people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history, and science.

5. Written sources include Literatures, Travel Accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, Pamphlets, Government Documents and Manuscripts.

6. Archives:
It has a main source of information for understanding past administrative machinery as well as a guide to the present and future generations related to all matters.

7. Material Sources:
Paintings and statues are the main sources of modem Indian history which provide information about national leaders and historical personalities and their achievements.

8. Historical buildings and museums preserve and promote our cultural heritage,

9. Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

2. How did the Portuguese establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:

• During the 16th century, Portuguese succeeded in capturing Goa, Daman, Diu, Salsette, Bassein, Chaul and Bombay on the western coast, Hooghly on the Bengal coast and Santhome on the Madras coast and enjoyed good trade benefits.
• The Portuguese brought the cultivation of tobacco to India. Due to the influence of Portuguese spread Catholic religion spread on India’s western and eastern coasts.
• The printing press was set up by the Portuguese at Goa in 1556.
• A scientific work on the Indian medicinal plants by a European writer was printed at Goa in 1563.

3. How did the British establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In 1600, Elizabeth, the Queen of England granted a charter to the governor and company of Merchants of London to trade with the East Indies.

2. The Company was headed by a Governor and a court of 24 directors.

3. Captain Hawkins visited Jahangir’s court and secured permission to raise a settlement at Surat which was cancelled later.

4. In 1612, the English Captain Thomas Best, inflicted a severe defeat over the Portuguese in a naval battle near Surat.

5. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat, which became the headquarters of the English in western India.

6. Captain Nicholas Downton won another decisive victory over the Portuguese in 1614.

7. This enhanced the British prestige at the Mughal court.

8. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England, who succeeded in concluding a commercial treaty with the emperor

9. Before the departure of Sir Thomas Roe, the English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad, and Broach.

IX. HOTS.
1. How did the fall of Constantinople affect the European nations?
Answer:

1. The fall of Constantinople was the end of an era for Europe as it severely hurt traders in the European region.
2. The land route between India and Europe was closed. The Turks penetrated into North Africa and the Balkan Peninsula.
3. It became imperative on the part of the European nations to discover new sea routes to the East.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The ……………… of India attracted Europeans to this country.
(a) Technology
(b) Machinery
(c) Wealth
(d) River
Answer:
(c) wealth

2. ……………….. was sent to the first governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.
a) Almeida
b) Vascoda Gama
c) Albu querque
d) Bartholomeu Diaz
Answer:
a) Almeida

3. In Pulicat, the fort built by the Dutch was …………………… .
a) Geldria Fort
b) St. George
c) William Fort
d) Red fort
Answer:
a) Geldria Fort

4. …………….. help to preserve and promote our cultural heritage.
(a) Parks
(b) Books
(c) Beaches
(d) Museums
Answer:
(d) Museums

5. A sailor who reached the southernmost point of Africa
a) Americo vesbuki
b) Bartholomew Diaz
c) Colombus
d) Macallan
Answer:
b) Bartholomew Diaz

6. The national Archives of India (NAI) in located in ……………… .
a) New Delhi
b) Chennai
c) Coimbatore
d) Thanjavur
Answer:
a) New Delhi

7. Who set up a printing press at Tranqueber (Tarangambadi)
a) G.U pope
b) Caldwell
c) John – d – Britto
d) Ziegenbalg
Answer:
d) Ziegenbalg

8. Battle of Plassey in the year ………………… .
a) 1757
b) 1758
c) 1759
d) 1760
Answer:
a) 1757

9. Battle of Buxar in the year ………………….
a) 1762
b) 1764
c) 1766
d) 1768
Answer:
b) 1764

10. Which Europeans came first to India as traders?
a) The French
b) The British
c) The Portuguese
d) The Dutch
Answer:
c) The Portuguese

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. The place where document are presented in ……………….. .
Answer:
Archives

2. …………… was a Translator in Pondicherry to assist French trade in India.
Answer:
Ananda Rangam

3. Ananda Rangam diaries contain the Indo ……………….. relationship.
Ans: French

4. ………………… is one of the largest archives in Asia.
Answer:
NAI, New Delhi

5. …………….. is one of the oldest and largest document repositories in Southern India.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu Archives

6. ………………. called is the Father of National Archives of India.
Answer:
George William Forest

7. Tamil Nadu Archives knew as …………….
Answer:
The Madras Record Office

8. ……………… issued the first calendar of Madras record in 1917.
Answer:
Dodwell f

9. In 1696, Port St. David was built by the ……………… in Cuddalore
Ans: British

10. The Reserve bank of India was setup in ……………….
Answer:
1935

11. The first coinage in modem India was issued in 1862 by ………………. .
Answer:
British

12. In the year ……………… Portuguese claimed the naval supremacy in Asia.
Answer:
1509

13. …………. maintained friendly relations with the Vijayanagar Empire.
Answer:
Alfonso de Albuquerque

14. Vasco da Gama was cordially received by ……………….
Answer:
King Zamorin

15. ……………… Was the first capital of the Portuguese East India company
Answer:
Cochin

III. Match the following.

1. St. Francis Church	a) Madras
2. St. Louis Fort	b) Cuddalore
3. St. George Fort	c) Cochin
4. St. David Fort	d) New Delhi
5. India Gate	e) Pondicherry

Answer:

1. St. Francis Church	c) Cochin
2. St. Louis Fort	e) Pondicherry
3. St. George Fort	a) Madras
4. St. David Fort	b) Cuddalore
5. India Gate	d) New Delhi

IV. State true or false.
1. Vasco da Gama came to India for the second time in 1501 with 20 ships
Answer:
False

2. King Zamorin defeated by the Portuguese.
Answer:
True

3. The wealth of India attracted Americans by the accounts of foreign writers.
Answer:
False

4. Albuquerque maintained friendly relations with the Vijayanagar Empire.
Answer:
False

5. The Catholic religion spread in certain regions in India’s western and eastern coasts.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick(✓) the appropriate answer:
1. The real founder of the Portuguese power in India was Alfonsa de Albuquerque.
2. He captured Goa from the sultan of Bijapur in November 1570.
3. In 1575, he established the Portuguese authority Ormuz in the Persian Gulf.
4. Alfonso de Albuquerque encouraged the marriages of the Portuguese with Indian women.
a) all are correct
b) all are incorrect
c) 3 is correct
d) 2 is incorrect
Answer:
a) all are correct

2. Find out the wrong pair:
1. Zamorin – Calicut
2. Bahadur shah – Gujarat
3. Shaistakhan – Governor of Chennai
4. Sher khan Lodi – Bijapur
Answer:
3. Shaista khan – Governor of Chennai

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What are written sources?
Answer:
Written sources include literature Travel accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, pamphlets, Government Documents, and Manuscripts.

2. What is Bluewater policy?
Answer:

• In 1905, Francisco de Almeida was sent as the first Governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.
• His policy was known as the ” Bluewater policy”
• Almeida had the aim of developing the naval Portuguese in India.

3. What are the factors of the comparative success of the British in India?
Answer:
The comparative success of the British over the Portuguese, the Dutch, the Danish, and the French was Largely due to their commercial competitiveness, Spirit of supreme sacrifice, government support, naval superiority, national character and their ascendency in Europe.

