Bhagya

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Unit of speed is
a. m
b. s
c. kg
d. m/s
Answer:
d. m/s

Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
(a) Rotation of the earth about its axis
(b) Revolution of the moon about the earth
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
a. speed = distance × time
b. Speed = distance / time,
c. speed = time / distance
d. Speed = 1 / (distance × time)
Answer:
b. Speed = distance / time

Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute.
Statement 2 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct.
(b) Statement 2 alone is correct.
(c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct Answer.

1. To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
2. Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
3. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
4. Robots will replace human in future.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. Non-uniform.
4. False, Robots can never be conscious.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of ……… motion.
2. Gravitational force is a ………… force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of ………… motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in ……….. motion.

Answer:

1. Linear
2. non-contact
3. Rotatory
4. Uniform

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – e

V. Analogy:

1. Kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf : …………
2. Distance : metre :: Speed : ………….
3. circulatory motion : a spinning top oscillatory motion : …………

Answer:

1. non contact forces
2. m/s
3. Pendulum

VI. Given below is the distance – travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. 

Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without Physical contact with it.
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Robots.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion.
3. Circular motion.
4. Rotatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car will you be at rest or motion with respect to your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am at rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
The rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify.
Answer:
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called periodic motion. The earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours. The duration of time is fixed as 24 hours. Therefore the rotation of the earth is a periodic motion.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion
Answer:

Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate.

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hours calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{distence}{time}\)
= \(\frac{400}{5}\) = 80 km per hour

XI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is motion? classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion: The change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path:

• Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
• Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
• Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
• Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
• Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
• Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

• Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
• Non-periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

• Uniform motion. – Ex.: Hour hand of a clock.
• Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with Examples

Answer:
Linear motion – A man walking in a straight road
Curvilinear motion – motion of paper Aeroplane
Self rotatory motion – Motion of wheel in a cart
Circular motion – Motion of moon a round earth.
Oscillatory motion – Motion of pendulum
Irregular motion – Motion of honey bee.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
How earth revolves?
(a) From west to east
(b) east to west
(c) From north to south
(d) south to west.
Answer:
(a) From west to east

Question 2.
People walking in a crowded street is an example of _______ motion.
(a) linear
(b) circular
(c) rotatory
(d) zigzag
Answer:
(d) zigzag

Question 3.
What is the unit of average speed in SI system?
(a) metre / second
(b) kilometre/ seconds
(c) kilometre/ time
(d) Metre/ Time.
Answer:
(a) metre / second

Question 4.
Usain Bolt crossed 100 metre in _______ seconds and made a world record.
(a) 9.58
(b) 9.83
(c) 9.85
(d) 9.38
Answer:
(a) 9.58

Question 5.
The motion of the moon which revolves around the earth is
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) curvilinear
(d) b and c
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion

II. Correct Answer: If it is wrong give the correct answer.

1. Change of position of an object with respect to time is motion
2. Swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of rotatory motion.
3. The children flying in a swing is a periodic motion.
4. All the oscillatory movements are periodic motions.
5. The SI unit of speed is kilometer

Answer:

1. correct
2. wrong.
   A swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of circular motion.
3. correct
4. correct
5. wrong, The SI unit of speed is meter.

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. People walking in a crowded street is ……….. type of motion.
2. Object moves not at a constant speed then the motion is ………..
3. If Priya in her cycle travels 40 km in 2 hours then what is her average speed?
4. Motion is of ………… types.
5. The movement of a body about its own axis is ………….

Answer:

1. Irregular
2. on- uniform motion
3. 20 km /hr
4. four
5. Rotatory motion

IV. Matching

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

V. Fill up the blanks in accordance with their relation:

1. The Motion of train – uniform motion. The motion of vehicles ………..
2. Periodic motion – The motion of the moon revolves around the earth. Oscillatory motion ………..

Answer:

1. non – uniform motion.
2. Motion of simple pendulum.

VI. Fill up the missing statement.

VII. Fill up the blanks with the help of examples:

1. The motion of the needle of a clock.
2. The motion of an athlete of 100 m race
3. The motion of flag wagging
4. The motion of a car that goes in a circular path.
5. The motion of a needle in a sewing machine.

Answer:

1. Oscillatory motion.
2. Linear motion.
3. Non- periodic motion
4. circular motion
5. periodic motion or uniform motion.

VIII. Two Mark Questions: Short answers:

Question 1.
Define motion.
Answer:
When there is a change of position of an object with respect to time, then it is called motion.

Question 2.
What are the types of Force?
Answer:

1. Contact Force;
2. Non-Contact Force

Question 3.
List out the types of forces on the basis of contact.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Contact force,
2. Non-contact force.

Question 4.
What is the average speed of the object?
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called the average speed of the object.

Question 5.
Define non-periodic motion.
Answer:
When a motion is not in uniform interval, then such motion is called non-periodic motion.

IX. Give Detailed Answers:

Question 1.
What is a force? What are its types?
Answer:
Forces: Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
Types of Forces:

1. Contact forces;
2. Non – Contact forces.

1. Contact forces: The force that is executed by touching the body is a contact force Eg. Kicking the football
2. Non – Contact forces: The force is applied. Without touching the object then it is called noncontact force.
Forces can
(i) Change the states of the body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
(ii) Either change the speed or direction or both of the body.
(iii) Change the shape of the body.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The girth of a tree can be measured by
(a) Metre scale
(b) Metre rod
(c) plastic ruler
(d)Measuring tape.
Answer:
(d) Measuring tape.

Question 2.
The conversion of 7 m into cm gives
(a) 70 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 700 cm
(d) 7000 cm
Answer:
(c) 700 cm

Question 3.
Quantity that can be measured is called ………
(a) Physical quantity
(b) Measurement
(c) Unit
(d) Motion.
Answer:
(b) Measurement

Question 4.
Choose the correct one
(a) km > mm > cm > m
(b) km> mm> m > cm
(c) km>m>cm>mm
(d) km > cm > m > mm
Answer:
(c) km > m > cm > mm

Question 5.
While measuring length of an oject using a ruler, the position of your eye should be
(a) Left side of the point.
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.
(c) Right side of the point.
(d) Anywhere according to one’s convenience.
Answer:
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.

II. True or false.

1. We can say that mass an object is 126 kg
2. Length of one’s chest can be measured by using metre scale.
3. Ten millimetres makes one centimetre.
4. A hand span is a reliable measure of length.
5. The SI system of units is accepted everywhere in the world.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. SI unit of length is symbolically represented as ………..
2. 500 gm = …………. kilogram.
3. Distance between Delhi and Chennai can be measured in ……….
4. 1 m = ………. cm.
5. 5 km = ………. m.

Answer:

1. metre
2. 0.5
3. Kilometre
4. 100
5. 5000

IV. Analogy

Sugar: Beam Balance, Lime Juice?
Answer:
Graduated cylinders.

Height of a person: Cm: Length of your sharpened pencil lead?
Answer:
mm

Milk: Volume; vegetables?
Answer:
Weight

V. Match the following:

Answer:
1. Cubit
2. metre
3. 10^-9
4. second
5. 10³

VI. Complete the given table:

Answer:

VI. Arrange in increasing order of unit

1 Metre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Kilometre, and 1 Millimetre.
Answer:
1 Millimetre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Metre, 1 Kilometre.

