Bhagya

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The place was a bedlam for birds.
(a) pandemonium
(b) peace
(c) serenity
(d) transition
Answer:
(a) pandemonium

Question 2.
He enlightened them with bon-mots.
(a) repartee
(b) wit
(c) challenges
(d) goodies
Answer:
(b) wit

Question 3.
Words of praise and adulation were showered on the debut artist.
(a) blasphemy
(b) condemnation
(c) aversion
(d) exaltation
Answer:
(d) exaltation

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The princely sum was a stumbling block for her career.
(a) generous
(b) substantial
(c) prime
(d) meagre
Answer:
(d) meagre

Question 5.
Retaining my world cup was one of my greatest achievements.
(a) holding
(b) rescuing
(c) losing
(d) reviving
Answer:
(c) losing

Question 6.
I was so relieved to get my transfer order.
(a) delighted
(b) worried
(c) pleased
(d) comforted
Answer:
(b) worried

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of, “telecast”.
(a) television + broad cast
(b) television + cast
(c) tele + broad cast
(d) tele + cast
Answer:
(a) television + broad cast

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “choreography”.
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements
(b) The process of giving some of your work, duties, or responsibilities to a less senior person or a less powerful person
(c) A student of bees
(d) One who accumulates; one who collects
Answer:
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘At the drop of a hat’.
(a) To hear rumours about someone
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Leo was disappointed, but his losing the election for class president was a fait accompli.
(a) faithful friend
(b) established fact
(c) accomplished scholar
(d) standard issue
Answer:
(b) established fact

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “child”.
(a) person
(b) hood
(c) bed
(d) call
Answer:
(b) hood

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “taken”.
(a) un
(b) mis
(c) dis
(d) en
Answer:
(b) mis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “IIM”.
(a) Indian Institute of Minorities
(b) Indian Institute of Managers
(c) Indian Institute of Marine
(d) Indian Institute of Management
Answer:
(d) Indian Institute of Management

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He loves his profession.
(a) SVO
(b) SVOC
(c) SVOA
(d) SVC
Answer:
(a) SVO

Question 15.
A collection of selected literary passages is known as ………….
(a) Phenomenology
(b) Anthology
(c) Phrenology
(d) Homology
Answer:
(b) Anthology

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Many people travel to Kerala to work ………… small companies.
(a) in
(b) under
(c) on
(d) with
Answer:
(a) in

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Priyanka dances well,………?
(a) isn’t she
(b) doesn’t she
(c) won’t she
(d) will she
Answer:
(b) doesn’t she

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The shoes looked like they had been stolen.
(a) theft
(b) lost
(c) damaged
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck
Answer:
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Your statement will not stand up as proof in the court of law.
(a) oppose
(b) accept
(c) deny
(d) support
Answer:
(d) support

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
Tell me the name of the student ………….. you want to meet.
(a) whom
(b) which
(c) that
(d) whose
Answer:
(a) whom

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces Like dresses – home face”
(а) What has the poet learned?
(b) Mention the figure of speech employed in this line.
Answer:
(a) The poet has learned to put on appearances to conform to the changed attitude of people in modem times.
(b) Simile

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity.”
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending.
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) Who does we refer to?’
(b) What has life never experienced?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to ordinary people who live noble lives.
(b) The life of ordinary people who have not experienced kneeling or bending before the mighty. They are able to stand firm on defending the truth.

Question 24.
“Infusing him with self and vain conceit,
As if this flesh which walls about our life”
(a) Who has vain conceit?
(b) Explain the above lines.
Answer:
(a) The king has vain conceit.
(b) Death knows that all great kings must come to him. For a brief time death is generous and allows kings to rule and to be feared by their subjects. Death allows them to feel conceited and proud with an inflated image of ‘self’.

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the joy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“This one the prize ring hates to enter
That one becomes a tackle or center,”’
(a) What game/sports is associated with “prize ring”?
(b) Which game is discussed in the second line?
Answer:
(a) Prize ring is associated with boxing.
(b) Football is discussed in the second line.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Tara: I went to Hyderabad to attend a seminar on environmental pollution.
Harsha: I am going to the library. Are you coming with me?
Answer:
Tara asked Harsha where he was going then. Harsha replied that he was going to the library and asked if I were coming with him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
Answer:
Alas! Her voice shall not be heard by his friends anymore.
Alas! His friends will not hear her voice anymore.

Question 29.
I did not know that you are going to visit us. I would have come to the airport. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I had known that you were going to visit us, I would have come to the airport.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a compound sentence)
Besides being a good writer he is an outstanding lecturer.
Answer:
He is not only a good writer but also an outstanding lecturer.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Once upon a time, son
They used to laugh with their eyes:
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words to his son while discussing his own happy childhood days.

Explanation: The poet compares the behaviour of people in the past and those in modern . times. He tells his son that people in the past used to laugh with their eyes. There was an expression of genuine warmth among people when they laughed.

Question 32.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes, who adhere to their ethical principles in life.

Explanation: They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and bless and appreciate them.

Question 33.
Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: King Richard II says these words while waiting for death. He is totally dejected.

Explanation: King Richard II thinks of words which could figure in the epitaph (i.e.) on his tomb stone. Being sure of death in the hands of Bolingbroke he requests his loyal courtiers to talk about death and about burial.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty handed.

Question 35.
What made people wonder about the absentmindedness of their fellow-beings?
Answer:
The publication of articles lost by train travellers astonished many readers. Old people did not forget much. In fact, young men have forgotten bats and balls on their return from matches.

Question 36.
Enumerate the values instilled in the students by the Universities.
Answer:
Universities instill the values of robust optimism, respect for democracy and appreciation of others’ point of view. It also develops adjustment of differences through discussion; develop patience, perseverance, confidence, faith in themselves and others. They also instill confidence in their ability to shoulder responsibilities.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. you/where/have/this/all/while/been?
2. this/we/visiting/Shimla/are/summer.
3. the/all/of/art/the/of/science/questions/is/and/knowledge/asking/source/

Answer:

1. Where have you been all this while?
2. We are visiting Shimla this summer.
3. The art and science of asking questions is the source of all knowledge!

Question 38.
Describe the process of Book-binding.
Answer:

1. Firstly, the pages are carefully arranged page wise. Any folding found is removed.
2. They are then arranged into sections and stitched.
3. The sides of the book are cut neatly and covered with a suitable brown paper.
4. Two card board sheets slightly bigger than the book must be pasted on both sides.
5. A calico cloth should be pasted on the closed side of the book to hold the cardboards and be allowed to dry.

Question 39.
Expand the news headlines in a sentence each.
(a) Suman Rao selected the new Miss India.
(b) 12 Injured as Buses Collide.
(c) Indian Team on the high in T20s in England.
Answer:
(a) 20-year old Miss Rajasthan 2019, Suman Rao, was awarded the most covetous crown Miss India at the finals held at Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium, Mumbai.

(b) Due to poor visibility of street lights and negligence of the State Transport Drivers two buses collided on the narrow stretch of Nammakal district near Ambedkar statue. 12 passengers including a six month old baby boy were rushed to the nearby Government hospital for treatment.

(c) Indian Team bagged the winner’s trophy and is expected to return next Monday at the Mumbai airport.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(а) The harder you ………… the luckier you get. (throw, work, try)
(b) There is no time like the ……….. (present, future, past)
(c) ……….. and tide wait for no man. (Wind, Sea, Time)
Answer:
(a) work
(b) present
(c) Time

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates.

The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

As a narrator, make a diary entry about the tight corner you faced at Christie’s and how you were saved from the dire situation.
Answer:
Thursday, 17th Nov. 20xx
I was lunching at a club in King James’s street. While passing along Kingstreet later, my friend suggested that we peeped in at Christie’s where an auction of Barbizon pictures was going on. The pieces of the paintings were pertaining to forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses, and the regular subjects were tremendous for each ranging from two to three thousand guineas each. The remarkable thing was that nothing was sold at three figures.

After watching the auction for fun for a while I found myself bidding. I had exactly sixty three pounds in my account in the bank. I knew that any bidder must have a minimum of five hundred pounds in the bank to stand as security to bid for the artistic works. I enthusiastically participated in many bids as the starting price for each painting was a modest fifty to hundred guineas. Things went on well for me for quite sometime. But a cruel fate awaited me. A short red-faced man electrified the room by fixing the starting price at 4000 guineas. There was a rustle of excitement followed by terrible silence. But I found myself saying “and fifty”.

The dealer looked at the opener and at the company. To my surprise and horror, the dealer shot his bolt. My heart stopped and my blood congealed. I was in possession of the picture I did not want to buy. I was the top purchaser in the auction with just 63 pounds in the bank account. I turned to my friend for some moral support but he had deserted me to have a hearty laugh at a distance. With great alarm, I saw many other Barbizon pictures being put up and sold.

The auction came to an end. The bidders stood in a queue to pay the price and collect the pictures. I stayed behind at the end of the queue as I could not recall the name of any uncle, aunt or even a relative who could offer me 4050 guineas to buy the painting. I wished that a firing squad could give me a welcome relief by shooting me down. I preferred death to public disgrace.

But something divine turned my tragedy into a comedy. Just then one gentleman enquired if I was the gentlemen who bought “big Daubigny”. I admitted. The mediator asked if I could take 50 guineas for my interest and give up my claim. I would have hugged him and wept for joy of relief from the tight comer. But I had the guile/presence of mind to ask, “Is that the most he would offer?”

The mediator said that there was no harm in trying for a bit more. I said, “Tell him I will take hundred” myself and my friend started laughing. But when I saw the cheque for hundred guineas, I became grave. My friend said to me that it was he who brought me to Christie. I admitted, “I shall never forget it. It is indelibly branded in letters of fire on my heart”.

Question 42.
Describe the various reasons for King Richard’s grief and distress.
Answer:
King Richard II is a popular king. He has many nobles at the service. His rebellious cousin Bolingbroke attacks him with 10,000 men on his side. He sends message to the Welsh King for sending his army to defeat Bolingbroke. But to his shock, Welsh army is not sent. He realizes with alarm the terrible fate he would suffer in the hands of his foe and his most impending death in captivity. King Richard is reminded of the power of death that overshadows everything else. Death scoffs at the power of rulers.

Losing the battle, non¬receipt of Welsh army and the prospect of being jailed and killed worries Richard II. He realizes that in the hollow crown death had reigned him. In fact, death, a jester had misled him to believe that he was monarchising England. He can now only own a small patch of barren land. He is not an impregnable castle of brass anymore. He is an ordinary mortal. He too needs friends and needs to taste grief and face death.

[OR]

The poem ’Everest is not the only peak’ does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it.

For him the means is more important than the end. However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
“After Twenty Years,” – time – 10 o’clock at night, – depeopled the streets – Only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” Jakes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware-store.- This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a.man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive.

They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come. The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store.

The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong. What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday.

He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself. The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods.

By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. BhabhaI India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3, 1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Spyuz II spaceship.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 199
No. of words to be written in the summary: 199/3 = 66 ± 5

Rough Draft
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in inteIligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. By the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian efforts. We have to sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft
Greatness of India
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc. After Independence by the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. Atomic Energy Commission was established under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No. of words in the summary: 64

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Greatness of India
Answer:
1. Greatness of the country
people
our country men are second to none
from the ancient times Indians excelled in arts, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc.