VII. Answer the following:
1. Give an account of the Tamil Nadu Archives.
Answer:

• The Madras Record Office which is presently known as Tamil Nadu Archives (TNA) is located in Chennai. It is one of the oldest and the largest document repositories in southern India. Most of the records are in English. Few documents are in French, Portuguese, Tamil, and Urdu.
• Tamil Nadu Archives has 1642 volumes of Dutch records which relate to the Cochin and Coromandal coast. These records cover the period from 1657-1845. The Danian records cover the periods from 1777-1845.
• Dodwell prepared with great effort and issued the first calendar of Madras records which was published in 1917. He was highly interested in encouraging historical researches. He opened a new chapter in the history of Tamil Nadu Archives.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 6 Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Silk weaving and household industries come under the category of ………………….
a) Small scale industry
b) Large scale industry
c) Marine based industry
d) Capital intensive industry
Answer:
a) Small scale industry

2. On the basis of ownership the industry can be divided into ……………… types
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
c) 4

3. Amul dairy industry is the best example of ……………….. sector.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Co-operative sector
d) Joint sector
Answer:
c) Co-operative sector

4. Iron and Steel and Cement Industries are examples of ………………….. industries.
a) Agro-based
b) Mineral-based
c) Forest-based
d) Marine based
Answer:
b) Mineral-based

5. Tertiary activity is divided into ……………….. types
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
Answer:
c) 2

II. Fill in the blank.
1. Banking is a ……………. economic activity.
Answer:
Tertiary

2. Tertiary activity is divided into ……………. and ……………..
Answer:
Quaternary, Quinary

3. Government decision-making process comes under the ……………… category of tertiary economic activity.
Answer:
Quinary

4. Raw material based perspective Cotton Textile industry is a ………………. industry.
Answer:
Agro-based

5. Capital required for establishing a large scale industry is more than ………………..
Answer:
One Crore

III. Match the following.

1. Judicial sector	a) Private Sector
2. TV telecasts	b) Non Geographical factor
3. Geographical factor	c) Quaternary activity
4. Capital	d) Raw materials
5. BajajiAuto	e) Quinary activity

Answer:

1. Judicial sector	e) Quinary activity
2. TV telecasts	c) Quaternary activity
3. Geographical factor	d) Raw materials
4. Capital	b) Non Geographical factor
5. Bajaj Auto	a) Private Sector

IV. Distinguish the following.
1. Secondary economic activity and tertiary economic activity.

Secondary economic activity	Tertiary economic Activity
It changes raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing	It provided essential services and support industries to function.
Eg: Bakery	Eg: Education

2. Agro-based and marine-based industries.

Agro-based industry	Marine based industry
Industries which use plant and animal-based products as raw materials.	Industries which use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
Eg: Cotton textile	Eg: Seafood processing

3. Large scale industries and small scale industries.

Large Scale Industries	Small Scale Industries
The Capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore	The Capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore
Eg: Iron and Steel	Eg: Silk wearing

V. Answer briefly.
1. Define the industry.
Answer:
The industry is a process by which the raw materials are changed into finished products.

2. What is meant by economic activity?
Answer:
Any action that involves the production, distribution, consumption, or service is an economic activity.

3. Name the major economic activities.
Answer:
The major economic activities are:

• Primary Economic Activities (e.g., Raw cotton production)
• Secondary Economic Activities (e.g., Spinning mill)
• Tertiary Economic Activities (e.g., Trade, Transport)

4. What are the secondary economic activities? Give some examples.
Answer:
The activity which changes raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing
eg: Bakery, factory.

5. What is the Quinary activity? Elucidate with an example.
Answer:

1. Quinary economic activities refer to the high-level decision making processes by executives in industries, business, education, and government.
2. This sector includes top executives or officials in the fields of science and technology, universities health care, etc.
3. In our house, our parents make decisions by themselves in some situations.
4. Similarly, the Council of Ministers takes decisions to introduce various people welfare schemes in the state.
5. These two are examples of quinary activities.

6. Name the factors responsible for the location of industries.
Answer:
Raw material, Labour, Capital, Market, Power, Land, Transport

7. Write a short note on the following
Answer:
1. Large scale Industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore the industry is called a large scale industry.
Eg: Iron & steel, Oil refineries, Cement and Textile industries, etc.

2. Small scale industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore, the industry is called a small scale industry.
Eg: Silk weaving and household industries.

VI. Write in detail.
1. Classify and explain the industries based on the source of raw materials.
Answer:
Industries are classified on various bases in the following ways. On the basis of raw materials.
1. Agro Based Industries:

• These industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials.
• Example; Food Processing, Vegetable Oil, Cotton Textile, Dairy Products, etc.

2. Mineral-Based Industries:

• These are the industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials.
• Iron made from iron ore is the product of a mineral-based industry. Cement, Machine Tools, etc. are the other examples of mineral-based industries.

3. Marine Based Industries:

• These industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
• Example; Processed Sea Food, Fish Oil manufacturing units, etc.

4. Forest-Based Industries:

• These industries use forest products as raw materials.
• Example; Pulp and Paper, Furniture and Some Pharmaceuticals industries, etc.

2. Explain the Geographical factors which affect the location of industries?
Answer:
The geographical factors which affect the location of industries
Raw material:
Materials cannot be transported for long distances, so industries are located near the raw material availability.

Power:
Power is the basic for the industry so it’s generated from conventional sources which should be located near the industries.

Labour:
Availability of cheap and skilled labour is more important.

Transport:
Availability of easy transportation always influences the industry location.

Storage and warehousing:
Finished products should be stored at a suitable storage or warehouse till the goods are taken to the market.

Topography:
The selected site should be flat; which is supported by different transport

Climate:

• Extreme climate condition is not suitable for successful industrial growth. Water Resources:
• Many industries are established near rivers, canals, and lakes for proper functioning.

3. Classify the industries through a flow chart.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Industries are ………………. Economic Activities.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Answer:
b) Secondary

2. …………………… is mostly generated from conventional Sources like mineral oil and water.
a) Thermal Power
b) Water Resources
c) Power
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Power

3. Service sector contributing around …………………… of the Indian Gross Domestic Product.
a) 63%
b) 53%
c) 55%
d) 73%
Answer:
b) 53%

4. …………………… is served by different modes of Transport.
a) Labour
b) Power
c) Topography
d) Climate
Answer:
c) Topography

5. The factors affecting the location of Industries are …………………….
a) Raw materials
b) Land
c) Water
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

6. …………………… Sector is owned and operated by individuals.
a) Public
b) Private
c) both
d) none
Answer:
b) Private

7. Example for Mineral Based Industries is …………………….
a) Vegetable oil
b) Machine Tools
c) Cotton industry
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Machine Tools

8. Example for Forest-Based Industries is ……………………
a) Paper Industry
b) Processed Seafood
c) Cotton Industry
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Paper Industry

9. …………………… is a Private Sector Industry.
a) BHEL
b) HAC
c) SAIC
d) Reliance
Answer:
d) Reliance

10. …………………… is a Joint Sector Industry.
a) Amul
b) BHEL
c) Bajaj Auto
d) Maruti Udyog
Answer:
d) Maruti Udyog

II. Fill in blanks.
1. Many …………….. are not fit for human consumption.
Answer:
raw materials

2. The economic strength of a country is always measured by the development of ………….
Answer:
manufacturing industries

3. …………….. is one of the largest sectors of India.
Answer:
Service Sector

4. The Service sector is the …………….. of the Indian economy.
Answer:
Backbone

5. …………….. is base and essential to run the entire industry.
Answer:
Power

6. …………….. climate is ideal for the cotton textile industry.
Answer:
Cool – humid

7. …………….. is not suitable for successful industrial growth.
Answer:
Extreme Climate

8. …………….. investment is needed for the establishment of industries.
Answer:
Capital

9. Detroit city in …………….. is known as the world’s traditional automotive centre.
Answer:
Michigan in the USA

10. …………….. is known as Detroit of India.
Answer:
Chennai

11. Creation and transfer of information is …………….. activity.
Answer:
quaternary

12. …………….. is an Example of Marine Based Industries.
Answer:
Fish oil manufacturing units

13. BHEL ……………..
Answer:
Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd

14. HAL ……………..
Answer:
Hindusthan Aeronautics Limited

15. SAIL ……………..
Answer:
Steel Authority of India

III. Match the following.

1. Primary economic activity	a) transportation
2. Secondary economic activity	b) Science and technology
3. Tertiary economic activity	c) Forestry
4. Quaternary economic activity	d) flour into bread
5. Quinary economic activity	e) television

Answer:

1. Primary economic activity	c) Forestry
2. Secondary economic activity	d) flour into bread
3. Tertiary economic activity	a) transportation
4. Quaternary economic activity	e) television
5. Quinary economic activity	b) Science and technology

IV. Distinguish the following.
1. Primary economic activity and Secondary economic activity.

Primary economic activity	Secondary economic activity
1. These are the economic activities which have been originated in the very beginning.	Secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
2. It includes activities such as forestry, grazing, hunting, food gathering, fishing, agriculture, mining, and quarrying.	Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles are examples of secondary activities.