VIII. Find the answer for the following questions within the grid:

1. 10^-3 is one _______
2. SI unit of time ______
3. Cross view of reading for measurement leads to ______
4. _______ is the one what a clock reads.
5. ______ is the amount of substance present in an object.
6. _______ can be taken to get the final reading of the recordings of different students for a single measurement.
7. ______ is a fundamental quantity.
8. _______ shows the distance covered by an automobile.
9. A tailor use _______ to take measurements to stitch a cloth.
10. Liquids are measured with this physical quantity ______

Answer:

1. millimeter
2. Second
3. Parallax
4. Time
5. mass
6. Accurate
7. Length
8. Odometer
9. tape
10. litres

IX. Answer in a word or two.

Question 1.
What is the full form of the SI system?
Answer:
An International System of unit

Question 2.
Name any one instrument used for measuring mass.
Answer:
Beam Balance

Question 3.
Find the odd one out: Kilogram, Millimetre, Centimetre, Nanometre
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 4.
What is the SI unit of mass?
Answer:
Kilogram

Question 5.
What are the two parts present in a measurement?
Answer:

1. multiple
2. sub

X. Answer in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
The comparison of an unknown quantity with some known quantity is known as measurement.

Question 2.
Define mass.
Answer:
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

Question 3.
The distance between the two places is 43.65 km. convert it into meter and cm.
Answer:
(a) Convert km into metre
1 km = 1000m
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 1000 = 43650.00 = 43650
= 43650 m.

(b) Convert km into cm.
1 km = 1000 m
1 m = 100 cm
1 km = 1000 × 100 cm
1 km = 100000 cm
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 100000 = 4365000.00
= 4365000 cm.

Question 4.
What are the rules to be followed to make an accurate measurement with scale?
Answer:

1. Take care to write the correct submultiple.
2. Always keep the object in parallel to the scale.
3. Start the measurement from ‘0’ of the scale.

XI. Solve the following:

Question 1.
The distance between your school and your house is 2250 m. Express this distance in kilometre.
Answer:
Distance between school and house is 2250 m.
1000 m = 1 km
∴ 2250 m = 2250 ÷ 1000 = 2.25 km.

Question 2.
While measuring the length of a sharpened pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 2.0 cm and at the other end is 12.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?
Answer:
Sharpened pencil Reading at one end = 2.0 cm.
Sharpened pencil Reading at the other end = 12.1 cm.
Length of the pencil = Difference between two ends.
= 12.1 cm. – 2.0 cm.
= 10.1 cm.

XII. Write in detail:

Question 1.
Explain two methods that you can use to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Measuring the length of a curved line, by two methods.
First method – using a string.

1. Draw a curved line AB on the paper.
2. Place a string along the curved line.
3. Make sure that the string covers every bit of the curved line.
4. Mark the points where the curved line begins and ends on the string.
5. Now stretch the string along the length of a meter scale.
6. Measure the distance between two markings of the string.
7. This will give the length of a curved line.

Second method – using a divider.

1. Draw a curved line AB on a paper.
2. Separate the legs of the divider by 0.5 cm or 1 cm using a ruler.
3. Place it on the curved line starting from one end. Mark the position of the other end.
4. Move it along the line again and again cutting the line into a number of segments of equal lengths.
5. The remaining parts of the line can be measured using a scale.
6. Count the number of segments.
7. Length of the line = (No. of segments × length of each segment) + length of the leftover part.

Question 2.
Fill up the following chart.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
What is 7 m in mm?
(a) 0.7 mm
(b) 700 mm
(c) 7000 mm
(d) 70 mm
Answer:
(c) 7000 mm

Question 2.
The distance between one end and the other end is called _____
(a) mass
(b) length
(c) time
(d) None
Answer:
(b) length

Question 3.
What is the unit of length?
(a) metre
(b) litre
(c) second
(d) kilogram.
Answer:
(a) metre

Question 4.
Five kilometre is equal to _____
(a) 500 cm
(b) 500 m
(c) 5000 m
(d) 5000 cm
Answer:
(c) 5000 m

Question 5.
These are the instruments used in measuring the volume of objects with irregular shapes.
(a) Balance
(b) Electronic balance
(c) Displacement of water method
(d) sand clock.
Answer:
(c) Displacement of water method.

II. True or false:

1. The comparison of a known quantity with the unknown quantity is the mass.
2. The area can be calculated by using the two lengths and width.
3. Using electronic balance weight can be measured accurately.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. 78.75 cm = ______ m ______ cm
2. 1195 m = ______km ______ m
3. 15 cm 10 mm = ______ mm
4. 45 km 33 m = ______ m.
5. The metric system of unit is developed in the year ______ by French.

Answer:

1. -78 m, 75 cm
2. -1 km, 195 m
3. -160 mm
4. -45033 m
5. -1790

IV. Matching

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Write the following unit in ascending order.

Question 1.
Ton – gram – kilogram – Metric ton
Answer:
Gram – kilogram – ton – metric ton.

VI. Very Short Answer (2 marks)

Question 1.
What is the length?
Answer:
The distance between one end and the other desired end is called length.

Question 2.
Differentiate mass from weight:
Answer:
Mass :
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.
Unit – kilogram

Weight :
Weight is the gravitational pull experienced by the mass.
Unit – Newton.

Question 3.
List the SI units of length, mass, and time.
Solution:

1. Length is measured by metre (m)
2. Mass is measured by the kilogram (kg)
3. Time is measured by second (s).

Question 4.
What is the basic quantity of physics?
Answer:

1. Length
2. Mass
3. Time.

Question 5.
Differentiate of Mass and Weight.
Answer:
Mass:

• Amount of matter in an object
• The measuring instrument is Beam balance

Weight:

• Gravitational pull experienced by the mass
• The measuring instrument is an electronic balance

Question 6.
What is the clock used to measure the time accurately?
Answer:

1. Electronic clock
2. Stop clock

Question 7.
Hold a sheet paper in one hand and a book in one hand. Which hand feels heavy? Why?
Solution:
The hand, which holds the book, will feel heavy. The mass of the book is more than that of a single sheet of paper. Therefore, the pull on the book is more than that of the paper. Hence our hand has to give more force to hold a book than a paper.

VII. Give detailed answers: (5 marks)

Question 1.
What are the features that we must give importance in measuring?
Answer:
The object should match with the ‘o’ of the scale.
The object should be in parallel with the scale.
Always start from ‘O’.
Measure the bigger division (m) first and then measure the smaller (mm) division. When we measure the bigger division it should be measured initially and then mark a point and then measure the smaller division (eg) if the length of the pencil is 6 cm 2 mm and then it is 6.2 cm.

Question 2.
How will you measure the weight of the object with irregular shapes?
Answer:
Fill a graduated measuring cylinder with 50 ml of water.
Tie the stone with a piece of fine thread and immerse the stone completely in the water. As the stone is immersed the water level will increase. And show 75 ml of rising. The stone displaces water and hence the rise. The amount of water displaced will be the volume of the stone.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 23 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS Word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Question 2.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) folder
(b) box
(c) pai
(d) scanner.
Answer:
(a) folder

Question 3.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 4.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Question 5.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Scratch?
Answer:
Scratch is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the editor and its types.
Answer:
Editors or text Editors are software programs that enable the user to create and edit text files Editors are generally classified into 5 types as,

1. Line Editor [Ex: teco]
2. Stream Editor [Ex: Sed]
3. Screen Editor [Ex: Notepad]
4. Word processors [Ex: MS – word]
5. Structure Editor [Ex: Netbeans IDE].

Question 3.
What is stage?
Answer:
Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window. The background will most often be white. You can change the background colour as you like.

Question 4.
What is Sprite?
Answer:
The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite. Usually, a cat appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is opened. The software provides facilities to make alternations in the sprite.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as
(a) file
(b) data
(c) record
(d) folder
Answer:
(a) file

Question 2.
_______ is used to choose the block to use.
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Block menu
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Block palette

Question 3.
Which app is used, we can draw and edit pictures?
(a) My computer
(b) Notepad
(c) Paint
(d) Games
Answer:
(c) Paint

Question 4.
Choose the odd one from the following _______.
(a) File
(b) Folder
(c) Memory space
(d) Mouse.
Answer:
(d) Mouse.