2. Post Independence
government took steps to improve in all spheres
the first five-year plan was designed
Green Revolution attained self sufficiency

3. Present age
atomic age
India made the first nuclear explosion in 1974
sixth member of the world nuclear club
India sent cosmonaut, Shri Rakesh Sharma to space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Question 45.
You are Anita. You recently visited a hill station along with your parents. It was an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience. Write a letter to your friend sharing your experience in 150-200 words.
Answer:

25th June, 2020

From
Anitha
6, West street,
Chennai
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

Dear Mercy,
Hope my letter finds you in the best of your health. Have you been to your grandparents house for vacation? I had recently gone to Matheran with my parents and really missed you. Matheran is the smallest hill station in the Indian state of Maharashtra and is located on the Western Ghats range at an elevation of around 800 m above sea level. It is about 90 km from Mumbai. Matheran’s proximity to many metropolitan cities makes it a popular weekend getaway for urban residents. Matheran, which means “forest on the forehead” is an eco-sensitive region declared by the Government of India.

It is Asia’s only automobile-free hill station. Doesn’t that spark an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience? Yes, from the foothills of the mountain, you either need to walk up the mountain to lodges and cottages there for your accommodation or need to hire Cycle rickshaws or ponies to travel. We all took a horse each and my little brother got on to a pony. Our baggage was loaded on to a wheel barrow to be brought up to our destination.

There are around 38 designated viewpoints in Matheran, including the Panorama Point that provides a 360-degree view of the surrounding area and also the Neral town. From this point, the view of sunset and sunrise is dramatic. The Louisa Point offers crystal clear view of the Prabal Fort. The other points are the One Tree Hill Point, Heart Point, Monkey Point, Porcupine Point, Rambagh Point, and more. We stayed in a Parsi bungalow. Beautiful old British-style architecture is preserved in Matheran. The roads are not metalled and are made of red laterite earth. As anticipated, there are many monkeys around and even the summer season was very pleasant.

I hope to visit the place again and I hope we will get an opportunity to visit it together. Why don’t you ask your parents if both our families could go to Matheran during our next vacation? My parents too were talking about going there again since it’s such a pollution free spot to relax and enjoy. Looking forward to meeting you in person to share the photographs we have taken here.

Yours loving friend,
Anita
Address on the Envelope
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Punctuality’
Answer:
Punctuality is essential to succeed in one’s career. In business schools, Time management is also taught. Those who are punctual prove that they respect the time of those whom they visit. Those who have missed interviews, flights, Olympic golds and even the opportunity to win goes by milliseconds know the value of time. We should cultivate the quality of being punctual right from our student days. Maintaining a calendar of action and keeping track of time all the time would help one to be punctual. God gives twenty four hours to each one of us, if we are punctual and make most of the given time we would definitely succeed in life.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) There is an University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident on his success.
(c) Though he is old but he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior than me.
(e) His father is a honest man.
Answer:
(a) There is a University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident of his success.
(c) Though he is old he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior to me.
(e) His father is an honest man.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The story told by the ……….. fat man is not ………… (credible/credulous)
(6) My keys ……….. be in the car. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) This watch …………. belong to my father, (use semi-modal)
(d) The strike was announced ………… the disagreement between the management and the employees on the bonus issue. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) credulous, credible
(b) must
(c) used to
(d) on account of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) Robots are steadily moving from fiction to fact.
(b) Examination should evaluate all aspects of learning.
(c) Indian players have performed well in the Commonwealth Games.
(d) Napoleon Bonaparte was considered an enlightened monarch of France.
(e) “Health is Wealth” but pollution takes it all away.
(Sports, Environment, History, Science, Education)
Answer:
(a) Science
(b) Education
(c) Sports
(d) History
(e) Environment

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

I have always been attracted by people of unusual habits. By this, I do not imply hippies and drop-outs or anyone of that band of unhappy people for whom modem society is too sick and uncivilized to bear. No, I mean those quiet, orderly people, living apparently blameless lives, who enrich their har humdrum existences by adopting odd quirks and passions, unlikely, routines or harmless manias for useless objects. Like the secretary I had, who collected earwigs, though what she did with them I never knew, I believe that she loved them because they were small and thin like herself and had a way of scuttling about in very much the same way she did. Life, I am sure, would be very much poorer without such people in it. Sometimes, I feel I am lacking in personality, since I have none of these strange habits.. Unless you count the fact that I never eat eggs unless they are boiled in milk.
Questions.

1. What attracted the author?
2. According to the author, who are the people who have unusual habits?
3. What did the author’s secretary collect?
4. Why did she love them, according to the author?
5. Do you think that the author has any strange habit? If so, what is it?

Answer:

1. Unusual habits of others attracted the author.
2. Quite orderly people living blameless lives have unusual habits.
3. The author’s secretary collected ‘earwigs’.
4. They were small and thin like herself scuttling about.
5. Yes, he has a habit of eating eggs which are only boiled in milk.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
She yanked at the zip of the bag.
(a) jerked
(b) yearned
(c) yelled
(d) jumped
Answer:
(a) jerked

Question 2.
The felicitation programme was highly commendable.
(a) falcon
(b) congratulatory
(c) felling
(d) calliper
Answer:
(b) congratulatory

Question 3.
I dare not answer my mother when she is hysterical.
(a) avoid
(b) dauntless
(c) desire
(d) aggravate
Answer:
(b) dauntless

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I had to ponder on the situation.
(a) consider
(b) contemplate
(c) ignore
(d) reflect
Answer:
(c) ignore

Question 5.
I relished the fruit and its taste.
(a) savoured
(b) enjoyed
(c) disliked
(d) candies
Answer:
(c) disliked

Question 6.
The students protested against child abuse.
(a) dissent
(b) proclaimed
(c) accepted
(d) averted
Answer:
(c) accepted

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “picture and element”.
(a) pixel
(b) picel
(c) piclem
(d) picment
Answer:
(a) pixel

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “cartography”.
(a) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
(b) The ethical theory that pleasure is the highest good and proper aim of human life
(c) Prejudice, stereotyping, or discrimination on the basis of a person’s sex or gender
(d) The science of drawing maps
Answer:
(d) The science of drawing maps

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Back to the drawing board’.
{a) The person you are talking about arrives
(b) Do something to save money
(c) Do or say something exactly right
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over
Answer:
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Mithwin really likes singing karaoke, even though he doesn’t have an amazing voice,
(a) songs with karate steps
(b) baila
(c) country songs
(d) sing along
Answer:
(d) sing along

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “land”.
(a) owner
(b) lord
(c) rent
(d) estate
Answer:
(b) lord

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “charge”.
(a) sur
(b) pre
(c) un
(d) out
Answer:
(a) sur

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “DARE”.
(a) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Equipment
(b) Documents Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
(c) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Experience
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education
Answer:
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He shows kindness to his patients.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOIO
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOIO

Question 15.
One who is concerned with usefulness is called as …………
(a) Psychiatrist
(b) Technologist
(c) Pragmatist
(d) Editorialist
Answer:
(c) Pragmatist

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ram was a thin, tall and handsome bachelor ………. a Roman nose.
(a) far
(b) with
(c) of
(d) on
Answer:
(b) with

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Nobody could do it, ……….. ?
(a) could they
(b) should they
(c) have they
(d) ain’t they
Answer:
(a) could they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The press release said the band split up because of problems among artists.
(a) problems
(b) creative indifference
(c) creative differences
(d) fights
Answer:
(c) creative differences

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Dravid was so far away, we really couldn’t make out what he was trying to say.
(a) understand
(b) deliver
(c) hear
(d) record
Answer:
(a) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
What is the name of the prison ……… Nelson Mandela stayed?
(a) which
(b) when
(c) where
(d) whose
Answer:
(c) where

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“To unlearn all these muting things
Most of all, I want to relearn”
(a) What does the poet want to relearn?
(b) Explain ‘muting things’.
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) Muting things are; superficial and unnatural behaviours like portrait smiles and heartless handshake.

Question 22.
“The birds around me hopp’d and play’d
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
But the least motion which they made
It seem’d a thrill of pleasure”
(а) What is the rhyme scheme?
(b) Name the poem and poet.
Answer:
(a) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’.
(b) The poem is ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ written by William Wordsworth.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) What kind of a life, does the poet talk about?
(b) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
(a) The poet speaks about a life where there is no necessity to stoop before others for any ‘gain’. This makes people live with self-dignity which makes them feel proud.
(b) A life that knows no kneeling and bending.

Question 24.
“I live with bread like you, feel want,
Taste grief, need friends – subjected thus,
How can you say to me, I am a king?”
(а) Mention the figure of speech employed in the last line.
(b) What is surprising about the king’s words to his loyal friends?
Answer:
(а) Interrogation
(b) The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress. This surprises his loyal friends.

Question 25.
“His coat is dusty from neglect, his whiskers are uncombed.”
(а) How does Macavity differ from domestic/tamed cat?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s coat is dusty. His whiskers are uncombed.
(b) Personification.

Question 26.
“With all my heart I do admire Athletes who sweat for fun or hire,”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words.
(b) What does the second line mean?
Answer:
(a) Admire and hire are the rhyming words.
(b) The second line means there are two categories of athletes. The first play just for pleasure. The second category is players who are hired by corporate to play the big leagues or tournaments.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite into Direct speech:
Anitha : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my brother’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is it?
Answer:
Anne told a confectioner that she wanted to order a big birthday cake for her brother. The confectioner asked when his birthday was.

Question 28.
Change into passive/active voice of the following sentence.
The Baboon tasted the sour grapes.
Answer:
The sour grapes was tasted by the Baboon.

Question 29.
Put the milk in the fridge. It will go sour. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If you don’t put the milk in the fridge, it will go sour.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of his illness he came for practice.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
………. and feel
At home, once, twice
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while describing people’s attitude if someone visits their house.

Explanation: The semblance of cordiality will disappear if one visits for the third time. When they say “feel at home”, it applies only once or twice. In fact, they would shut the door on his face. One should not believe those words and visit their houses frequently. Familiarity breeds contempt.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet says these words while enjoying the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation : The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
(I might mention Mungojerrie, I might mention Griddlebone)
Are nothing more than agents for the Cat who all the time.
Just controls their operations: the Napoleon of Crime.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet compares the leadership skills of Macavity to his own fictional characters.

Explanation: Those functional characters Mungojerrie and Griddlebone portrayed in T.S. Eliot’s “Old Possom’s book of Practical Cats” are not to be compared with Macavity. He is a commander in chief of criminals or Napolean of criminals. He directs all thefts and crimes in London very cleverly.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did the grandma chant the morning prayer in a sing song voice?
Answer:
Grandma started the mornings with a sing-song prayer because she wanted the author to learn the prayers by heart.

Question 35.
What should the youngsters aim in life after their graduation?
Answer:
The youngsters should aim in life after graduation for an aristocracy of achievements arising out of a democracy of opportunities. As youngsters they should aim at toning up the society, bringing light into dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, hope into the despondent and a new life into every one.

Question 36.
When does human memory work with less than its usual capacity?
Answer:
Human memory works with less than its usual capacity in matters like taking medicine. The author explains that human memory represents the willingness to remember certain things. It forgets what it does not wish to remember. Humans are blessed with “selective amnesia”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. the/Indian/English/exploited/the farmers.
2. on/camel/has/hump/its/a/big/back.
3. elephant/land animal/present/largest/is/day/the/of/the.

Answer:

1. The English exploited the Indian farmers.
2. Camel has a big hump on its back.
3. Elephant is the largest land animal of the present day.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a waiter and a customer.
Answer:
Kavya : Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter : Yes Ma’am. We have hot idlies.
Kavya : Do you have Podi Dosa?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, we do have Podi Dosa.
Kavya : Can you give two sets of Podi Dosa with a vada please?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, it will be served in ten minutes.