2. Private Sector Industries and Public Sector Industries.

Private Sector Industries	Public Sector Industries
These types of industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.	These types of industries are owned and operated by the Government.
Eg: Bajaj Auto, Reliance, etc.	HAL, BHEL, SAIL are examples of Public sector industries.

V. Answer briefly.
1. What is Primary economic activity?
Answer:
The activities which have been originated in the very beginning.

2. What do you know about the service sector?
Answer:
It is one of the largest sectors of India and its the backbone of the Indian economy.

3. What are the non-geographical factors responsible for the location of industries?
Answer:
Capital, Availability of Loans, Government policies or regulation.

4. How are industries classified on the basis of raw materials.
Answer:

• Agro-based industries,
• Mineral-based industries,
• Marine – based industries and
• Forest-based industries.

5. Give a short note on forest-based industries.
Answer:
The industries which use forest products as their raw materials.

6. How does climate become a factor responsible for a location for industries?
Answer:
Extreme Climatic condition is not suitable for the successful industrial growth few industries require specific climate.

7. What is co-operative sector industries.
Answer:
Industries of this kind are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials of workers or both.

VI. Write in detail.
1. Classify and explain the industries based on the source of raw materials.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries are
Private Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by individuals or groups
• BajajAuto.

Public Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by the Government.
• BHEL, SAIL.

Joint Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated jointly by the government and Individuals groups.
• Indian Synthetic Rubber Ltd.

Co-operative Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by the producers.
• AMUL.

2. State the major and fundamental economic activities.
Answer:
Primary Economic Activity:

• Originated from the forest.
• Hunting, Grecizing.

Secondary Economic Activity:

• Changes raw material into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
• Bakery industries.

Tertiary Economic Activity:

• Provides essential services and support industries to function.
• Education, medical.

Quaternary Economic Activity:

• Creation and transfer of information, including research and training.
• Program telecasted in T.V.

Quinary Economic Activity:

• High-level decision-making process by executives.
• Top executives, Judiciary.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 7 Cyber Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Prose Chapter 7 Cyber Safety

8th English Guide Cyber Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 180)
In pairs, identify the types of computer, Choose and write the names from the box. (Text Book Page No. 180)

Textual Exercise
Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 180)

A. Choose the correct SYNONYMS for the italicized words:

1. I was really scared.
a) bold
b) frightened
c) timid
Answer:
b) frightened

2. Let us browse about it.
a) surf
b) read
c) glance
Answer:
a) surf

3. There is a chance to get addicted.
a) accustomed
b) known
c) inclined
Answer:
a) accustomed

4. We can’t ignore the benefits of internet.
a) favorable
b) harm
c) popularity
Answer:
a) favorable

5. She gathered the information from the internet.
a) disburse
b) collect
c) amass
Answer:
b) collect

B. Choose the correct ANTONYMS from the options given below:

1. The explosion had weakened the building’s foundations.
a) dreary
b) dull
c) strengthen
d) weak
Answer:
c) strengthen

2. A stranger was roaming around the street.
a) well known
b) newcomer
c) unknown
d) foreigner
Answer:
a) well known

3. Vairavan is having a spot of bother with law.
a) worry
b) annoy
c) pester
d) pleasing
Answer:
a) worry

4. He asked the manager to improve the facility in the hall.
a) amenity
b) comfort
c) uneasy
d) short coming
Answer:
b) comfort

5. A good diet is beneficial to health.
a) benefit
b) helpful
c) harmful
d) useful
Answer:
c) harmful

C. Fill in the blanks:

1. Internet is a great tool where, One can gather …………………… .
Answer:
Information

2. Gladin is gathering information for his …………………… .
Answer:
Science project

3. Children should use internet …………………… .
Answer:
wisely

4. We should keep our personal details …………………… in the internet.
Answer:
very private

5. We should not get addicted to …………………… .
Answer:
Mobile phones

D. Say true or false.

1. Gladin’s mom knew how screw guage works.
Answer:
False

2. We use internet to gather information and gain knowledge.
Answer:
True

3. Rani was frightened of an online predator.
Answer:
True

4. Strangers don’t misuse your information.
Answer:
False

5. Do not give your name, address, telephone number to the strangers.
Answer:
True

6. Too much of anything is good for nothing.
Answer:
True

E. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

1. Why did Gladin’s mom ask him to browse?
Answer:
Gladin’s mom asked Gladin to browse to know about the working of a screw gauge.

2. Why do we use the internet?
Answer:
Internet helps us to connect with people around the world, allows us to watch movies, listen to music, play games and enjoy various other activities.

3. What was Rani afraid of?
Answer:
Rani was afraid of a stranger chatting with her every day, using bad words.

4. What was the father’s advice to Rani?
Answer:
Father advised Rani not to respond to the message even if he continuously disturbed her still if he bothered her, the father would take care of the predator.

5. Who is an online predator?
Answer:
An online predator is a person who sexually exploits a child over the internet.

6. What was the father’s instruction to Gladin and Rani?
Answer:
Father advised Rani and Gladin never to chat with anybody until they know them like classmates, friends, family members etc.

7. What do strangers do with our personal information?
Answer:
Strangers may use our profile and misuse our information, without our knowledge.

8. What are the benefits of the computer?
Answer:
Computer and the internet are helpful to us socially and educationally. They provide us entertainment and also an e-shopping facility.

F. Answer the following in about 100 words.

1. How should one use the technology of the present world?
Answer:
One should use the technology of the present world carefully and wisely It is beneficial to all of us. But we face some negative effects while using it Online facilities are for sharing information or knowledge among known members. We should never chat with anybody until we know them. They could be our classmates, friends, and family members, we should keep our personal details very private. Strangers may use our profile and misuse our information without our knowledge. Internet or mobile helps us to connect with people around the world. They allow us to watch various activities. But too much of anything is not good for us.

2. What happens if someone is addicted to a mobile phone?
Answer:
Mobile addiction causes several serious problems such as headaches, weakened eyesight, sleep disorders, depression, stress, social isolation, aggressive behavior, financial problems, ruined relationships, and no or low professional growth. Too much of anything is good for nothing.

3. “We can’t ignore the benefits of internet and mobile phone” – Justify.
Answer:
We can’t ignore the benefits of internet and mobile phones to our life, educationally and socially. They help us to connect with people around the world. They allow us to watch movies, listen to music, play games and enjoy various other activities.

Internet helps us to gather information and gain knowledge, Online facilities are for sharing knowledge and information among known members. We should never chat with anybody until we know them like classmates, friends, and family members. We should also limit the usage of the internet and mobile phones to take charge of our lives.

Vocabulary (Text Book Page No. 187)

British and American English:

A) Find the suitable British or American English word and fill in the following.

Spelling Differences:

B) Find the suitable British or American English spelling and fill in the following.