Question 5.
Write a good example for visual communication.
(a) Picture
(b) Cinema
(c) Radio
(d) FM
Answer:
(b) Cinema

Question 6.
Choose the wrong statement from the following statements _______.
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(b) Block palette is used to choose the block to use.
(c) The right contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(d) Scratch is software.
Answer:
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Windows – operating system
(b) Visual – Cinema
(c) Costume – editor
(d) Stage – a input device
Answer:
(d) Stage – a input device

Question 8.
Identify which is not a file format _______.
(a) CSS
(b) PSO
(c) PNG
(d) EPS.
Answer:
(b) PSO

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) More people are using windows operating system.
(b) We can collect our notes in Notepad application.
(c) We can draw pictures in paint application.
(d) A folder is a file name.
Answer:
(d) A folder is a file name.

Question 10.
The start button is present in the ______ corner of the computer.
(a) Center
(b) top
(c) left
(d) right.
Answer:
(c) left

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Pictures and audio-visuals gives us more understanding than teaching and writing on the black board.
Reason (R) : The device which helps in explaining the concepts easily through pictures is known as visual communication device.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.

Question 12.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) LINUX
(b) Paint
(c) Spread sheet
(d) PPTs
Answer:
(a) LINUX

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A – (iii)
B – (i)
C – (iv)
D – (ii)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the reason, we prefer computer?
Answer:
The reason, we prefer computer is its speed and the ability to store data.

Question 2.
What is a folder?
Answer:
A folder is a storage space that contains multiple files. We can create files as per the user’s need.

Question 3.
What is a file?
Answer:
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as file.
Therefore, the application for the specific purposes determines the nature of the file.

Question 4.
Name the different parts of Scratch Editor?
Answer:

• Stage
• Sprite
• Script Editor / Costume Editor.

Question 5.
Explain the using script editor?
Answer:
Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.
The script editor has three main parts:

1. Script area: Where you build scripts.
2. Block menu: Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to use.
3. Block palette: Where your choose the block to use.

Question 6.
Write a note on Script editor.
Answer:
Script editor/costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures. You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the Stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Deforestation leads to ……… in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called ……….
3. Chipko movement is initiated against ……….
4. ……….. is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is ………. type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ……… fuels.
7. ……….. is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.

Answer:

1. Decrease
2. Soil Erosion
3. Deforestation
4. Nilgiris
5. Non-conventional
6. Fossil
7. Coal

II. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level.
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wile life.
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
7. National park is a protected park.
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972.

Answer:

1. False – Biogas is a natural gas
2. True
3. True
4. False – Nuclear energy is non-renewable energy
5. False – Overgrazing causes soil erosion
6. False – Poaching of wild animals is an illegal act.
7. True
8. Tme

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (i)
F. (iv)
G. (vii)

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
(i) Tar, (ii) Coal, (iii) Petroleum
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust are:
(i) carbon monoxide
(ii) Sulphur dioxide
(iii) Oxides of nitrogen:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by ______
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is:
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is _______
(a) no rainfall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rainfall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rainfall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is:
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wild life
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is ______
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
Green house effect refers to:
(a) cooling of earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of earth
Answer:
(d) warming of earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is _____
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(b) solar energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause
(a) raise in level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of an electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution-free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of the electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
If trees are cut down it give rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alternation of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitual wild animals disturbed, the biological diversity cannot be maintained and cannot promote economic activities, which generates revenue to the government.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
Agents of soil erosion are high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, land slide, human activities like deforestation, farming and mining overgrazing by cattle.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
Like fossil fuels, accumulation is a very slow process and takes a very long period, and in order to preserve them for a future generation, fossil fuels are to be conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun. This energy resources is available in unlimited amount in nature and it can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 6.
How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generated from spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:

1. Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
2. To Meet the increase demand of water.
3. Reduces flood and soil erosion.
4. Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It burns without smoke, causing less pollution.
• It is an excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• The leftover slurry is good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the number of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:
Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental degradation, pollute the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
The contaminants can harm animals and damage the food chain.

• Deforestation becomes a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.
• Loss of many forests.
• It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Recharge pit: In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration. After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

People living in rural areas adopt a variety of water collecting methods to capture and store as rain water. Some of the methods used are-
(i) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris) : It is one of the traditional water harvesting system in Tamil Nadu. Eris are constructed in such a way that if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.

(ii) Ooranis : These are small ponds to collect rainwater. The water is used for various domestic purposes (drinking, washing and bathing). These ponds cater the nearby villages.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The following are the methods to prevent soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelterbelt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil which results in landscape pollution.

Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

1. Segregation : It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non biodegradable wastes.
2. Sanitary landfill : Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
3. Incineration : It is the burning of nonbiodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
4. Composting : Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Recycling of wastes:

1. Papers from old books, magazines and newspapers are recycled to produce papers in papermills.
2. Agricultural wastes like coconut shells, jute cotton stalk, bagasse of sugarcane can be used to make paper and hard board. Paddy husk can be used as livestock fodder.
3. Cowdung and other organic wastes can be used in gobar gas plant to provide biogas and manure for fields. The 3R approach such as Reduce, Reuse and Recycle may be followed for effective waste management.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:

• Forests are an important component of our environment.
• There are microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers and dense trees in the forest.
• Forests provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
• Forests help for the economic development of our country.
• Forests are the source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
• Forests provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
• They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall and reduce global warming.
• The natural hazards like flood and landslides are prevented.
• Wildlife is protected.
• It acts as a catchment for water conservation.
• Forests maintain ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The effects of soil erosion leads to loss of fertility of land, humus and nutrient. It leads to increased pollution, sedimentation in streams and rivers. Degraded lands able to hold water which can worsen flooding.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
The management of forest and wildlife resource is considered as a challenging task because,

• Due to deforestation, there is a lack of oxygen.
• People kill animals, for making cloth designs so it harms the wildlife.
• There is a lack of public awareness.
• There are global warming and climate change.
• Water scarcity and changes in rainfall pattern.
• People kill animals and cut down trees, for economic benefit.
• Poaching.
• Forests cannot be irrigated like fields they depend on rain.
• Changes in rainfall pattern, affect the development of forests and may lead to destruction.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following question a statement of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason (R): CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:
The formation of coal and petroleum is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewal. Moreover coal is uses for generation of electricity’ petroleum is used to run automobile, trucks, trains, ships and aeroplane. So we need to conserve them as they get exhausted.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy resources can be replenished quickly.
• Hydrocarbons are formed over a period of thousands of years when the remains of dead plants and animals are buried inside the Earth.
• Burning coal and oil results in air pollution.
• Conserve fossil fuels, using an alternate source of energy, when possible.
• Wise utilization of non-renewable natural resources.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:

1. It is non-biodegradable material which cause environmental pollution. It is harmful to wild life and marine life. It is very hard to clean or remove from environment.
2. Alternatives to plastic bag are jute or canvas bags, paper bags.
3. It control the pollution and clean the environment and make it better’ place to live for all organism.

X. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support your answer.
Answer:

• The installing cost of solar cell panel is high, as the silicon wafer is very expensive and also the silver used in connecting solar cells.
• D.C electricity is produced. To operate any A.C device, this D.C. has to be connected in, as by using an inverter.
• The efficiency of energy conversion is low as compared to other means of generating electricity.

