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Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 5

February 11, 2025

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The place was a bedlam for birds.
(a) pandemonium
(b) peace
(c) serenity
(d) transition
Answer:
(a) pandemonium

Question 2.
He enlightened them with bon-mots.
(a) repartee
(b) wit
(c) challenges
(d) goodies
Answer:
(b) wit

Question 3.
Words of praise and adulation were showered on the debut artist.
(a) blasphemy
(b) condemnation
(c) aversion
(d) exaltation
Answer:
(d) exaltation

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The princely sum was a stumbling block for her career.
(a) generous
(b) substantial
(c) prime
(d) meagre
Answer:
(d) meagre

Question 5.
Retaining my world cup was one of my greatest achievements.
(a) holding
(b) rescuing
(c) losing
(d) reviving
Answer:
(c) losing

Question 6.
I was so relieved to get my transfer order.
(a) delighted
(b) worried
(c) pleased
(d) comforted
Answer:
(b) worried

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of, “telecast”.
(a) television + broad cast
(b) television + cast
(c) tele + broad cast
(d) tele + cast
Answer:
(a) television + broad cast

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “choreography”.
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements
(b) The process of giving some of your work, duties, or responsibilities to a less senior person or a less powerful person
(c) A student of bees
(d) One who accumulates; one who collects
Answer:
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘At the drop of a hat’.
(a) To hear rumours about someone
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Leo was disappointed, but his losing the election for class president was a fait accompli.
(a) faithful friend
(b) established fact
(c) accomplished scholar
(d) standard issue
Answer:
(b) established fact

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “child”.
(a) person
(b) hood
(c) bed
(d) call
Answer:
(b) hood

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “taken”.
(a) un
(b) mis
(c) dis
(d) en
Answer:
(b) mis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “IIM”.
(a) Indian Institute of Minorities
(b) Indian Institute of Managers
(c) Indian Institute of Marine
(d) Indian Institute of Management
Answer:
(d) Indian Institute of Management

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He loves his profession.
(a) SVO
(b) SVOC
(c) SVOA
(d) SVC
Answer:
(a) SVO

Question 15.
A collection of selected literary passages is known as ………….
(a) Phenomenology
(b) Anthology
(c) Phrenology
(d) Homology
Answer:
(b) Anthology

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Many people travel to Kerala to work ………… small companies.
(a) in
(b) under
(c) on
(d) with
Answer:
(a) in

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Priyanka dances well,………?
(a) isn’t she
(b) doesn’t she
(c) won’t she
(d) will she
Answer:
(b) doesn’t she

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The shoes looked like they had been stolen.
(a) theft
(b) lost
(c) damaged
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck
Answer:
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Your statement will not stand up as proof in the court of law.
(a) oppose
(b) accept
(c) deny
(d) support
Answer:
(d) support

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
Tell me the name of the student ………….. you want to meet.
(a) whom
(b) which
(c) that
(d) whose
Answer:
(a) whom

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces Like dresses – home face”
(а) What has the poet learned?
(b) Mention the figure of speech employed in this line.
Answer:
(a) The poet has learned to put on appearances to conform to the changed attitude of people in modem times.
(b) Simile

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity.”
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending.
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) Who does we refer to?’
(b) What has life never experienced?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to ordinary people who live noble lives.
(b) The life of ordinary people who have not experienced kneeling or bending before the mighty. They are able to stand firm on defending the truth.

Question 24.
“Infusing him with self and vain conceit,
As if this flesh which walls about our life”
(a) Who has vain conceit?
(b) Explain the above lines.
Answer:
(a) The king has vain conceit.
(b) Death knows that all great kings must come to him. For a brief time death is generous and allows kings to rule and to be feared by their subjects. Death allows them to feel conceited and proud with an inflated image of ‘self’.

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the joy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“This one the prize ring hates to enter
That one becomes a tackle or center,”’
(a) What game/sports is associated with “prize ring”?
(b) Which game is discussed in the second line?
Answer:
(a) Prize ring is associated with boxing.
(b) Football is discussed in the second line.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Tara: I went to Hyderabad to attend a seminar on environmental pollution.
Harsha: I am going to the library. Are you coming with me?
Answer:
Tara asked Harsha where he was going then. Harsha replied that he was going to the library and asked if I were coming with him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
Answer:
Alas! Her voice shall not be heard by his friends anymore.
Alas! His friends will not hear her voice anymore.

Question 29.
I did not know that you are going to visit us. I would have come to the airport. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I had known that you were going to visit us, I would have come to the airport.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a compound sentence)
Besides being a good writer he is an outstanding lecturer.
Answer:
He is not only a good writer but also an outstanding lecturer.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Once upon a time, son
They used to laugh with their eyes:
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words to his son while discussing his own happy childhood days.

Explanation: The poet compares the behaviour of people in the past and those in modern . times. He tells his son that people in the past used to laugh with their eyes. There was an expression of genuine warmth among people when they laughed.

Question 32.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes, who adhere to their ethical principles in life.

Explanation: They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and bless and appreciate them.

Question 33.
Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: King Richard II says these words while waiting for death. He is totally dejected.

Explanation: King Richard II thinks of words which could figure in the epitaph (i.e.) on his tomb stone. Being sure of death in the hands of Bolingbroke he requests his loyal courtiers to talk about death and about burial.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty handed.

Question 35.
What made people wonder about the absentmindedness of their fellow-beings?
Answer:
The publication of articles lost by train travellers astonished many readers. Old people did not forget much. In fact, young men have forgotten bats and balls on their return from matches.

Question 36.
Enumerate the values instilled in the students by the Universities.
Answer:
Universities instill the values of robust optimism, respect for democracy and appreciation of others’ point of view. It also develops adjustment of differences through discussion; develop patience, perseverance, confidence, faith in themselves and others. They also instill confidence in their ability to shoulder responsibilities.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

you/where/have/this/all/while/been?
this/we/visiting/Shimla/are/summer.
the/all/of/art/the/of/science/questions/is/and/knowledge/asking/source/

Answer:

Where have you been all this while?
We are visiting Shimla this summer.
The art and science of asking questions is the source of all knowledge!

Question 38.
Describe the process of Book-binding.
Answer:

Firstly, the pages are carefully arranged page wise. Any folding found is removed.
They are then arranged into sections and stitched.
The sides of the book are cut neatly and covered with a suitable brown paper.
Two card board sheets slightly bigger than the book must be pasted on both sides.
A calico cloth should be pasted on the closed side of the book to hold the cardboards and be allowed to dry.

Question 39.
Expand the news headlines in a sentence each.
(a) Suman Rao selected the new Miss India.
(b) 12 Injured as Buses Collide.
(c) Indian Team on the high in T20s in England.
Answer:
(a) 20-year old Miss Rajasthan 2019, Suman Rao, was awarded the most covetous crown Miss India at the finals held at Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium, Mumbai.

(b) Due to poor visibility of street lights and negligence of the State Transport Drivers two buses collided on the narrow stretch of Nammakal district near Ambedkar statue. 12 passengers including a six month old baby boy were rushed to the nearby Government hospital for treatment.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(а) The harder you ………… the luckier you get. (throw, work, try)
(b) There is no time like the ……….. (present, future, past)
(c) ……….. and tide wait for no man. (Wind, Sea, Time)
Answer:
(a) work
(b) present
(c) Time

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

As a narrator, make a diary entry about the tight corner you faced at Christie’s and how you were saved from the dire situation.
Answer:
Thursday, 17th Nov. 20xx
I was lunching at a club in King James’s street. While passing along Kingstreet later, my friend suggested that we peeped in at Christie’s where an auction of Barbizon pictures was going on. The pieces of the paintings were pertaining to forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses, and the regular subjects were tremendous for each ranging from two to three thousand guineas each. The remarkable thing was that nothing was sold at three figures.

After watching the auction for fun for a while I found myself bidding. I had exactly sixty three pounds in my account in the bank. I knew that any bidder must have a minimum of five hundred pounds in the bank to stand as security to bid for the artistic works. I enthusiastically participated in many bids as the starting price for each painting was a modest fifty to hundred guineas. Things went on well for me for quite sometime. But a cruel fate awaited me. A short red-faced man electrified the room by fixing the starting price at 4000 guineas. There was a rustle of excitement followed by terrible silence. But I found myself saying “and fifty”.

The dealer looked at the opener and at the company. To my surprise and horror, the dealer shot his bolt. My heart stopped and my blood congealed. I was in possession of the picture I did not want to buy. I was the top purchaser in the auction with just 63 pounds in the bank account. I turned to my friend for some moral support but he had deserted me to have a hearty laugh at a distance. With great alarm, I saw many other Barbizon pictures being put up and sold.

The auction came to an end. The bidders stood in a queue to pay the price and collect the pictures. I stayed behind at the end of the queue as I could not recall the name of any uncle, aunt or even a relative who could offer me 4050 guineas to buy the painting. I wished that a firing squad could give me a welcome relief by shooting me down. I preferred death to public disgrace.

But something divine turned my tragedy into a comedy. Just then one gentleman enquired if I was the gentlemen who bought “big Daubigny”. I admitted. The mediator asked if I could take 50 guineas for my interest and give up my claim. I would have hugged him and wept for joy of relief from the tight comer. But I had the guile/presence of mind to ask, “Is that the most he would offer?”

The mediator said that there was no harm in trying for a bit more. I said, “Tell him I will take hundred” myself and my friend started laughing. But when I saw the cheque for hundred guineas, I became grave. My friend said to me that it was he who brought me to Christie. I admitted, “I shall never forget it. It is indelibly branded in letters of fire on my heart”.

Question 42.
Describe the various reasons for King Richard’s grief and distress.
Answer:
King Richard II is a popular king. He has many nobles at the service. His rebellious cousin Bolingbroke attacks him with 10,000 men on his side. He sends message to the Welsh King for sending his army to defeat Bolingbroke. But to his shock, Welsh army is not sent. He realizes with alarm the terrible fate he would suffer in the hands of his foe and his most impending death in captivity. King Richard is reminded of the power of death that overshadows everything else. Death scoffs at the power of rulers.

Losing the battle, non¬receipt of Welsh army and the prospect of being jailed and killed worries Richard II. He realizes that in the hollow crown death had reigned him. In fact, death, a jester had misled him to believe that he was monarchising England. He can now only own a small patch of barren land. He is not an impregnable castle of brass anymore. He is an ordinary mortal. He too needs friends and needs to taste grief and face death.

[OR]

The poem ’Everest is not the only peak’ does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it.

For him the means is more important than the end. However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
“After Twenty Years,” – time – 10 o’clock at night, – depeopled the streets – Only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” Jakes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware-store.- This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a.man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive.

They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come. The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store.

The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong. What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday.

He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself. The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods.

By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. BhabhaI India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3, 1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Spyuz II spaceship.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 199
No. of words to be written in the summary: 199/3 = 66 ± 5

Rough Draft
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in inteIligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. By the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian efforts. We have to sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft
Greatness of India
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc. After Independence by the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. Atomic Energy Commission was established under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No. of words in the summary: 64

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Greatness of India
Answer:
1. Greatness of the country
people
our country men are second to none
from the ancient times Indians excelled in arts, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc.

2. Post Independence
government took steps to improve in all spheres
the first five-year plan was designed
Green Revolution attained self sufficiency

3. Present age
atomic age
India made the first nuclear explosion in 1974
sixth member of the world nuclear club
India sent cosmonaut, Shri Rakesh Sharma to space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Question 45.
You are Anita. You recently visited a hill station along with your parents. It was an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience. Write a letter to your friend sharing your experience in 150-200 words.
Answer:

25th June, 2020

From
Anitha
6, West street,
Chennai
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

Dear Mercy,
Hope my letter finds you in the best of your health. Have you been to your grandparents house for vacation? I had recently gone to Matheran with my parents and really missed you. Matheran is the smallest hill station in the Indian state of Maharashtra and is located on the Western Ghats range at an elevation of around 800 m above sea level. It is about 90 km from Mumbai. Matheran’s proximity to many metropolitan cities makes it a popular weekend getaway for urban residents. Matheran, which means “forest on the forehead” is an eco-sensitive region declared by the Government of India.

It is Asia’s only automobile-free hill station. Doesn’t that spark an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience? Yes, from the foothills of the mountain, you either need to walk up the mountain to lodges and cottages there for your accommodation or need to hire Cycle rickshaws or ponies to travel. We all took a horse each and my little brother got on to a pony. Our baggage was loaded on to a wheel barrow to be brought up to our destination.

There are around 38 designated viewpoints in Matheran, including the Panorama Point that provides a 360-degree view of the surrounding area and also the Neral town. From this point, the view of sunset and sunrise is dramatic. The Louisa Point offers crystal clear view of the Prabal Fort. The other points are the One Tree Hill Point, Heart Point, Monkey Point, Porcupine Point, Rambagh Point, and more. We stayed in a Parsi bungalow. Beautiful old British-style architecture is preserved in Matheran. The roads are not metalled and are made of red laterite earth. As anticipated, there are many monkeys around and even the summer season was very pleasant.

I hope to visit the place again and I hope we will get an opportunity to visit it together. Why don’t you ask your parents if both our families could go to Matheran during our next vacation? My parents too were talking about going there again since it’s such a pollution free spot to relax and enjoy. Looking forward to meeting you in person to share the photographs we have taken here.

Yours loving friend,
Anita
Address on the Envelope
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Punctuality’
Answer:
Punctuality is essential to succeed in one’s career. In business schools, Time management is also taught. Those who are punctual prove that they respect the time of those whom they visit. Those who have missed interviews, flights, Olympic golds and even the opportunity to win goes by milliseconds know the value of time. We should cultivate the quality of being punctual right from our student days. Maintaining a calendar of action and keeping track of time all the time would help one to be punctual. God gives twenty four hours to each one of us, if we are punctual and make most of the given time we would definitely succeed in life.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) There is an University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident on his success.
(c) Though he is old but he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior than me.
(e) His father is a honest man.
Answer:
(a) There is a University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident of his success.
(c) Though he is old he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior to me.
(e) His father is an honest man.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The story told by the ……….. fat man is not ………… (credible/credulous)
(6) My keys ……….. be in the car. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) This watch …………. belong to my father, (use semi-modal)
(d) The strike was announced ………… the disagreement between the management and the employees on the bonus issue. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) credulous, credible
(b) must
(c) used to
(d) on account of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) Robots are steadily moving from fiction to fact.
(b) Examination should evaluate all aspects of learning.
(c) Indian players have performed well in the Commonwealth Games.
(d) Napoleon Bonaparte was considered an enlightened monarch of France.
(e) “Health is Wealth” but pollution takes it all away.
(Sports, Environment, History, Science, Education)
Answer:
(a) Science
(b) Education
(c) Sports
(d) History
(e) Environment

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

I have always been attracted by people of unusual habits. By this, I do not imply hippies and drop-outs or anyone of that band of unhappy people for whom modem society is too sick and uncivilized to bear. No, I mean those quiet, orderly people, living apparently blameless lives, who enrich their har humdrum existences by adopting odd quirks and passions, unlikely, routines or harmless manias for useless objects. Like the secretary I had, who collected earwigs, though what she did with them I never knew, I believe that she loved them because they were small and thin like herself and had a way of scuttling about in very much the same way she did. Life, I am sure, would be very much poorer without such people in it. Sometimes, I feel I am lacking in personality, since I have none of these strange habits.. Unless you count the fact that I never eat eggs unless they are boiled in milk.
Questions.

What attracted the author?
According to the author, who are the people who have unusual habits?
What did the author’s secretary collect?
Why did she love them, according to the author?
Do you think that the author has any strange habit? If so, what is it?

Answer:

Unusual habits of others attracted the author.
Quite orderly people living blameless lives have unusual habits.
The author’s secretary collected ‘earwigs’.
They were small and thin like herself scuttling about.
Yes, he has a habit of eating eggs which are only boiled in milk.

Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3

February 11, 2025

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions, [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
I pulled myself together and handed over the card nonchalantly.
(a) indifferently
(b) carefully
(c) cautiously
(d) sentimentally
Answer:
(a) indifferently

Question 2.
The incident is clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) imprinted
(d) refrained
Answer:
(c) imprinted

Question 3.
The libraries are a repository of knowledge.
{a) refractory
(b) refrigerator
(c) storeroom
(d) management
Answer:
(c) storeroom

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
It is important that even the mediocre are given due recognition.
(a) middling
(b) ordinary
(c) exceptional
(d) middleman
Answer:
(c) exceptional

Question 5.
I managed to solve the complex problem.
(a) intricate
(b) compound
(c) simple
(d) complicated
Answer:
(c) simple

Question 6.
It is compulsory to donate one day salary for the flood victims.
(a) obligation
(b) optional
(c) obeisance
(d) obstruction
Answer:
(b) optional

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “hazardous and material”.
(a) hazardmat
(b) hazat
(c) hazmat
(d) mathaz
Answer:
(c) hazmat

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “etymology”.
(a) A person perceived to be either uncivilized or primitive
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word
(c) The hutnanistic study of language and literature
(d) The belief that all events in life are predetermined and inevitable
Answer:
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘A penny for your thoughts’.
(a) Current issues spoken by many people
(b) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(c) Everything about the case
(d) Asking what someone is thinking
Answer:
(d) Asking what someone is thinking

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Our daughter is going to turn 5 next year, so we’ve been trying to find a good kindergarten for her.
(a) preschool
(b) children’s garden
(c) school material
(d) play school
Answer:
(b) children’s garden

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “while”.
(a) mean
(b) teach
(c) scene
(d) weather
Answer:
(a) mean

Question 12.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “qualified”.
(a) sur
(b) dis
(c) in
(d) mis
Answer:
(b) dis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FTCL”.
(a) Fellow Tribal Colleges of Linguistics
(b) Federal Trinity College of Libya
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London
(d) Feminine Travellers Chambers of Ladies
Answer:
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London

Question 14.
Use for dramatic works involving the downfall or destruction of the protagonist due to character flaws, catastrophe, or reversal of fortune.
(a) Comedy
(b) Monologue
(c) Tragedy
(d) Historical Plays
Answer:
(c) Tragedy

Question 15.
A passion for writing is known as ………..
(a) Animator
(b) Graphomania
(c) Sonettomania
(d) Eulogomania
Answer:
(b) Graphomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Latha laughed till the tears ran ……… her cheeks.
(a) down
(b) with
(c) on
(d) in
Answer:
(a) down

Question 17.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
Reading made him a complete man.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOC

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Excuse me, driver. My mother needs use the toilet urgently.
(a) comfort stop
(b) nature calls
(c) rest room
(d) powder room
Answer:
(a) comfort stop

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
I don’t know where my book is. I have to look for it.
(a) retrieve
(b) look
(c) search
(d) find
Answer:
(c) search

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
They finally found the murderer, ………. was hiding in a small town.
(a) where
(b) which
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“And I have learned too
To laugh with only my teeth
And shake hands without my heart”
(a) Explain ‘To laugh with only my teeth’.
(b) Why is he shaking hands without heart?
Answer:
(a) Laughing with only teeth means laughing without genuine emotions of love, warmth and friendliness. It is fake.
(b) The heart is a symbol of genuine emotions. The poet recalls the time when people used to smile and shake hands with their hearts. Now, things have become different.

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.”
(a) What is the poet’s mission in life?
(b) Explain the last line.
Answer:
(a) The poet’s mission is to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.
(b) The poet claims that simple people like farmers, teachers and other noble professionals nourish those who nourish the world.

Question 24.
“As if this flesh which walls about our life
Were brass impregnable and, humour’d thus”
(а) What does the king realize?
(b) Explain the phrase ‘brass impregnable’.
Answer:
(a) The king realises that his mortal body also will come to an end like others.
(b) ‘Brass impregnable’ means someone that is unconquerable.

Question 25.
“I heard a thousand blended notes While in a grove I sate reclined,”
(a) What do you mean by‘blended notes’?
(b) What was the poet doing there?
Answer:
(a) The blended notes mean the combined music of birds which cohabit in the grove.
(b) The poet was relaxed and was listening to the music of the birds.

Question 26.
“My limp and bashful spirit feeds On other people’s heroic deeds”
(a) What does the poet say about his own temperament?
(b) How does the poet feed his love for games?
Answer:
(a) The poet agrees that he is weak, shy and reluctant.
(b) He derives vicarious pleasure watching others play heroically on the sports field.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Shilo : How are you Cathy? Please check mail regarding your travel arrangements to Muscat.
Cathy : Could you please send it again since I haven’t received any mail from you.
Answer:
Shilo asked Cathy how she was and to check mail regarding her travel arrangements to Muscat. Cathy requested Shilo to send it again as she hasn’t received any mail from him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
The work can be done by Shanthini.
Answer:
Shanthini can do the work.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If we’d bought that property, we would have been rich by now.
Answer:
Had we bought that property, we would have been rich by now.

Question 30.
The firefighters made several attempts. They could not save the drowning cub. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of making several attempts, the firefighters could not save the drowning cub.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They do not ever in their dealings
Consider one another’s feelings…
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: The poet says these words, while highlighting the callous indifference of players to the pain and injuries of fellow players.

Explanation: Every player considers the player in the opposite team as a deadly rival. He looks for an opportunity. We do find hockey players hitting good players on the ankle with the stick to prevent them from playing great shots. Bowlers try to hit the body of batsman with the ball. They don’t seem to notice cracking wrists and snapping knees as their focus is only on victory and glory. In short, the players do not have feelings for the fellow players.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play ’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines’Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet was quite impressed with the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation: The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair:
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat, written by T.S., Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the criminal activities and how he eludes the detection by Scotland Yard Police.

Explanation: Scotland Yard Police is known world over for quick disposal of criminal cases. But Macavity is such a criminal that the Scotland Yard policemen are unable to produce evidence to arrest him. So, they are baffled. The flying squad is unable to pursue him soon after the crime is committed. So, they are desperate to nab him.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: {2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What does the author mean when he says the letter in his pocket leads an unadventurous life?
Answer:
The poet forgets the letters kept in his pocket. Whenever the friend enquires about the unposted letters, it embarrasses him. then he is forced to produce the evidence of his guilt (i.e.,) the unposted letters. This awkward humiliation is said to be unadventurous.

Question 35.
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question 36.
Why did the author’s concern over tobacco shift to his finger?
Answer:
When the author saw the racing tobacco box disgorging its content, he worried about the need to buy expensive tobacco in England. But when he saw his own bleeding finger that he had gashed while forcefully opening the jammed zip, he shifted his cry to his finger.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:
The factors which affect health are given percentage-wise in the pie-chart.
Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3 1
Questions

What percent of diseases are caused due to pollution?
Fifty one percent of illnesses are caused by what factors?
What is the least percent of health affected by?

Answer:

Nineteen percent of diseases are caused due to pollution.
Fifty one percent of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress and diet.
Lack of medical facilities.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between bank manager and a student who wants to open a bank account.
Answer:
Vanin : Sir, I want to open a savings account.
Bank Manager : Have you brought your aadhar card and two copies of photograph?
Varun : Yes, sir.
Bank Manager : Fill in this application and the challan and pay the initial amount in the 3rd counter.
Varun : Sir, the pass book.
Bank Manager : You can collect it tomorrow evening.
Varun : Thank you sir.

Question 39.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:
Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your campsite.
Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
Lay out the poles and assemble them.
Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
Pull the tent upright.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

Don’t blow your own ……….. (horn, trumpet, whistle)
Early ………. catches the worm, (man, hen, bird)
Empty bags cannot ………. upright, (stand, sit, lie)

Answer:

trumpet
bird
stand

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing”?
Answer:
After Mary Korn’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary.

There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Korn’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media has rightly christened her, “Queen of Boxing”.

[OR]

Bill Bryson “ached to be suave”. Was he, successful in his mission? If not what are the reasons.
Answer:
Bill Bryson expresses his genuine desire to be “suave”. He would love just once in his life time to rise from the dinner table as if he had not experienced an “extremely localized seismic event, get into a car without leaving 14 inch coat outride, wear light-coloured trousers without ever discovering at the end of the day that he had at various times and places sat on chewing gum, ice-cream cough syrup and motor oil. No, Bill Bryson was not successful in his mission.

Twice he spilled his drinks on a sweet nun who happened to sit next to him. He tried to show off his wisdom to another attractive lady. As usual, he was sucking his pep. His shirt, teeth and gum carried the unscrubbable navy blue stain for many days. He always did “liquid mischief’. His clumsy behaviour in the aeroplane made the saintly nun use abusive language. To avoid unsuave ways, he gave up air-travel with his family members. His wife and children supported him yet failed to refine his manners.

Question 42.
How is it true that Macavity is indeed a mystery cat?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He is called a “Hidden paw“ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make the fakir stare with wonder.

Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So, the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”. When he appears to be half-asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone. Macavity is indeed a mystery.

[OR]

Trace the confessions of a born Spectator as listed out by Ogden Nash.
Answer:
This poem is about a bom spectator who confesses about his views on Sports and sportsmen. He says that they injure each other as they prance and feel happy on others heroic deeds. His limp and bashful spirit feeds on the heroism of other players. He has seen zealous athletes playing so rough that they never consider the feelings of fellow players. He watches with a palpitating heart when ‘A’ runs ninety yards to bag a medal. He watches with obvious alarm when ‘B’ knocks another boxer down cracking his vertebrae and spines.

They.are insensitive to the cracking wrist and snapping knees of fellow players. When his ego and prudence clashed, ego told him to seek glory in sports, but his prudence always ignored it. Thus common sense prevailed, he remained a cheerful life-time fan of successful athletes. He was contented as a spectator of all kinds of games and sports and world famous athletes. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints
“After Twenty Years,” – time -10 o’clock at night – depeopled the streets – only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” takes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware store. This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive. They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come.

The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store. The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Philip – travels – train – Brill Manor – meets Bertie – second son – left purse – four quids – needs money – requests Philip to lend him – two pounds -did not help – true . son – mistaken for a fraud.
Answer:
The young man who entered the coach gave out a smothered curse, he was engaged in searching something elusive angrily and uselessly. From time to time, he dug a six penny bit out of a waist coat pocket and stared at it sadly, then resumed his search. He voluntarily broke the silence. He exclaimed that Mr. Sletherby was going to Bill Manor. He introduced himself as Bertie, the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. He admitted that he was away for about six months and had not seen his own mother.

Making use of the lucky coincidence that he was going to Brill Manor, he asked for a loan of three pounds as he had lost his sovereign purse and was desperately in need of help. He promised to meet him on the subsequent Monday. There is a dramatic irony when the son himself gives a different version of his mom’s appearance. This influences the decision of Mr. Sletherby in refusing to lend Bertie a loan of three pounds and mistaking the true son Bertie to be a fraud.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’. Standard dictionary definitions include the idea of postponement or delay. Steel, a psychologist who has reviewed hundreds of studies on the subject, states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”.

Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between people who tend to put things off and “chronic” or “real” procrastinators for whom this is their life and who might even need therapy. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: (a) stimulation types that get a thrill from beating a deadline, (b) avoiders put off doing things that might make others think badly of them, and (c) decisional procrastinators who postpone making a decision until they have enough information to avoid making a wrong choice.

Chronic procrastinators tend to have low self-esteem and focus on the past more than the future. The Discounted Expectancy Theory illustrates with a student like Sam who puts off writing a paper. When the deadline is far off, the rewards for socializing now are greater than those for finishing a task not due until later. As the deadline looms, the rewards or consequences for finishing the paper becomes more important.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators on the average got lower grades and had higher levels of stress and illness. Chu and Choi however, say that not all procrastinators are lazy and undisciplined. “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.”
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 280
No. of words to be written in the summary: 280/3 = 93 ± 5

Rough Draft
procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrasinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and have higher levels of stress. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.

Fair Draft
Procrastination
Procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators have low self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and are stressed. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and less efficient. “Active procrastinators” work under pressure and if something more urgent comes up they change their focus.

No. of words in the summary: 104

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Procrastination
Answer:
1. Intro A proctn
Origin – Latin
Meaning – Put fwd till tomorrow – Idea A postponement or delay Steel (psychologist) – voluntary delay – despite expecting to be worse-off

2. Categorⁿ
a. Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari
Stimln types – thrill 4m beating a deadline
Avoiders – avoid things // make others think badly A them
Decisional – postpone making a decsn (until enough information)
Real procs – way A life (might need therapy)
Chronic procs:
Low self esteem
Focus on past

b. Tice and Baumeister
Procs got lower grades
Higher levels A stress and illness

c. Chu and Choi
Passive procs – stressed, less efficient
Active procs – prefer to work under pressure, knowingly engage in new tasks

Conclusion: The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’.
Abbreviations: Intro – Introduction; A – of; Proctn – procrastination; Fwd – forward; Stimln – stimulation; Categorⁿ – categorization; 4m – from; // – that; decsn – decision; procs – procrastinators

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Editor of a famous daily, Dindigul about the incidents of violence taking place with the aged living alone at home, drawing the attention of authorities towards the problem.
Answer:

22nd July 2020

From
Vinitha
Railway Colony
Dindigul

To
The Editor
Daily Thanthi
Dindigul
Respected Sir,
Sub: Violence against the aged living alone at home.
I wish to draw your attention towards the security of the aged people living alone at home in Dindigul. Almost every day we find the newspapers full of such incidents. The miscreants rob the people and then murder them. Many times the servants of the house are found involved in these incidents. The aged are the gullible people and are easily made target.

I hope after publishing this letter in your esteemed newspaper, the police will take some necessaiy actions for their safety.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Vinitha
Address on the Envelope
To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Where there is a will, there is a way.’
Answer:
Where there is a will, there is a way
Where there is a will, there is a way is an old saying in English which teaches us about the most significant subject of getting success in life. Reaching a nice target becomes our maxim. However achieving a target needs strong determination and commitment. People without having will power never achieve the victory and they curse their destiny. This common saying simply means that if the person is strong-minded enough to get something done, he/ she always will find a way to do that. Fortitude is necessary to get completion in the task as it helps a person to fight with all difficulties and get success.

Without grit and will power, we generally tend to give up very easily in the initial stages as we become desperate facing small teething issues. To learn or achieve something in life, will power acts as a channel and enhances the speed of action. It needs a firm and incessant exercise to deeply learn things. We can pass the exam by reading the lessons just a night before the exam. However, we cannot be ranked first in the class, district or state without hard work for the entire year. One needs to be systematic, meticulous and focused to with a strong will power to pave way for success. So, it is good to have determination even to the smallest tasks in life and never yield to petty things easily.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He was tall and thin and has giant features.
(b) The stories he read are all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways communication.
(d) This is due the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi go to England for higher studies at the age of 19.
Answer:
(a) He was tall and thin and had giant features.
(b) The stories he read were all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways of communication.
(d) This is due to the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi went to England for higher studies at the age of 19.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) I can ………. the bell from ……… (hear/here)
(b) I ………. swim quite well when I was younger. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) She ……….. spend more time for practice, (use semi-modal)
(d) England lost their test match against India ………… over confidence and less preparation. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) hear, here
(b) could
(c) ought to
(d) due to

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) As in January 2005, the rate of inflation came down to 3%.
(b) At the international level, global warming Has increased the anxiety of many nations.
(c) A new rocket launching station is commissioned in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Your monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(e) Mr. Venkatraghavan is one of the best umpires in the world.
(Science, Computer, Sports, Commerce, Environment)
Answer:
(a) Commerce
(b) Environriient
(c) Science
(d) Computer
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Today we don’t think of a cartoon as being associated with great art, but at one time it was. During the period of Italian Renaissance, the term ‘cartoon’ meant the first sketch in actual size of a large work of art, such as a mural (wall painting). When newspapers and magazines began to use drawings to illustrate news and editorial opinion and to provide amusement, these drawings came to be known as cartoons. In the days before the newspaper, artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson made a series of drawings on a single theme. Sometimes such a series of drawings pictured and adventures of a single character. They were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips.

In the nineteen and early twentieth centuries, there were a number of magazines which specialised in cartoons. In Paris there was one called ‘Charivari’ and in London there was the famous ‘Punch’. Nowadays movies based on cartoons characters are also made. Movies featuring Tom and Jerry, Dennis the Menace, Tarzen, Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck are very popular with children.
Questions.

Identify the purposes for which cartoons were used in newspapers.
In what sense did the Italians use the term ‘cartoon’ during the Renaissance period?
Who were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips?
Name the two magazines mentioned in the passage which specialised in cartoons.
Name the famous cartoon character you are familiar with.

Answer:

Cartoons were associated with great art. It is a large work of art.
During the Renaissance period the term ‘cartoon’ was used to mean first sketch of a large work of art.
Artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson were the ancestors of the present-day cartoon and comic strips.
Charivari and punch were the two magazines which specialised in cartoons.
Mickey mouse and Donald Duck are the famous cartoon characters I am familiar with.

Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4

February 10, 2025

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
She yanked at the zip of the bag.
(a) jerked
(b) yearned
(c) yelled
(d) jumped
Answer:
(a) jerked

Question 2.
The felicitation programme was highly commendable.
(a) falcon
(b) congratulatory
(c) felling
(d) calliper
Answer:
(b) congratulatory

Question 3.
I dare not answer my mother when she is hysterical.
(a) avoid
(b) dauntless
(c) desire
(d) aggravate
Answer:
(b) dauntless

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I had to ponder on the situation.
(a) consider
(b) contemplate
(c) ignore
(d) reflect
Answer:
(c) ignore

Question 5.
I relished the fruit and its taste.
(a) savoured
(b) enjoyed
(c) disliked
(d) candies
Answer:
(c) disliked

Question 6.
The students protested against child abuse.
(a) dissent
(b) proclaimed
(c) accepted
(d) averted
Answer:
(c) accepted

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “picture and element”.
(a) pixel
(b) picel
(c) piclem
(d) picment
Answer:
(a) pixel

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “cartography”.
(a) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
(b) The ethical theory that pleasure is the highest good and proper aim of human life
(c) Prejudice, stereotyping, or discrimination on the basis of a person’s sex or gender
(d) The science of drawing maps
Answer:
(d) The science of drawing maps

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Back to the drawing board’.
{a) The person you are talking about arrives
(b) Do something to save money
(c) Do or say something exactly right
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over
Answer:
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Mithwin really likes singing karaoke, even though he doesn’t have an amazing voice,
(a) songs with karate steps
(b) baila
(c) country songs
(d) sing along
Answer:
(d) sing along

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “land”.
(a) owner
(b) lord
(c) rent
(d) estate
Answer:
(b) lord

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “charge”.
(a) sur
(b) pre
(c) un
(d) out
Answer:
(a) sur

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “DARE”.
(a) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Equipment
(b) Documents Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
(c) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Experience
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education
Answer:
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He shows kindness to his patients.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOIO
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOIO

Question 15.
One who is concerned with usefulness is called as …………
(a) Psychiatrist
(b) Technologist
(c) Pragmatist
(d) Editorialist
Answer:
(c) Pragmatist

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ram was a thin, tall and handsome bachelor ………. a Roman nose.
(a) far
(b) with
(c) of
(d) on
Answer:
(b) with

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Nobody could do it, ……….. ?
(a) could they
(b) should they
(c) have they
(d) ain’t they
Answer:
(a) could they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The press release said the band split up because of problems among artists.
(a) problems
(b) creative indifference
(c) creative differences
(d) fights
Answer:
(c) creative differences

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Dravid was so far away, we really couldn’t make out what he was trying to say.
(a) understand
(b) deliver
(c) hear
(d) record
Answer:
(a) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
What is the name of the prison ……… Nelson Mandela stayed?
(a) which
(b) when
(c) where
(d) whose
Answer:
(c) where

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“To unlearn all these muting things
Most of all, I want to relearn”
(a) What does the poet want to relearn?
(b) Explain ‘muting things’.
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) Muting things are; superficial and unnatural behaviours like portrait smiles and heartless handshake.

Question 22.
“The birds around me hopp’d and play’d
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
But the least motion which they made
It seem’d a thrill of pleasure”
(а) What is the rhyme scheme?
(b) Name the poem and poet.
Answer:
(a) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’.
(b) The poem is ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ written by William Wordsworth.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) What kind of a life, does the poet talk about?
(b) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
(a) The poet speaks about a life where there is no necessity to stoop before others for any ‘gain’. This makes people live with self-dignity which makes them feel proud.
(b) A life that knows no kneeling and bending.

Question 24.
“I live with bread like you, feel want,
Taste grief, need friends – subjected thus,
How can you say to me, I am a king?”
(а) Mention the figure of speech employed in the last line.
(b) What is surprising about the king’s words to his loyal friends?
Answer:
(а) Interrogation
(b) The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress. This surprises his loyal friends.

Question 25.
“His coat is dusty from neglect, his whiskers are uncombed.”
(а) How does Macavity differ from domestic/tamed cat?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s coat is dusty. His whiskers are uncombed.
(b) Personification.

Question 26.
“With all my heart I do admire Athletes who sweat for fun or hire,”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words.
(b) What does the second line mean?
Answer:
(a) Admire and hire are the rhyming words.
(b) The second line means there are two categories of athletes. The first play just for pleasure. The second category is players who are hired by corporate to play the big leagues or tournaments.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite into Direct speech:
Anitha : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my brother’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is it?
Answer:
Anne told a confectioner that she wanted to order a big birthday cake for her brother. The confectioner asked when his birthday was.

Question 28.
Change into passive/active voice of the following sentence.
The Baboon tasted the sour grapes.
Answer:
The sour grapes was tasted by the Baboon.

Question 29.
Put the milk in the fridge. It will go sour. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If you don’t put the milk in the fridge, it will go sour.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of his illness he came for practice.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
………. and feel
At home, once, twice
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while describing people’s attitude if someone visits their house.

Explanation: The semblance of cordiality will disappear if one visits for the third time. When they say “feel at home”, it applies only once or twice. In fact, they would shut the door on his face. One should not believe those words and visit their houses frequently. Familiarity breeds contempt.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet says these words while enjoying the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation : The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
(I might mention Mungojerrie, I might mention Griddlebone)
Are nothing more than agents for the Cat who all the time.
Just controls their operations: the Napoleon of Crime.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet compares the leadership skills of Macavity to his own fictional characters.

Explanation: Those functional characters Mungojerrie and Griddlebone portrayed in T.S. Eliot’s “Old Possom’s book of Practical Cats” are not to be compared with Macavity. He is a commander in chief of criminals or Napolean of criminals. He directs all thefts and crimes in London very cleverly.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did the grandma chant the morning prayer in a sing song voice?
Answer:
Grandma started the mornings with a sing-song prayer because she wanted the author to learn the prayers by heart.

Question 35.
What should the youngsters aim in life after their graduation?
Answer:
The youngsters should aim in life after graduation for an aristocracy of achievements arising out of a democracy of opportunities. As youngsters they should aim at toning up the society, bringing light into dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, hope into the despondent and a new life into every one.

Question 36.
When does human memory work with less than its usual capacity?
Answer:
Human memory works with less than its usual capacity in matters like taking medicine. The author explains that human memory represents the willingness to remember certain things. It forgets what it does not wish to remember. Humans are blessed with “selective amnesia”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

the/Indian/English/exploited/the farmers.
on/camel/has/hump/its/a/big/back.
elephant/land animal/present/largest/is/day/the/of/the.

Answer:

The English exploited the Indian farmers.
Camel has a big hump on its back.
Elephant is the largest land animal of the present day.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a waiter and a customer.
Answer:
Kavya : Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter : Yes Ma’am. We have hot idlies.
Kavya : Do you have Podi Dosa?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, we do have Podi Dosa.
Kavya : Can you give two sets of Podi Dosa with a vada please?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, it will be served in ten minutes.

Question 39.
Describe the process of polishing your shoes.
Answer:

Shoes are cleaned of dust with a brush.
A layer of polish is coated over the shoes.
One should wait a little till the polish soaks the leather.
Then shoes are brushed to shine.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Every cloud has a ……… lining, (golden, silver, white)
(b) Fortune favors the ……….. (brave, courageous, poor)
(c) Get out while the going is ………… (good, high, best)
Answer:
(a) silver
(b) brave
(c) good

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates. The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

What are the observations of Lynd on the capacity of humans to remember and forget things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed at the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks wittily that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have extraordinary memory power. In some matters, the memory is less than perfect, causes could be psychological. We tend to forget things we don’t wish to remember.

For example, many people forget to take medicines. Medicine needs to be taken before / after meals. Robert Lynd remarks that chemists make a lot of money because people tend to forget to take medicines. It aggravates the disease and people are forced to buy more and more medicines. Most people forget to post.letters. The author himself would not trust his letters to be posted by others. The author himself never remembered to post letters entrusted to him. He had to apologise for the unposted letters kept with him for long. Likewise, the author forgets his walking sticks often.

Question 42.
“Face is the index of the mind.” Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
Unlike the people of the past, people in modem times “laugh only with their teeth” while their ice-block cold eyes search for something. Now, people shake hands without hearts. There is no human warmth in social relations. While they shake hands, they look for evidences to judge the financial status of a person. People say ‘feel at home’ and ‘come again’. But if a person visits a third time he is not welcomed. They all have cocktail faces ready for all occasions. Their conforming smiles are like fixed portrait smiles. They wear standard, deceitful, artificial smile for all occasions. They have faces like masks.

The poet has learnt from them how to use faces like dresses, home face, office face, street face, host face etc. Their faces, like the teeth of the elephant, show only what is accepted. The ugly side of their personality is cleverly hidden behind their deceitful smiles and polite words. So, the poet’s views do not concur with the adage “Face is the index of the mind”.

[OR]

Write a short summary of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily-Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos.

The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Miss Meadows, a music teacher – gets a letter – feels upset – Fiance not interested – reflects her gloom on students – changes the happy song to a sad one – Headmistress calls – delivers a telegram – Fiance agrees to wedding – Meadows happy – changes the song again to a cheerful one.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle.

After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush. She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Moral courage is of the mind, while physical courage is of the body; but mind and body are so closely connected that I think it is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. In many instances of human daring, moral courage combined with physical to a resolute endurance of physical suffering becomes added to a consciousness of duty. But while physical courage in a human being implies at the least, the moral courage implies much more.

This moral courage is the courage which braces us always to do our duty. This is the noblest form of courage and yet it is the courage most commonly required. It is the courage which everyday, almost every hour demands of us all.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 123
No. of words to be written in the summary: 123/3 = 41 ± 5

Rough Draft
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. It is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

Fair Draft
Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

No. of words in the summary: 38

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage Courage
Answer:
Courage
Mind – Moral courage
Body – Physical coinage
Human daring involves
both moral and physical courage and consciousness of duty Moral courage
inspires us to do our duty – needed all the time.

Question 45.
You are Neena. The wedding of your elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. Write an informal invitation to your friend Sherrin requesting her to attend the function.
Answer:

20th April, 2020

From
Neena
2, Gandhi street
Ooty

To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road,
Raj Nagar,
Ooty.
Dear Sherrin,

You will be pleased to know that the wedding of my elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. The whole family will move there in the morning. I invite you to join us at lunch in the hotel on the 15th. The wedding ceremony will take place at 8 in the evening.
I do hope you will join us on the auspicious occasion.

Yours sincerely,
Neena
Address on the Envelope
To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road
Raj Nagar
Ooty

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Self medication is an unhealthy practice’.
Answer:
Self-medication is defined as the selection and use of medicines by individuals to treat self- diagnosed symptoms. Self-medication is thought to reduce the load on the medical services, decrease the time spent in waiting to see the physician, and save cost especially among economically deprived people. Since it is instant, there is no expense of the doctor but when they ultimately suffer from severe health issues, their medical expense increases two-fold.

Self-medication as a habit can damage one’s health irrevocably, causing disabilities and even premature death. Self-medication is okay to many of us. It’s just a crocin or some ‘safe’ antibiotic we believe we are taking as going to the doctor can be time consuming and expensive. But there are side-effects to this and very harmful ones at that. The idea of self¬medication even for small health issues can lead to complications. People tend to pop pills as they are popping candies. Medicines such as pain relief drugs, cough syrups, laxatives, antibiotics, anti-allergy medicines, vitamins and even antacids. Since these are drugs that can be bought over the counter meds, these are easier to acquire.

Popping pills may get us instant relief but what we don’t realize is that it is. not free of side-effects. This is because one drug may react differently when consumed with another drug. This can even lead to death. Hence, consulting a doctor is a must and self-medication is an unhealthy practice.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) Children are fond to coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had came to an end.
(c) As he looking on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furnitures in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the student has participated in the competition.
Answer:
(a) Children are fond of coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had come to an end.
(c) As he looked on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furniture in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the students has participated in the competition.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) When teaching my daughter how to drive, I told her if she didn’t hit the ………. in time she would ……….. the car’s side mirror, (break/ brake)
(b) ………. you like a cup of tea? (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) Take my umbrella ………… rain. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) brake, break
(b) Would
(c) need to
(d) in case of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) General Elections take place after every five years in India.
(b) The Reserve Bank revised the interest rate.
(c) One thousand interest connections were given in Pollachi.
(d) The new serial will begin on Monday.
(e) Athletics rarely gets coverage in the Media.
(Commerce, Politics, Sports, Maths, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Politics
(b) Commerce
(c) Computer
(d) Media
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity…. In London men are as lonely as Oysters, each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country. I should probably know all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victim pines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.
Questions.

What keeps people in London remote from each other?
How are men described? Why?
Why do we seek country life?
What is the disadvantage of village life?
What can you say in this context about our interaction with our neighbours the life style in our country?

Answer:

People are so plentiful that they lose their identity.
Men are described as oyster shells. The being inside the oyster shell never wishes to know who lives outside.
We seek country life to find neighbours.
Village life is not idyllic. Neighbours tend to poison village life.
India has not deteriorated to the level of London city. We still care for the neighbours as neighbours care for us.

Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1

February 10, 2025

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A peaceful pallor spread on his face.
(a) paleness
(b) rosiness
(c) ruddy
(d) rejuvenation
Answer:
(a) paleness

Question 2.
It was indeed a sensational bid.
(a) astounded
(b) ordinary
(c) sensitive
(d) exciting
Answer:
(a) astounded

Question 3.
I had a sumptuous meal to sate my hunger.
(a) sadden
(b) suppress
(c) satisfy
(d) struggle
Answer:
(c) satisfy

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The vessels dropped and scattered all over.
(a) speckled
(b) sprinkled
(c) gathered
(d) grew
Answer:
(c) gathered

Question 5.
There a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) suppressed
(b) expressed
(c) smoothened
(d) suffocated
Answer:
(b) expressed

Question 6.
Her face was wrinkled and weird.
(a) smooth
(b) creased
(c) lined
(d) crippled
Answer:
(a) smooth

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “percolate”.
(a) perk
(b) per
(c) perc
(d) colate
Answer:
(a) perk

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “plagiarist”.
(a) A student of bees
(b) One who accumulates; one who collects
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief
(d) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
Answer:
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Beat around the bush’.
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I’d like to learn taekwondo though it might not be the best option for me.
(a) Japanese language
(b) Chinese preparation
(c) Floor dancing
(d) Kick fist martial art
Answer:
(d) Kick fist martial art

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “goat”.
(a) male
(b) female
(c) scape
(d) major
Answer:
(c) scape

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “hero”?
(a) ity
(b) ism
(c) ness
(d) ish
Answer:
(b) ism

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “NSC”.
(a) National Savings Certificate
(b) National Service Certificate
(c) National Savings Career
(d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “psychology” is…………..
(a) psych-ol-ogy
(b) psy-chol-ogy
(c) ps-ycho-logy
(d) psy-chol-o-gy
Answer:
(d) psy-chol-o-gy

Question 15.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………..
(a) Etymology
(b) Stampomania
(c) Eulogomania
(d) bancomania
Answer:
(d) bancomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ramesh went……….. Tom’s place to settle the bills.
(a) to
(b) on
(c) in
(d) from
Answer:
(a) to

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
He never fails in his duty,………..?
(a) isn’t he
(b) won’t-he
(c) will he
(d) does he
Answer:
(d) does he

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
However hard she tried, she could not figure out the meaning of the proverb.
(a) appreciate
(b) condemn
(c) understand
(d) faint
Answer:
(c) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The children ……… shouted in the street are not from our school.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces like dresses”
(а) State the figure of speech in the above line.
(b) Who does the term ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) Simile
(b) 1 refers to the poet, Gabriel Okara.

Question 22.
“ When swollen eye meets gnarled fist
When snaps the knee, and cracks the wrist”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the second line.
(b) Why are the eyes swollen?
Answer:
(a) Onomatopoeia
(b) The eyes are swollen as they were injured by the opponent.

Question 23.
“Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!”
(a) What is a greenhouse and a trellis?
(b) What is a wonder after the greenhouse glass is broken?
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse is a glass building in which plants that need protection from cold weather are grown. Trellis is a framework of light wooden or metal bars used as a support for fruit trees or creeper.
(b) Macavity is to be found nowhere when one finds out that the greenhouse glass is broken.

Question 24.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) What do you understand by rainy eyes?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
(a) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.
(b) Metaphor

Question 26.
“The height you reach is not that we care;”
(a) How different is the poet’s perception of success?
(b) How does the poet use the word ‘height’?
Answer:
(a) Those who reach great heights in terms of scholarship, wealth and positions are not deemed great. Those who have competence and merit alone are respected.
(b) In terms of mountain climbing, climbing Everest is said to be the highest achievement.
But even scaling a small hillock is an achievement. Every human effort to succeed needs to be appreciated.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Kiran : Will you exchange the defective torch I had bought from you yesterday?
Shopkeeper : Do you have the receipt with you?
Answer:
Kiran asked the shopkeeper if he would exchange the defective torch he had bought from him the day before. The shopkeeper enquired if Kiran had the receipt with him.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
She had already cooked the food.
Answer:
The food had already been cooked by her.