Spelling difference

British Words	American Words
colour	color
honour	honor
favour	favor
organise	organize
realise	realize
recognise	recognize
metre	meter
Mom	mum
maths	math
programme	program

C) Fill in the blanks with the correct Meaning and Eponym for the given words. (Text Book Page No. 189)

Eponymous Words:

I) Fill in the blanks with correct Euphemisms for the given words.

Deaf, or hard of hearing	Answer: hearing impaired
Mentally ill	Answer: psychiatric
Fat	Answer: chunky, plumpy
Blind	Answer: visually challenged
liar	Answer: teller of tall tales

 

Listening (Text Book Page No. 190)

E) Complete the following statements appropriately:
The Listening passage given at page no. 231

1. A mobile phone is like a world in our pockets as
Answer:
it can connect us to the rest of the world

2. Parents do not have to remain in tension if their sons and daughters are late because
Answer:
they can connect to their children at any time

3. Some of the negative effects of a mobile phone are:
Answer:
(a) accidents
(b) social pollution
(c) health issues
(d) privacy problems

4. Excessive use of mobile phones can be hazardous to one’s health as
Answer:
headache, earache, blurring vision, etc.

5. A mobile phone is a threat to one’s privacy as.
Answer:
a hidden camera to take pictures and videos.

Speaking (Text Book Page No. 190)

G. Imagine a world with no books, but only e-books. How would you find such a world? Deliver a two-minute talk.
Answer:
World without books would be, like feast without salt. Books are the treasure house of knowledge. In olden days there was no current in houses. There was no computer or mobile phone. Even in those days, books helped people to educate themselves. Books can be used at any time. Leisurely we can read books. We can take notes also. Reading books does not give much stress to the eyes. Reading books does not need internet. Using internet excessively might create health issues such as headaches, earache, blurring vision, etc.

Writing (Text Book Page No. 191)

F. Write a formal email to the young scientist Mr Sundar Pitchai CEO, of Google, requesting him for an appointment to interview him.
Answer:

Use Grammar

Question Tags
a) Fill in the blanks with suitable tags. (Text Book Page No. 195)

1. She is collecting stickers, ……………………..?
Answer:
isn’t she?

2. We often watch TV in the afternoon, …………………….?
Answer:
don’t we?

3. You have cleaned your bike, …………………….?
Answer:
aren’t you?

4. John and maz don’t like maths, ……………………..?
Ans: do they?

5. Peter played handball yesterday, ……………………?
Answer:
didn’t he?

6. They are going home from school, ………………………?
Ans: aren’t they?

7. Mary didn’t do her homework last Monday, ……………………….?
Answer:
did she?

8. He could have bought a new car, ………………….?
Answer:
could he?

9. Kevin will come tonight, ……………………?
Answer:
won’t he?

10. I’m clever, …………………….?
Answer:
aren’t I?

b) Fill in the blanks with suitable tags (Text Book Page No. 196)

1. He is still sleeping,
a) is not he?
b) isn’t he
c) wasn’t he?
Answer:
b) isn’t he?

2. You go to school,
a) do you?
b) aren’t you?
c) don’t you
Answer:
c) don’t you?

3. Let’s go for a walk,
a) shall we?
b) shan’t we?
c) will we?
Answer:
a) shall we?

4. We won’t be late,
a) won’t we?
b) will we?
c) are we?
Answer:
b) will we?

5. Nobody called,
a) do they?
b) didn’t they?
c) did they?
Answer:
c) did they?

6. They will wash the car,
a) will it?
b) won’t they?
c) wouldn’t they?
Answer:
b) won’t they?

7. We must lock the doors,
a) mustn’t they?
b) shouldn’t we?
c) mustn’t we
Answer:
c) mustn’t we?

8. I’m right?
a) amn’t I?
b) am not I?
c) aren’t I?
Answer:
c) aren’t I?

9. So you bought a car,
a) didn’t you?
b) haven’t you?
c) weren’t you?
Answer:
a) didn’t you?

10. You wouldn’t like to invite my Dad,
a) did you?
b) would you?
c) won’t you?
Answer:
b) would you?

Simple Compound and Complex

A) State which of the following sentences are Compound, and which are Complex. (Text Book Page No. 198)

1. Man proposes, but God disposes.
Answer:
Compound

2. I went because I was invited.
Answer:
complex

3. Jancy returned home because she was tired.
Answer:
complex

4. Whatever you do, do well.
Answer:
complex

5. Listen carefully and take notes.
Answer:
compound

6. I called him, but he gave me no answer.
Answer:
compound

7. The town in which I live is very large.
Answer:
complex

8. They always talk who never think.
Answer:
complex

9. We must eat to live, but we should not live to eat.
Answer:
compound

10. Govern your passions or they will govern you.
Answer:
compound

Cyber Safety Summary in English

Cyber safety is a lesson given with pictures. There are a few characters with pictures. There are a few characters as a father, mother and two children, Gladin and Rani. Rani is scared an of an online predator. Her father advises both the children about the wise usage of the internet.

Cyber Safety Summary in Tamil

கணினி பாதுகாப்பு என்ற பாடம் படக்கதையாக கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இக்கதையில் சில கதாப்பாத்திரங்கள் உள்ளன. அப்பா, அம்மா கிளாடின், ராணி என்ற குழந்தைகள் கதாப்பாத்திரங்கள் உள்ளன. ராணி இணையத்தின் மூலம் பாலியல் தொந்தரவு கொடுக்கும் ஒரு தீயவனை நினைத்து அச்சம் அடைகிறாள். அவள் தந்தை, கணினி இணையம் இவற்றை பாதுகாப்பாக பயன்படுத்துவது எப்படி என்று விபரமாய் சொல்லித் தருகிறார்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 2 Weather and Climate Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
a) 78% and 21%
b) 22% and 1%
c) 21% and 0.97%
d) 10% and 20%
Answer:
a) 78% and 21%

2. ………………. is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
a) earth
b) atmosphere
c) climate
d) sun
Answer
c) climate

3. The earth receives energy from
a) current
b) electro magnetic radiation
c) waves
d) heat
Answer:
d) heat

4. Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall
a) isotherm
b) isohel
c) isobar
d) isohytes
Answer:
d) isohytes

5. …………. is used to measure the humidity.
a) anemometer
b) barometer
c) hygrometer d) thermometer
Answer:
c) hygrometer

II. Fill in the blank
1. ……………….. refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
Answer:
Weather

2. The scientific study of weather is called ………….
Answer:
Meteroiogy

3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is ……………..
Answer:
56.7°C in in USA

4. …………. is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
Answer:
Humidity

5. …………. and ………….. are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
Answer:
Wind direction and wind speed

6. ………… are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.
Answer:
Isotherms

III. Match the following

1. Climate	a) Locating and Tracking Storms
2. Isonif	b) Cyclone
3. Hygrometer	c) Equal Snowfall
4. Radar	d) Long Term Changes
5. Low Pressure	e) Humidity

Answer:

1. Climate	d) Long Term Changes
2. Isonif	c) Equal Snowfall
3. Hygrometer	e) Humidity
4. Radar	a) Locating and Tracking Storms
5. Low Pressure	b) Cyclone

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.
Answer:
True

2. The scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
Answer:
False

3. Isohel refers equal sunshine.
Answer:
True

4. Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answer:
False

V. Answer in brief:
1. Define ‘weather’.
Answer:
Weather is the day today conditions(state) of the atmosphere at any place as regards sunshine, temperature, cloud cover. Wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and such other elements.

2. What is insolation?
Answer:
Incoming solar radiation are called Insolation.

3. What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of air above a given area on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure or air pressure.

4. Write a short note on “Planetary winds”
Answer:

• Planetary winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
• So, they are called as planetary winds.

5. What are “Isolines”?
Answer:
The distribution of weather elements is shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are lines which join the places of equal values of weather elements.