Question 2.
How would you dispose the following wastes?
(a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
(b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:
(a) Domestic waste like vegetable peels can be disposed by composting where solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

(b) The metallic ions melt into molten aluminium this removes the coating and inks that may be present on the aluminium. The aluminium is then made into large blocks which is used to make other products.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on the 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:

• Integrated solid waste management is based on the 3R approach. (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle).
• 3R is aimed at the management of solid waste from all waste generating sectors.
• 3R helps to minimize the amount of wastes from generation to disposal.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The best way to dispose waste is by:
(a) Making a paste for all domestic waste and putting them in a river.
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.
(c) Throw the waste an round side
(d) Dumping all domestic waste is better bin.
Answer:
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.

Question 2.
The solar energy which falls on the atmosphere reaches the Earth’s surface ______
(a) a little less than 42%
(b) more than 60%
(c) more than 52%
(d) a little less than 47%
Answer:
(d) a little less than 47%

Question 3.
Chipko Andolan is associated with
(a) Protesting against pasting of posters on walls.
(b) Saving money
(c) Using more postal stamps.
(d) Saving trees.
Answer:
(d) Saving trees.

Question 4.
The technique to harness the water energy is _______
(a) hydropower
(b) electrical energy
(c) tidal energy
(d) hydraulic fracturing
Answer:
(a) Hydropower

Question 5.
Conservation of wild life includes:
(a) Preventing poaching of animals
(b) Construction of National parks, Sanctuaries
(c) Ban on trading endangered species
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Select the eco-friendly activity among the following:
(a) Using car for transportation.
(b) Using polybags for shopping
(c) Using dyes for colouring clothes
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation
Answer:
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation

Question 7.
Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.
(a) Wind, Ocean, Coal
(b) Kerosene, Wind, tide
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun
(d) Petroleum, Wood, Sun
Answer:
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun

Question 8.
Ground water will not be depleted due to:
(a) Afforestation
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Loss of forest and decreased rainfall
(d) Cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(a) Afforestation

Question 9.
Select the wrong statement:
(a) Forests provide variety of products
(b) Forests have greater plant diversity
(c) Forests do not conserve soil
(d) Forests conserve water
Answer:
(c) Forests do not conserve soil

Question 10.
The important messages conveyed by the ‘chipko movement’ is:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.
(b) To ignore the community in forest conservation efforts.
(c) To cut down forest trees for developmental activities
(d) Preserves the natural ecosystem in the area.
Answer:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Automobiles are largest source of ……… pollution in cities.
2. The first movement against tree felling was fought in chamoli district name ……….
3. ………. National park was the first in India.
4. Removal of upper layer of soil by wind and water is called ……..
5. The white marble of ……….. became yellow due to air pollution.
6. Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is ……..
7. Gas produced by the decomposition of animal and plant waste in the absence of oxygen is ……….
8. The fuel extracted by a technique called ………… from the rock.
9. The World’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in …………
10. ………… Dam is constructed by King Karikala Chola.
Answer:
1. air
2. Chipko movement
3. Jim Corbett
4. soil erosion
5. Taj Mahal
6. Solar panel
7. Gobar gas
8. hydraulic fracturing
9. Hawaii
10. Kallanai

III. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Natural habitats of plants and animals should not be destroyed.
Reason (R): This is necessary for the conservation of biotic resources.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): To prevent hunting is not wildlife conservation in the real sense.
Reason (R): Some animals may multiply to the extent that they exhaust the food supply.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. The devices used for harnessing sun energy is wind mill.
2. Liquefied petroleum gas is obtained from petroleum.
3. Harnessing the energy from flowing water to produce electricity is hydro power.
4. 12% of e-wastes are from computer components.
5. LED bulbs consume more electrical energy.

Answer:

1. False – The devices used for harnessing wind is wind mill.
2. True
3. True
4. False – 12% of e-wastes are from telecommunication components
5. False – LED bulbs consume less electrical energy.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define Conservation.
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources in conservations.

Question 2.
What are the ways to sustain our resources?
Answer:
Some of the ways to sustain continuous use of resources are practices to utilise energy efficiently avoid wastage of water, avoid usage of Plastics and other non-biodegradable materials and to take care for the environment.

Question 3.
Suggest any two activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Answer:
Carrying jute or canvas bags for shopping instead of plastic bags.
Switch off electrical and electronic devices when not in use.

Question 4.
Name four substances that can be recycled.
Answer:
Newspaper, PET plastic bottles, steel can glass containers.

Question 5.
List any two common methods by which solid wastes of urban areas are disposed off.
Answer:

1. Segregation of waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
2. Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas.

Question 6.
What is chipko movement?
Answer:
The chipko movement was a non-violent that was aimed to protect and conserve the tree by the villagers of chamoli district of uttar pradesh.

Question 7.
Give the reason for decline in wildlife population.
Answer:
Over exploitation and shrinking of forest cover areas are the reason for animal extinction and verge of extinction.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is conservation? Why should we conserve natural resources?
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources are termed as conservation. It is important to conserve the natural resources carefully, to preserve it for future generations. We have to build a sustainable world, which should last forever.

Question 2.
How can you as an individual contribute to the management of coal and petroleum.
Answer:

1. Use of coal and petroleum as a source of energy should be minimised.
2. Use of CNG or LPG as fuels in automobiles.
3. Renewable sources of energy like solar power, hydro power, wind energy, tidal energy should be used.

Question 3.
What are the methods to conserve the forest?
Answer:

• Afforestation: Planting and protecting trees which help in the restoration of green cover is called the afforestation programme. Destruction of trees should be avoided.
• Social forestry programme: Active participation of the public and utilization of common land, to produce firewood, fodder and timber for the benefit of the rural community.
• Forest Conservation through Laws: Adopting laws and policies, to conserve and protect forests through National Forest Policy,

Question 4.
List the wild life conservation Initiatives in India.
Answer:

1. Project Tiger and Project Elephant has been launched in 1973 and 1992 respectively.
2. Crocodile Conservation Project was launched in 1976.
3. Sea Turtle Conservation Project was launched in 1999.
4. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is to conserve at least 3000 greater one-homed rhinos in Assam, India by 2020.

Question 5.
What are the steps to be taken to conserve coal and petroleum resources?
Answer:

• If electricity is saved, it will, in turn, reduce the use of coal.
• Using bicycles for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
• Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG, during cooking food.
• Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
• Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel-efficient engines to increase efficiency and also to reduce pollution.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:

1. It is available in abundance in our country and is free of cost.
2. It is a renewable source of energy.
3. It can be used for generating electricity or heat.
4. It does not cause pollution.

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
(a) What are the aims of wildlife management?
(b) What is the provision of the wildlife protection act?
Answer:
(a) The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

• To control and limit exploitation of species.
• To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
• Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
• Preserve the endangered species.
• To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
• Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
• Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and biosphere reserves.

(b) The provisions of the wildlife protection act:

• Prohibit killing and hunting of specified animals.
• Constitute sanctuaries, national parks and closed areas for wildlife conservation.
• Special schemes for the preservation of endangered species.
• Constitute central zoo authority and recognition of zoos.
• Restrict, regulate or prohibit trade in wild animals and products obtained from them.

Question 2.
Give the various steps to conserve non-renewable resource.
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve or save coal and petroleum resources for the future use, which can be done by reducing their consumption.

1. If electricity is saved, it will intum reduce the use of coal.
2. Using bicycle for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
3. Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG while cooking food. Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
4. Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel efficient engines to increase efficiency and also reduce air pollution.

Question 3.
Write notes for the following:
(a) Solar cells
(b) Solar panel
(c) Solar cooker and
(d) Solar thermal power plant
Answer:
(a) Solar cells: Solar cells are called photovoltaic devices, which are made up of silicon, that converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar cells produce electricity, without polluting the environment. No harmful gases, no burning and no wastes are produced.

• It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping and battery charging system, etc.
• It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
• It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
• It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

(b) Solar panel: Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is called solar panel. The capacity to provide electric current is much increased in the solar panel, but the process of manufacture is very expensive.