Question 39.
Describe the process of polishing your shoes.
Answer:

1. Shoes are cleaned of dust with a brush.
2. A layer of polish is coated over the shoes.
3. One should wait a little till the polish soaks the leather.
4. Then shoes are brushed to shine.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Every cloud has a ……… lining, (golden, silver, white)
(b) Fortune favors the ……….. (brave, courageous, poor)
(c) Get out while the going is ………… (good, high, best)
Answer:
(a) silver
(b) brave
(c) good

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates. The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

What are the observations of Lynd on the capacity of humans to remember and forget things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed at the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks wittily that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have extraordinary memory power. In some matters, the memory is less than perfect, causes could be psychological. We tend to forget things we don’t wish to remember.

For example, many people forget to take medicines. Medicine needs to be taken before / after meals. Robert Lynd remarks that chemists make a lot of money because people tend to forget to take medicines. It aggravates the disease and people are forced to buy more and more medicines. Most people forget to post.letters. The author himself would not trust his letters to be posted by others. The author himself never remembered to post letters entrusted to him. He had to apologise for the unposted letters kept with him for long. Likewise, the author forgets his walking sticks often.

Question 42.
“Face is the index of the mind.” Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
Unlike the people of the past, people in modem times “laugh only with their teeth” while their ice-block cold eyes search for something. Now, people shake hands without hearts. There is no human warmth in social relations. While they shake hands, they look for evidences to judge the financial status of a person. People say ‘feel at home’ and ‘come again’. But if a person visits a third time he is not welcomed. They all have cocktail faces ready for all occasions. Their conforming smiles are like fixed portrait smiles. They wear standard, deceitful, artificial smile for all occasions. They have faces like masks.

The poet has learnt from them how to use faces like dresses, home face, office face, street face, host face etc. Their faces, like the teeth of the elephant, show only what is accepted. The ugly side of their personality is cleverly hidden behind their deceitful smiles and polite words. So, the poet’s views do not concur with the adage “Face is the index of the mind”.

[OR]

Write a short summary of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily-Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos.

The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Miss Meadows, a music teacher – gets a letter – feels upset – Fiance not interested – reflects her gloom on students – changes the happy song to a sad one – Headmistress calls – delivers a telegram – Fiance agrees to wedding – Meadows happy – changes the song again to a cheerful one.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle.

After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush. She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Moral courage is of the mind, while physical courage is of the body; but mind and body are so closely connected that I think it is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. In many instances of human daring, moral courage combined with physical to a resolute endurance of physical suffering becomes added to a consciousness of duty. But while physical courage in a human being implies at the least, the moral courage implies much more.

This moral courage is the courage which braces us always to do our duty. This is the noblest form of courage and yet it is the courage most commonly required. It is the courage which everyday, almost every hour demands of us all.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 123
No. of words to be written in the summary: 123/3 = 41 ± 5

Rough Draft
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. It is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

Fair Draft
Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

No. of words in the summary: 38

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage Courage
Answer:
Courage
Mind – Moral courage
Body – Physical coinage
Human daring involves
both moral and physical courage and consciousness of duty Moral courage
inspires us to do our duty – needed all the time.

Question 45.
You are Neena. The wedding of your elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. Write an informal invitation to your friend Sherrin requesting her to attend the function.
Answer:

20th April, 2020

From
Neena
2, Gandhi street
Ooty

To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road,
Raj Nagar,
Ooty.
Dear Sherrin,

You will be pleased to know that the wedding of my elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. The whole family will move there in the morning. I invite you to join us at lunch in the hotel on the 15th. The wedding ceremony will take place at 8 in the evening.
I do hope you will join us on the auspicious occasion.

Yours sincerely,
Neena
Address on the Envelope
To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road
Raj Nagar
Ooty

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Self medication is an unhealthy practice’.
Answer:
Self-medication is defined as the selection and use of medicines by individuals to treat self- diagnosed symptoms. Self-medication is thought to reduce the load on the medical services, decrease the time spent in waiting to see the physician, and save cost especially among economically deprived people. Since it is instant, there is no expense of the doctor but when they ultimately suffer from severe health issues, their medical expense increases two-fold.

Self-medication as a habit can damage one’s health irrevocably, causing disabilities and even premature death. Self-medication is okay to many of us. It’s just a crocin or some ‘safe’ antibiotic we believe we are taking as going to the doctor can be time consuming and expensive. But there are side-effects to this and very harmful ones at that. The idea of self¬medication even for small health issues can lead to complications. People tend to pop pills as they are popping candies. Medicines such as pain relief drugs, cough syrups, laxatives, antibiotics, anti-allergy medicines, vitamins and even antacids. Since these are drugs that can be bought over the counter meds, these are easier to acquire.

Popping pills may get us instant relief but what we don’t realize is that it is. not free of side-effects. This is because one drug may react differently when consumed with another drug. This can even lead to death. Hence, consulting a doctor is a must and self-medication is an unhealthy practice.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) Children are fond to coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had came to an end.
(c) As he looking on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furnitures in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the student has participated in the competition.
Answer:
(a) Children are fond of coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had come to an end.
(c) As he looked on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furniture in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the students has participated in the competition.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) When teaching my daughter how to drive, I told her if she didn’t hit the ………. in time she would ……….. the car’s side mirror, (break/ brake)
(b) ………. you like a cup of tea? (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) Take my umbrella ………… rain. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) brake, break
(b) Would
(c) need to
(d) in case of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) General Elections take place after every five years in India.
(b) The Reserve Bank revised the interest rate.
(c) One thousand interest connections were given in Pollachi.
(d) The new serial will begin on Monday.
(e) Athletics rarely gets coverage in the Media.
(Commerce, Politics, Sports, Maths, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Politics
(b) Commerce
(c) Computer
(d) Media
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity…. In London men are as lonely as Oysters, each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country. I should probably know all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victim pines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.
Questions.

1. What keeps people in London remote from each other?
2. How are men described? Why?
3. Why do we seek country life?
4. What is the disadvantage of village life?
5. What can you say in this context about our interaction with our neighbours the life style in our country?

Answer:

1. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity.
2. Men are described as oyster shells. The being inside the oyster shell never wishes to know who lives outside.
3. We seek country life to find neighbours.
4. Village life is not idyllic. Neighbours tend to poison village life.
5. India has not deteriorated to the level of London city. We still care for the neighbours as neighbours care for us.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions, [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
I pulled myself together and handed over the card nonchalantly.
(a) indifferently
(b) carefully
(c) cautiously
(d) sentimentally
Answer:
(a) indifferently

Question 2.
The incident is clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) imprinted
(d) refrained
Answer:
(c) imprinted

Question 3.
The libraries are a repository of knowledge.
{a) refractory
(b) refrigerator
(c) storeroom
(d) management
Answer:
(c) storeroom

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
It is important that even the mediocre are given due recognition.
(a) middling
(b) ordinary
(c) exceptional
(d) middleman
Answer:
(c) exceptional

Question 5.
I managed to solve the complex problem.
(a) intricate
(b) compound
(c) simple
(d) complicated
Answer:
(c) simple

Question 6.
It is compulsory to donate one day salary for the flood victims.
(a) obligation
(b) optional
(c) obeisance
(d) obstruction
Answer:
(b) optional

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “hazardous and material”.
(a) hazardmat
(b) hazat
(c) hazmat
(d) mathaz
Answer:
(c) hazmat

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “etymology”.
(a) A person perceived to be either uncivilized or primitive
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word
(c) The hutnanistic study of language and literature
(d) The belief that all events in life are predetermined and inevitable
Answer:
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘A penny for your thoughts’.
(a) Current issues spoken by many people
(b) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(c) Everything about the case
(d) Asking what someone is thinking
Answer:
(d) Asking what someone is thinking

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Our daughter is going to turn 5 next year, so we’ve been trying to find a good kindergarten for her.
(a) preschool
(b) children’s garden
(c) school material
(d) play school
Answer:
(b) children’s garden

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “while”.
(a) mean
(b) teach
(c) scene
(d) weather
Answer:
(a) mean

Question 12.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “qualified”.
(a) sur
(b) dis
(c) in
(d) mis
Answer:
(b) dis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FTCL”.
(a) Fellow Tribal Colleges of Linguistics
(b) Federal Trinity College of Libya
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London
(d) Feminine Travellers Chambers of Ladies
Answer:
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London

Question 14.
Use for dramatic works involving the downfall or destruction of the protagonist due to character flaws, catastrophe, or reversal of fortune.
(a) Comedy
(b) Monologue
(c) Tragedy
(d) Historical Plays
Answer:
(c) Tragedy

Question 15.
A passion for writing is known as ………..
(a) Animator
(b) Graphomania
(c) Sonettomania
(d) Eulogomania
Answer:
(b) Graphomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Latha laughed till the tears ran ……… her cheeks.
(a) down
(b) with
(c) on
(d) in
Answer:
(a) down

Question 17.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
Reading made him a complete man.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOC

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Excuse me, driver. My mother needs use the toilet urgently.
(a) comfort stop
(b) nature calls
(c) rest room
(d) powder room
Answer:
(a) comfort stop

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
I don’t know where my book is. I have to look for it.
(a) retrieve
(b) look
(c) search
(d) find
Answer:
(c) search

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
They finally found the murderer, ………. was hiding in a small town.
(a) where
(b) which
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“And I have learned too
To laugh with only my teeth
And shake hands without my heart”
(a) Explain ‘To laugh with only my teeth’.
(b) Why is he shaking hands without heart?
Answer:
(a) Laughing with only teeth means laughing without genuine emotions of love, warmth and friendliness. It is fake.
(b) The heart is a symbol of genuine emotions. The poet recalls the time when people used to smile and shake hands with their hearts. Now, things have become different.

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.”
(a) What is the poet’s mission in life?
(b) Explain the last line.
Answer:
(a) The poet’s mission is to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.
(b) The poet claims that simple people like farmers, teachers and other noble professionals nourish those who nourish the world.

Question 24.
“As if this flesh which walls about our life
Were brass impregnable and, humour’d thus”
(а) What does the king realize?
(b) Explain the phrase ‘brass impregnable’.
Answer:
(a) The king realises that his mortal body also will come to an end like others.
(b) ‘Brass impregnable’ means someone that is unconquerable.

Question 25.
“I heard a thousand blended notes While in a grove I sate reclined,”
(a) What do you mean by‘blended notes’?
(b) What was the poet doing there?
Answer:
(a) The blended notes mean the combined music of birds which cohabit in the grove.
(b) The poet was relaxed and was listening to the music of the birds.

Question 26.
“My limp and bashful spirit feeds On other people’s heroic deeds”
(a) What does the poet say about his own temperament?
(b) How does the poet feed his love for games?
Answer:
(a) The poet agrees that he is weak, shy and reluctant.
(b) He derives vicarious pleasure watching others play heroically on the sports field.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Shilo : How are you Cathy? Please check mail regarding your travel arrangements to Muscat.
Cathy : Could you please send it again since I haven’t received any mail from you.
Answer:
Shilo asked Cathy how she was and to check mail regarding her travel arrangements to Muscat. Cathy requested Shilo to send it again as she hasn’t received any mail from him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
The work can be done by Shanthini.
Answer:
Shanthini can do the work.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If we’d bought that property, we would have been rich by now.
Answer:
Had we bought that property, we would have been rich by now.

Question 30.
The firefighters made several attempts. They could not save the drowning cub. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of making several attempts, the firefighters could not save the drowning cub.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They do not ever in their dealings
Consider one another’s feelings…
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: The poet says these words, while highlighting the callous indifference of players to the pain and injuries of fellow players.