VI. Distinguih the following:
1. Weather and climate.

Weather	Climate
1. Weather is the day today conditions of the atmosphere like sunshine, temperature humidity and such other elements.	Climate is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of place or a region.
2. Weather is cool in .winter and hot in summer.	The Climate does not change often like weather.

2. Absolute and relative humidity.

Absolute Humidity	Relative Humidity
1. It is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.	It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at given temperature.
2. These expressed usually in grams per cubic meter of air.	It is expressed as a percentage.

3. Permanent and seasonal winds.

Permanent wind	Seasonal wind
1. Permanent winds, are also called planetary winds.	Monsoon winds are also called as seasonal winds.
2. These winds blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.	These winds are blowing from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

VII. Give reasons:
1. The Weather and climate in different regions vary.
Answer:
The angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds, and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

2. Temperature decreases with an increase in altitude.
Answer:
It is known as the Lapse rate which is 6.5-degree Celcius per 1000 meters is the troposphere.

3. Mountain climbers carry Oxygen cylinders while ascending peaks.
Answer:
With decreasing air pressure, the availability of oxygen to breathe also decreases. At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. How is temperature measured?
Answer:
Measuring Temperature:
1. The temperature of a unit volume of air at a given time is measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin. Meteorologist measures the temperature by the Thermometer, Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum Thermometer.

2. The energy received by the earth through insolation is lost by outgoing radiation.

3. Atmosphere is mainly heated by outgoing radiation from 2 to 4 pm. So the maximum temperature is recorded between 2 and 4 pm regularly and the minimum temperature is recorded around 4 am before sunrise.

Mean Temperature:
1. The average of the maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature [(87°F + 73°F)/2=80°F].

2. Diurnal range of temperature is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. The annual range of temperature is the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year.

2. Write about the wind and its types.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air is called wind. The wind systems are broadly categorized into three as follows.

• Planetary winds
• Seasonal winds
• Local winds

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds. Trade winds, Westerlies, and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

2. Seasonal winds are those which change their direction according to the season in a year. They are called as monsoon winds. These winds blow from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

3. Local winds are the winds that blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or a short period of a year. Land and sea breezes are examples of these winds.

3. List out the weather elements and associated measuring instruments.
Answer:

Weather elements	Measuring instruments
Temperature	Celsius, Fahrenheit, Kelvin
Rainfall	Rain gauge
Air Pressure	Aneroid Barometer
Humidity	Hygrometer
Wind	Anemometer

IX. Give any three suggestions to reduce global warming:

1. Plant trees.
2. Recycle the used things.
3. Composite wasted food and biodegradables.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:
1. The word Klimo is derived from the language.
a) Greek
b) Latin
c) Arab
d) English
Answer:
a) Greek

2. Horizontal movement of air is called
a) Storm
b) Cyclone
c) Mist
d) Wind
Answer:
d) Wind

3. The average wind speed is low in
a) France
b) Canada
c) Argentina
d) Brazil
Answer:
d) Brazil

4. The temperature decreases per 1000 meters height is
a) 5°C
b) 6.5°C
c) 7°C
d) 8.5°C
Answer:
b) 6.5°C

5. …………….. is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day.
a) Diurnal range
b) Heat conduction
c) Heat radiation
d) Heat elevation
Answer:
a) Diurnal range

6. Which Zone is called a Tropical Zone?
a) Torrid zone
b) Temperate zone
c) Frigid zone
d) Polar zone
Answer:
a) Torrid zone

7. Isobar means
a) Equal Sunshine
b) Equal atmospheric pressure
c) Equal temperature
d) Equal rainfall
Answer:
b) Equal atmospheric pressure

8. The name of an Equal amount of rainfall is
a) Isotherm
b) Isohel
c) Isohyet
d) Isollobar
Answer:
c) Isohyet

9. The name of Equal pressure tendency is
a) Isotherm
b) Isohel
c) Isohyet
d) Isollobar
Answer:
d) Isollobar

10. Major element of weather and climate is
a) Temperature
b) Sound
c) Light
d) Latitude
Answer:
a) Temperature

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Heat energy from ………………. is received by the earth through three mechanisms.
Answer:
Solar radiation

2. ……………. and soil are the major factors which affect the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Natural vegetation

3. The distribution of temperature is shown by means of ………………..
Answer:
Isotherms

4. Temperature zone lies between tropic of …………… circle in the Northern Hemisphere and the ………………. circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Arctic, Antarctic

5. Frigid zone is known as …………………
Answer:
polar region

6. ………………… is a major component of the water cycle.
Answer:
Rain

7. Generally rainfall is high in the …………….. region.
Answer:
Equatorial

8. The average of ……………. and ……………. temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature.
Answer:
maximum, minimum

9. …………………. is a diagram used to depict the direction and periods of prevailing winds on a map.
Answer:
Wind rose

10. Weather is the day to day conditions of the ………………………..
Answer:
atmosphere

11. The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is ………………..
Answer:
0.03%

12. The amount of argon in the atmosphere is …………….
Answer:
0.97%

13. The word Klimo means ……………….
Answer:
Inclination

14. Climate is the average atmospheric conditions usually for ………………..
Answer:
35 years

15. The Scientific Study of Climate is called …………….
Answer:
Climatology

III. Match the following:

1. Aniroid	a) Temperature
2. Beaufort	b) diagram
3. Wind rose	c) Wind speed
4. Fahrenheit	d) humidity
5. Hydrometer	e) air pressure

Answer:

1. Aniroid	e) air pressure
2. Beaufort	c) Wind speed
3. Wind rose	b) diagram
4. Fahrenheit	a) Temperature
5. Hydrometer	d) humidity

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is 56.7°C.
Answer:
True

2. The degree of heat present in the sun is termed as temperature.
Answer:
False

3. Rainfall is measured by Raingauge.
Answer:
True

4. Temperature decreases to 8°C per 1000 meters in height.
Answer:
False

5. Al-Balakhi prepared the first climatic Atlas of the world.
Answer:
True

V. Answer in brief:
1. What are the Controlling factors of weather and climate?
Answer:
The angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds, and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

2. What are the factors affecting the distribution of temperature?
Answer:
Latitude, altitude, nature of the land, ocean currents, prevailing winds, slope, shelter, and distance from the sea, natural vegetation, and soil are the major factors which affect the distribution of temperature.

3. What are the Isotherms?
Answer:

• The distribution of temperature is shown by means of Isotherms.
• Isotherms are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places..

VI. Distinguish the following:
1. Torrid zone and Temperature zone.

Torrid zone	Temperature zone
1. It is a region between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.	This zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
2. This region receives the direct rays of the sun and gets the maximum heat from the sun.	This zone gets the slanting rays of the sun
3. This zone is known as the tropical zone.	The angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards the poles.

2. Specific humidity and Relative humidity.

Specific humidity	Relative humidity
1. Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis.	The relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour.
2. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.	It is expressed as a percentage.

VII. Give reasons:
1. Why artificial pressure creates in Aircraft?
Answer:

• At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure can cause decompression sickness.
• Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. Define the types of humidity.
Answer:
The types of humidity are

• Specific humidity
• Absolute humidity
• Relative humidity

Specific humidity:
Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.

Absolute humidity:
Absolute Humidity is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.