(c) Solar cooker: Solar cooker consists of an insulated metal box or wooden box, which is painted from inside, so as to absorb maximum solar radiations. A thick glass sheet forms the cover over the box. The reflector is the piano mirror, which is attached to the box. The food is cooked by energy radiated by the Sun.

(d) Solar thermal power plant:
In solar thermal power plants, many solar panels are used to concentrate sun rays, to heat up water into steam. The steam is used to run the turbines to produce electricity. The solar energy is available in our country at free of cost, do not cause any pollution and is a renewable source of energy.

Question 4.
Explain the tidal energy with its advantages.
Answer:
Tidal energy is the energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides. Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted on the oceans of the earth.

A tidal stream is a fast flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.

Advantages of tidal energy:

1. Tidal energy does not produce any pollution.
2. It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
3. Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
4. Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 5.
Explain the convention method of waste water treatments.
Answer:
The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following steps (a) Pre-screening (b) Aeration (c) Sludge Management and (d) Water Reuse.
(a) Pre-screening : Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.

(b) Aeration : Screened wastewater is then pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation that occurs in the presence of air.
Sedimentation process : In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.

(c) Sludge removal : The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
Disinfection : Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.

(d) Water recycling : The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

IX. Hot Questions:

Question 1.
Name the movement aimed at the protection and conservation of trees. In which district was it originated?
Answer:
Chipko movement at Uttarkhand.

Question 2.
Name any two wildlife conservation initiatives in India.
Answer:

• Crocodile conservation project
• Indian Rhino vision 2020
• Sea Turtle conservation

X. Value Based Question:

Question 1.
The over exploitation of natural resources leads to decline of natural resources.
(a) What will be the effects decline of natural resources.
(b) How can be prevent it?
Answer:
(a) Decline of natural resources leads to energy crisis and disturbance in ecological balance.
(b) It can be prevented by using non-conventional energy resources.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular,socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens:
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through …………..
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ……………..
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into:
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
(i) Sarkaria Commission
(ii) Rajamannar Committee
(iii) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Answer:
(b) i and ii

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The concept of Constitution first originated in ……………….
2. ………………. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………….
4. ………………. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ……………….

Answers:

1. U.S.A
2. Dr. Sachidanandha Sinha
3. 26th November 1949
4. Five
5. 51 A

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution is a set of rules that form the basis of any kind of a state that we as citizens, desire to live in.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the state of being a person belonging to a particular country’. Having enjoying rights, privileges and duty to perform to the country. The Constitution of India provide for a single citizenship for the whole of India.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
There are six types of fundamental rights listed by the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A Writ is an order or command issued by a court writing under its seal. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is National Emergency?
Answer:
National Emergency is declared by the President. If India’s security is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat under Article 352.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
There are

1. Legislative relations
2. Administrative relations
3. Financial relations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Constitution is the set of rules framed by the Constituent Assembly by which we are governed and abide by it.

Salient features of Indian Constitution:

1. It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitution in the world.
2. It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
3. Most of its provisions are borrowed from the Constitutions of various countries.
4. It establishes a Federal system of government.
5. It establishes Parliamentary system.
6. It provides an independent Judiciary.
7. It provides single citizenship.
8. Introduces Universal Adult franchise, the right to vote to all citizens above the age of 18 without any discrimination.
9. It makes special provision for minorities scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –
(i) Right to Equality: It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.

(ii) Right to Freedom: It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

(iii) “Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.

(iv) Right to religion: It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.

(v) Cultural and Educational rights: It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:

1. Article 32 of our Constitution deals with right to Constitutional remedies to safeguard other fundamental rights through writs.
2. A Writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
3. It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are specified in the order of the court.
4. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs namely – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.
5. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Article 32 is “ the heart and soul of the Constitution”.
6. “Supreme Court’ is called the “ Guardian of our Constitution”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights:

1. Derived from the Constitution of the U.S.A.
2. Even the Government cannot take away or abridge these rights.
3. These rights can be enforceable by law.
4. The rights have legal sanctions.
5. Strengthen the political democracy of the country.
6. They are natural and basic rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.
2. These are mere instructions to the Government.
3. They are not enforceable by law in any court.
4. These directives have moral and political sanctions.
5. Implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6. These lead to protect human rights.

VI. Project and activity

Question 1.
Collect information about the various members of the Constituent Assembly and their social background.
Answer:
Members of the constituent Assembly and their Social background.
Refer: https : //www.scrip.com: document. 15
https://www.wikipedia.org:wiki:const.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of the Members of the Drafting Committee and their social background.
Answer:
Drafting committee is the most important body responsible for creating the constitution of India.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad: President of the Drafting committee:

Ambedkar. An Indian Jurist, Social Reformer and Politician. Hailed as “Father of Indian Constitution’’. Campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables supported the Rights of women and labour.

Indian political leader. A lawyer by training. Joined the Indian National congress during the Independence movement and became a major leader from the Region of Bihar. He was the first President of India after Independence and served for full two terms from 1950 – 1962. The President who served foreth longest term.

Other members:

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. He was an Indian Lawy er. He also served as the Advocate General of Madras state from 1929 to 1944.

N. Gopalswami Iyengar: He was the Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 1937 – 1943 and was appointed as council of state from 1943 – 1947. During that time he was the chairman of the committee for the Indianisation of Army from 1947 – 1948. He served as minister without Port folio in the 1st Cabinet under Pandit. Jawaharlal Nehru.

K.M. Munshi: A lawyer by profession. He was an Indian Independence movement activist, politician, writer and an educationist from Gujarat State.

Mohammad Saadullah B.L: A youthful Chairman of Gauhati (Guwahati) Municipality in 1919. Tali and an Athletic. M.A.BL. He served as the Minister incharge of Education and Agriculture for Assam from 1924 – 1934. He was the Prime Minister of Assam under British India.

B.L. Mitter: Ex-advocate General. The one and only official subreddit for India (Nehru’s cabinet) Governor of Bihar between 1962 – 1967. Resigned from the drafting committee due to ill health. N. Madhava Rao (Diwan of Mysore state) had replaced B.L. Mitter.

D.R Khaitan: A renounced lawyer. Scion of Khaitan business family ( a new firm). Died in 1948 and T.T. Krishnamachari replaced D.R Khaitan

TB Page 175
VII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
Prepare a chart containing the Rights and Duties of citizens and display it in your class room.
Answer:
I. Right to Equality

Art. 14 – Equality before law.
Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18 – Abolition of titles except military and academic.

II. Right to Freedom

Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21A – Right to elementary education.
Art. 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

III. Right Against Exploitation

Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

IV. Right to Religion

Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

V. Cultural and Educational Rights

Art. 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

List of Fundamental Duties:

1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002 has also introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under 51 A(k) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between age of 6 and 14 years).

TB Page 172

Question 1.
Violation of which Fundamental right is associated with the theme depleted in the stamps?
Answer:

The theme (child labour) depicted in the stamps is associated with Fundamental Right. Right against Exploitation. Art 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (violation of employment children).