Explanation: Every player considers the player in the opposite team as a deadly rival. He looks for an opportunity. We do find hockey players hitting good players on the ankle with the stick to prevent them from playing great shots. Bowlers try to hit the body of batsman with the ball. They don’t seem to notice cracking wrists and snapping knees as their focus is only on victory and glory. In short, the players do not have feelings for the fellow players.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play ’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines’Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet was quite impressed with the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation: The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair:
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat, written by T.S., Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the criminal activities and how he eludes the detection by Scotland Yard Police.

Explanation: Scotland Yard Police is known world over for quick disposal of criminal cases. But Macavity is such a criminal that the Scotland Yard policemen are unable to produce evidence to arrest him. So, they are baffled. The flying squad is unable to pursue him soon after the crime is committed. So, they are desperate to nab him.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: {2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What does the author mean when he says the letter in his pocket leads an unadventurous life?
Answer:
The poet forgets the letters kept in his pocket. Whenever the friend enquires about the unposted letters, it embarrasses him. then he is forced to produce the evidence of his guilt (i.e.,) the unposted letters. This awkward humiliation is said to be unadventurous.

Question 35.
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question 36.
Why did the author’s concern over tobacco shift to his finger?
Answer:
When the author saw the racing tobacco box disgorging its content, he worried about the need to buy expensive tobacco in England. But when he saw his own bleeding finger that he had gashed while forcefully opening the jammed zip, he shifted his cry to his finger.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:
The factors which affect health are given percentage-wise in the pie-chart.

Questions

1. What percent of diseases are caused due to pollution?
2. Fifty one percent of illnesses are caused by what factors?
3. What is the least percent of health affected by?

Answer:

1. Nineteen percent of diseases are caused due to pollution.
2. Fifty one percent of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress and diet.
3. Lack of medical facilities.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between bank manager and a student who wants to open a bank account.
Answer:
Vanin : Sir, I want to open a savings account.
Bank Manager : Have you brought your aadhar card and two copies of photograph?
Varun : Yes, sir.
Bank Manager : Fill in this application and the challan and pay the initial amount in the 3rd counter.
Varun : Sir, the pass book.
Bank Manager : You can collect it tomorrow evening.
Varun : Thank you sir.

Question 39.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:
Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your campsite.
Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
Lay out the poles and assemble them.
Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
Pull the tent upright.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. Don’t blow your own ……….. (horn, trumpet, whistle)
2. Early ………. catches the worm, (man, hen, bird)
3. Empty bags cannot ………. upright, (stand, sit, lie)

Answer:

1. trumpet
2. bird
3. stand

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing”?
Answer:
After Mary Korn’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary.

There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Korn’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media has rightly christened her, “Queen of Boxing”.

[OR]

Bill Bryson “ached to be suave”. Was he, successful in his mission? If not what are the reasons.
Answer:
Bill Bryson expresses his genuine desire to be “suave”. He would love just once in his life time to rise from the dinner table as if he had not experienced an “extremely localized seismic event, get into a car without leaving 14 inch coat outride, wear light-coloured trousers without ever discovering at the end of the day that he had at various times and places sat on chewing gum, ice-cream cough syrup and motor oil. No, Bill Bryson was not successful in his mission.

Twice he spilled his drinks on a sweet nun who happened to sit next to him. He tried to show off his wisdom to another attractive lady. As usual, he was sucking his pep. His shirt, teeth and gum carried the unscrubbable navy blue stain for many days. He always did “liquid mischief’. His clumsy behaviour in the aeroplane made the saintly nun use abusive language. To avoid unsuave ways, he gave up air-travel with his family members. His wife and children supported him yet failed to refine his manners.

Question 42.
How is it true that Macavity is indeed a mystery cat?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He is called a “Hidden paw“ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make the fakir stare with wonder.

Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So, the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”. When he appears to be half-asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone. Macavity is indeed a mystery.

[OR]

Trace the confessions of a born Spectator as listed out by Ogden Nash.
Answer:
This poem is about a bom spectator who confesses about his views on Sports and sportsmen. He says that they injure each other as they prance and feel happy on others heroic deeds. His limp and bashful spirit feeds on the heroism of other players. He has seen zealous athletes playing so rough that they never consider the feelings of fellow players. He watches with a palpitating heart when ‘A’ runs ninety yards to bag a medal. He watches with obvious alarm when ‘B’ knocks another boxer down cracking his vertebrae and spines.

They.are insensitive to the cracking wrist and snapping knees of fellow players. When his ego and prudence clashed, ego told him to seek glory in sports, but his prudence always ignored it. Thus common sense prevailed, he remained a cheerful life-time fan of successful athletes. He was contented as a spectator of all kinds of games and sports and world famous athletes. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints
“After Twenty Years,” – time -10 o’clock at night – depeopled the streets – only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” takes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware store. This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive. They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come.

The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store. The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Philip – travels – train – Brill Manor – meets Bertie – second son – left purse – four quids – needs money – requests Philip to lend him – two pounds -did not help – true . son – mistaken for a fraud.
Answer:
The young man who entered the coach gave out a smothered curse, he was engaged in searching something elusive angrily and uselessly. From time to time, he dug a six penny bit out of a waist coat pocket and stared at it sadly, then resumed his search. He voluntarily broke the silence. He exclaimed that Mr. Sletherby was going to Bill Manor. He introduced himself as Bertie, the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. He admitted that he was away for about six months and had not seen his own mother.

Making use of the lucky coincidence that he was going to Brill Manor, he asked for a loan of three pounds as he had lost his sovereign purse and was desperately in need of help. He promised to meet him on the subsequent Monday. There is a dramatic irony when the son himself gives a different version of his mom’s appearance. This influences the decision of Mr. Sletherby in refusing to lend Bertie a loan of three pounds and mistaking the true son Bertie to be a fraud.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’. Standard dictionary definitions include the idea of postponement or delay. Steel, a psychologist who has reviewed hundreds of studies on the subject, states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”.

Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between people who tend to put things off and “chronic” or “real” procrastinators for whom this is their life and who might even need therapy. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: (a) stimulation types that get a thrill from beating a deadline, (b) avoiders put off doing things that might make others think badly of them, and (c) decisional procrastinators who postpone making a decision until they have enough information to avoid making a wrong choice.

Chronic procrastinators tend to have low self-esteem and focus on the past more than the future. The Discounted Expectancy Theory illustrates with a student like Sam who puts off writing a paper. When the deadline is far off, the rewards for socializing now are greater than those for finishing a task not due until later. As the deadline looms, the rewards or consequences for finishing the paper becomes more important.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators on the average got lower grades and had higher levels of stress and illness. Chu and Choi however, say that not all procrastinators are lazy and undisciplined. “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.”
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 280
No. of words to be written in the summary: 280/3 = 93 ± 5

Rough Draft
procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrasinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and have higher levels of stress. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.

Fair Draft
Procrastination
Procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators have low self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and are stressed. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and less efficient. “Active procrastinators” work under pressure and if something more urgent comes up they change their focus.

No. of words in the summary: 104

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Procrastination
Answer:
1. Intro A proctn
Origin – Latin
Meaning – Put fwd till tomorrow – Idea A postponement or delay Steel (psychologist) – voluntary delay – despite expecting to be worse-off

2. Categorⁿ
a. Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari
Stimln types – thrill 4m beating a deadline
Avoiders – avoid things // make others think badly A them
Decisional – postpone making a decsn (until enough information)
Real procs – way A life (might need therapy)
Chronic procs:
Low self esteem
Focus on past

b. Tice and Baumeister
Procs got lower grades
Higher levels A stress and illness

c. Chu and Choi
Passive procs – stressed, less efficient
Active procs – prefer to work under pressure, knowingly engage in new tasks

Conclusion: The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’.
Abbreviations: Intro – Introduction; A – of; Proctn – procrastination; Fwd – forward; Stimln – stimulation; Categorⁿ – categorization; 4m – from; // – that; decsn – decision; procs – procrastinators

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Editor of a famous daily, Dindigul about the incidents of violence taking place with the aged living alone at home, drawing the attention of authorities towards the problem.
Answer:

22nd July 2020

From
Vinitha
Railway Colony
Dindigul

To
The Editor
Daily Thanthi
Dindigul
Respected Sir,
Sub: Violence against the aged living alone at home.
I wish to draw your attention towards the security of the aged people living alone at home in Dindigul. Almost every day we find the newspapers full of such incidents. The miscreants rob the people and then murder them. Many times the servants of the house are found involved in these incidents. The aged are the gullible people and are easily made target.

I hope after publishing this letter in your esteemed newspaper, the police will take some necessaiy actions for their safety.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Vinitha
Address on the Envelope
To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Where there is a will, there is a way.’
Answer:
Where there is a will, there is a way
Where there is a will, there is a way is an old saying in English which teaches us about the most significant subject of getting success in life. Reaching a nice target becomes our maxim. However achieving a target needs strong determination and commitment. People without having will power never achieve the victory and they curse their destiny. This common saying simply means that if the person is strong-minded enough to get something done, he/ she always will find a way to do that. Fortitude is necessary to get completion in the task as it helps a person to fight with all difficulties and get success.

Without grit and will power, we generally tend to give up very easily in the initial stages as we become desperate facing small teething issues. To learn or achieve something in life, will power acts as a channel and enhances the speed of action. It needs a firm and incessant exercise to deeply learn things. We can pass the exam by reading the lessons just a night before the exam. However, we cannot be ranked first in the class, district or state without hard work for the entire year. One needs to be systematic, meticulous and focused to with a strong will power to pave way for success. So, it is good to have determination even to the smallest tasks in life and never yield to petty things easily.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He was tall and thin and has giant features.
(b) The stories he read are all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways communication.
(d) This is due the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi go to England for higher studies at the age of 19.
Answer:
(a) He was tall and thin and had giant features.
(b) The stories he read were all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways of communication.
(d) This is due to the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi went to England for higher studies at the age of 19.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) I can ………. the bell from ……… (hear/here)
(b) I ………. swim quite well when I was younger. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) She ……….. spend more time for practice, (use semi-modal)
(d) England lost their test match against India ………… over confidence and less preparation. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) hear, here
(b) could
(c) ought to
(d) due to

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) As in January 2005, the rate of inflation came down to 3%.
(b) At the international level, global warming Has increased the anxiety of many nations.
(c) A new rocket launching station is commissioned in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Your monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(e) Mr. Venkatraghavan is one of the best umpires in the world.
(Science, Computer, Sports, Commerce, Environment)
Answer:
(a) Commerce
(b) Environriient
(c) Science
(d) Computer
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Today we don’t think of a cartoon as being associated with great art, but at one time it was. During the period of Italian Renaissance, the term ‘cartoon’ meant the first sketch in actual size of a large work of art, such as a mural (wall painting). When newspapers and magazines began to use drawings to illustrate news and editorial opinion and to provide amusement, these drawings came to be known as cartoons. In the days before the newspaper, artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson made a series of drawings on a single theme. Sometimes such a series of drawings pictured and adventures of a single character. They were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips.

In the nineteen and early twentieth centuries, there were a number of magazines which specialised in cartoons. In Paris there was one called ‘Charivari’ and in London there was the famous ‘Punch’. Nowadays movies based on cartoons characters are also made. Movies featuring Tom and Jerry, Dennis the Menace, Tarzen, Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck are very popular with children.
Questions.

1. Identify the purposes for which cartoons were used in newspapers.
2. In what sense did the Italians use the term ‘cartoon’ during the Renaissance period?
3. Who were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips?
4. Name the two magazines mentioned in the passage which specialised in cartoons.
5. Name the famous cartoon character you are familiar with.