Relative humidity:
It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 7 The Judiciary Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 7 The Judiciary

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science The Judiciary Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The highest and final judicial tribunal of India is
a) President
b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court
d) Prime Minister
Answer:
c) Supreme Court

2. Judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between
a) Citizen
b) Citizen and the government
c) Two State governments
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

3. Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme court under
a) Original jurisdiction
b) Appellate jurisdiction
c) Advisory jurisdiction
d) none of these
Answer:
a) Original jurisdiction

4. Which of the following state/ Union territories have a common High Court?
a) Punjab and Jammu Kashmir
b) Assam and Bengal
c) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
Answer:
c) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh

5. The System of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India by
a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
c) Political parties
d) Constitutional amendments
Answer:
a) Supreme Court

6. How many courts are there in apex level in India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer:
a) One

7. Supreme court is located at
a) Chandigarh
b) Bombay
c) Calcutta
d) New Delhi
Answer:
d) New Delhi

8. FI R means
a) First Information Report c) First Incident Report
Answer:
a) First Information Report

9. The court that hear criminal cases are called
a) District court
b) Sessions court
c) Family court
d) Revenue court
Answer:
a) District court

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The ………………… High Court is the oldest High Court in India.
Answer:
Calcutta

2. The framers of the Constitution established ………………… and ………………… judiciary in India.
Answer:
Independent, Impartial

3. ………………… a famous French philosopher propounded the idea of an independent judiciary.
Answer:
Montesquieu

4. ………………… deals with disputes over money, property and social matters.
Answer:
Civil Law

5. During ancient times, most of the Kings’ courts dispensed justice according to …………………
Answer:
dharma

III. Match the following.

1. Supreme Court	a) social duties
2. High Court	b) speedy justice
3. Lok Adalat	c) highest court of appeal
4. Sir Elijah Impey	d) highest court in the States
5. Smiritis	e) chief justice

Answer:

1. Supreme Court	c) highest court of appeal
2. High Court	d) highest court in the States
3. Lok Adalat	b) speedy justice
4. Sir Elijah Impey	e) chief justice
5. Smiritis	a) social duties

IV. State true or false.

1. The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1951.
Answer:
False

2. During the Tughlaq period, the code of procedure was written in Arabic.
Answer:
True

3. The Regulating Act of 1773 made provision for the formation of Supreme Court.
Answer:
True

4. Sadar Diwani Adalat was a Criminal court of appeal.
Answer:
False

5. The Allahabad High Court is the largest court in India.
Answer:
True

6. The Constitution of India secures justice to all its citizen.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement. 

1. Consider the following statements.
i) A law commission was setup by Macaulay.
ii) It codified the Indian Laws.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) i only
b) ii only
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii
Answer:
c) Both i and ii

2. Consider the following statements.
i) An Indian Penal Code was prepared in 1860.
ii) The Calcutta High Court was established on 1862.
iii) The Government of India Act, 1935 created Federal Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) i only
b) ii, iii only
c) i,iii only
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

3. Which of the following statement is not true about India’s Supreme Court?
i) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the land.
ii) It was established by part V under Chapter IV of Indian Constitution.
iii) Supreme court cannot transfer cases from one High court to another
iv) Its decisions are binding on all courts
a) i
b) ii c) iii
d) iv
Answer:
c) iii

4. Assertion: The Supreme Court is a Court of Record.
Reason: It maintains records of the court proceedings and its decisions are finding upon the lower courts.
a) A is correct and R is wrong.
b) Both A and R are Wrong
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

5. Agree or disagree

a) Every citizen of India can approach the Supreme court.
Answer:
Agree

b) Rich and powerful people control the judiciary system.
Answer:
Disagree

c) Every citizen has a right to get justice through the courts.
Answer:
Agree

d) Politicians can not control judges
Answer:
Agree

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Why do we need a judicial system?
Answer:

1. Judiciary plays an important role as an organ of the government.
2. It administers justice, settles disputes, interprets laws, protects fundamental rights, and acts as guardian of the Constitution.
3. So we need a judiciary to be efficient in order to ensure proper justice.

2. What are the different levels of courts in India?
Answer:
The different levels of courts in India are

• Supreme Court
• High Court ’
• District Court
• Subordinate Court
• Some of the subordinate courts are Panchayat court, revenue, court, Lok Adalat Fast track court, Family court, Mobile Court, and E – Court.

3. Differentiate Law and Judiciary.
Answer:
Law: It is a system of rules imposed through a government or institution to govern people.
Judiciary: In law, the Judiciary or Judicial system is the system of courts which administers Justice in the name of the State.

4. Write a note on Lok Adalat.
Answer:

• Lok Adalat was set up to provide speedy justice.
• It hears and settles the disputes in the language of the people in the public presence.
• It is presided over by a retired judge along with a lawyer and a social worker.

5. What are the advantages of mobile courts?
Answer:

1. Mobile courts will be of great relief to the rural people.
2. It would create greater awareness about the judicial system among the rural masses, cut costs for them and render justice at their doorstep.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Write about the role of the judiciary.
Answer:
Role of Judiciary can be classified as,
1. Dispute Resolution:
Role of Judiciary can be classified as, The Judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between Citizen, Citizens and the government, Two-State governments, the Centre and the State governments

2. Judicial Review:
The Judicial has the power to declare a law unconstitutional if it believes that the law passed by the Parliament is violating the basic structure of the Constitution.

3. Upholding the Law and Enforcing Fundamental Rights:
Every citizen of India can approach the Supreme Court or High Court if they believe that their fundamental rights have been violated

Judicial Review:
Power to declare a law unconstitutional if it believes that the law passed by the Parliament. Upholding the Law and Enforcing Fundamental Rights:
Every Citizen can approach the courts if they believe that their fundamental rights have been violated.

2. Differentiate Civil Law and Criminal Law.
Answer:

Civil Law	Criminal Law
Disputes over money property and social matters.	Conducts or acts that the law defines as offences.
Eg: Land, rent	Eg: Theft, Murder
Petition to be filed before the relevant court by the affected parties.	Begins with lodging of an HR with police investigation after which a case is filed in the court.
Sentences awarded in the form of money. Remuneration and as per the claimer.	Punishment is awarded if proven guilty, the accused is sent to Jail.

3. Describe the Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
1. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court:

• The Supreme Court can hear disputes for the first time in that court only.
• It is mainly concerned with disputes between the Union and one or more states and between two or more states.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
It can hear appeals against the decisions made by the High Court on the granting of certificates by the High Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Court can report to the President its opinion about a question of the public importance referred to it by the President.

4. Writs Jurisdiction:
The Writs are issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and by the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.

5. Court of Record:
it maintains records of the court proceedings and its decisions are binding upon the lower courts.

6. Special Powers:
it supervises the functioning of the lower courts.

VIII. Project and Activity.

1. Discuss: Is it necessary to have an independent judiciary? List two reasons.

• Yes. it is necessary to have an independent judiciary.
• In a democratic country judiciary is the custodian of the rights of citizens.
• It should be independent and accountable, which exercises the judicial function in an unbiased manner (or) free from any external influence.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science The Judiciary Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

1. Supreme court was established for the first time at …………….. in Kolkata.
a) Fort George
b) Fort Williams
c) Fort David
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Fort Williams

2. During the period of William Bentinck ………………….. circuit courts were abolished.
a) 4
d) 2 c) 3
d) 1
Answer:
a) 4

3. ……………….. is the guardian of the constitution.
a) High Court
b) District Court
c) Supreme Court
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Supreme Court

4. …………………. was set up for speedy Justice.
a) Revenue Court
b) Lok Adalat
c) Session Court
d) District Court
Answer:
b) Lok Adalat

5. ………………… will be of great relief to the rural people.
a) family court
b) E. Court
c) Mobile Court
d) Lok Adalat
Answer:
c) Mobile Court

6. The Supreme court was established at ………………….
a) 1801
b) 1807
c) 1809
d) 1810
Answer:
a) 1801

7. Regulating Act of ………………. made provision for the formation of the Supreme Court.
a) 1777
b) 1773
c) 1801
d) 1773
Answer:
d) 1773

8. The ……………… is presided over by a retired judge.
a) High court
b) Supreme court
c) Lok-Adalat
d) none
Answer:
c) Lok-Adalat