TB Page 175
Activity:

Question 1.
List out the recognised languages in the Eighth schedule of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Eighth schedule of the Constitution has recognised at present 22 languages .
They are:

1. Assamee
2. Bengali
3. Bodo
4. Dogri
5. Gujarathi
6. Hindi
7. Kannada
8. Kashmiri
9. Kenkani
10. Maithili
11. Malayalam
12. Manipuri
13. Marathi
14. Nepali
15. Oriya
16. Punjabi
17. Sanskrit
18. Santhali
19. Sindhi
20. Tamil
21. Telugu
22. Urdu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government of India granted ………………. languages as classical language status.
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 22
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 2.
Which of the following is given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
The constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December ………………. 1946.
(a) 1^st
(b) 5^th
(c) 6^th
(d) 26^th
Answer:
(c) 6^th

Question 4.
‘Education’ comes under which list?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Concurrent list

Question 5.
Every year 26th January is observed as ……………….
(a) Independence day
(b) Gandhi Jayanthi
(c) Voters day
(d) Republic day
Answer:
(d) Republic day

Question 6.
Indian Constitution is the …………… Constitution in the world.
(a) Longest
(b) Shortest
(c) Lengthiest
Answer:
(c) Lengthiest

Question 7.
In the preamble of our Constitution the slogans of ………………. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is given importance.
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) American Revolution
(d) German Revolution
Answer:
(a) French Revolution

Question 8.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under ……………..
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

Question 9.
………………. emergency can be declared under Article 356.
(a) National
(b) Financial
(c) State
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) State

Question 10.
Apart from B.R. Ambedkar, how many other members were in the Drafting Committee?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
Answer:
(b) 6

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Our Constitution is concerned with the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and between ………………. and ……………….
2. H.C. Mukherjee and ………………. were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the constituent Assembly at the time of framing Constitution.
3. The original Constitution was hand written by ……………….
4. Our Constitution is the ………………. of all the written Constitutions of the world.
5. India is a ………………. state.
6. The right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination is ……………….
7. The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ………………. drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Preamble begins with the phrase ……………….
9. The citizenship Act has been amended is far ………………. times.
10. The ………………. writ safeguards people from illegal arrest.
11. Under Article 21 A ………………. education was made as fundamental right to provide early childhood care and education.
12. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred ………………. subjects from state list to concurrent list.
13. Article 51A specified for the first time a code of fundamental duties of ………………. the citizens.
14. Parliament enacted the official language Act in the year

Answers:

1. Union and the States
2. V.T. Krishnamachari
3. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
4. lengthiest
5. Secular
6. Universal Adult Franchise
7. ‘Objective Resolution’
8. We the people of India
9. eight
10. Habeas Corpus
11. elementary
12. five
13. ten
14. 1963

III. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Mention the phrase with which the Preamble of our Constitution begins? What does this imply?
Answer:
The Preamble of our Constitution beings with the phrase “We, the People of India”. This implies that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on how our Constitution is framed?
Answer:
A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to frame the Constitution . The Assembly consisted 389 members Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the president and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Chairman of the drafting committee. The Assembly worked through various committees and finally completed the draft. It was adopted on November 26^th 1949. Came into force on 26^th January 1950.

Question 3.
What is mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a kind of writ that protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.

Question 4.
What does Preamble refer to ? What does it contain?
Answer:

1. The term Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.
2. It consists of ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution.
3. It is described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’.

Question 5.
Mention three ways of amendments in our Constitution.
Answer:
Our Constitution can be amended in the following three ways –

1. Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State legislatives.

Question 6.
Name the three basic principles of our Constitution adopted from die slogan of French Revolution (1789).
Answer:

1. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all.
2. It gives Equality of status and opportunity.
3. It wants to promote Fratemity(brotherhood) among all Indians.

Question 7.
Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the Constitution.
Answer:
Abolition of titles lies in Article 18.

Question 8.
What change is made in Article 45 by 86th Amendment Act?
Answer:

1. The 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.
2. The amended directive request the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Question 9.
Which is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The single biggest source of Indian Constitution is Government of India Act 1935.

Question 10.
Name the five subjects that are transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Answer:
Education, Forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds and administration of justice, Constitution and organisation of all courts except the supreme court and the high courts.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention any five Fundamental duties of the citizens of India.
Answer:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the National struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 2.
How can a person acquire citizenship of our country?
Answer:
According to the citizenship Act 1955, the citizenship could be acquired by any of these five ways.

1. By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after January 26th, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.
2. By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after January 26th 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
3. By Registration: Aperson can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.
4. By Naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.
5. By incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be the citizen of India.

Question 3.
What are the circumstances that compel the President to declare an emergency in a State?
Answer:
(i) Under Article 356, the President has the power to declare an emergency in a State if the Governor reports that a situation has risen under which the Government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) The continuance of such an emergency beyond one year is possible only if emergency under Article 352 are in operation or the Election Commission certifies that there are difficulties in holding Assembly Elections. Maximum duration of the emergency can be three years.

(iii) In this kind of emergency, the States lose much of their autonomy in legislative and executive matters.

(iv) After such an announcement State legislative is suspended and the State is governed by the Governor on behalf of the President.

Question 4.
List the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
Answer:
Under part IVA of our Constitution Article 51A declares the duty of a Citizen of India.

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired die national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.
6. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
7. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
8. To Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes,
9. rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
10. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
11. To safe guard public property and to abjure violence.
12. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity making the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
13. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
14. Under 51 A (k) 11^th fundamental duty.

Question 5.
Write briefly about Acquisition of Citizenship.
Answer:
The Citizenship Act of 1935 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, “viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.
(i) By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after 26 January, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

(ii) By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent. If his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

(iii) By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

(iv) By Naturalisation: A foreigner can acquire Indian Citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

(v) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the “territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

Question 6.
Write a paragraph on Constitutional Reform commissions.
Answer:
The National commission to review the working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000, headed by M.N Venkatachaliah. In April 2007 a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchchi was set up by the Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter relations.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 21 Health and Diseases Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) heptin
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 2.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31
(b) June 6
(c) April 22
(d) October 2.
Answer:
(a) May 31

Question 3.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are:
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Starved mutation
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 4.
Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Lymphoma.
Answer:
(c) Leukaemia

Question 5.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to;
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Supression of brain
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Question 6.
Coronary heart disease is due to _______.
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) The weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.

Question 7.
Cancer of the epithelial cells is called:
(a) Leukemia
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Lipoma
Answer:
(c) Carcinoma

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with _______.
(a) Malignant tumour
(b) Benign tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour.
Answer:
(a) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in:
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) AIDS
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 10.
Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
(a) Eyes
(b) Auditory region
(c) Liver
(d) Central nervous system.
Answer:
(d) Central nervous system.

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. AIDS is an epidemic disease.
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes.
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour formation.
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology.
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents.
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug.
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder.
Answer:
1. False – AIDS is an pandemic disease
2. True
3. False – Obesity is characterized by cancer formation.
4. False – In leukemia only WBC increases in number.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Type 1 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. True
9. False – Nicotine is a stimulant.
10. False – Cirrhosis is associated with liver disorder.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. IDDM – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
2. HIV – Human Immuno deficiency Virus
3. BMI – Body Mass Index
4. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficieny Syndrome
5. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
6. NIDDM – Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of ……….
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is ………..
3. Blood cancer is called ………..
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called ………..
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in ……….. diabetes mellitus.

Answer:

1. alcohol
2. nicotine
3. Leukaemia
4. Drug tolerance
5. Type 2

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable: ………..
2. Chemotherapy: Chemicals: Radiation therapy: …………
3. Hypertension: Hypercholesterolomia: Glycosuria: ………….

Answer:

1. Cancer
2. Radiation
3. Hyper glycemia

VII. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
Drugs which acts on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception are called psychotropic drug.

Question 2.
Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Lung cancer, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema and hypoxia are some of the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.

Question 3.
What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
Answer:
The social, behavioural, psychological, metabolic and cellular factors are the contributing factors of obesity.

Question 4.
What is adult – onset diabetes?
Answer:
In adult-onset diabetes, insulin production by the pancreas is normal and target cells do not respond to insulin.

Question 5.
What is metastasis?
Answer:
The cancerous cell migrate to distant Parts of the body affect new tissues. This process is called metastasis.