Question 29.
Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence.
I called for Arjun who came at once.
Answer:
I called for Aijun and he came at once.

Question 30.
Hurry up. You will miss the flight. (Combine using ‘Unless’)
Answer:
Unless you hurry up, you will miss the flight.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Have I not reason to lament What Man has made of Man?”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: Amidst happy nature, William Wordsworth couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The mixed feelings of happiness and sadness is well brought out in these lines. He was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars.

Question 32.
“I am just glad as glad can he
That I am not them, that they are not me. ”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words.

Explanation: The poet was a bom spectator. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

Question 33.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes.

Explanation: The unsung heroes adhere to their ethical principles in life. Even if they have not reached great heights. They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why was the author left with his grandmother in the village?
Answer:
The author was left with his grandmother in the village because his parents had to go to the city for work.

Question 35.
What difficulty did Mary Kom experience while eating Chinese preparation?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

Question 36.
What were the contents of Bryson’s bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were frequent flyer card, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipe, magazines, passport, English money and film.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

pillars/there/human life/man/of/woman/and/are/two
uppermost/soil layer/is/earth/the/of/the
it/palnts/which/supports/food/provide/all/living things/to/planet/on/this

Answer:

There are two pillars of human life – man and woman.
Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth.
It supports plants which provide food to all living things on this planet.

Question 38.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your camp site. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
Lay out the poles and assemble them.
Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
Pull the tent upright.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

Scientists Develop Synthetic Cornea.
World Leaders Meet at Geneva.
ATMs Without Security Guards to Close.

Answer:

A newly developed implant made of plastic may soon offer patients the chance to see again as Scientists from Germany have developed synthetic corneas.
German Chancellor Angela Merkel and US President Donald Trump will converge upon the snowy Swiss town of Davos this week for the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting.
The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has requested all ATM’S without proper security to be closed down.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

A stitch in ………. saves nine, (tear, time, line)
A thing begun is ……….. done, (half, full, not)
Beauty is in the ………… of the beholder, (imagination, mind, eye)

Answer:

time
half
eye

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals.

She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

[OR]

Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioneer banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun- bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction.

As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings, the auctioneers wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

Question 42.
According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

[OR]

Explain how ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ stresses the fact that Nature is meant for Man’s joy and pleasure to be preserved by Man.
Answer:
Nature’s holy plan is to offer joy and peace to all forms of life on earth. He firmly believes that man is meant to spend his days blissfully taking part in the vitality and joy surrounding him. The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property.

The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans. Man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature and has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. The poet stands to reason that nature functions on God’s plan but the man changes the holy plan wrecking the natural joy of human life.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily- Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a’few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened.

The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would’be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins, to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong.

What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Goa is a vibrant, living entity and more than just a geographical sunspot on the western coast of India. Famous for its silver sands and mesmeric sunsets, its recorded history datesback to the 3rd century B.C. It is blessed with marvelous weather, fabulous beaches, picturesque hill-top forts, gracious people and awe inspiring cathedrals. Arombol, 50 km north of Panaji, is a unique beach, which is both rocky and sandy.

It was a sweet water pond right near the seashore that’s very pleasant to bask in. Goa not only has almost 120 km long silver beaches but also offers long, wide and picturesque rivers and scenic lakes. Aqua sports hold great attraction for tourists to Goa. Some of the most popular aqua sports are swift rides on water scooters and speedboats at the Bay of Doha Paula. The best time to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the relatively cool winter months between late September and mid-March.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 160
No. of words to be written in the summary: 160/3 = 51 ± 5
Rough Draft
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and eathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

Fair Draft
Goa
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

No. of words in the summary: 67

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Goa
Answer:
Location:
western coast of India

Tourist attraction:
silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals Arombol beach – sweet water pond Aqua sports held at at the Bay of Dona Paula

Best time to visit:
between late September and mid-March

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted:
Applications are invited for the post of a Typist in a reputed school of Madurai. The . candidate must have at least 5 years of experience. The applicant must have a pleasant personality. He/she should be good in English. Attractive salary. Interested candidates should apply to The Principal, AKS International, Indirapuram, Madurai within 10 days with detailed resume.

14th January, 2020

From
Savitha
2, Gandhi street
Madurai
To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Typist
With reference to your advertisement dated 8th January 2019,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a typist. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality. If given an opportunity, I will satisfy my superiors to the best of my ability.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal.

Yours sincerely,
Savitha
Address on the Envelope To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai

Resume:
Name : Savitha Rajeev
Date Of Birth : 8th May, 1991
Marital Status : Married
Husband’s Name : Mr. Rajeev
Address For Communication : Yyy
Contact Number – Mobile: 9988776655
Residence : 22445566
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : English and Tamil
Educational Background:
Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1 1
Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Photograph, Gardening, Reading, Travelling.
Expected Salary : 27,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 23,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Mr. Ravi (Manager -no. 9998887777
2. Mrs. Rani (Manager-Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station: YYY
Date. 14.01.2020

Savitha
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Convincing the public not to discriminate against those with AIDS’.
Answer:
Abolish discrimination against those with AIDS
People living with HIV infection and AIDS should have the same basic rights and responsibilities as those which apply to all citizens of the country. They have the same rights to liberty and autonomy, security of the person and to freedom of movement as the rest of the population. No restrictions should be placed on the free movement of HIV-infected people, and they may not be segregated, isolated or quarantined in prisons, schools, hospitals or elsewhere merely because of their HIV-positive status.

Only a sexual relationship without proper precautions will be a risk factor. Therefore they should be accepted whole heartedly without any discrimination. People with HIV infection or AIDS are entitled to the right to make their own decisions about any matter that affects marriage and child-bearing – although counselling about the consequences of their decisions should be provided. Due to the fear of isolation, ignorance, denial, and discrimination, people will allow HIV to develop into AIDS, further decreasing life expectancy, since the body’s immune system function will have been significantly lowered.

Along with family bonds and intimate relationships, a spiritual relationship is also strained. Fear and vulnerability included fear of punishment from God, fear of being discovered as HIV/ AIDS-positive and fear of the future and death. They should be given the love, warmth, psycho-social and emotional support.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There is many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigating the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes is rising.
(e) The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracan stadium.
Answer:
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There are many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigate the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes are rising.
(e) The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracana stadium.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) They could ……….. untie the ………. (knot / not)
(.b) The world ………….. avoid war in the larger interest of human race. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) Every student …………. respect the national symbols, (use semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have the hall ticket you can enter the examination hall. (Use a suitable link word).
Answer:
(a) not, knot
(b) should
(c) must
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Weather
(b) Nutrition and Dietetics
(c) Sports
(d) Commerce
(e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live along its course and depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one of the most fertile lands on earth.

This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries some metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal every year and produce tons of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released, in the river.

This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and revive river Ganga. To achieve these objectives, Government of India has started a programme named “Namami Ganga Programme”. The main pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Gange Programme’ can be seen through the following lines; “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No India.”
Questions.

For whom is river Ganga a lifeline?
For what purpose is the Ganga river water used?
Most people in India consider the Gan^a as
What are the pollutants that make the river dirty?
Write any two pillars of the “Namami Gange”?

Answer:

River Ganga is a lifeline for millions of Indians.
The Ganga river water used for irrigation, transportation and fishing.
Goddess
Metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities makes the river dirty.
The pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System

January 30, 2025

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 15 Nervous System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Nervous System

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in:
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Question 2.
The site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence, and thought is ______
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by:
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle

Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ______ cell body and axon transmit impulse ______ cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is:
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

Question 6.
There are …….. pairs of cranial nerves and ………. pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre _____
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Question 9.
Node of Ranvler is found in:
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in ______
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess:
(a) neurilemma
(b) sareolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sareolemma

Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of the brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks:

……….. is the longest cell in our body.
Impulses travels rapidly ……….. in ……….. neurons.
A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ………..
………. carries the impulse towards the cell body.
The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are ……….. and ……….
A neuron contains all cell organelles except …………
………. maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
………… and ………… increases the surface area of cerebrum.
The part of human brain which acts as relay center is ………….

Answer:

Nerve cell or neuron
sensory
stimulus
Dentrites
sympathetic and parasympathetic system
Nucleus
Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)
Gyri and sulci
thalamus

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement:

Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
Pons helps in regulating respiration.

Answer:

False – Axons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
False – Autonomic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
True
False – Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
True
False – Brain is covered and protected by meninges.
True
True
True

IV. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 1
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

2. Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and . piamater.
Reason: It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition that are detected by the receptors present in the body is called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hindbrain.
Answer:
The hindbrain is formed of three parts. Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
Cranium (skull) and three connective tissue membrane meninges – Duramater, Arachnoid membrane and piamater protect the brain.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
The conditioned reflexes are the result of practice and learning. Playing the harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Answer:
Hypothalamus is the link between nervous system and endocrine system as it controls the secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called a Reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 2

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 3

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Answer:
The human brain is divided into 3 major parts. Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain.
Fore brian consists of Cerebrum, Thalamus and Hypothalamus.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 4

Mid brain
Parts of the brain is Corpora quadrigemina
Function is control visual and auditory reflexes.

Hind brain consists of Pons, Cerebellum and Medulla Oblongata.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 5

Question 2.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
If we touch a sharp pointed object, we immediately withdraw our hand.
Here the skin is the receptor and it receives the stimulus, that is the pain. This stimulus (pain) in turn triggers an impulse in sensory neuron. The sensory neuron transmits or convey the message to the spinal cord. Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron. Motor neuron carry command from the spinal cord to our arm. Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately

Question 3.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 6
A neuron is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. A neuron consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
Cyton : It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic recticulum.

Dendrites : These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.

Axon : The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann ceils called neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges.
It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminale.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity known as the central canal. The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward from the anterior hom forming ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls reflex actions of the body.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 7

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
The information from the environment are detected by the receptors located in our sense organs such as the eyes, the nose, the skin etc..
Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron.
This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 8
On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neuro transmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons may be of different types based on their structure and functions. Structurally the neurons may be of the following types:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 9
(i) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron.
(ii) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an axon while another as a dendron.
(iii) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of the medulla and extends downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage 4B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.
(i) What is A?
(ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
(iii) How much is D?
Answer:
(i) Spinal cord
(ii) (a) Cranium
(b) Duramater, Arachnoid membrane, Piamater
(iii) 31 pairs of Spinal nerves

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body.
L has long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘l’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by release of chemical substance ‘P’.

Name the cells L.
what are M and N?
What is the gap O?
Name the chemical substance P.

Answer:

L is Nerve cell or Neuron
M is axon and N is dendrite
Gap O is synaptic junction
P is neuro transmitter – Acetylcholine

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Inner layer of Axon is:
(a) Myelin sheath
(b) Neurilemma
(c) Meninges
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Neurilemma

Question 2.
Which one is thin and vascularised?
(a) Piamater
(b) Duramater
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pleural membrane
Answer:
(b) Duramater

Question 3.
Uni polar neurons are found in:
(a) Adult nervous tissue
(b) Stem cells
(c) Embryonic stem cells
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue
Answer:
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue

Question 4.
Among the following which one controls our anger.
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 5.
………. form the cerebral cortex of our brain.
(a) Grey neuron
(b) Fibrous tissue
(c) White neurons
(d) Ganglions
Answer:
(c) White neurons

Question 6.
……… is fitted with neuro transmitter.
(a) Synaptic knob
(b) Synaptic plate
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Synaptic branch
Answer:
(a) Synaptic knob

Question 7.
The functional connection between two neurons is called:
(a) Synapse
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasma
(d) Chiasmata
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Question 8.
Which of the following pair is correct?
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent
(b) Motor nerve – afferent
(c) Sensory nerve – ventral
(d) Motor nerve-dorsal
Answer:
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent

Question 9.
A healthy person got injured resulting in damage and death of a few cells. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells:
(a) Liver cell
(b) Neuron
(c) Nephron
(d) Osteocytes
Answer:
(b) Neuron

Question 10.
The number of pairs of spinal nerves in human being is:
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 31
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 31

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………lies at the base of the thalamus.
2. ………. transmit electrical impulses towards the cyton.
3. The sensory organs contain ………. neuron.
4. Mid brain with ………. together form the brain stems.
5. Chemical substances which take part in synaptic transmission is ……….
6. The membrane which cover the brain and the spinal cord is ………..
7. If the corpus collosum is removed in Mammalian brain then ……… will be affected.
8. Last end of spinal cord is called ………..
9. The …………. is the continuation of medulla oblongata.
10. ………. is the part of the brain which helps to maintain balance.
Answer:
1. Hypothalamus
2. Dendrites
3. Bypolar
4. Hind brain
5. acetycholine
6. Meninges
7. coordination of cerebrum
8. filum terminate
9. spinal cord
10. Cerebellum

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement.

The gaps on the cyton are called Nodes of Ranvier.
Corpus callosum is a sheet of Nervous tissue that unites the right and left Cerebral Hemisphere.
Cerebral aqueduct is found in Mid brain.
Dendrites transmit chemical impulse towards the cyton.
The lower end of medulla oblongata is filum terminate.

Answer:

False – The gaps on the axon are called Nodes of Ranvier.
True
False – Cerebral aqueduct is found in fore brain.
False – Dendrites transmit electrical impulse towards the cyton.
True

IV. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 10
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

V. Understand the assertion statement.Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Medulla oblongata is very important for our body.
Reason: Medulla oblongata regulates all in voluntary activities.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

2. Assertion: With drawl reflex is controlled by spinal cord.
Reason: Initially cerebrum is involved and require alertness for perform this reflex.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: In human being, cerebrum is most developed part of brain. Reason: Cerebrum is having large surface area and analyzing centre for maintaining body activity.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI Answer in one or two Sentences.

Question 1.
List the components of Nervous system.
Answer:
The components of Nervous system are brain, spinal cord and brain.

Question 2.
What is Motor or efferent neuron?
Answer:
Motor or efferent neuron carries impulses from the Central Nervous System to effector organs such as muscle fibre or gland.

Question 3.
What is synapse?
Answer:
The paint of contract between the neighbouring nerve cells is called synapse.

Question 4.
Name the outermost fibrous membrane of the brain.
Answer:
Dura mater.

Question 5.
Name the two components, ANS (Autonomic Nervous System).
Answer:
The two antagonistic components of ANS are sympathetic and para sympathetic system.

VII. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
What is Coordination?
Answer:
The various organs working in a systematic controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination.

Question 2.
What are simple or basic reflexes? Give a few actions, as examples.
Answer:
These simple reflexes are inbuilt and unlearned responses. Many of the actions we perform in our day to day life are simple reflexes, eg. Winking of eyes, Sneezing, Coughing and Yawning. We perform these actions without thinking.

Question 3.
Name the second largest part of the brain. What is its functions?
Answer:
The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain, formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis. Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity, are some of the functions of the cerebellum.

Question 4.
Differentiate simple reflexes and conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 15 Nervous System 11

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS).

Question 1.
Give two examples of conditional reflexion.
Answer:

Applying the brake while driving, when a red or yellow traffic light appears. We do not have to think about pressing the brake.
Producing saliva is a response of a dog naturally have, when they smell or see food or when a bell sound was followed by food.

Question 2.
Injury to medulla oblongata can cause death. Why?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata emerges from the base of the brain and joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the involuntary functions.

IX. Long Answer Question:

Question 1.
Classify peripheral nervous based on the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord.
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system is formed by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. Nerves arising from spinal cord are called spinal nerves.

Cranial Nerves : In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory Eg: optic nerve which innervates the eye. Some are motor nerves which helps in rotation of eyeball. It also innervates the eye muscles, muscles of iris and tear gland.

Spinal Nerves : There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root. The direction of impulses in dorsal spinal root is towards the spinal cord and in ventral spinal root away from the spinal cord.

Question 2.
List out the components of Nervous system and its function.
Answer:
The nervous system is formed of three distinct components namely the neurons, neuroglia and nerve fibres.
(i) Neuron or nerve cell : A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It is the longest cell of the human body with a length of over 100μm. These cells are highly specialised to detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli. Information is conducted through neurons in the form of electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

(ii) Neuroglia : Neuroglia are also called as glial cells. They are non¬exciting, supporting cell of the nervous system. They do not initiate or conduct nerve impulses.

(iii) Nerve fibres : The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves.