9. ……………….. is the largest democracy of the world.
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) none
Answer:
a) India

10. ……………….. established Mofussil Diwani Adalat.
a) Warren Hasting
b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Fauzdari
d) None
Answer:
a) Warren Hasting

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………….. is the process of taking legal action.
Answer:
Litigation

2. ……………….. is the custodian of the constitution.
Answer:
Judiciary

3. ……………….. During the ancient period, was regarded as the fountainhead of justice.
Answer:
King

4. ……………….. reorganised the civil and criminal judicial system. ………………..
Answer:
Lord Corn Wallis

5. The Supreme court of India was inaugurated on ………………..
Answer:
28 Jan 1950

6. ……………….. court was found in Ganas.
Answer:
Kulika

7. ……………….. is the largest court.
Answer:
Allahabad High Court

8. In ……………….. Supreme Court was established in Madras.
Answer:
1801

9. In ……………….. Supreme Court was established in Bombay.
Answer:
1824

10. ……………….. is called the people’s court.
Answer:
Lok Adalat

11. ……………….. was established to resolve criminal disputes.
Answer:
Mofussil fauzdari Adalat

12. ……………….. is the guardian of our constitution.
Answer:
The Supreme Court

13. ……………….. abolished the District fauzdari court.
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis

14. Sadar Ditani Adalat and Nizamat Adalat were established at ………………..
Answer:
Allahabad

15. A low of commission was set up by ………………..
Answer:
Macaulay

III. Match the following.

1. District Court	a) 2000
2. Sessions Court	b) Land records
3. Panchayat Court	c) Criminal cases
4. Revenue Court	d) Village level
5. Fast track court	e) District Level

Answer:

1. District Court	e) District Level
2. Sessions Court	c) Criminal cases
3. Panchayat Court	d) Village level
4. Revenue Court	b) Land records
5. Fast track court	a) 2000

IV. State true or false.

1. The code of civil procedure during the Tughlaq period was Fiqha – e – Feroze Shahi.
Answer:
True

2. The Government of India Act 1935 created a federal court.
Answer:
True

3. PIL is unique to the Indian Judiciary.
Answer:
True

4. The E-Courts project was established in 2000.
Answer:
False

5. NALSA means the National Local Service Authority.
Answer:
False

V. Choose the correct statement.

1. i) Lok Adalat was set up to provide speedy justice. It hears and settles the disputes in the
language of the people in the public presence.
ii) The Revenue courts deal with the cases of criminal cases.
iii) The Courts that hear land records are called the Sessions Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) i only
b) ii, iii only
c) i, iii only
d) All the above
Answer:
a) i only

2. Consider the following statements.
i) Supreme Court of India is the highest court of India and
ii) It is located in Calcutta.
iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution and the highest Court of appeal,
a) i only
b) ii only
c) Both i and iii
d) Neither i nor ii
Answer:
c) Both i and iii

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Write a short note on NALSA.
The National Legal Service Authority has been constituted under the Legal Service Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society and to organise Lok Adalat, for solving disputes.

2. What do you understand by Public Interest Litigation?

• Public Interest Litigation is a litigation field in a court of law for the protection of Public interest.
• It is a unique concept in the Indian Judiciary.
• It was introduced by the Supreme Court.

3. Give an account of Montesquieu.
Montesquieu was the first political philosopher who propounded the idea of an independent judiciary and believed in the separation of power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Write in brief about the judiciary during the ancient period.

• In ancient times justice was linked with religion.
• King was the head or justice.
• The king’s court depressed justice according to dharma, a set of conventional laws.
• Dharmic laws governed not only the individual but and society.
• Similarities defined the social duties of the individual.

2. What are the powers and functions of the supreme court of India.

• The Supreme Court is the final court of Justices.
• Its decisions are binding on all courts.
• It can transfer judges of High Courts.
• It can move cases from any court to itself.
• The Supreme court can transfer cases from one high court to another.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 6 Defence and Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Defence and Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Defence and Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The Supreme Commander of the Armed forces is our
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
a) President

2. The primary mission of Indian Army is to ensure
a) National Security
b) National Unity
c) Defending the nation from external aggression
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

3. The Army day is
a) 5th January
b) 1st February
c) 10th March
d) 7th October
Answer:
a) 5th January

4. Assam Rifles is under the control of
a) Ministry of Defence
b) National Security Advisor
c) PMO
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer:
d) Ministry of Home Affairs

5. Indian Coast Guard was established in
a) 1976
b) 1977
c) 1978
d) 1979
Answer:
c) 1978

6. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles. One of which is
a) Satyameva Jayate
b) Panchasheel
c) both of these
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Panchasheel

7. Which of the following islands belonged to India
a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island
c) Sri Lanka and the Maldives
d) the Maldives and Lakshadweep Island
Answer:
b) Andaman and Lakshadweep island

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Madras Regimental Army centre is at _____________
Answer:
Wellington

2. The Indian Navy Chief is ___________
Answer:
Admiral

3.  _____________ is first and the only officer of Indian Air Force to be promoted to Five Star rank Marshal of Indian Air Force.
Answer:
Arjan Singh

4. The Chief architect of India’s foreign policy was ______________
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

5. The Word Non – Alignment was coined by ______________
Answer:
V.K Krishna Menon

III. Match the Following

1. Nelson Mandela	a) 8 members
2. National War Memorial	b) Field Marshal
3. Manekshaw	c) Energy development
4. SAARC	d) Apartheid
5. BCIM	e) New Delhi

Answer:

1. Nelson Mandela	d) Apartheid
2. National War Memorial	e) New Delhi
3. Manekshaw	b) Field Marshal
4. SAARC	a) 8 members
5. BCIM	c) Energy development

IV. State true or false.

1. Central Armed Police Force serves under the Ministry of Defence.
Answer:
False

2. The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment.
Answer:
True

3. The Rapid Action Force is a specialised wing of the CRPF.
Answer:
True

4. NCC Cadets are given basic military training.
Answer:
True

5. Bangladesh is apart of India.
Answer:
False

6. Myanmar is a land bridge to ASEAN nations.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement.

1. Consider the statement related to the Armed forces.
i) The Indian Army is the land-based branch of the Armed forces.
ii) The mission of the Indian Army is not only to ensure national security but also conducts humanisation rescue operations.
a) i only
b) ii only
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii
Answer:
a) i only

2. Assertion: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India.
Reason: The President is the head of the State and occupies the highest position.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
a) A Is correct and R explains A

3. Assertion: India has favoured international co-operation.
Reason: She believes that all disputes among nations can be solved through friendly co-operation.
a) A is correct and R is wrong
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

4. Which of the following statements is not true about “Apartheid?”
i) Apartheid is a policy of racial discrimination.
ii) It is against humanism.
iii) The policy of racialism is practised in India.
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) ii only
d) iii only
Answer:
d) iii only

5. Find the odd one out.
a) the Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) Myanmar
d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
d) Lakshadweep

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Why national security is very essential?
Answer:

1. National security is very essential for the political, social, and economic development of any country,
2. It is also important for the growth a country’s peace and prosperity.

2. What does the following abbreviation stand for?
Answer:

• SFF – The Special Frontier Force
• ICG – Indian Coastal Guard
• BSF – The Border Security Force
• NCC – National Cadet Corps

3. Write a short note on CRPF.
Answer:

1. CRPF means The Central Reserve Police Force.
2. This mission is to maintain Rule of law, Public order, and internal security effectively and efficiently.
3. It aims to preserve national integrity and promote social harmony and development by upholding the supremacy of the constitution.
4. Its specialized wing is The Rapid Action Force.

4. Name the founding fathers of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
The founding fathers of the Non-aligned movement are

• Jawaharlal Nehru of India,
• Tito of Yugoslavia,
• Nasser of Egypt,
• Sukarno of Indonesia and
• Kwame Nkrumah of ghana.