Answer:

1. Cartoons were associated with great art. It is a large work of art.
2. During the Renaissance period the term ‘cartoon’ was used to mean first sketch of a large work of art.
3. Artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson were the ancestors of the present-day cartoon and comic strips.
4. Charivari and punch were the two magazines which specialised in cartoons.
5. Mickey mouse and Donald Duck are the famous cartoon characters I am familiar with.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A peaceful pallor spread on his face.
(a) paleness
(b) rosiness
(c) ruddy
(d) rejuvenation
Answer:
(a) paleness

Question 2.
It was indeed a sensational bid.
(a) astounded
(b) ordinary
(c) sensitive
(d) exciting
Answer:
(a) astounded

Question 3.
I had a sumptuous meal to sate my hunger.
(a) sadden
(b) suppress
(c) satisfy
(d) struggle
Answer:
(c) satisfy

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The vessels dropped and scattered all over.
(a) speckled
(b) sprinkled
(c) gathered
(d) grew
Answer:
(c) gathered

Question 5.
There a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) suppressed
(b) expressed
(c) smoothened
(d) suffocated
Answer:
(b) expressed

Question 6.
Her face was wrinkled and weird.
(a) smooth
(b) creased
(c) lined
(d) crippled
Answer:
(a) smooth

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “percolate”.
(a) perk
(b) per
(c) perc
(d) colate
Answer:
(a) perk

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “plagiarist”.
(a) A student of bees
(b) One who accumulates; one who collects
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief
(d) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
Answer:
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Beat around the bush’.
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I’d like to learn taekwondo though it might not be the best option for me.
(a) Japanese language
(b) Chinese preparation
(c) Floor dancing
(d) Kick fist martial art
Answer:
(d) Kick fist martial art

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “goat”.
(a) male
(b) female
(c) scape
(d) major
Answer:
(c) scape

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “hero”?
(a) ity
(b) ism
(c) ness
(d) ish
Answer:
(b) ism

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “NSC”.
(a) National Savings Certificate
(b) National Service Certificate
(c) National Savings Career
(d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “psychology” is…………..
(a) psych-ol-ogy
(b) psy-chol-ogy
(c) ps-ycho-logy
(d) psy-chol-o-gy
Answer:
(d) psy-chol-o-gy

Question 15.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………..
(a) Etymology
(b) Stampomania
(c) Eulogomania
(d) bancomania
Answer:
(d) bancomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ramesh went……….. Tom’s place to settle the bills.
(a) to
(b) on
(c) in
(d) from
Answer:
(a) to

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
He never fails in his duty,………..?
(a) isn’t he
(b) won’t-he
(c) will he
(d) does he
Answer:
(d) does he

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
However hard she tried, she could not figure out the meaning of the proverb.
(a) appreciate
(b) condemn
(c) understand
(d) faint
Answer:
(c) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The children ……… shouted in the street are not from our school.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces like dresses”
(а) State the figure of speech in the above line.
(b) Who does the term ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) Simile
(b) 1 refers to the poet, Gabriel Okara.

Question 22.
“ When swollen eye meets gnarled fist
When snaps the knee, and cracks the wrist”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the second line.
(b) Why are the eyes swollen?
Answer:
(a) Onomatopoeia
(b) The eyes are swollen as they were injured by the opponent.

Question 23.
“Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!”
(a) What is a greenhouse and a trellis?
(b) What is a wonder after the greenhouse glass is broken?
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse is a glass building in which plants that need protection from cold weather are grown. Trellis is a framework of light wooden or metal bars used as a support for fruit trees or creeper.
(b) Macavity is to be found nowhere when one finds out that the greenhouse glass is broken.

Question 24.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) What do you understand by rainy eyes?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
(a) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.
(b) Metaphor

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the j oy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“The height you reach is not that we care;”
(a) How different is the poet’s perception of success?
(b) How does the poet use the word ‘height’?
Answer:
(a) Those who reach great heights in terms of scholarship, wealth and positions are not deemed great. Those who have competence and merit alone are respected.
(b) In terms of mountain climbing, climbing Everest is said to be the highest achievement.
But even scaling a small hillock is an achievement. Every human effort to succeed needs to be appreciated.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Kiran : Will you exchange the defective torch I had bought from you yesterday?
Shopkeeper : Do you have the receipt with you?
Answer:
Kiran asked the shopkeeper if he would exchange the defective torch he had bought from him the day before. The shopkeeper enquired if Kiran had the receipt with him.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
She had already cooked the food.
Answer:
The food had already been cooked by her.

Question 29.
Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence.
I called for Arjun who came at once.
Answer:
I called for Aijun and he came at once.

Question 30.
Hurry up. You will miss the flight. (Combine using ‘Unless’)
Answer:
Unless you hurry up, you will miss the flight.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Have I not reason to lament What Man has made of Man?”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: Amidst happy nature, William Wordsworth couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The mixed feelings of happiness and sadness is well brought out in these lines. He was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars.

Question 32.
“I am just glad as glad can he
That I am not them, that they are not me. ”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words.

Explanation: The poet was a bom spectator. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

Question 33.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes.

Explanation: The unsung heroes adhere to their ethical principles in life. Even if they have not reached great heights. They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why was the author left with his grandmother in the village?
Answer:
The author was left with his grandmother in the village because his parents had to go to the city for work.

Question 35.
What difficulty did Mary Kom experience while eating Chinese preparation?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

Question 36.
What were the contents of Bryson’s bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were frequent flyer card, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipe, magazines, passport, English money and film.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. pillars/there/human life/man/of/woman/and/are/two
2. uppermost/soil layer/is/earth/the/of/the
3. it/palnts/which/supports/food/provide/all/living things/to/planet/on/this

Answer:

1. There are two pillars of human life – man and woman.
2. Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth.
3. It supports plants which provide food to all living things on this planet.

Question 38.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

1. Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your camp site. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
2. Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
3. Lay out the poles and assemble them.
4. Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
5. Pull the tent upright.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Scientists Develop Synthetic Cornea.
2. World Leaders Meet at Geneva.
3. ATMs Without Security Guards to Close.

Answer:

1. A newly developed implant made of plastic may soon offer patients the chance to see again as Scientists from Germany have developed synthetic corneas.
2. German Chancellor Angela Merkel and US President Donald Trump will converge upon the snowy Swiss town of Davos this week for the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting.
3. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has requested all ATM’S without proper security to be closed down.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. A stitch in ………. saves nine, (tear, time, line)
2. A thing begun is ……….. done, (half, full, not)
3. Beauty is in the ………… of the beholder, (imagination, mind, eye)

Answer:

1. time
2. half
3. eye

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals.

She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

[OR]

Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioneer banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun- bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction.

As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings, the auctioneers wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

Question 42.
According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

[OR]

Explain how ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ stresses the fact that Nature is meant for Man’s joy and pleasure to be preserved by Man.
Answer:
Nature’s holy plan is to offer joy and peace to all forms of life on earth. He firmly believes that man is meant to spend his days blissfully taking part in the vitality and joy surrounding him. The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property.

The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans. Man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature and has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. The poet stands to reason that nature functions on God’s plan but the man changes the holy plan wrecking the natural joy of human life.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily- Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a’few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened.

The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would’be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins, to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong.

What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Goa is a vibrant, living entity and more than just a geographical sunspot on the western coast of India. Famous for its silver sands and mesmeric sunsets, its recorded history datesback to the 3rd century B.C. It is blessed with marvelous weather, fabulous beaches, picturesque hill-top forts, gracious people and awe inspiring cathedrals. Arombol, 50 km north of Panaji, is a unique beach, which is both rocky and sandy.

It was a sweet water pond right near the seashore that’s very pleasant to bask in. Goa not only has almost 120 km long silver beaches but also offers long, wide and picturesque rivers and scenic lakes. Aqua sports hold great attraction for tourists to Goa. Some of the most popular aqua sports are swift rides on water scooters and speedboats at the Bay of Doha Paula. The best time to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the relatively cool winter months between late September and mid-March.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 160
No. of words to be written in the summary: 160/3 = 51 ± 5
Rough Draft
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and eathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

Fair Draft
Goa
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

No. of words in the summary: 67

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Goa
Answer:
Location:
western coast of India

Tourist attraction:
silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals Arombol beach – sweet water pond Aqua sports held at at the Bay of Dona Paula

Best time to visit:
between late September and mid-March

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted:
Applications are invited for the post of a Typist in a reputed school of Madurai. The . candidate must have at least 5 years of experience. The applicant must have a pleasant personality. He/she should be good in English. Attractive salary. Interested candidates should apply to The Principal, AKS International, Indirapuram, Madurai within 10 days with detailed resume.

14th January, 2020

From
Savitha
2, Gandhi street
Madurai
To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Typist
With reference to your advertisement dated 8th January 2019,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a typist. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality. If given an opportunity, I will satisfy my superiors to the best of my ability.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal.

Yours sincerely,
Savitha
Address on the Envelope To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai

Resume:
Name : Savitha Rajeev
Date Of Birth : 8th May, 1991
Marital Status : Married
Husband’s Name : Mr. Rajeev
Address For Communication : Yyy
Contact Number – Mobile: 9988776655
Residence : 22445566
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : English and Tamil
Educational Background:

Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Photograph, Gardening, Reading, Travelling.
Expected Salary : 27,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 23,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Mr. Ravi (Manager -no. 9998887777
2. Mrs. Rani (Manager-Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station: YYY
Date. 14.01.2020

Savitha
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Convincing the public not to discriminate against those with AIDS’.
Answer:
Abolish discrimination against those with AIDS
People living with HIV infection and AIDS should have the same basic rights and responsibilities as those which apply to all citizens of the country. They have the same rights to liberty and autonomy, security of the person and to freedom of movement as the rest of the population. No restrictions should be placed on the free movement of HIV-infected people, and they may not be segregated, isolated or quarantined in prisons, schools, hospitals or elsewhere merely because of their HIV-positive status.

Only a sexual relationship without proper precautions will be a risk factor. Therefore they should be accepted whole heartedly without any discrimination. People with HIV infection or AIDS are entitled to the right to make their own decisions about any matter that affects marriage and child-bearing – although counselling about the consequences of their decisions should be provided. Due to the fear of isolation, ignorance, denial, and discrimination, people will allow HIV to develop into AIDS, further decreasing life expectancy, since the body’s immune system function will have been significantly lowered.

Along with family bonds and intimate relationships, a spiritual relationship is also strained. Fear and vulnerability included fear of punishment from God, fear of being discovered as HIV/ AIDS-positive and fear of the future and death. They should be given the love, warmth, psycho-social and emotional support.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There is many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigating the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes is rising.
(e) The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracan stadium.
Answer:
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There are many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigate the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes are rising.
(e) The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracana stadium.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) They could ……….. untie the ………. (knot / not)
(.b) The world ………….. avoid war in the larger interest of human race. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) Every student …………. respect the national symbols, (use semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have the hall ticket you can enter the examination hall. (Use a suitable link word).
Answer:
(a) not, knot
(b) should
(c) must
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Weather
(b) Nutrition and Dietetics
(c) Sports
(d) Commerce
(e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live along its course and depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one of the most fertile lands on earth.

This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries some metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal every year and produce tons of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released, in the river.

This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and revive river Ganga. To achieve these objectives, Government of India has started a programme named “Namami Ganga Programme”. The main pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Gange Programme’ can be seen through the following lines; “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No India.”
Questions.

1. For whom is river Ganga a lifeline?
2. For what purpose is the Ganga river water used?
3. Most people in India consider the Gan^a as
4. What are the pollutants that make the river dirty?
5. Write any two pillars of the “Namami Gange”?