Question 3.
Explain Autonomic Nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is also called as visceral nervous system as it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body through its two antagonistic (opposite) components sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They enable the body to perform rapid and specific visceral activities in order to maintain steady state. It controls the involuntary functions of the visceral organs.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

January 30, 2025

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
………. is not made of matter
(a) Gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(a) light ray

Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400ml capacity. The volume of water now will be _____
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by method.
(a) Hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(c) Hand picking

Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust, when mixed with rice or pulses, can be removed by _____
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Question 5.
………… of is essential to perform winnowing activity
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating _____ mixture.
(a) solid – solid
(b) solid – liquid
(c) liquid – liquid
(d) liquid – gas
Answer:
(b) solid – liquid

Question 7.
From the following ………. is not a mixture
(a) Coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) Water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts.
Answer:
(c) Water

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement

Air is not compressible.
Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
Particles in solids are free to move.
Then pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid
Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing
Air is a pure substance
Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.

Answer:

False. Air is Compressible.
False. Liquids have no fixed shape but have fixed volume.
False Particles in solids are not free to move.
False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of Decantation.
False. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a solid from liquid.
True.
False. Air is a mixture. (Or) Air is not a pure substance.
False. Butter from curds is separated by churning.

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 1
Answer:
1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – c
5. – a

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 2
Answer:

IV. Fill in the blanks

Matter is made up of ………
In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ……….
Grains can be separated from their stalks by ……….
Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ……… method.
The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ……….
Among the following items: Safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ………. will get attracted to a magnet.
Water obtained from tube wells is usually ………. water

Answer:

Atoms
An Liquids
Threshlng
Hand picking
Filtration
Safety pins
Impure

V. Complete the given analogy

Solid: rigidity :: gas: …………
Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ………. : solid
Solid : definite shape :: ……… : shape of the vessel.
Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-chalk piece: ………..
Murukku from hot oil: ………. :: coffee powder residue from decoction
Iron-sulphur mixture: ……….. :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: Rolling

Answer:

Compressibility
Little inter-particle space
Liquids
Sedimentation and Decantaium
Hand picking; Filtralion.
Magnetic Separation.

VI. Very short answer

Question 1.
Define the term matter.
Answer:
The matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. The matter is found in solid, liquid, and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?
Answer:
Before cooking, the husk or fine dust particles in rice are being separated by ‘Sedimentation’. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
An example of a mixture is 22 Carat Gold. This is composed of Gold and Copper (or) Gold and Cadmium.

Question 5.
Define Sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure Substance :
Made up of only one kind of particles.
Cannot be separated by physical means.

Impure Substance :
Has particles of other Substance mixed in it.
Can be separated by physical means.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:
Gases do not have a fixed shape due to the weak forces of attraction between the gaseous particles. Hence, they can flow and take shape of the container.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

Acidification
coagulation
separating curds and whey
Salting
shaping
ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 4
Answer:
The given picture shows the ‘Sieving’ method of separation. It is used to separate the solid particles of different sizes. Example: Bran from flour; Sand from gravel.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
The process of mixing harmful and unwanted substances with the foodstuffs that we buy in the market is called food adulteration

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain.
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it, and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Answer In Detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of solid, liquid, gas. Draw a suitable diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 5

Question 2.
Using a suitable apparatus from your laboratory, separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water, and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 6

HOTS

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand-picking method because they are in a different size When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture-can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? Or sour? Or both sweet and sour?
Answer:

A glass containing some water, Tamarind juice, and sugar is a mixture.
Because it is made up of two or more ingredients that are physically separable.
This mixture is both sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.
An arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 7
(a) Which state is represented by fig. I?
Answer:
Figure 1 represents a gas.

(b) In which will be the interparticle attraction maximum?
Answer:
Inter Particle attraction is maximum in solids (fig. 3)

(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
Answer:
A gas (fig. 1) cannot be contained in an open vessel.

(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
Liquid (fig.2) can take the shape of its container.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) Air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 2.
A standard sheet of paper is about atoms thick.
(a) Thousands
(b) Crores
(c) Lakhs
(d) Million
Answer:
(d) Million

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a matter?
(a) Electron
(b) Blood
(c) Moonrock
(d) Humidity
Answer:
(a) Electron

Question 4.
One dot that you make with your pen has more than ______ lakh molecules.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
Pure rava, when adultered with wheat flour, is separated by
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Winnowing
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(a) Sieving

II. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 8
Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

III. Fill in the blanks

……… particles are tightly packed into a definite shape.
The tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space is ………..
The purest form of gold is denoted by ………..
Milk is a ………..
The principle of ………. is used in washing machines.

Answer:

Solid
diffusion
24 carat
mixture
centrifugation

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Name the two microscopes which are used to identify the structure of the atom.
Answer:

SEM – Scanning Electron Microscope
TEM – Tunnelling Electron Microscope

Question 2.
What type of matter glass is?
Answer:
Glass is looking like a solid, but not. It is actually a very slow-moving liquid.

Question 3.
Give two examples of diffusion.
Answer:

Spread of a drop of ink in a glass of water.
Spread of the smell of an incense stick.

Question 4.
Mention the method of separation of Bran from flour. Explain.
Answer:
Bran from flour is separated by ‘sieving’.
Solid particles of different sizes can be separated by sieving.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘Liquefaction of gases’.
Answer:
The process by which substances in their gaseous state are converted to the liquid state is called Liquefaction of gases.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the similarities between a gas and a liquid?
Answer:

Neither gas nor a liquid has a definite shape.
The particles of gases and liquids can move. We call this movement diffusion.
Liquids can evaporate into gases and the gases can condense into liquids.
They can have the property of compressibility to some extent.

Question 2.
How do decantation and filtration differ and which is faster?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us 9
Note: Normally filtration will give a better separation than decantation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

January 30, 2025

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called:
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is ……..
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of:
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

Question 4.
……… Transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is:
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is ……..
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at:
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is ……..
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers a full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. It can be internal (within a country) or international (between the countries). Migration depends on

Push factor: Unemployment and underemployment in rural areas.

Pull factor: higher wages, employment opportunity, industrial development.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
They are suitable for long-distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
They bind the economic life of the country as well as the accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are the very convenient transport to connect oil and natural gas fields, refineries and to the markets.
It can be laid through difficult Terrain as well as under water.
It ensures steady supply of goods and reduces the transhipment loss and delays.

Three important network of pipeline:

Oil fields in upper Assam and Kanpur.
From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab.
From Hazira in Gujarat to Jagadispur in Uttar Pradesh

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland waters ways of India are :

National Waterway I: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication is a process that involves exchange of information, thoughts , and ideas. lt is categorized into two types.

Personal Communication: Post and telegraph, telephone, mobile phone, short message services, fax, internet, e-mail etc.
Mass Communication: Electronic media-Radio, T.V, internet and print media-News papers.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
When trade takes place between two countries it is known as international trade.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

Roadways can provide door to door services.
Easy and cheap to construct and maintain. Indian roads are cost-efficient.
The most universal mode of transport. It is used by all sections of people in society.
Can establish easy contact between farms, fields, factories and markets.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Density of population and Growth of population.
Answer:
Density of Population:

Density of population is the number of persons living per square kilometre.
It is calculated per 1000.
As per 2011 census the average density of population in India is 382 persons living in per sq.km.

Growth of Population:

Growth of population refers to the change in the number of in habitants of a country/territory in a specific period of time.
It is expressed in percentage.
The year 1921 is called the year of Great Demographic Divide.

Question 2.
Persona! communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal communication:

Exchange of communication between the individuals.
Enables the user to establish direct contact.
It includes post and telegraph, telephones, mobile phones, short message service (SMS) fax, Internet, e-mail etc.

Mass communication:

Millions of people get the information at the same time.
Provide information through print media and electronic media.
It includes Radio, Television and Internet. Electronic media, News paper, Magazines, books, journals etc.

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:
Print Media:

Most powerful means of communication.
Many news papers carry information on local national and international events to the people.
Knowledge of reading is essential.

Electronic Media:

Communication to millions of people through electronic gadgets at the same time.
Radio, Television, Internet provide and create awareness on various national policies and programme.
A powerful audio-visual medium.

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:
Roadways:

Highly suitable for short distance services.
Most common mode of transport, easy, cheap to construct and maintain.
Based on the construction and maintenance divided into National Highways, State Highways, District Roads, Village roads, Border roads, International highways, Express ways.
Second longest network in the world.
Door to door services possible

Railways:

Ideal for long distance services.
Construction depend upon the climatic and physical factors like terrain. Costly when compared with roadways.
On the basis of width of the track falls under 4 types, Broad gauge, meter gauge, narrow gauge and light gauge.
Largest in Asia and second largest in the World.
Cannot provide door to door services.

Question 5.
Waterways and Airways.
Answer:
Waterways:

Oldest and Cheapest means of transport.
Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky materials.
Two types, inland waterways-river and backwaters and canals and oceanic routes connect coastal areas.

Airways:

Modem and costliest means of transport.
Only limited weight can be carried. Cannot carry heavy and bulky materials.
Domestic air sendee within the country and International Airways connect major cities of the World.

Question 6.
internal trade and International trade.
Answer:
Internal trade:

Trade is carried on within the domestic territory.
Land transport plays a major role (Roadways and Railways).
Local currency is used.
Helps to promote a balanced regional growth.

International trade:

Trade is carried on between two or more countries.
Waterways and Airways play a vital role.
Foreign currency is involved.
Helps to promote country’s economy and raise the standard of living

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.
Impacts of urbanization:

Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.
The following are the major problem of urbanization in India.
It creates urban sprawl.
It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
It leads to the formation of slums.
It increases traffic congestion in cities.
It creates water scarcity in cities.
It creates drainage problems.
It poses the problem of solid waste management.
It increases the rate of crime.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:

The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in the system of communication in our country.
The use of Satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made this communication system very vital for the country.
Satellite images are used for weather forecasting.
Monitoring of natural calamities.
Surveillance of border areas.
The INSAT (series) is a multipurpose system for telecommunication, meterological observation and for various other programs.
They are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio and mobile phone.
And also useful in weather detection, internet and military applications.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term ‘Population Distribution’ refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface. The distribution of population in India is quite uneven because of the vast variation ki the availability of resources. The population is mostly concentrated in the regions of industrial centres and the good agricultural lands. On the other hand, the areas such as high mountains and lands thickly forested areas and some remote comers are very thinly populated and some areas are even uninhabited.

Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization are the major factors which affect the distribution of population in our country. Population density is a better measure of understanding the variation in distribution of population. It is expressed as number of person per unit area usually per sq.km. According to 2011, the average density of population of India is 382 person per sq.km. India is one of the most thickly populated ten countries of the world. The most densely populated state of India is Bihar and the state with lest population density is Arunachal Pradesh. Among union territories, Delhi is the densely populated one with 11,297 per sq.km, while Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the lowest density of population.

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a. sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Measuring of Human Development (HDI): Human Development Index is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

Health: Life expectancy at birth.
Education: Expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population.
Income: Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:

The Indian roads are cost-efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport
linking different parts of our country.
Roads stretch across the length of people in society.
It is used by all sections of people in society.
Road network in India is the second-longest in the world accounting for 3,314 millions of km.

Types of Roadways:

1. Village Roads:

Village roads link different villages with towns.
They are maintained by Village Panchayath.
In India village roads run to a length of 26,50,000 kms.

2. District Roads:

District roads link the towns with the district headquarters.
They are maintained by the Corporations and Municipalities.
It is used by all sections of people in the society.
In India district roads run to a total length of 4,67,763 kms.

3. State Highways:

State Highways links the State capitals with the different district headquarters.
These roads are maintained by the State Public Works Department.
The State Highways run to a length of 1,31,899 kms. (Ex: Cudalore – Chittor Road).

4. National Highways:

National Highways link the State Capitals with the National Capital.
They are the primary road system of our country and are maintained by the Central Public Works Department.
It runs to a length of 70,548 kms. (Ex: NH47 is a National Highway which connects Tamil Nadu and Kerala)

5. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways:

It is a major road development project launched by the Government of India.
It runs to a length of 14,846 kms connecting the major cities of India.
The major objective of these roads is providing ‘connectivity’, ‘speed’ and ‘safety’.

6. Expressways:

Expressways are the technologically improved high class roads in the Indian Road network.
They are six lanes roads. They run to a length of more than 200 kms.
New Mumbai – Pune Road is an example for Expressway.

7. Border Road:

Border Roads are the roads constructed along the northern and north eastern borders of our country.
These roads are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization.
The Organization has constructed 46,780 km of roads in difficult terrain.

8. International Highways:
International Highways are the roads that link India with neighbouring countries for promoting harmonious relationship with them.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
National Highway NH-7.
Answer:

Question 2.
Major seaports in India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major International Airports in India.
Answer:

Question 4.
Densely populated state of India – Uttarpradesh
Answer:

Question 5.
State of highest literacy in India – Kerala
Answer:

Question 6.
Railways zones of India.
Answer:

TB Page No. 151
Hots:

Question 1.
What could be the reasons for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:

Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region.
People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred.
Areas with mineral deposits are more populated.
Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities.
Places with cultural or historical significances are usually populated.
Employment opportunities is another attraction for large chunks of the population.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

The reasons for the rapid growth of population in India is mainly the , high birth rate and low death rate.
Birth rate is high, death rate declined due to advanced medical facilities and immunization to dreadful diseases.
And also migration of population due to employment, education and industrial development.

TB Page No. 154

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:
The number of females per thousand men is called the sex ratio.
Reasons:

Lesser care of female children.
Greater risk to womens’ life especially at the time of child brith.
Women are also killed or forced to die by the dowry seekers.
Due to illiteracy.
Lack of medical facilities for women, etc.

TB Page No. 158

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI?
Answer:

National Highway Authority of India was established in 1995.
It is an autonomous body under the ministry of Surface Transport.
Management of all major National Highways and the highways entrusted to it.
Maintenance, development and operation of the National Highways is undertaken by NHAI.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways? Highlights:
Answer:

It is the largest Highway project completed in India.
It is the fifth largest highway project in the world.
The overall length of the Golden Quadrilateral is 5,846 km.
The Golden Quadrilateral passes through 13 states of India.
It connects four major metropolitan cities of the country in four directions.

Benefits:

Provides faster transport networks between major cities and ports.
Provides connectivity to major agricultural industrial and cultural centres of India.
Provides smoother movement of goods and people within the country.
Enables industrial development and job creation in smaller town through access to varied markets.
Farmers are able to transport their produce to major cities and towns for sale and export and there is less wastage and spoils.
More economic growth through construction and indirect demand for steel, cement, and other construction materials.
Giving an impetus to truck transports.

TB Page No. 162

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the North Eastern State?
Answer:
The North Eastern States are mountainous and forested. So construction of roadways or railways is very difficult due to terrains. Air transport has made accessibility easier. So air travel is preferred in the North eastern states.

TB Page No. 165

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocs which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Trading blocs are usually groups of countries in specific regions that manage and promote trade activities. Trading blocs lead to trade liberalisation and trade creation between members, since they are treated favourably in comparison to non-members. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) permits the existence of trading bloc provided that they result in lower protection against outside countries than existed before the creation trading bloc.
The most significant trading blocs currently are:

European Union (EU): A customs union, a single market and now with a single currency.
European Free Trade Area (EFTA)
North American Free Trade Agreement (NFATA) between the USA, Canada and Mexico.
Mercosur: A customs union between Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and Venezuela.
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Association of Free Trade Area (AFTA)
Common market of Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA)
South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) created in 2006 with countries such as India and Pakistan.
Pacific Alliance: 2013 – a regional trade agreement between Chile, Colombia, Mexico and Peru.

TB Page No. 159
Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”Key Points:
Answer:

Large scale movement
National integration promotion
Commercialisation of agriculture
Movement of perishable goods
Avoids traffic congestion how?
Engineering marvel
Quiz regarding railways

TB Page No. 165

Question 2.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:
India has made bilateral trade agreement with these countries.

Bilateral Trade Countries: U.S.A . China, Hongkong, Singapore, United Kingdom, Germany, Bangladesh.

Multilateral Trade Countries: The members of the SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) Korea, Japan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Srilanka, U.S.A and United Kingdom.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………………. is the second-most populous country next to China.
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
The fast movement of traffic are established by ……
(a) national highways
(b) Express highways
(c) International highways
Answer:
(a) national highways

Question 3.
As per 2011 census the average density of population of India is …………………. persons per Sq.Km.
(a) 302
(b) 382
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 382

Question 4.
The ………. have more railways than the Himalayan Mountains.
(a) Northern Plains
(b) Coastal Plains
(c) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(a) Northern Plains

Question 5.
The Grand Trunk Road extends from …………………. to ………………….
(a) Delhi to Mumbai
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta
(c) Mumbai to Thane
(d) Srinagar to Amritsar.
Answer:
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta

Question 6.
The cheapest mode of transport is …….
(a) roadways
(b) railways
(c) waterways
Answer:
(c) waterways

Question 7.
…………………. are multi-lane good quality highways for high speed traffic.
(a) National Highways
(b) State highways
(c) Border roads
(d) Express highways.
Answer:
(d) Express highways.