5. Write the basic principles of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
The basic principles of India’s foreign policy are-

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Abolition of Colonialism, Racism and Imperialism
5. Increasing the number of friendly nations

6. Name the member countries of the SAARC.
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Afghanisthan are the eight members of the SAARC.

VII Answer the following in detail.

1. Describe the structure and administration of the Indian Army.
Answer:

• The Indian Army is the land-based branch and it the largest unicellular arm in the world
• It is commanded by the Chief of Army Staff (COAS), who is a four-star general.
• The primary mission of the Indian Army is to ensure national security. national unity. defending the nation from internal aggression, internal thresh.
• The Indian Army baa a regimental system
• It is operationally and geographically divided into seven commands.

2. Write about Paramilitary Defence Forces.
Answer:

• The Paramilitary Defence force help in maintaining internal security protecting the coastline and assisting the army.
• The responsibility of them into giving security to oil fields and Refineries Railway stations, Water reservoir lines.
• They Participate in natural and man-made disasters and also protect international borders.
• The Assam Rifles came into being in 1835 which was established by the British in Assam was called
  “Cachar Lavy”.
• The Special Frontier Force was created in 1962. This was supervised by the Intelligence Bureau.

3. Write five principles of PanchaSheel.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India was the chief architect of India’s foreign policy. Nehru was a supporter of world peace. He declared the five principles of peace, known as Panchsheel. These principles included:

1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
2. Mutual non-aggression
3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
4. Equality and mutual benefit
5. Peaceful co-existence.

4. India focuses on improving ties with its neighbours. How?
Answer:

• India provides neighbours with support as needed in the form of resources, equipment and training.
• Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy capital and information.
• Act East policy ensures a stable and multipolar balance of power through ASEAN.
• SAARC improves brotherhood and co-operation.
• BCIM – envisages the formation of a thriving economy, transport.
• BIMSTEC, BBIN supports technical and economic cooperation.

VIII HOTS

1. A career in defence forces promises one of the most prestigious and respected positions in the country. State the importance.
Answer:

1. Being a part of the defense forces is one of the most prestigious and respected positions in the country.
2. Young aspirants who aspire to choose a career full of excitement, challenges, and adventure can join the defense forces.
3. When it comes to lifestyle, the defense forces are unmatched. Regular exercise and proper routine key a soldier physically fit and active during his working age.
4. Each person serves the motherland in his own way and contributes to the growth and development, but he serves his country at the cost of his life.
5. Having a government job is the best thing for anyone in an economy.
6. The glamor of the uniform, badges add a sense of pride in the person.
7. The armed forces take care of the family of its men.
8. Even after retirement, private job opportunities are there.
9. Leadership quality is well developed with various types of experience.
10. It is the most thrilling career in the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Defence and Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Name the monument built by the government of India to honour the Indian Armed forces.
a) National War memorial
b) India Gate
c) Special Frontier force
d) All the above
Answer:
a) National War memorial

2. Rapid Action Force Day is
a) 10th March
b) 7th October
c) 4th December
d) 8th October
Answer:
b) 7th October

3. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
a) Nelson Mandela
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) V.K Krishna Menon
d) Sukarno
Answer:
b) Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Which is called the worst form of racial discrimination?
a) Non-alignment
b) Apartheid
c) Panch Sheel
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Apartheid

5. Non Alignment word was coined by ……………………
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) V.K Krishna Menon
c) Nelson Mandela
d) All the above
Answer:
b) V.K Krishna Menon

6. …………………… of India occupies the highest position in our defence organisation.
a) President
b) Prime minister
c) Governor
d) None of these
Answer:
a) President

7. The Chief of Army Staff (COAS) is a …………………… star general.
a) Four
b) six
c) five
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Four

8. On …………………… the school was renamed as the Officers Training Academy.
a) 1st January 1978
b) 3rd January 1988
c) 1st January 1988
d) 1st October 1988
Answer:
c) 1st January 1988

9. SFF is a paramilitary special force of India created in ……………………
a) 1966
b) 1962
c) 1962
d) 1862
Answer:
c) 1962

10. The Central Industrial Security Force was set up on ……………………
a) 10th March 1969
b) 20th March 1999
c) 15th March 1996
d) 22nd March 1966
Answer:
a) 10th March 1969

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. …………………… is a five-star general officer rank.
Answer:
Field marshal

2. The Assam Rifles came in to being in ……………………
Answer:
1835

3. The Indian Coast Guard was established in ……………………
Answer:
1978

4. …………………… was the leader of the African National Council of South Africa.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela

5. …………………… is the five Principles of peace adopted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
Panchsheei

6. …………………… serve under the Ministry of Defence.
Answer:
Indian Armed Forces

7. …………………… are Assam Rifles and Special Frontier Force.
Answer:
Paramilitary Forces

8. …………………… serve under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Answer:
CAPF

9. …………………… is the largest volunteer army in the world.
Answer:
The Indian Army

10. …………………… The Indian Army has a system.
Answer:
regimental

11. …………………… was the first Field Marshal of India.
Answer:
Sam Manekshaw

12. …………………… was the first and the only officer of the Indian Air Force to be promoted as mansole.
Answer:
Arjan Singh

13. …………………… is a border guarding police force in India – China border.
Answer:
ITBP

14. …………………… The is a voluntary force, tasked as an auxiliary to the Indian Police.
Answer:
Indian Home Guard

15. …………………… members are present in SAARC Association.
Answer:
8

III. Match the following.

1. 15th January	a) Coast guard Day
2. 8th October	b) Rapid Action Force Day
3. 4th December	c) Air Force Day
4. 7th October	d) Navy Day
5. 1st February	e) Army Day

Answer:

1. 15th January	e) Army Day
2. 8th October	c) Air Force Day
3. 4th December	d) Navy Day
4. 7th October	b) Rapid Action Force Day
5. 1st February	a) Coast guard Day

IV. State true or false.

1. India shares its land boundary with seven countries.
Answer:
True

2. BIMSTEC’s main objective is to strengthen and improve education.
Answer:
False

3. India has maintained a cordial relationship with all countries.
Answer:
True

4. Racialism ended in SouthAffica in 1990.
Answer:
True

5. Normal tenure of membership in home guards is three to five years.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement.

1. Find the odd one out.
a) CISF
b) ITBP
c) AR
d) SSB
Answer:
c) AR

2. Assertion: Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India was the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Reason: He declared the five principles of peace, known as Panchsheel.
a) A is correct and R is wrong
b) Both A and R are correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
b) Both A and R are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. What is BCIM?
Bangladesh – China – India – Myanmar economic corridor envisages the formation of an economic belt focussing on cross – border transport, energy, and telecommunication networks.

2. Name the neighbouring countries of India.

• India shares a common land border with Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Burma, Afghanistan, and China.
• It also shares a common sea border with Srilanka.

3. What do you know about the Madras Regiment?

• The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment of the Indian army originating in the year 1758.
• The Regimental Centre is at Wellington, Udhagamandalam, Tamilnadu in detail.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Write in detail about the National Cadet Corps (NCC)

• The National Cadet Corps is a Tri-Services organisation, Comprising the Army, Navy, and his force.
• It is engaged in grooming the youth of the country into disciplined and patriotic citizens.
• The NCC in India is a voluntary organisation which recruits cadets from high schools, colleges, and universities all over India.
• The Cadets are given basic military training in small arms and parades.

2. Give a detailed account of Nelson Mandela.

• Nelson Mandela was the leader of the African National Council of South Africa.
• He fought against Apartheid which was the worst form of racial discrimination.
• He served as the President of South Africa from 1994 – 1999.
• His Political party was called the African National Congress.
• Slavery was abolished in 1990 in South Africa.