Answer:

1. River Ganga is a lifeline for millions of Indians.
2. The Ganga river water used for irrigation, transportation and fishing.
3. Goddess
4. Metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities makes the river dirty.
5. The pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions:

Question 1.
Macro economics is a study of …………
(a) Individuals
(b) firms
(c) nations
(d) aggregates
Answer:
(d) aggregates

Question 2.
State whether the statements are true or false.
(i) Profit Motive of Capitalist Economy.
(ii) Basic problems are solved by customs and traditions.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 3.
………. is also known as Disposable Personal Income.
(a) Personal Income
(b) Disposable Income
(c) Consumer Income
(d) Product Income
Answer:
(b) Disposable Income

Question 4.
Assertion (A): National Income is a measure of the total value of the goods and services produced in an economy for a year.
Reason (R): GNP – is the total value of output produced and income received in a year by domestic residence of a country.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 5.
The basic concept used in Keynes Theory of Employment and Income is
(a) Aggregate demand
(b) Aggregate supply
(c) Effective demand
(d) Marginal Propensity Consume
Answer:
(c) Effective demand

Question 6.
State whether the statements are true or false.
(i) Keynesian theory is – Aggregate demand – Aggregate supply approach. Saving – Investment approach.
(ii) This approach explained the determination level of Income and employment.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 7.
It the MPC is 0.5, the multiplier is……..
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 0.2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 8.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) Aftalion – 1909
(b) Hawtrey – 1914
(c) Bickerdike – 1915
(d) J.M. Clark – 1916
Answer:
(a) Aftalion – 1909

Question 9.
MV stands for………….
(a) demand for money
(b) supply of legal tender money
(c) supply of bank money
(d) total supply of money
Answer:
(b) supply of legal tender money

Question 10.
The modern economy is described as………….
(a) Demand Economy
(b) Supply Economy
(c) Money Economy
(d) Wage Economy
Answer:
(c) Money Economy

Question 11.
EXIM bank was established in……………
(a) June 1982
(b) April 1982
(c) May 1982
(d) March 1982
Answer:
(d) March 1982

Question 12.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Question 13.
Balance of Trade means:……….
(a) Import and export of invisible items only
(b) Import and export of both visible and invisible items
(c) Import of visible items only
(d) Import and export of visible items only
Answer:
(d) Import and export of visible items only

Question 14.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) SDR – Special Drawing Rights
(b) IMF – India Monetary Fund
(c) BOP – Balance of Price
(d) BOT – Balance of Technology
Answer:
(a) SDR – Special Drawing Rights

Question 15.
The word budget has been derived from the French word “bougette” which means:……….
(a) A small bag
(b) An empty box
(c) A box with papers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) A small bag

Question 16.
Assertion (A): Canons of Taxation are Economical, Equitable, Convenient, Certain Efficient and Flexible.
Reason (R): Adam Smiths four canons of taxation are Canon of Ability, Canon of Certainty, Canon of Convenience, Canon of Economy.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 17.
Which one of the following causes of global warming?
(a) Earth gravitation force
(b) Oxygen
(c) Centripetal force
(d) Increasing temperature
Answer:
(d) Increasing temperature

Question 18.
Heavy machineries located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the ………..
(a) land
(b) soil
(c) air
(d) water
Answer:
(c) air

Question 19.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Question 20.
Econometrics is the amalgamation of
(a) 3 subjects
(b) 4 subjects
(c) 2 subjects
(d) 5 subjects
Answer:
(a) 3 subjects

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Write the Disposable Income.
Answer:

1. Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income.
2. It is the individuals income after the payment of income tax.
3. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Question 22.
Write a short note on “Educational Unemployment”.
Answer:

1. Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does not match the job.
2. Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

Question 23.
Write the Accelerator Assumptions.
Answer:
Assumptions:

1. Absence of excess capacity in consumer goods industries.
2. Constant capital – output ratio
3. Increase in demand is assumed to be permanent
4. Supply of funds and other inputs is quite elastic
5. Capital goods are perfectly divisible in any required size.

Question 24.
Explain disinflation.
Answer:
Disinflation: Disinflation is the slowing down the rate of inflation by controlling the amount of credit (bank loan, hire purchase) available to consumers without causing more unemployment. Disinflation may be defined as the process of reversing inflation without creating unemployment or reducing output in the economy.

Question 25.
Write the meaning of Money supply.
Answer:

1. In India, currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and coins are issued by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India (GOI).
2. Besides these, the balance is savings, or current account deposits, held by the public in commercial banks is also considered money.
3. The currency notes are also called fiat money and legal tenders.

Question 26.
Define Commercial banks.
Answer:
Commercial bank refers to a bank, or a division of a large bank, which more specifically deals with deposit and loan services provided to corporations or large/middle-sized business – as opposed to individual members of the public/small business.

Question 27.
Define “Cash Reserve Ratio”.
Answer:

1. Under this system the Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserves Ratio.
2. For example, if the Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit,this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.
3. So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.

Question 28.
Write a brief note on flexible exchange rate.
Answer:
Flexible Exchange Rates: Under the flexible exchange rate (also known as floating exchange rate) system, exchange rates are freely determined in an open market by market forces of demand and supply.

Question 29.
Define World Trade Organisation.
Answer:

1. WTC headquarters located at New York, USA.
2. It featured the landmark Twin Towers which was established on 4th April 1973.
3. Later it was destroyed on 11th September 2001 by the craft attack.
4. It brings together businesses involved in international trade from around the globe.

Question 30.
Define “Public Revenue”.
Answer:

1. Public revenue occupies an important place in the study of public finance.
2. The Government has to perform several functions for the welfare of the people.
3. They involve substantial amount of public expenditure which can be financed only through public revenue.
4. The amount of public revenue to be raised depends on the necessity of public expenditure and the people’s ability to pay.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write a note on Mixed Economy.
Answer:
Mixed Economy (Mixedism):

1. In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development.
2. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.
3. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government.
4. India, England, France and Brazil are the examples of mixed economy.

Question 32.
Define the term “Household sector”.
Answer:

1. The household sector is the sole buyer of goods and services, and the sole supplier of factors of production, i.e., land, labour, capital and organisation.
2. It spends its entire income on the purchase of goods and services produced by the business sector.
3. The household sector receives income from firm sector by providing the factors of production owned by it.

Question 33.
List out the assumptions of Say’s law.
Answer:
The Say’s Law of market is based on the following assumptions:

1. No single buyer or seller of commodity or an input can affect price.
2. Full employment.
3. People are motivated by self interest and self – interest determines economic decisions.
4. The laissez faire policy is essential for an automatic and self adjusting process of full employment equilibrium. Market forces determine everything right.
5. There will be a perfect competition in labour and product market.
6. There is wage-price flexibility.
7. Money acts only as a medium of exchange.
8. Long – run analysis.
9. There is no possibility for over production or unemployment.

Question 34.
Aggregate Supply Function meaning and components.
Answer:
Aggregate supply function is an increasing function of the level of employment. Aggregate supply refers to the value of total output of goods and services produced in an economy in a year. In other words, aggregate supply is equal to the value of national product, i.e., national income.
The components of aggregate supply are:

1. Aggregate (desired) consumption expenditure (C)
2. Aggregate (desired) private savings (S)
3. Net tax payments (T) (Total tax payment to be received by the government minus transfer payments, subsidy and interest payments to be incurred by the government) and
4. Personal (desired) transfer payments to the foreigners (Rf) (e.g. Donations to international relief efforts)

Question 35.
State the concept of super multiplier.
Answer:
Super Multiplier: (k and p interaction)

1. The super multiplier is greater than simple multiplier which includes only autonomous investment and no induced investment, while super multiplier includes induced investment.
2. In order to measure the total effect of initial investment on income, Hicks has combined the k and p mathematically and given it the name of the Super Multiplier.
3. The super multiplier is worked out by combining both induced consumption and induced investment.

Question 36.
Explain the primary functions of money.
Answer:
(i) Money as a medium of exchange:
This is considered as the basic function of money. Money has the quality of general acceptability, and all exchanges take place in terms of money.

(ii) Money as a measure of value:
The second important function of money is that it measures the value of goods and services. In other words, the prices of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money. Money is thus looked upon as a collective measure of value.

Question 37.
Distinguish between CRR and SLR.
Answer:

S.No.	CRR	SLR
1.	The Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserv es Ratio.	Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the amount which a bank has to maintain in the form of cash, gold or approved securities.
2.	Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit, this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.	The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities.
3.	So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.	The liabilities of the bank which are payable on demand anytime, and those liabilities which are accruing in one month’s time due to maturity.

Question 38.
Write Adam Smith’s theory of Absolute Cost Advantage Assumptions.
Answer:
Assumptions:

1. There are two countries and two commodities (2 × 2 model).
2. Labour is the only factor of production.
3. Labour units are homogeneous.
4. The cost or price of a commodity is measured by the amount of labour required to produce it.
5. There is no transport cost.

Question 39.
Explain the major achievements of WTO.
Answer:
The major achievements of WTO are as follows

1. Use of restrictive measures for BoP problems has declined markedly;
2. Services trade has been brought into the multilateral system and many countries, as in goods, are opening their markets for trade and investment;
3. The trade policy review mechanism has created a process of continuous monitoring of trade policy developments.

Question 40.
State and explain instruments of fiscal policy.
Answer:
Fiscal Instruments:
Fiscal Policy is implemented through fiscal instruments also called ‘fiscal tools’ or fiscal levers: Government expenditure, taxation and borrowing are the fiscal tools.
(i) Taxation:

1. Taxes transfer income from the people to the Government.
2. Taxes are either direct or indirect.
3. An increase in tax reduces disposable income.
4. So taxation should be raised to control inflation.
5. During depression, taxes are to be reduced.

(ii) Public Expenditure:

1. Public expenditure raises wages and salaries of the employees and thereby the aggregate demand for goods and services.
2. Hence public expenditure is raised to fight recession and reduced to control inflation

(iii) Public debt:

1. When Government borrows by floating a loan, there is transfer of funds from the public to the Government.
2. At the time of interest payment and repayment of public debt, funds are transferred from Government to public.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Briefly explain the objective factors of consumption functions.
Answer:
Objective Factors:
(i) Income Distribution:
If there is large disparity between rich and poor, the consumption is low because the rich people have low propensity to consume and high propensity to save.

(ii) Price level:

• Price level plays an important role in determining the consumption function.
• When the price falls, real income goes up; people will consume more and propensity to save of the society increases.

(iii) Wage level:

• Wage level plays an important role in determining the consumption function and there is positive relationship between wage and consumption.
• Consumption expenditure increases with the rise in wages.
• Similar is the effect with regard to windfall gains.

(iv) Interest rate:

• Rate of interest plays an important role in determining the consumption function.
• Higher rate of interest will encourage people to save more money and reduces consumption.

(v) Fiscal Policy:
When government reduces the tax the disposable income rises and the propensity to consume of community increases.

(vi) Consumer credit:

• The availability of consumer credit at easy installments will encourage households to buy consumer durables like automobiles, fridge, computer.
• This pushes up consumption.

(vii) Demographic factors:

• Ceteris paribus, the larger the size of the family, the grater is the consumption.
• Besides size of family, stage in family life cycle, place of residence and occupation affect the consumption function.

(viii) Duesenberry hypothesis:
Duesenberry has made two observations regarding the factors affecting consumption.

• The consumption expenditure depends not only on his current income but also past income and standard of living.
• Consumption is influenced by demonstration effect. The consumption standards of low income groups are influenced by the consumption standards of high income groups..