Question 8.
Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country is known as …… trade.
(a) External
(b) Foreign
(c) Internal
Answer:
(c) Internal

Question 9.
The …………………. railway accounts for the longest route length.
(a) Northern Railways
(b) Central Railway
(c) Eastern railway
(d) Southern Railway
Answer:
(a) Northern Railways

Question 10.
A cost-efficient and most popular mode of transport in our country is ……..
(a) Airways
(b) Roadways
(c) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 11.
India is the …………………. largest ship owning country in Asia.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(b) Second

Question 12.
The costliest and most modem means of transport is ……..
(a) Air transport
(b) Road transport
(c) Rail transport
Answer:
(a) Air transport

Question 13.
The is the first communication Satellite in INSAT Series.
(a) G.SAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) INSAT-IB
(d) Kalpana-1
Answer:
(c) INSAT-IB

Question 14.
The major ports are managed and controlled by …….
(a) National Ports Corporation
(b) Port Trust of India
(c) Indian Airlines
Answer:
(b) Port Trust of India

Question 15.
Indian space Research organisation was established in the year:
(a) 1959
(b) 1969
(c) 1979
(d) 1996
Answer:
(b) 1969

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Describe the three population density zones of India.
Answer:
The three population density zones of India are :

High-density zone: The Northern plains above 500 people per sq.km. Northern plains and Kerala in the. South.
Moderate or Medium density zone: Mountain region 250-500 people per sq.km. Ex. Assam and Peninsular states.
Low-density zone: Plateau region below 250 people per sq.km. Ex. Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical factors.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural vegetation, minerals and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, culture, political issues, economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 3.
What is the major objective to develop the Super Highways?
Answer:
The major objective to develop the Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between
the megacities of India facilitating the fast movement of traffic.

Question 4.
Which phase period in population growth of India is often referred as period of population explosion?
Answer:
During the third phase (1951-1981) the population of India grew from 361 million in 1951 to 683 million in 1981. Growth rate in this period is almost doubled. So this period (1951-1981) is often referred as the period of “population explosion”.

Question 5.
State some problems of road transport in our country.
Answer:

Distribution of road is not uniform in the country.
Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
About half of the roads are unmetalled and this restricts their usage during the rainy season.
The roadways are highly congested in cities.
Poor maintenance is also a big problem.

Question 6.
What are the four major shipyards in India?
Answer:
India as four major shipyards:

Hindustan shipyard – Vishakapatnam
Garden Reach workshop – Kolkata
Mazagaon Dock – Mumbai
Kochi shipyard – Kochi

Question 7.
State the highlights of India’s foreign trade policy since 2004.
Answer:

Merchandise trade has been doubled.
Thrust is given for employment generation; especially in semi-urban and rural areas.
Trade procedure is simplified and transaction cost is reduced.
Special focus is given to make India a global hub.
A new scheme called Vishesh Krishi Upay Yojna has been introduced to boost exports of fruits, vegetables, flowers and minor forest products.

Question 8.
Mention the services provided by the Indian postal system in India.
Answer:
Pcstai system is one among the personal communication system. The postal service was open to the public in the country in 1837.

Collecting and delivering mail is the primary function of the postal department.
It introduced Quick Mail Service in 1975 on the basis ofPIN code (1972)
The premium products include the Money order. E-money order, Speed post. Express parcel post, Business post, Media post, Retail post, Data post, Satellite post, Greeting post, Speed net and Speed passport services,

Question 9.
What are the advantages of communication network?
Answer:

It has enhanced the efficiency of communication. Because it enables quick exchange of information with people any where in the world.
It leads to enormous growth of trade.
It helps the government to tackle various socio – economic problems in the society.
It improves the quality of human life.
It opens the door to the information age.
It promotes Edusat programs.
It plays a significant role in the economic and social growth of our country.

Question 10.
Write the full form of STD, ISD, PCO, Internet.
Answer:

STD – Subscriber Trunk Dialing
ISD – International Subscriber Dialing
PCO – Public Call Office
Internet – Inter connected network.

Question 11.
What are major ports along the West Coast and East Coast?
Answer:
West Coast Ports :

Kandla,
Mumbai,
Jawahar Lal Nehru,
Marmagoa,
New Mangalore and
Cochin East Cost Ports:
- Tuticorin,
- Chennai,
- Ennore,
- Vishakhapatnam,
- Paradip,
- Haldia and
- Kolkota.

Question 12.
Name the major ports on the East coast and on the West Coast of India.
Answer:
There are 13 major ports in India. They are administered by the Central Government.

The major ports on the East coast are Kolkata, Haldia, Paradip,Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
The major ports on the West Coast are Kandla, Mumbai, Nhava Seva (Jawaharial Nehru Port), New Mangalore, Marmagao and Kochi.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Internet.
Answer:

Internet is a vast network of computers, Internet means interconnected network of net , works.
It connects many of the world’s business institutions and individuals.
It enables computer users throughout the world to send and receive messages and information in a variety of forms.
It is fully a multimedia based system with capacity to deliver pictures, images, video and audio.
The basic services of internet are e-mail. The World Wide Web and Internet Phone.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Exports and Imports.
Exports:

Goods and services sold for foreign currency.
Major exports of India are tea, ores and minerals, marine products, textiles etc.
Value of exports are more than the value of imports favourable balance of trade.
India exports goods to nearly 190 countries of the world.

Imports:

Goods and services bought from overseas producers.
Major imports are petroleum products, gold, telecom instruments.
Value of imports exceeds value of exports unfavourable balance of trade.
Imports we get from nearly 140 countries.

Question 2.
Low Density and High Density of population.
Answer:
Low Density of Population:

Areas that have 150 to 300 persons living per sq.km.
Extreme climate, high mountains, remote areas, forested regions have low density of population.
In India Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Andaman and Nicobar islands are some states with low population density.

High Density of Population:

Areas that have 500 to 1000 persons living per sq.km.
Favourable climate, plains, employment opportunities, industrial centres area have high density of population.
Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala are the states with high population density.

Question 3.
National and State Highways.
Answer:
National Highways:

Connects Capitals of States, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
Ministry of Road transport and Highways of India is responsible development and maintenance.
Runs to a length of 1,01,011 kms as of 2016.

State Highways:

Link important cities, towns and district head quarters within the State and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
Administered and financed by state Governments.
Runs to the length of 1,76,166 kms as of 2016.

Question 4.
Domestic and International Airways.
Answer:
Domestic Airways:

Fly within the boundaries of the country.
Indian Airlines provides the domestic air services. NACIL (I)
There are about 80 domestic airports and about 25 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

International Airways:

Fly across the world and connect major cities of the world.
Air India provides international air services. NACIL (A)
There are 19 designated international airports in the country.

Question 5.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

Extensive stretch of deep water near the seashore.
Vessels can anchor securely.

Port:

Commercial part of a harbour.
Facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo
Cuddalore, Ennore.

Question 6.
Birth and Death.
Answer:
Birth Rate:

No. of live Births per 1000 people in a year.
Also known as Nationality rate.

Death Rate:

No. of Deaths per 1000 people in a year.
Also known as Mortality rate.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is the importance of railway transport?
Answer:

The Indian Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
They have a network of about 7,112 stations spread over a route length of 66,687 km with a fleet of 11,122 locomotives, 70,241 passenger coaches and 2,54,000 wagons.
Railways are the prime mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
They bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.
The Indian Railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. The first train streamed of from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, covering a distance of 34 km.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Census? How it is useful?
Answer:

Population census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining at a specific time, of all persons in a country or a well defined part of a country.
Census is being taken in an interval of ten years.
The data collected through the census are used for administration, planning, policy making, management and evaluation of various programmes by the government.
In India 1st census was carried out in the year 1872.
But the first complete and synchronous census was conducted in 1881 The 2011 census represents the fifteenth census of India.

Question 3.
Describe the importance of pipelines in India. Name three important networks of pipelines transportation in the country.
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation of India.

Transport of crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. ‘
Even solids can be transported through pipelines when converted into slurry.
The far inland locations of refineries and gas based fertiliser plants could be transported.
Initial cost of lying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are tninimal.
It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.

Three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country:

From oil field in the upper Assam to Kanpur (UP), via Guwahati, Baraumi and Allahabad.
From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab. Via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat.
Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in UP, via Vijaipur in MP.

Question 4.
What are the problems created by over population in India?
Answer:
In India, growing pressure of Population on resource base, created many socio economic, cultural, political, ecological and environmental problems. The population problem varies in space and time and differ from region to region.

Major issues created by the over population are – overcrowding, unemployment and under employment, low standard of living mal nutrition, mismanagement of natural and agricultural resources, unhealthy environment etc.

Question 5.
Write about the significance of Indian Railways.
Answer:

Indian Railway system is the main artery of the country’s inland transport.
Indian Railway network is the largest in Asia and second largest in the world.
Railways are considered as the back bone of the surface transport system of India.
Significances: It caters to the needs of large scale movement of traffic both for freight and passengers, there by contributing to economic growth.
It promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
It promotes national integration by bringing people together.
Railways help in the commercialization of the agricultural sector by facilitating the quick movements of perishable goods.
It provides invaluable service by transporting raw materials to industries and finished goods to market.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the two types of trade? State its components:
Answer:

Trade is an act (or) process of buying selling or exchanging of goods and services. Trade in general is of two types. They are Internal trade and International trade.
Internal Trade: Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country.
International trade: Trade carried on between two or more countries.
Exports and imports are the two components of international trade.
The difference between value of exports and imports is called balance of trade.
If the value of exports exceeds the value of imports trade is said to be favourable balance of trade.
If the value of Imports exceeds value of exports it is said to be unfavourable balance of trade.
The value of currency of a country depends upon the balance of trade of that country.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
North-South corridor
Answer:

Question 2.
East-West corridor
Answer:

Question 3.
Head quarters of Indian Railway – Delhi.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 3 State Government

January 30, 2025

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

The President
people
Mrs.Fathima Beevi
The Governor
1956
President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

He should be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 35 years of age.
He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

Relating to the council of Ministers
Relating to the Governor
Relating to the State Legislature
Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

The Legislature controls over the Executive.
The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

Judicial review
Legislative Assembly
Governor
Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
Sixty
Permanent
Speaker
Upper House
169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
He also be transferred from one State to another.
If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

Call for returns from them.
Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions

January 30, 2025

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 9 Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 9 Solutions

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
A solution is a mixture.
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) homogeneous and heterogeneous
(d) non-homogeneous
Answer:
(a) homogeneous

Question 2.
The number of components in a binary solution is ______.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
Which of the following is the universal solvent?
(a) Acetone
(b) Benzene
(c) Water
(d) Alcohol
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 4.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called ______.
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Un saturated solution
(c) Supersaturated solution
(d) Dilute solution.
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution

Question 5.
Identify the non-aqueous solution.
(a) sodium chloride in water
(b) glucose in water
(c) copper sulphate in water
(d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
Answer:
(d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide

Question 6.
When pressure is increased at a constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid ______.
(a) No change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) no reaction.
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 7.
Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for saturation:
(a) 12 g
(b) 11 g
(c) 16 g
(d) 20 g
Answer:
(b) 11 g

Question 8.
A 25% alcohol solution means ______.
(a) 25 ml of alcohol in. 100 ml of water
(b) 25 ml of alcohol in 25 ml of water
(c) 25 ml of alcohol in 75 ml of water
(d) 75 ml of alcohol in 25 ml of water.
Answer:
(c) 25 ml of alcohol in 75 ml of water

Question 9.
Deliquescence is due to:
(a) Strong affinity to water
(b) Less affinity to water
(c) Strong hatred to water
(d) Inertness to water
Answer:
(a) Strong affinity to water

Question 10.
Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
(a) ferric chloride
(b) copper sulphate pentahydrate
(c) silica gel
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) silica gel

II. Fill in the blanks:

The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called ……..
Example for liquid in solid type solution is ……….
Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in ……… g of solvent.
Polar compounds are soluble in ……… solvents.
Volume percentage decreases with increases in temperature because ………

Answer:

solute
amalgam
100
Polar
of expansion of liquid

III. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 1
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement):

Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution.
In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is called solvent.
Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution.
The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO₄. 7H₂O
When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is hygroscopic in nature.

Answer:

False – Solutions which contain two components are called binary solution.
False – In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is called solute.
False – Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms an aqueous solution.
False – The molecular formula of green vitriol is FeSO₄. 7H₂O
True

V. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define the term: Solution
Answer:
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

Question 2.
What is mean by the binary solution?
Answer:
A solution must at least be consisting of two components. Such solutions which are made of one solute and one solvent are called binary solutions.
E.g., On adding CuSO₄ crystals to water.

Question 3.
Give an example each

gas in liquid;
solid in liquid;
solid in solid;
gas in gas.

Answer:

Gas in liquid – CO₂ in water
Solid in liquid – NaCl in water
Solid in solid – Alloys
Gas in gas – He – O₂ gas

Question 4.
What is the aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Answer:
Aqueous solution: The solution in which water act as a solvent is called aqueous solution. In general, ionic compounds are soluble in water and form aqueous solutions more readily than covalent compounds. E.g. Common salt in water.

Non – Aqueous solution: The solution in which any liquid, other than water act as a solvent is called non-aqueous solution. Alcohols, benzene, ethers, etc., are used as non – aqueous solvents. E.g. Sulphur dissolved in carbon disulphide.

Question 5.
Define Volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of solution.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 2

Question 6.
The aquatic animals live more in a cold region. Why?
Answer:
Aquatic animals live more in cold regions because the solubility of oxygen is more in cold water (at low temperature). Therefore, aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water.

Question 7.
Define Hydrated salt.
Answer:
Ionic substances which crystallise out from their saturated aqueous solution with a definite number of molecules of water are called hydrated salts.

Question 8.
A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Answer:
The capability of a solution to maintain a certain concentration of solute is temperature-dependent. When a saturated solution of copper sulphate at above room temperature is allowed to cool, the solution becomes supersaturated and in the absence of stirring or the return of the previous solution temperature, the solute starts to precipitate out. i.e., crystal formation occurs.

Question 9.
Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic. Cone. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride and Gypsum salt.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 3

VI. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Write notes on?

saturated solution
unsaturated solution

Answer:

Saturated solution: A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature is called saturated solution, e.g. 36 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms a saturated solution.
Unsaturated solution: Unsaturated solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution at a given temperature, e.g. 10 g or 20 g or 30 g of Sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms an unsaturated solution.

Question 2.
Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
There are three main factors which affects the solubility of a solute. They are

Nature of the solute and solvent
Temperature
Pressure

1. Nature of the solute and solvent : The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role in solubility. Even though water is Universal solvent, all substances do not dissolve in water. Dissolution occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute.

Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvent like water and covalent compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents like ether, benzene, alcohol etc.

2. Effect of Temperature :
Solubility of solid in liquid : Generally solubility of a solid solute in a liquid increases with increase in temperature.
In Endothermic process : Solubility increases with increase in temperature.
In Exothermic process : Solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
Solubility of Gases in liquid : Solubility of gases in liquid decreases with increase in temperature.

3. Effect of Pressure : Effect of pressure is observed only in the case of solubility of a gas in a liquid. When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increases.

Question 3.
(a) What happens when MgSO₄.7H₂O is heated? Write the appropriate equation
(b) Define solubility.
Answer:
(a) When Epsom salt MgSO₄.7H₂O crystals are gently heated, it loses seven water molecules and becomes anhydrous MgSO₄.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 4
(b) Solubility is defined as the amount of solute in grams that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 4.
In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 6

Question 5.
A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of the solute (sugar) = 45 g
Mass of the solvent (Water) = 180 g
Formula:
Mass percentage of solute (sugar)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 7
The mass percentage of solute = 20%

Question 6.
3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume percent of ethanol solution.
Answer:
Volume of ethanol = 3.5 lit = 3500 ml
Volume of water = 15 lit = 15000 ml
Formula:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 8
The volume percentage of ethanol solution = 18.92

VII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of same sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Who will get a faster dissolution of sugar? and Why?
Answer:
Vinu will get a faster dissolution of sugar. Because generally solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature. Therefore Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water than Sarath dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of cold water.

Question 2.
‘A’ is a blue coloured crystalline salt. On heating it loses blue colour and to give ‘B’ When water is added, ‘B’ gives back to ‘A’. Identify A and B, write the equation.
Answer:
Since ‘A’ is a blue coloured crystalline salt, it is CuSO₄. 5H₂O (Blue vitriol). On heating it loses all five water molecules and becomes colourless anhydrous CuSO₄.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 9
When water is added ‘B’ gives back A.