Question 6.
How does insulin deficiency occur?
Answer:
Insulin deficiency occurs by the destruction of P-cells of the pancreas and blood glucose levels are increased (hyperglycemia).

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
AIDS virus is present in urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and vaginal secretions. The virus is transmitted by the infected patient, who comes in contact with the blood of a healthy person. HIV/ AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact. It spreads through contact with body fluids or blood. HIV is generally transmitted by

• Sexual contact with an infected person.
• Use of contaminated needles or syringes.
• By the transfusion of contaminated or infected blood or blood products.
• From infected mother to her child through the placenta.

Question 2.
How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Question 4.
Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Low calorie, normal protein, vitamins and minerals, restricted carbohydrate Mid fat, high fibre diet can prevent overweight. Calorie restriction for weight reduction is safe and most effective. A low – calorie diet accompanied by moderate exercise will be effective in causing weight loss. Meditation, Yoga and Physical activity can also reduce stress-related to overeating.

Question 5.
What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
Answer:
Diet management: Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol-rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamin are required.

Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for bodyweight maintenance.
Addictive substance avoidance: Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
Answer:
Measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic:

1. Education and Counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
2. Physical activity: Individuals undergoing Rehabilitation measures should be guided into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers: The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety of wrongdoing and get rid of the habit.
4. Medical assistance: Individuals should seek help from psychologists, and psychiatrists, to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.

Question 2.
Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Answer:
The diseases that affect the heart and the blood vessels are called cardio vascular diseases. High blood cholesterol and high blood pressure are the major reason for heart diseases.
Yes, it can be modified by the following methods.

1. By maintaining the desirable blood cholesterol (level less than 200 mg/dl).
2. By following a good good diet with include increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acid.
3. By doing physical activities like regular exercise, walking and yoga.
4. By Avoiding alcohol and smoking.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis?
Answer:
The atherosclerosis is the condition, where the arteries become narrowed and hardened, due to the build-up of plaque (fatty streak to a fibrous form) around the artery wall and leads to the narrowing of blood vessels. It leads to Ischemia (deficient blood supply to the heart muscle) and myocardial infarction (death of the heart muscle tissue) occur. This disease disrupts the flow of blood around the body, posing the risk of serious complications.

Question 2.
Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food/ consumption of soft drinks?
Answer:

1. Get them involved in Planning healthy meals shopping.
2. Make them to understand the risk factors of eating junk food.
3. Understand the importance of eating low caloric food and to avoid junk food as junk food and soft drinks have high calorie.
4. To maintain the correct BMI.

Question 3.
Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of the human body. What are the advantages of practising exercise in daily life?
Answer:
The advantages of practising exercise in daily life are as follows:

• Practising exercise daily in our life make us feel happier.
• It helps us with weight loss.
• Exercises are good for the muscles and bones.
• It can increase our energy level.
• It can reduce the risk of chronic pain and chronic diseases.
• It can keep our skin, brain, health and memory.
• Exercises can help with relaxation and quality sleep.

Question 4.
A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against the dreadful disease.
(a) What problem you face when trying to educate the people in your village near by your school?
(b) How do you overcome the problem?
Answer:
(a) Many people are ignorant and not ready to discuss about the sexually transmitted disease like AIDS.
(b) Awareness to be created on the dreadful effects of AIDS and HIV.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
Answer:
It is difficult to get rid of the habit because they feel a strong urge to keep taking a drug or alcohol are dependent. It reaches the brain through the bloodstream. The persons fully dependent on drug or alcohol and they cannot live without drugs, which we call drug dependence.

Question 2.
Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
Answer:
Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. This causes O₂ deficiency in the blood.

Question 3.
Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
Answer:
The foods that are to be avoided in the diet of a diabetic patient, are all processed grains, french fries, packaged snacks high in salt and carbohydrates, white bread and white flour. Foods that are to be included in the diet of diabetic patients are Brown rice, whole wheat bread, whole-grain cereal, oatmeal, millet and vegetables.

Question 4.
How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
Answer:
Creating awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS. Persons with HIV/AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: All drugs act on the brain.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answers:

Question 1.
Which is cancerous tumour?
(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Lymphoma
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Malignant tumour

Question 2.
The elevated blood glucose level is termed as ______.
(a) Glycosuria
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Hypoxia.
Answer:
(b) Hyperglycemia

Question 3.
Treatment of cancer is:
(a) Surgery
(b) Radiation
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
The fatty streak, plaque leads to the narrowing of blood vessels lead to ______.
(a) Ischemia
(b) Psychotherapy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Atherosclerosis.
Answer:
(d) Atherosclerosis.

Question 5.
The best diagnosis of cancer is done by:
(a) Biopsy
(b) X-ray
(c) Microscopic examination by body fluids
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(a) Biopsy

Question 6.
Tobacco chewing results in:
(a) Mouth cancer
(b) Lung cancer
(c) Bone cancer
(d) Leukaemia
Answer:
(a) Mouth cancer

Question 7.
Addicion of tobacco is due to:
(a) Histamine
(b) Nicotine
(c) Cocaine
(d) Caffeine
Answer:
(b) Nicotine

Question 8.
A factor responsible for cirhosis of liver is:
(a) vitamins
(b) fats and oils
(c) alcoholism
(d) sugar
Answer:
(c) alcoholism

Question 9.
Which is related to tobacco addiction?
(a) Gastric and duadenal ulcers
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
Aizheimers disease affects:
(a) childhood
(b) adolescent
(c) young people
(d) elderly people
Answer:
(d) elderly people

Question 11.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) (3-Lymphocytes
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes
(d) Thrombocyte
Answer:
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes

Question 12.
ELISA test is used for detection of:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Viral diseases
(c) AIDS
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) AIDS

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. Insulin administration is necessary for Type-2 diabetes.
2. Hypoxin is decrease of oxygen in body tissue.
3. International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 5th.

Answer:

1. False – Insulin administration is necessary for Type-1 diabetes.
2. True
3. False – International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 26,h

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. POCSO – Protection Of Children from Sexual Offences
2. WHO – World Health Organisation
3. CVD – Cardio Vascular Disease
4. ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbert Assay
5. NC PCR – National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
6. LDL – Low Density Lipo protein

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Child helpline number is …………
2. Psychotropic drugs are also called as ………..
3. ……….. is powdered tobacco taken through nose.
4. Body Mass Index = …………
5. ………. seed contains Insoluble fibre.
6. Desirable level for blood cholesterol is ………..
7. The study of cancer is called ………….
8. World Aids Day is observed on ………….
9. The condition of suppressing the body’s defence mechanism is …………
Answer:
1. 1098
2. mood altering drug
3. Sniffing
4.
5. Flax seed
6. Less than 200 mg/dl
7. Concology
8. December 1st
9. AIDS

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Sarcome: Skin cancer :: Leukaemia ………
2. Diabetes: Increase in blood glucose :: Obesity : ……….

Answer:

1. Blood Pressure
2. Increase in body weight

VII. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name some of the risk factors for illness and early death.
Answer:
Smoking cigarettes, Alcohol addiction, use of drugs, eating high fat and cholesterol-rich diets, excessive intake of Junk foods and reduced physical activity are some of the risk factors for illness and early death.

Question 2.
What is neoplasm?
Answer:
The uncontrolled proliferation of cells results in clones are called neoplasm or tumour.

Question 3.
Why sharing of injection needles between two individuals is not recommended?
Answer:
Because it may transmit certain pathogens like HIV, Hepatitis B.

Question 4.
What does child helpline provides?
Answer:
The child helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection.

Question 5.
Define physical abuse.
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child.

Question 6.
Who is a drug addict?
Answer:
A person who is habituated to a drug due to its prolonged use is called drug addict.