(ix) Windfall Gains or losses:
Unexpected changes in the stock market leading to gains or losses tend to shift the consumption function upward or downward.

[OR]

(b) Explain the keynes psycological law of consumption asumptions.
Answer:
Keynes’s Law is based on the following assumptions:
(i) Ceteris paribus (constant extraneous variables):
The other variables such as income distribution, tastes, habits, social customs, price movements, population growth, etc. do not change and consumption depends on income alone.

(ii) Existence of Normal Conditions:

• The law holds good under normal conditions.
• If, however, the economy is faced with abnormal and extraordinary circumstances like war, revolution or hyperinflation, the law will not operate.
• People may spend the whole of increased income on consumption.

(iii) Existence of a Laissez-faire Capitalist Economy:

• The law operates in a rich capitalist economy where there is no government intervention.
• People should be free to spend increased income.
• In the case of regulation of private enterprise and consumption expenditures by the State, the law breaks down.

Question 42 (a).
What are the effects of Inflation on the Economy?
Answer:
The effects of inflation can be classified into two heads:

1. Effects on Production and
2. Effects on Distribution.

1. Effects on Production:
When the inflation is veiy moderate, it acts as an incentive to traders and producers. This is particularly prior to full employment when resources are not fully utilized. The profit due to rising prices encourages and induces business class to increase their investments in production, leading to generation of employment and income.

• However, hyper-inflation results in a serious depreciation of the value of money.
• When the value of money undergoes considerable depreciation, this may even drain out the foreign capital already invested in the country.
• With reduced capital accumulation, the investment will suffer a serious set-back which may have an adverse effect on the volume of production in the country.
• Inflation also leads to hoarding of essential goods both by the traders as well as the consumers and thus leading to still higher inflation rate.
• Inflation encourages investment in speculative activities rather than productive purposes.

2. Effects on Distribution:

• Debtors and Creditors: During inflation, debtors are the gainers while the creditors are losers.
• Fixed-income Groups: The fixed income groups are the worst hit during inflation because their incomes being fixed do not bear any relationship with the rising cost of living.
• Entrepreneurs: Inflation is the boon to the entrepreneurs whether they are manufacturers, traders, merchants or businessmen, because it serves as a tonic for business enterprise.
• Investors: The investors, who generally invest in fixed interest yielding bonds and securities have much to lose during inflation.

[OR]

(b) Describe the functions of IDBI.
Answer:
Functions of IDBI:

1. The functions of IDBI fall into two groups (i) Assistance to other financial institutions; and (ii) Direct assistance to industrial concerns either on its own or in participation with other institutions.
2. The IDBI can provide refinance in respect of term loans to industrial concerns given by the IFC, the SFCs, other financial institutions notified by the Government, scheduled banks and state cooperative banks.
3. A special feature of the IDBI is the provision for the creation of a special fund known as the Development Assistance Fund.
4. The fund is intended to provide assistance to industries which require heavy investments with low anticipated rate of return.
5. Such industries may not be able to get assistance in the normal course.
6. The financing of exports was also undertaken by the IDBI till the establishment of EXIM BANK in March, 1982.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the subject matter of International Economics.
Answer:
Subject Matter of International Economics:
The subject matter of International Economics includes large number of segments which are
classified into the following parts.
1. Pure Theory of Trade: This component explains the causes for foreign trade, composition, direction and volume of trade, determination of the terms of trade and exchange rate, issues related to balance of trade and balance of payments.

2. Policy Issues: Under this part, policy issues such as free trade vs. protection, methods of regulating trade, capital and technology flows, use of taxation, subsidies and dumping, exchange control and convertibility, foreign aid, external borrowings and foreign direct investment, measures of correcting disequilibrium in the balance of payments etc are covered.

3. International Cartels and Trade Blocs: This part deals with the economic integration in
the form of international cartels, customs unions, monetary unions, trade blocs, economic unions and the like. It also discusses the operation of Multi National Corporations (MNCs).

4. International Financial and Trade Regulatory Institutions: The financial institutions like International Monetary Fund IMF, IBRD, WTO etc which influence international economic transactions and relations shall also be the part of international economics.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the components of balance of payments account.
Answer:
Components of BOPs:
The credit and debit items are shown vertical lv in the BOP account of a country. Horizontally, they are divided into three categories, i.e.

1. The current account,
2. The capital account and
3. The official settlements account or official reserve assets account.

1. The Current Account: It includes all international trade transactions of goods and services, international service transactions (i.e. tourism, transportation and royalty fees) and international unilateral transfers (i.e. gifts and foreign aid).

2. The Capital Account: Financial transactions consisting of direct investment and purchases of interest-bearing financial instruments, non-interest bearing demand deposits and gold fall under the capital account.

3. The Official Reserve Assets Account: Official reserve transactions consist of movements of international reserves by governments and official agencies to accommodate imbalances arising from the current and capital accounts.

The official reserve assets of a country include its gold stock, holdings of its convertible foreign currencies and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and its net position in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 44 (a).
What are trade blocks?
Answer:
1. Trade blocks cover different kinds of arrangements between or among countries for mutual benefit. Economic integration takes the form of Free Trade Area, Customs Union, Common Market and Economic Union.

2. A free trade area is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-trade agreement (FTA). Such agreements involve cooperation between at least two countries to reduce trade barriers, e.g. SAFTA, EFTA.

3. A customs union is defined as a type of trade block which is composed of a free trade area with no tariff among members and (zero tariffs among members) with a common external tariff, e.g. BENELUX (Belgium, Netherland and Luxumbuarg).

4. Common market is established through trade pacts. A group formed by countries within a geographical area to promote duty free trade and free movement of labour and capital among its members, e.g. European Common Market (ECM).

5. An economic union is composed of a common market with a customs union. The participant countries have both common policies on product regulation, freedom of movement of goods, services and the factors of production and a common external trade policy, (e.g. European Economic Union).

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain the achievements of SAARC.
Answer:
Achievements of SAARC:

1. The establishment of SAARC Preferential Trading Agreement (SAPTA) and reduction in tariff and non-tariff barriers on imports.
2. The setting up of Technical Committees for economic cooperation among SAARC countries relating to agriculture, communications, education, health and population, rural development, science and technology, tourism, etc.
3. SAARC has established a three-tier mechanism for exchanging information on poverty reduction programmes which is passed on to member countries.
4. SAARC Agricultural Information Centre (SAIC) in 1988 works as a central information institution for agriculture related resources like fisheries, forestry, etc.
5. South Asian Development Fund (SADF) for development projects, human resource development and infrastructural development projects. With all these tall claims, the inter- SAARC Trade has not gone beyond three percent in the last 30 years.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the methods of debt redemption.
Answer:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.
(i) Sinking Fund:

• Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
• The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
• By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
• This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(ii) Conversion:

• Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.
• It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
• Under this system a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
• Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(iii) Budgetary Surplus:

• When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
• Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
• However, this method is rarely possible.

(iv) Terminal Annuity:

• In this method, Government pays off the public debt on the basis of terminal annuity in
  equal annual installments. .
• This is the easiest way of paying off the public debt.

(v) Repudiation:

• It is the easiest way for the Government to get rid of the burden of payment of a loan.
• In such cases, the Government does not recognise its obligation to repay the loan.
• It is certainly not paying off a loan but destroying it.
• However, in normal case the Government does not do so; if done it will lose its credibility.

(vi) Reduction in Rate of Interest:
Another method of debt redemption is the compulsory reduction in the rate of interest, during the time of financial crisis.

(vi) Capital Levy:

1. When the Government imposes levy on the capital assets owned by an individual or any institution, it is called capital levy.
2. This levy is imposed on capital assets above a minimum limit on a progressive scale.
3. The fund so collected can be used by the Government for paying off war time debt obligations.
4. This is the most controversial method of debt repayment.

[OR]

(b) Describe the various types of deficit in budget.
Answer:
The Indian Government budget, budget deficit is of four major types.

1. Revenue Deficit
2. Budget Deficit
3. Fiscal Deficit, and
4. Primary Deficit

1. Revenue Deficit:
It refers to the excess of the government revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. It does not consider capital receipts and capital expenditure. Revenue deficit implies that the government is living beyond its means to conduct day-to-day operations.
Revenue Deficit (RD) = Total Revenue Expenditure (RE) – Total Revenue Receipts (RR) When RE – RR > 0

2. Budget Deficit:
Budget deficit is the difference between total receipts and total expenditure (both revenue and capital)
Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Revenue

3. Fiscal Deficit:
Fiscal deficit (FD) = Budget deficit + Government’s market borrowings and liabilities

4. Primary Deficit:
Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It shows the real burden of the government and it does not include the interest burden on loans taken in the past. Thus, primary deficit reflects borrowing requirement of the government exclusive of interest payments.
Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal deficit (PD) – Interest Payment (IP)

Question 46 (a).
Briefly explain classification of Public expenditure.
Answer:
Classification of public expenditure are as follows:
(i) Classification on the Basis of Benefit:
Cohn and Plehn have classified the public expenditure on the basis of benefit into four classes:

• Public expenditure benefiting the entire society, e.g., the expenditure on general administration, defence, education, public health, transport.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on certain people and at the same time common benefit on the entire community, e.g., administration of justice etc.
• Public expenditure directly benefiting particular group of persons and indirectly the entire society, e.g., social security, public welfare, pension, unemployment relief etc.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on some individuals, e.g., subsidy granted to a particular industry.

(ii) Classification on the Basis of Function:
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of functions of government in the ‘ following main groups:

• Protection Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the security of the citizens, to protect from external invasion and internal disorder, e.g., defence, police, courts etc.
• Commercial Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the development of trade and commerce, e.g., development of means of transport and communication etc.
• Development Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred for the development infrastructure and industry.

[OR]

(b) Explain Balanced and Unbalanced Budget.
Answer:
Balanced Budget
Balanced budget is a situation, in which estimated revenue of the government during the year is equal to its anticipated expenditure.

Unbalanced Budget
The budget in which Revenue & Expenditure are not equal to each other is known as Unbalanced Budget.
Unbalanced budget is of two types:

1. Surplus Budget
2. Deficit Budget

1. Surplus Budget
The budget is a surplus budget when the estimated revenues of the year are greater than anticipated expenditures.

2. Deficit Budget
Deficit budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than expected revenue.

Question 47 (a).
Write a note on
(a) Climate change and
(b) Acid rain.
Answer:
(a) Climate Change:
The climate change refers to seasonal changes over a long period with respect to the growing accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

Recent studies have shown that human activities since the beginning of the industrial revolution, have contributed to an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by as much as 40%, from about 280 parts per million in the pre-industrial period, to 402 parts per million in 2016, which in turn has led to global warming.

Several parts of the world have already experienced the warming of coastal waters, high temperatures, a marked change in rainfall patterns, and an increased intensity and frequency of storms. Sea levels and temperatures are expected to be rising.

(b) Acid Rain:

1. Acid rain is one of the consequences of air pollution.
2. It occurs when emissions from factories, cars or heating boilers contact with the water in the atmosphere.
3. These emissions contain nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide which when mixed with water becomes sulfurous acid, nitric acid and sulfuric acid.
4. This process also occurs by nature through volcanic eruptions.
5. It can have harmful effects on plants, aquatic animals and infrastructure.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the economic determinants of economic development Economic Factors?
Answer:
Economic Factors:
1. Natural Resource: The principal factor affecting the development of an economy is the availability of natural resources. The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.

2. Capital Formation: Capital formation is the main key to economic growth. Capital formation refers to the net addition to the existing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.

3. Size of the Market: Large size of the market would stimulate production, increase employment and raise the National per capita income. That is why developed countries expand their market to other countries through WTO.