Question 3.
Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain.
Answer:
At hilltops, the temperature will become less and pressure also decreases. Because temperature and pressure are directly proportional to each other. At low-pressure carbonate, cool drinks will give less fizz and give more fizz at the foot.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The dissolution of sugar and salt in water results in a solution.
(a) Binary
(b) Ternary
(c) Quaternary
(d) Saturated
Answer:
(b) Ternary

Question 2.
In a solution, the component which is present in a lesser amount is called ______.
(a) solvent
(b) dissolution
(c) solute
(d) mole.
Answer:
(c) solute

Question 3.
The supersaturated solution of NaCl in 100 g of water at 25°C contains:
(a) 40 g of NaCl
(b) 10 g of NaCl
(c) 20 g of NaCl
(d) 30 g of NaCl
Answer:
(a) 40 g of NaCl

Question 4.
How many component(s) present in binary solution?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 5.
Formalin is an aqueous solution of:
(a) formic acid
(b) ammonia
(c) formaldehyde
(d) carbon tetrachloride
Answer:
(c) formaldehyde

Question 6.
The effect of pressure on the solubility of a gas in liquids is given by:
(a) Boyle’s Law
(b) Charle’s Law
(c) Henry’s Law
(d) Avogadro’s Law
Answer:
(c) Henry’s Law

Question 7.
Which one of the following is an example of an aqueous solution?
(a) Sugar in water
(b) Sulphur in carbon disulphide
(c) Iodine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride
(d) Benzoic acid in ethers.
Answer:
(a) Sugar in water

Question 8.
The type of solution when CO₂ is dissolved in water:
(a) solid/liquid
(b) liquid in liquid
(c) gas in liquid
(d) liquid in solid
Answer:
(c) gas in liquid

Question 9.
Tin amalgam is an example of ……… solution.
(a) solid in solid
(b) liquid in solid
(c) solid in liquid
(d) liquid in liquid
Answer:
(b) liquid in solid

Question 10.
In which case solubility decreases with increase in temperature?
(a) Endothermic process
(b) Exothermic process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Exothermic process

Question 11.
Fat is soluble in:
(a) water
(b) alcohol
(c) CCl₄
(d) ether
Answer:
(d) ether

Question 12.
The deliquescent substance among the following is:
(a) con.H₂SO₄
(b) P₂O₅
(c) CaCl₂
(d) SiO₂
Answer:
(c) CaCl₂

Question 13.
Mass percentage is expressed as ______.
(a) v/v
(b) w/w
(c) v/w
(d) w/v.
Answer:
(b) w/w

Question 14.
Hygroscopic substances are used as ……… agents.
(a) foaming
(b) drying
(c) oxidising
(d) reducing
Answer:
(b) drying

Question 15.
The molecular formula of Epsom salt is ______.
(a) CuSO₄.5H₂O
(b) FeSO₄.7H₂O
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) ZnSO₄.7H₂O.
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A true solution is a ……… mixture of solute and solvent.
2. Soil cannot store more nitrogen than it can hold because soil is said to be in a state of ………
3. In the dissolution of NaOH in water, the solubility …….. with increase in temperature.
4. Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water because as the temperature is less the solubility of dissolved oxygen ………
5. Hydrated salts contain ……… of crystallization.
6. He-O₂ mixture is a binary solution of …….. in ………. solution.
7. The solvent used for dissolving Sulphur is ……….
8. The solubility of NaOH at 25°C is ……….
9. According to Henry’s Law, the solubility of a gas in liquid is ………. proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at definite temperature.
10. Anhydrous Calcium chloride is a ………. substance.
11. ……… substances absorb enough water from the atmosphere and get completely dissolved.
12. When 90g of sodium bromide is dissolved in 100 g of water at 25°C it forms a ………. solution.
13. ………. is an example of a binary solution with liquid in Gas.
14. Air and sea water are important ……… solution.
15. A quaternary solution contains ……….. components.
16. The primary factor which determines the characteristic of a solution is ………..
Answer:
1. Homogeneous
2. saturation
3. decreases
4. increases
5. water
6. Gas, Gas
7. CS₂(or) Carbon disulphide
8. 80 g
9. directly
10. Hygroscopic
11. deliquescent
12. Unsaturated
13. Cloud
14. Homogeneous
15. four
16. Physical state

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 10
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 11
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 12
Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

Question 4.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 13
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 14
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. In an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, the solvent is copper sulphate.
2. A solution containing sugar and salt in water is a binary solution.
3. An example of a solid solution is alloy.
4. The difference between concentrated and dilute solution can be observed by means of colour (or) density.
5. A saturated solution contains 91 g of Glucose in 100 g of water at 25°C.
6. Fat is dissolved in the aqueous solvent ether.
7. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas at a definite temperature.
8. Mass percentage of a solution is expressed as .
9. The white vitriol is represented by the formula ZnSO₄. 7H₂O.
10. Ferric chloride is a Hygroscopic substance.
Answer:
1. False – In an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, the solvent is water.
2. False – A solution containing sugar and salt in water is a ternary solution.
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False – Fat is dissolved in the non-aqueous solvent ether.
7. False – The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas at a definite temperature.
8. True
9. True
10. False – Ferric chloride is a deliquescent substance.

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
(i) Which gas is dissolved in soft drinks?
(ii) What will you do to increase the solubility of this gas?
Answer:
(i) Carbon-di-oxide (CO₂) is dissolved in soft drinks.
(ii) An increase in pressure will increase the solubility of CO₂ gas.

Question 2.
Identify the type of binary solution given below.
Answer:

Alloys
Amalgam
Ethyl alcohol in water
Aerated drinks

Answer:

Solid in solid
liquid in solid
liquid in liquid
Gas in liquid

Question 3.
Explain why Nitrogen in soil is called a saturated solution in nature?
Answer:
Nitrogen in soil is an example of a saturated solution in nature. Soil cannot store more Nitrogen than it can hold.

Question 4.
Define Mass percentage.
Answer:
Mass percentage of a solution is defined as the percentage by mass of the solute present in the solution.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 15

Question 5.
Define the term Molarity (M).
Answer:

Question 6.
Define the term Molality (m).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 17

Question 7.
Define the supersaturated solution.
Answer:
A supersaturated solution is one that contains more solute than the saturated solution at a given temperature.
E.g. 40 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C.

Question 8.
Justify the following statements with an explanation.
(i) Solubility of NH₄Cl increases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
Solubility of NH₄Cl increases with increase in temperature because it is an endothermic process.

(ii) Solubility of NaOH decreases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
Solubility of NaOH decreases with increase in temperature because it is an exothermic process.

Question 9.
Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 4 g of NaOH in 500 ml of water.
Answer:
Mass of NaOH = 4 g
Volume of solution = 500 ml
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 18
= 0.1 × 2
= 0.2 M

Question 10.
Calculate the molality of a solution containing 3 g of urea (molecular mass = 60) in 750 g of water.
Answer:
Mass of urea (solute) = 3 g
Mass of water (solvent) = 750 g
Formula:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 19

Question 11.
Define dissolution.
Answer:
The process of uniform distribution of solute into solvent is called dissolution.

VI. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Answer the blanks given in the table.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 20

Question 2.
Write a note on the type of solution based on the type of solvent.
Answer:
(i) Aqueous solution : The solution in which water acts as a solvent is called aqueous solution. In general, ionic compounds are soluble in water and form aqueous solutions more readily than covalent compounds.
Eg: Common salt in water, Sugar in water, Copper sulphate in water etc..

(ii) Non-Aqueous solution : The solution in which any liquid, otter than water, acts as a solvent is called non-aqueous solution. Solvent other than water is referred to as non-aqueous solvent. Generally, alcohols, benzene, ethers, carbon disulphide, acetone, etc., are used as non- aqueous solvents.
Eg: Sulphur dissolved in carbon disulphide, Iodine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride.

Question 3.
Justify the following statements with an explanation.

The solubility of calcium oxide decreases with increase in temperature,
What happens to the solubility in the exothermic process with regard to temperature?
In the endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
At a given temperature, an increase in pressure increases the solubility of the gas

Answer:

In an exothermic process, the solubility decreases. When calcium oxide dissolves in water, an exothermic reaction takes place, and so the solubility of calcium oxide decreases
In an exothermic process, the solubility decreases with the increase in temperature, as there is already an evolution of heat and it is observed.
In an endothermic process, the solubility increases. The solubility of KNO₃ in water is an endothermic reaction and so solubility increases with the increase of temperature.
At a given temperature, an increase in pressure increases the solubility of gas according to Henry’s law. e.g. (CO₂ in soft drinks)

VII. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
50 ml tincture of benzoin, antiseptic solution contains 10 ml of benzoin. Calculate the volume of percentage of benzoin.
Answer:
Volume of the solute, Benzoin = 10 ml
Volume of the solution, tincture of benzoin = 50 ml
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 21
= 20% (v/v)

Question 2.
Neomycin, the antibiotic cream contains 300 mg of neomycin sulphate the active ingredient in 30 g of ointment base. Calculate the mass percentage of neomycin.
Answer:
Mass of neomycin sulphate(solute) = 300 mg
Mass of the ointment (solution) = 30 g
Formula:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 22

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the molality of the solution containing 18 g of Glucose (Molecular mass 180) in 2 kg of water.
Answer:
Mass of Glucose = 18 g
Molecular mass of Glucose = 180
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 23
= 0. 05 m

Question 2.
Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5.85 g of sodium chloride in 500 ml of the water. (Molecular mass = 58.5)
Answer:
Mass of the solute = 5.85 g
Volume of the solution = 500
No. of moles of NaCl = \(\frac{5.85}{58.5}\) = 0.1
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 9 Solutions 24
= \(\frac{0.1}{500}\) × 1000 = 0.2 M

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals

January 30, 2025

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Active transport involves:
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
(b) expenditure of energy
(c) it is an uphill task
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ______.
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) phloem
(d) xylem.
Answer:
(d) xylem.

Question 3.
During transpiration there is loss of:
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) oxygen
(c) water
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) water

Question 4.
Root hairs are ______.
(a) cortical cell
(b) projection of the epidermal cell
(c) unicellular
(d) both b and c.
Answer:
(b) projection of the epidermal cell

Question 5.
Which of the following process requires energy?
(a) active transport
(b) diffusion
(c) osmosis
(d) all of them
Answer:
(a) active transport

Question 6.
The wall of the human heart is made of ______.
(a) Endocardium
(b) Epicardium
(c) Myocardium
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 7.
Which is the sequence of correct blood flow?
(a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
(b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein
(d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries
Answer:
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein

Question 8.
A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use for transfusion in this condition?
(a) O group
(b) AB group
(c) A or B group
(d) all blood group.
Answer:
(d) all blood group.

Question 9.
‘Heart of heart’ is called:
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Bundle of His
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 10.
Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct?
(a) Plasma – Blood + Lymphocyte
(b) Serum – Blood + Fibrinogen
(c) Lymph – Plasma + RBC + WBC
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets.
Answer:
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC+ WBG + Platelets.

II. Fill in the blanks:

……….. involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
Water enters the root cell through a ………. plasma membrane.
Structures in roots that help to absorb water are …………
Normal blood pressure is …………
The normal human heartbeat rate is about ……….. time per minute.

Answer:

Transpiration
Semipermeable
Root hairs
120 mm / 80 mm Hg
72 – 75 times

III. Match the following:

Section – I
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 1
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)

Section – II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 2
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (viii)
F. (vii)
G. (v)
H. (vi)

IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement:

The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food.
Plants lose water by the process of transpiration.
The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose.
In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
When the guard cells lose water the stoma opens.
Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves.
All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections.
The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole produces the first sound ‘LUBB’.

Answer:

True
True
False – The form of sugar transported through the phloem is sucrose.
False – Apoplastic movement does not involve crossing the cell membrane.
False – When the guard cells lose water the stoma closes.
False – Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by Sino-atrial node.
False – All veins carry deoxygenated blood except the pulmonary veins,
True
True.

V. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
Answer:
Pericardium is the two layered protective covering of human heart.

Question 2.
What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
Answer:
The shape of RBC in human blood is biconcave and disc – shaped.

Question 3.
Why is the colour of the blood red?
Answer:
The blood is red in colour due to the presence of respiratory pigment – haemoglobin.

Question 4.
Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
Answer:
Lymphocytes in the lymph, which defend the body from infection.

Question 5.
Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
Answer:
Aortic valve present at the base of aorta.

Question 6.
Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
Answer:
Coronary arteries.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The general mechanism of stomatal movement is based on entry and exit of water molecules in guard cells. When the turgidity increases within the guard cells the stomata open. When the guard cells lose water it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 2.
What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called Cohesion.

Question 3.
Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:
Soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → Pericycle → xylem → stem → leaves.

Question 4.
What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in the roots?
Answer:
When transpiration exceeds than water absorption by roots, the plant dehydrates. It affects plant processes such as growth, Photosynthesis and transpiration.

Question 5.
Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
Answer:
The heart is thick muscular organ located in the thoracic cavity. It is covered by a two layered sac called pericardium. The heart is four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. Right Auricle receives deoxygenated blood from superior and inferior vena cava and passes to right ventricles from right ventricles impure blood passes to pulmonary artery and reaches the lungs.

Question 6.
Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
Answer:
The blood circulates twice, through the heart in one complete cycle, in the circulation of blood in man. So it is called double circulation.

Question 7.
What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
Answer:
‘Lubb’ and ‘Dupp’ are the sounds of the heart. ‘Lubb’ sound is produced by the ventricle- contraction. It arises due to closing of mitral and tricuspid valve.
‘Dupp’ is produced by ventricular diastole. This arises due to the closing of the semi-lunar valves of two auricles.

Question 8.
What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Answer:
The valves are the muscular flaps, that regulate the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent backflow of blood.

Question 9.
Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
Answer:
Landsteiner and Wiener discovered Rh factor of blood in 1940. Rh factor is a protein CD antigen present on the surface of the red blood cells in majority of humans. This protein is similar to the protein present in Rhesus monkey, hence the term Rh.

Question 10.
How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 3

Question 11.
Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of the heart?
Answer:
Sinoatrial node is called the pacemaker of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse, which can stimulate the heart muscles to contract.

Question 12.
Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 4

Question 13.
The complete events of the cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?
Answer:

Atrial Systole: Contraction of auricles (0.1 sec)
Ventricular Systole: Contraction of ventricles (0.3 sec)
Ventricular diastole: Relaxation of Ventricles (0.4 sec).

VII. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
Answer:
All minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots because, minerals are present in the soil as charged particles that cannot move across the cell membranes and the concentration of minerals in the soil is usually lower than the. concentration of minerals in the root. So, the minerals enter the root by active absorption through the cytoplasm of epidermal cells which needs energy.

Question 2.
Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
Answer:
Guard cells are responsible for the opening and closing of stomata because, during transpiration, the movement of ions (Potassium) in and out of the guard cells causes the opening and closing of Stomata. When the water moves inside the guard cells, causing them to swell up and become turgid making the stomata open. When guard cells cause water to move out of the cell and make guard cells shrunk and stomata pores close.

Question 3.
The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
Answer:
Phloem transports food from the source to sink. The source is part in which plant synthesize food, sink is the part that needs or stores food. Since the source-sink relationship is variable, the direction of movement in the Phloem can be upwards or downwards, i.e., bidirectional.

Question 4.
Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
Answer:
Minerals like Phosphorus, Sulphur, Nitrogen and Potassium are remobilised in the soil from older dying leaves to younger leaves. This phenomenon is seen in deciduous plants. So minerals in the plants are not lost, when the leaf falls.

Question 5.
The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
Answer:
Because the right ventricle have to pump out the deoxygenated blood with force away from the heart through pulmonary artery to lungs.

Question 6.
Mature RBC in mammals does not have cell organelles.
Answer:
Mature RBC in mammals does not have cell organelles because

The lack of Nucleus in RBC makes the cells, biconcave and disc – shaped. RBC involved in the transport of oxygen from lungs to tissues.
They do not have cell organelles in order to accommodate maximum space for haemoglobin.
The loss of endoplasmic reticulum allows more flexibility, for RBC to move through narrow capillaries.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do plants absorb water? Explain.
Answer:
Water present in the soil must reach the xylem of roots. Root hair is in contact with soil water. Their cell wall is thin and water easily diffuses in the passage of water from the soil to leaf is
Soil water → Root hair → Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Xylem → Stem and leaf.
Once water is absorbed by the root hairs, it can move deepers into root layers by two pathways. Apoplast and Symplast.