Question 7.
What are addictive drug?
Answer:
A drug that modifies the physical, biological, psychological or social behaviour of a person by stimulating, depressing or disturbing the functions of the body and the mind is called addictive drug,

Question 8.
How does sexually abused children behave?
Answer:
Sexually abused children show symptoms of genital injury, abdominal pain, frequent urinary infection and behavioural problems.

Question 9.
What are the symptoms of heart diseases?
Answer:
Shortness of breath, headache, tiredness, dizziness, chest pain, swelling of leg and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Question 10.
What is Glycosuria?
Answer:
Excessive glucose excreted in urine is called Glycosuria.

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of POCSO?
Answer:
Objectives of the POCSO Act, 2012.
(i) To protect children from the offences of

1. Sexual assault
2. Sexual harassment
3. Pornography

(ii) To establish Special Courts for speedy trial of such offences.

Question 2.
How is psychotheraphy given to drug de addictive?
Answer:
Psychotherapy : Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors. The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.

Question 3.
What is physical abuse? What does child abuse constitute?
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as the threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child. Child abuse constitutes all forms of physical or emotional ill – treatment, sexual abuse, exploitation resulting in child’s ill health, survival and development.

Question 4.
How can we prevent smoking?
Answer:
Knowing the dangers of smoking and chewing tobacco adolescents and the old people need to avoid these habits. Proper counselling and medical assistance can help an addict to give up the habit of smoking.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of Alcohol?
Answer:

• Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance.
• Nerve cell damage, causing mental or physical disturbances.
• Lack of Co-ordination of body organs.
• Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
• Dilation of blood vessels, which affect the functioning of the heart.
• Liver damage, resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
• Body loses its control and consciousness leading to health complications.

Question 6.
How can we control and prevent diabetes?
Answer:
Diet, hypoglycemic drugs, insulin injection and exercise are the management options based on the type and severity of the condition. The overall goal of diabetes management is to maintain normal blood glucose level.

Question 7.
Explain the Carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer-causing agents are called Carcinogenic agents or Carcinogens. They are:

• Physical Irritant: Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of the oral cavity, pharynx and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.
• Chemical agents: Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweeteners induce cancer.
• Radiations: Ionizing radiations like X – rays, gamma – rays, radioactive substances and non – ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.
• Biological agents: Cancer-causing virus are called oncogenic viruses.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List out the behavioural changes of drug user.
Answer:
Adverse effects of drug use among adolescents are:

1. Drop in academic performance, absence from school or college.
2. Lack of interest in personal hygiene,isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
3. Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
4. Change in food and sleeping habits.
5. Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
6. Always looking out for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
7. Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis-B.

Question 2.
Explain the following:
(a) Drug Dependence
(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users
(c) Drug De – addiction
Answer:
(a) Drug Dependence: Persons who consume psychotropic drugs become fully dependent on them, they cannot live without drugs. This condition is referred to as Drug Dependence. The dependence maybe

• Physical and mental dependence: Dependence on the drug for normal condition of well being and to maintain physiological state.
• Psychological dependence is a feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.

(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users:

• Drop-in Academic performance, absence from school or college.
• Lack of interest in personal hygiene, isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
• Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
• Change in food and sleeping habits.
• Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
• Always looking for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
• Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis – B.

(c) Drug De-addiction:

• Detoxification: The drug is stopped gradually and the addict is helped to overcome the withdrawal symptoms. The addict undergoes severe physical and emotional disturbance. This is taken care of by specific medication.
• Psychotherapy: Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors.
  The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.
• Counselling to family members: Social workers counsel family members in order to change the attitude of rejection. So that the addict is accepted by the family and society.
• Rehabilitation: They are given proper vocational training so that they can lead a healthy life and become useful members of society.

Question 3.
What are Carcinogen? Write a note on carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer causing agents are called carcinogens. They are physical, chemical agents, ionizing radiations and biological agents.
Physical Irritant : Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of oral cavity, pharynx (throat) and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.

Chemical agents : Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweetners induce cancer.

Radiations : Ionizing radiations like X-rays, gamma-rays, radioactive substances and non-ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.

Biological agents : Cancer causing viruses are called oncogenic viruses.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Ram participated in a group discussion on the topic ill effects of tobacco on human health
(a) List any two ill effects of tobacco.
(b) Suggest any two measures on anti-tobacco awareness.
Answer:
(a) Pulmonary tuberculosis and emphysema are caused by tobacco.
(b) Proper Counselling and medical assistance help to give up the habit.

Question 2.
Which diagnosis is essential for confirming diabetes?
Answer:
If the fasting blood glucose is greater than 140 mg/dl or the random blood glucose is greater than 200 mg/ml, on more than two occasions, confirms diabetes.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Adolescence is a vulnerable phase of mental and physiological development in an individual. They are more to addiction at this age.
(a) Give two reasons for addiction in adolescence.
(b) Mention two preventive measures.
Answer:
(a) Peer Pressure and mood swing
(b) Creating awareness and proper counselling

Question 2.
A person is your locality has been diagnosed with AIDS people in your locality want him to leave the colony for the fear of spread of AIDS.
(a) List the way AIDS virus be transmitted.
(b) Give two suggestion to prevent it.
Answer:
(a) AIDS transmitted by sexual contact with infected person or by infected blood transfusion.
(b) Advocating safe sex screening of blood from blood banks for HIV before transfusion.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning;

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given fust below if. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is not desirable.
Reason (R): Alcohol causes physical and mental defects in the offspring.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): All types of cancer results in tumours.
Reason (R): Cancer is easily treatable with anti biotic.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Cancer is a contagious disease.
Reason (R): It is transmitted from a patient to a healthy person by casual contact.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

1. 21%
2. Then Pennai
3. second
4. Chennai
5. balance of trade

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
3. Large mechanised boats are used.
4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
2. From the major source of regular diet.
3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water:

1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
4. Not reliable
5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
4. Reliable sources of water.
5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
   Tiruvallur – 1049
   Kancheepuram – 927
   Madurai – 823
   Coimbatore – 748
   Cuddalore – 702
   Thanjavur – 691
   Nagapattinam – 668
   Salem – 663
   Vellore – 646
   Tiruchirappalli – 602
   These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Road ways:

1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.

(c) Dams:

(d) Seaports and airports:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

1. human beings
2. Agriculture
3. North-East monsoon
4. Navarai
5. 2023
6. Aavin
7. goat rearing
8. off-shore fishing
9. little – Brindavan
10. Ottanchatram
11. 900
12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
13. Industries
14. Ramanathapuram
15. Vellore
16. 37
17. Kagithapuram
18. Temple Jewellery
19. mats
20. Tamil Nadu
21. 35%
22. handloom sector
23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
24. Population
25. Moderate
26. The Nilgiri
27. Sex – Ration
28. Port
29. Madurai to Nattham
30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
31. Chief Minister
32. reduction of risks
33. Ore
34. Literates
35. Reservoirs
36. Demography
37. Demographers
38. Over population
39. Sheep
40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.
Answer:
Farming Type:

1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
2. Plantation agriculture
3. Mixed farming

Regions:

1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

• Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
• Cotton thrives well in black soil.
• It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
• It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
3. It promotes export earnings.
4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

1. A tradition industry.
2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Mostly food crops are grown.
2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
2. Local currency is involved.
3. Improves the internal economy.
4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
2. It may be natural or artificial.
3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
2. It is man made feature.
3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

1. Communication is only between two persons.
2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.

VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:
Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

• Accident
• Negligence or
• Incompetence
• Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

• Overheating
• Aging of materials
• Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

• Explosions
• Leaking of poisonous gases
• Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

• Creating awareness
• Promoting organic fertilizers
• Training
• Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

• agro-waste compost production units.
• bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
• development and implementation of quality control regime.
• human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:
The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.