Apoplast : This is the non living path in plants. It occurs through the intercellular spaces and walls of the cells. This movement dependent on the gradient.
Symplast : This is the living passage. The movement of water from cell to cell through plasmodesmato and cytoplasm, Movement is again down a potential gradient.

Question 2.
What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
Answer:
Transpiration is the evaporation of water in plants through stomata in the leaves.
Importance of Transpiration

Creates transpirational pull for the transport of water.
Supplies water for photosynthesis.
Transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant.
Cools the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
Keeps the cells turgid; hence, maintains their shape.

Question 3.
Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
Answer:
Depending on the presence and absence of granules, leucoytes are divided into two types Granulocytes and Agranulocytes.
Granulocytes : They are characterised by the presence of granules in cytoplasm. The granulocytes include neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils.

Neutrophils : They constitute about 60-65% of total WBC’s. They are large and have many lobed nucleus. They are phagocytic in nature and appear in large,number in and around the infected tissue.
Eosinophils : They have bilobed nucleus and constitute about 2-3% of total WBC’s. Eosinophil increase during certain types of parasitic infection and allergic reaction. It bring about detoxification of toxin.
Basophils: Basophil have lobed nucleus. They form 0.5 – 1.0% of the total leucocytes. They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.

Agranulocytes : They are characterised by the absence of granules in the cytoplasm. These are of two types Lymphocytes and Monocytes.

Lymphocytes: These are about 20-25% of the total leucocytes. They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
Monocytes: They are the largest leucocytes and amoeboid in shape. These cells form 5-6% of the total leucocytes. They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.

Question 4.
Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of the heartbeat.
Answer:
One complete contraction (Systole) and relaxation (diastole) of the atrium and ventricles of the heart constitutes Heartbeat. The human heart is myogenic. Contraction is initiated by the sino – atrial (SA) node, which is situated in the wall of the right atrium, near the opening of the superior vena cava. SA node is broader at the top and tapering below and made up of thin fibres.

SA node acts as the ‘pacemaker’ of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse which can stimulate the heart muscles to contract. The impulse spreads like a wave of contraction over the right and left atrial wall, pushing the blood, through the atrioventricular valves into the ventricles and the same wave from SA node reaches the atrioventricular node (AV), to emit an impulse of contraction, spreading to the ventricular muscle, through the atrioventricular bundle and the Purkinje fibres. The expansion of the artery every time, the blood is forced into the arteries, is called pulse. Normal pulse rate ranges from 70 – 90 / min.

Question 5.
Enumerate the functions of blood.
Answer:

Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO₂).
Transport of digested food materials to the different body cells.
Transport of hormones.
Transport of nitrogenous excretory products like ammonia, urea and uric acid.
It is involved in protection of the body and defense against diseases.
It acts as buffer and also helps in regulation of pH and body temperature.
It maintains proper water balance in the body.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
1. Assertion: RBC plays an important role in the transport of respiratory gases.
Reason: RBC do not have cell organelles and nucleus.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion: Persons with AB blood group are called an universal recipients, because they can receive blood from all groups.
Reason: Antibodies are absent in persons with AB blood group.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS):

Question 1.
When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the phenomenon involved in this change.
Answer:
The process is imbibition’. The type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up is Imbibition.

Question 2.
Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
Answer:
The walls of the left ventricle are about three times thicker than the right ventricle. The left ventricle gives rise to the aorta, which carries oxygenated blood, to various organs of the body. The ventricle walls are thick because they have to pump out blood with force away from the heart.

Question 3.
Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
Answer:
A stethoscope is an instrument used to detect the sound produced by the internal organs of human body. It is an useful diagnostic tool to identify and localize health problems and diagnose disease.

Question 4.
How do the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared to a normal artery and vein?
Answer:

All arteries carry oxygenated blood, except pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
All veins carry deoxygenated blood, except pulmonary veins, which carry oxygenated blood from the lungs and to the left atrium of the Heart.

Question 5.
Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
Answer:
The water is lost from the leaves due to transpiration, pressure is created in, at the top to pull more water from the xylem to the leaves through the process of transpiration pull. This ensure the continuous flow of water from the roots of the leaves.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Seed swells when placed in water due to:
(a) osmosis
(b) imbibition
(c) hydrolysis
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) imbibition

Question 2.
Root hairs occurs in:
(a) Meristematic zone
(b) Cell elongation zone
(c) Cell maturation zone
(d) Old root
Answer:
(c) Cell maturation zone

The other name for Red blood corpuscles (RBC) is called ______.
Answer:
Erythrocytes.

Question 3.
Water in plants is transported by ascent of sap takes place through:
(a) cambium
(b) xylem
(c) phloem
(d) epidermis
Answer:
(b) xylem

Question 4.
Absorption of water is increased when:
(a) transpiration is increased
(b) photosynthesis is increased
(c) respiration is increased
(d) root pressure is increased
Answer:
(a) transpiration is increased

Question 5.
Opening of stomata is due to:
(a) Turgidity of guard cells
(b) Size of guard cells
(c) Number of guard cells
(d) Amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Turgidity of guard cells

Question 6.
Guard cells help in:
(a) Fighting against infection
(b) Guttation
(c) Protecting against grazing
(d) Transpiration
Answer:
(d) Transpiration

Question 7.
Photosynthetic food material is transported in the form of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Starch
(d) Fructose
Answer:
(b) Sucrose

Question 8.
Coronary artery supplies blood to:
(a) Mammary glands
(b) Rib muscles
(c) Skin
(d) Heart
Answer:
(d) Heart

Question 9.
All arteries carry oxygenated blood except:
(a) systematic
(b) hepatic
(c) pulmonary
(d) cardiac
Answer:
(c) pulmonary

Question 10.
The colour of lymph is:
(a) white
(b) pale yellow
(c) colourless
(d) milky
Answer:
(c) colourless

Question 11.
An artery can be distinguished from a vein in having:
(a) thicker wall
(b) elastic vessels
(c) no valves
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 12.
Purkinje fibres mainly help in contraction of:
(a) right auricle
(b) left auricle
(c) ventricles
(d) Aorta
Answer:
(c) ventricles

Question 13.
The ‘Lubb’ and ‘Dupp’ heart sound are due to:
(a) opening of heart valves
(b) action of papillary’ muscles
(c) closing of heart valves
(d) activity of pace maker
Answer:
(c) closing of heart valves

Question 14.
The closed circulatory system occurs in:
(a) cockroach
(b) fish
(c) mosquito
(d) house fly
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 15.
Normal pulse rate is:
(a) 80 mm Hg
(b) 120 mm Hg
(c) 40 mg Hg
(d) 90 mm Hg
Answer:
(d) 90 mm Hg

Question 16.
In the ABO system of blood groups, of both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be?
(a) B
(b) O
(c) AB
(d) A
Answer:
(c) AB

Question 17.
Arteries are branches of:
(a) capillaries
(b) veins
(c) aorta
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) aorta

Question 18.
Which type of WBCs are found in maximum number?
(a) Monocytes
(b) Basophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Neutrophils
Answer:
(d) Neutrophils

Question 19.
Which of the following are granular WBCs?
(a) Neutrophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes
(b) Eosinophil, Basophil, Monocytes
(c) Basophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes
(d) Neutrophils, Eosinophil, Basophil
Answer:
(d) Neutrophils, Eosinophil, Basophil

Question 20.
RBCs are concerned with carriage of gases.
(a) CO₂
(b) O₂
(c) Respiratory
(d) CO₂ and SO₂
Answer:
(c) Respiratory

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The contraction of heart is called ………..
2. Oxygenated blood is carried by ………..
3. Sphygmomanometer measures ………..
4. Heart of man is ………..
5. Pace maker of heart is ………..
6. The life span of RBC in human is ……… days.
7. Pulmonary artery carry ………….. blood.
8. ………. discovered the circulation of blood in man.
9. Semilunar valve is present at the base of ………….
10. Human heart beats ………. times in a minute at rest.
11. Red blood pigment is ………..
12. Transpiration helps in the absorption and ………… movement of water and minerals.
13. Water in plants is transported by ascent of sap takes place through ……….
14. The absorption water due to expenditure of energy is called ………….
15. In plants, the translocation of organic solutes takes place through ………….
Answer:
1. systole
2. pulmonary vein
3. blood pressure
4. myogenic
5. sino atrial node
6. 120
7. deoxygenated
8. William Harvey
9. Pulmonary artery
10. 72
11. Haemoglobin
12. upward
13. xylem
14. active absorption
15. phloem

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 5
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 6
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. State whether true or false. If false write the correct statement:

The human heart beats 72 times per minute.
Right half of heart receives and pu mps off oxygenated blood.
Between right auricle and right ventricle seen Mitral valve.
The force of attraction between water molecule is cohesion.
By passive transport sucrose moves into the cells where it is utilised or stored.

Answer:

True
False – Right half of heart receives and pumps off deoxygenated blood.
False – Between right auricle and right ventricle seen tricuspid valve.
True
False – By active transport sucrose moves into the cells where it is utilised or stored.

V. Creative Question:

Question 1.
Origin of heart beat and its conduction is represented by:
(a) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres
(b) SA node → Purkinje fibres → AV node → Bundle of His
(c) Purkinje fibres → Purkinje node → AV fibres → Bundle of His
(d) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres
Answer:
(d) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

Question 2.
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be drafted at the site of:
(a) Purkinje system
(b) Sinu atrial node
(c) Atrio ventricular node
(d) Atrio ventricular bundle
Answer:
(b) Sinu atrial node

Question 3.
Doctor use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when:
(a) AV node receives signal from SA node
(b) AV valves open up
(c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to rushing in of blood from atria
(d) Semi lunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
Answer:
(d) Semi lunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles

VI. Assertion and Reason:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: RBC impart red colour to the blood due to the presence of respiratory pigment haemoglobin.
Reason: The young RBC contain nucleus in man.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecule from higher concentration to lower concentration.
Reason: Osmosis is the active movement of water.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VII. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
Name the components of circulatory system.
Answer:
The circulation system consists of the circulating fluids, the blood and lymph, the heart and the blood vessels namely arteries, veins and capillaries.

Question 2.
What is the Ascent of Sap?
Answer:
The upward movement of water and minerals from roots to different plant parts is called ascent of sap.

Question 3.
Mention the composition of plasma.
Answer:
Organic substances like protein, glucose, urea, enzyme, hormones, vitamins and minerals are present in plasma.

Question 4.
Define Adhesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called adhesion.

Question 5.
Why are auricles and ventricles separated by auricular and ventricular septum?
Answer:
The separation of chamber avoids mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

Question 6.
What is Single Circulation?
Answer:
In fishes, amphibians and certain reptiles, the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are mixed ‘ and pass through the heart only once, is called Single Circulation.

Question 7.
Name the instruments used to measure blood pressure.
Answer:
Sphygmomanometer is a clinical instruments used to measure blood pressure when a person is in a relaxed and resting condition. Normal blood pressure in human is 120 mm/ 80 mm Hg.

Question 8.
Which blood group is called as ‘Universal Donor’ and ‘Universal Recipient’.
Answer:
Person with ‘O’ blood group are called Universal Donor.
Person with ‘AB’ blood group are called Universal Recipient.

Question 9.
What is Pulse?
Answer:
During the expansion of the artery, every time, the blood is forced into the arteries is called pulse.

Question 10.
What is transpiration puil?
Answer:
Transpiration through stomata creates vacuum which creates a suction called transpiration pull.

Question 11.
What are Rh antibodies?
Answer:
Rh-negative persons do not have Rh antigen on the surface of RBC. Antibodies developed against this Rh antigen is called Rh antibodies.

Question 12.
What is Adhesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called . adhesion.

VIII. Short answer question:

Question 1.
What is blood pressure?
Answer:
Blood pressure is the force exerted during the flow of blood against the lateral walls of arteries. The blood pressure is high in the arteries gradually drop in the arterioles and capillaries and become very low in the veins. Blood pressure varies during conditions of physical exercise, anxiety, emotions, stress and sleep. Increase in blood pressure is known as hypertension and decrease in blood pressure is termed as hypotension.

Question 2.
Distinguish between open and closed circulation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 7

Question 3.
Explain the phenomenon of Guttation.
Answer:
The Guttation is a phenomenon caused due to root pressure. It takes place through a specialized cells called hydathodes. Dews on the leaves of grass seen in the early morning, when the climate is humid and excess of water in the soil is an example of Guttation.

Question 4.
What is Coronary circulation?
Answer:
The supply of blood to the heart muscles is called as coronary circulation. Cardiac muscles receives oxygenated blood from coronary arteries that originate from the aortic arch. Deoxygenated blood from the cardiac muscles drains into the right atrium by the coronary sinuses.

IX. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
What is lymph? Write its functions.
Answer:
Lymph is a colourless fluid formed when plasma, proteins and blood cells escape into intercellular spaces in the tissues through the pores present in the walls of capillaries.
Functions of Lymph:

Supplies nutrition and oxygen to those parts where blood cannot reach.
It drains away excess tissue fluid and metabolites and returns proteins to the blood from tissue spaces.
The lymph also carries absorbed fats from small intestine to the blood. The lymphatic capillaries of intestinal villi (lacteals) absorb digested fats.
Lymphocytes in the lymph defend the body from infections.

Question 2.
(a) Name the main two components of blood.
(b) What does plasma contain?
Answer:
(a) 1. The fluid plasma
2. Formed elements (blood cells)

RBC
WBC
Blood platelets

(b) Plasma is slightly alkaline, containing non – cellular substance, constitute 55 % of the blood. Organic substances like Proteins, Glucose, Urea, Enzymes, Hormones, Vitamins and Minerals are present in the Plasma.

Question 3.
Demonstrate the process of osmosis with thistle funnel.
Answer:
Aim : To demonstrate the process of osmosis, using Thistle funnel.
Materials Required : Beaker, Thistle funnel, semi permeable membrane, sucrose solution.
Procedure : A thistle funnel whose mouth is covered with a semipermeable membrane, is filled with sucrose solution. It is kept inverted in a beaker containing water.
Observation : The water will diffuse across the membrane due to osmosis and raise the level of the solution in the funnel.
Inference : Raise of liquid in the funnel indicates the process of osmosis.

Question 4.
Explain Double circulation.
Answer:
Diagrammatic representation of the double circulation.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 8

Question 5.
Explain the steps involved in Ascent of sap.
Answer:
The upward movement of water, and minerals from roots to different plant parts is called ascent of sap. A number of factors play a role in ascent of sap and it takes places in following steps.
Root Pressure : Water from soil enters the root hairs due to osmosis. Root pressure is responsible for movement of water up to the base of the stem.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 9
Capillary Action : Water or any liquid rises in a capillary tube because of physical forces, this phenomenon is called capillary action. In the same way, in stem water rises up to certain height because of capillary’ action.
Adhesion-cohesion of Water Molecules : Water molecules form a continuous column in the xylem because of forces of adhesion and cohesion among the molecules.
Cohesion : The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.
Adhesion : The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called adhesion.Water molecules stick to a xylem because of force of adhesion.

Question 6.
Explain the causes of the sound of the Heart.
Answer:
The rhythmic closure and opening of the valves cause the sound of the heart.

The first sound ‘LUBB’ is produced by the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves, after the beginning of ventricular systole. It is a longer duration.
The second sound ‘DUPP’ is produced by the closure of semilunar valves, at the end of ventricular systole. It is of short duration.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and need a fast blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you as her doctor, give?
Answer:
O^+ve, it is universal donor. In O group individuals, Antigen A or B are absent on the surface of RBC. However the plasma contains both antibodies a and b.

Question 2.
What are the factors affecting the Ascent of Sap?
Answer:

High Temperature
Atmospheric Pressure
Wind Velocity
Low atmospheric humidity
Soil water deficit.

Question 3.
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements.
Answer:
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion co-efficient of water and CO₂ is different.

Question 4.
Write a few Strategies, to prevent heart disease.
Answer:

Exercise for about 30 minutes every day.
Smoking or use of Tobacco should be avoided.
Eat a heart-healthy diet – Avoid too much of salt or sugar, use of a diet rich in Vegetables and Fruits.
Maintain a healthy weight.
Get enough quality sleep.
Manage Stress.
Get regular health screenings (B.P. monitoring, Cholesterol level, Diabetes Screening etc.).

XI. Give reason:

Question 1.
Valves are important in human heart. Give reason.
Answer:
The valves will prevent the back flow of blood.

Question 2.
During rainy season wooden door generally swells up – Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to imbibition. It is a type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up.

Question 3.
Para sympathetic neural signals affects the working of the heart. Give reason.
Answer:
It reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.

Question 4.
Grapes placed in salt solution shrink. Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to exosmosis.

Question 5.
Why WBC’s are known as phagocytes?
Answer:
WBC produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infection and engulf the germs.