4. Structural Change: Structural change refers to change in the occupational structure of the economy. Any economy of the country is generally divided into three basic sectors: Primary sector such as agricultural, animal husbandry, forestry, etc; Secondary sector such as industrial production, constructions and Tertiary sector such as trade, banking and commerce.

5. Financial System: Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.

6. Marketable Surplus: Marketable surplus refers to the total amount of farm output cultivated by farmers over and above their family consumption needs. This is a surplus that can be sold in the market for earning income.

7. Foreign Trade: The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always developed. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

8. Economic System: The countries which adopt free market mechanism (laissez faire) enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economies.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
An economic system where the economic activities of a nation are done both by the private and public together is termed as……….
(a) Capitalistic Economy
(b) Socialistic Economy
(c) Globalisic Economy
(d) Mixed Economy
Answer:
(d) Mixed Economy

Question 2.
In a socialist economy, all decisions regarding production and distribution are taken by
(a) market forces
(b) central planning authority
(c) customs and traditions
(d) private sector
Answer:
(b) central planning authority

Question 3.
State whether the statements are true or false.
(i) Capitalism and Socialism are same approaches.
(ii) Capitalism and Socialism are two extreme and opposite approaches.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (ii) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true

Question 4.
Net National product at factor cost is also known as………….
(a) National Income
(b) Domestic Income
(c) Per capita Income
(d) Salary
Answer:
(a) National Income

Question 5.
……….. helps to build economic models both in short run and long run.
(a) National Income
(b) Personal Income
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) State Income
Answer:
(d) State Income

Question 6.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Question 7.
Assertion (A): The Income method is called Factor Earning Method.
Reason (R): This method approaches National Income from the distribution side.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 8.
Keynes theory pursues to replace, laissez faire by……….
(a) No government intervention
(b) Maximum intervention
(c) State intervention in certain situation
(d) Private sector intervention
Answer:
(c) State intervention in certain situation

Question 9.
……….. defines “Full employment as that level of employment at which any further increase in spending would resort in an inflationary spiral of wages and prices”
(a) Lerner
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) J.B. Say
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(a) Lerner

Question 10.
State whether the statements are true or false.
(i) The function of money is a medium of exchange on the one side and a store of value on the other side is called Keynesianism. ‘
(ii) Macro approach to national problems.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 11.
The multiplier tells us how much……….changes after a shift in………..
(a) Consumption, income
(b) investment, output
(c) savings, investment
(d) output, aggregate demand
Answer:
(d) output, aggregate demand

Question 12.
Accelerator Model was made by………..
(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) J.M. Clark
(c) R.F. Khan
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(b) J.M. Clark

Question 13.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) Aggregate Income – C
(b) Consumption expenditure – I_A
(c) Autonomous Investment – Y
(d) Induced Private Investment – I_P
Answer:
(d) Induced Private Investment – I_P

Question 14.
During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely………..
(a) high
(b) bad
(c) low
(d) good
Answer:
(c) low

Question 15.
Online Banking is also known as …………
(a) E-Banking
(b) Internet Banking
(c) RTGS
(d) NEFT
Answer:
(b) Internet Banking

Question 16.
Fixed Deposits are otherwise known as
(a) Bank Deposits
(b) Customer’s Deposits
(c) Time Deposits
(d) Money Deposits
Answer:
(c) Time Deposits

Question 17.
IMF is a prerequisite to become a member of
(a) SDR
(b) SAF
(c) World Bank
(d) SAF
Answer:
(c) World Bank

Question 18.
Environmental goods are ………….
(a) Market goods
(b) Non-market goods
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non-market goods

Question 19.
Expansion of NITI Aayog?
(a) National Institute to Transform India
(b) National Institute for Transforming India
(c) National Institution to Transform India
(d) National Institution for Transforming India
Answer:
(d) National Institution for Transforming India

Question 20.
Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Financial planning
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Seven pillars of effective governance
(d) Physical planning
Answer:
(c) Seven pillars of effective governance

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Explain the Expenditure Method (Outlay Method) precautions. Precautions
Answer:

1. Second hand goods: The expenditure made on second hand goods should not be included.
2. Purchase of shares and bonds: Expenditures on purchase of old shares and bonds in the secondary market should not be included.
3. Transfer payments: Expenditures towards payment incurred by the government like old age pension should not be included.
4. Expenditure on intermediate goods: Expenditure on seeds and fertilizers by farmers, cotton and yam by textile industries are not to be included to avoid double counting. That is only expenditure on final products are to be included.

Question 22.
Give short note on frictional unemployment.
Answer:
Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment) :
Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour. This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery, shortage of raw materials etc. The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

Question 23.
Define Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS).
Answer:
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS):
Marginal Propensity to Save is the ratio of change in saving to a change in income. MPS is obtained by dividing change in savings by change in income. It can be expressed algebraically as
MPS = \(\frac{ΔS}{ΔY}\)
ΔS = Change in Saving;
ΔY = Change in Income
Since MPC + MPS = 1
MPS = 1 – MPC and MPC = 1 – MPS

Question 24.
What is the meaning of trade cycle?
Answer:
Meaning of Trade Cycle
A Trade cycle refers to oscillations in aggregate economic activity particularly in employment, output, income, etc. It is due to the inherent contraction and expansion of the elements which energize the economic activities of the nation. The fluctuations are periodical, differing in intensity and changing in its coverage.

Question 25.
What is the meaning of Open Market Operations?
Answer:
In narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in the money market. In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.

Question 26.
What is credit creation?
Answer:
Credit Creation means the multiplication of loans and advances. Commercial banks receive deposits from the public and use these deposits to give loans: However, loans offered are many times more than the deposits received by banks. This function of banks is known as ‘Credit Creation’.

Question 27.
State any two merits of trade.
Answer:

1. Trade is one of the powerful forces of economic integration.
2. The term ‘trade’ means exchange of goods, wares or merchandise among people.

Question 28.
What is Secular Disequilibrium?
Answer:
Secular Disequilibrium: The secular or long-run disequilibrium in BOP occurs because of long-run and deep seated changes in an economy as it advances from one stage of growth to another. In the initial stages of development, domestic investment exceeds domestic savings and imports exceed exports, as it happens in India since 1951.

Question 29.
Who are “dialogue partners”?
Answer:
The ASEAN, there are six “dialogue partners” which have been participating in its deliberations. They are China, Japan, India, South Korea, New Zealand and Australia.

Question 30.
Mention the indicators of development.
Answer:

1. Economic development is regarded as a process whereby there is an increase in the consumption of goods and services by individuals.
2. From the welfare perspective, economic development is defined as a sustained improvement in health, literacy and standard of living.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Enumerate the features of mixed economy.
Answer:
Features of Mixed Economy:
1. Ownership of Property and Means of Production: The means of production and properties are owned by both private and public. Public and Private have the right to purchase, use or transfer their resources.

2. Coexistence of Public and Private Sectors: In mixed economies, both private and public sectors coexist. Private industries undertake activities primarily for profit. Public sector firms are owned by the government with a view to maximize social welfare.

3. Economic Planning: The central planning authority prepares the economic plAnswer: National plans are drawn up by the Government and both private and public sectors abide. In general, all sectors of the economy function according to the objectives, priorities and targets laid down in the plan.

4. Solution to Economic Problems: The basic problems of what to produce, how to produce, for whom to produce and how to distribute are solved through the price mechanism as well as state intervention.

5. Freedom and Control: Though private has freedom to own resources, produce goods and services and distribute the same, the overall control on the economic activities rests with the government.

Question 32.
What is the solution to the problem of double counting in the estimation of national income?
Answer:

1. The value obtained is actually the GNP at market prices. Care must be taken to avoid double counting.
2. The value of the final product is derived by the summation of all the values added in the productive process.
3. To avoid double counting, either the value of the final output should be taken into the estimate of GNP or the sum of values added should be taken.
4. Double counting is to be avoided under value added method.
5. Any commodity which is either raw material or intermediate good for the final production should not be included.
6. For example, value of cotton enters value of yam as cost, and value of yam in cloth and that of cloth in garments.
7. At every stage value added only should be calculated.

Question 33.
Mention the expenditure method (or) out-lay method.
Answer:
The Expenditure Method (Outlay method): The total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together. To calculate the expenditure of a society, it includes personal consumption expenditure, net domestic investment, government expenditure on consumption as well as capital goods and net exports. Symbolically,
GNP = C + I + G + (X – M)
C – Private consumption expenditure
I – Private Investment Expenditure
G – Government expenditure
X – M = Net exports

Question 34.
Discuss the estimating the national income through the Income Method precautions.
Answer:

1. Transfer payments are not to be included in estimation of national income as these payments are not received for any services provided in the current year such as pension, social insurance etc.
2. The receipts from the sale of second hand goods should not be treated as part of national income as they do not create new flow of goods or services in the current year.
3. Windfall gains such as lotteries are also not to be included as they do not represent receipts from any current productive activity.
4. Corporate profit tax should not be separately included as it has been already included as a part of company profit.

Question 35.
Specify the limitations of the multiplier.
Answer:

1. There is change in autonomous investment.
2. There is no induced investment
3. The marginal propensity to consume is constant.
4. Consumption is a function of current income.
5. There are no time lags in the multiplier process.
6. Consumer goods are available in response to effective demand for them.
7. There is a closed economy unaffected by foreign influences.
8. There are no changes in prices.
9. There is less than full employment level in the economy.

Question 36.
Explain the uses of multiplier.
Answer:
Uses of multiplier

1. Multiplier highlights the importance of investment in income and employment theory.
2. The process throws light on the different stages of trade cycle.
3. It also helps in bringing the equality between S and I.
4. It helps in formulating Government policies.
5. It helps to reduce unemployment and achieve full employment.

Question 37.
Write a note on metallic money.
Answer:

1. After the barter system and commodity money system, modem money systems evolved.
2. Among these, metallic standard is the premier one.
3. Under metallic standard, some kind of metal either gold or silver is used to determine the standard value of the money and currency.
4. Standard coins made out of the metal are the principal coins used under the metallic standard.
5. These standard coins are full bodied or full weighted legal tender.
6. Their face value is equal to their intrinsic metal value.

Question 38.
What is the meaning of Crypto currency?
Answer:
Crypto Currency:
A digital currency in which encryption techniques are used to regulate the generation of units of currency and verify the transfer of funds, operating independently of a Central Bank,

Decentralised crypto currencies such as Bitcoin now provide an outlet for Personal Wealth that is beyond restriction and confiscation.

Question 39.
Write the TRIPs agreement.
Answer:
Agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs):

1. Intellectual Property Rights include copy right, trade marks, patents, geographical indications, trade secrets, industrial designs, etc.
2. TRIPS Agreement provides for granting product patents instead of process patents.
3. The period of protection will be 20 years for patents, 50 years for copy rights, 7 years for trade marks and 10 years for layout designs.
4. As a result of TRIPS, the dependence of LDCs on advanced countries for seeds, drugs, fertilizers and pesticides has increased.
5. Farmers are depending on the industrial firm for their seeds.

Question 40.
What is Crony capitalism?
Answer:
Social Organization:

1. People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.
2. Mass participation in development programs is a pre-condition for accelerating the ‘ development process.
3. Whenever the defective social organization allows some groups to appropriate the benefits of growth.
4. Majority of the poor people do not participate in the process of development.
5. This is called crony capitalism.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Explain the Aggregate Demand Function with Diagram.
Answer:
In the Keynesian model, output is determined mainly by aggregate demand. The aggregate demand is the amount of money which entrepreneurs expect to get by selling the output produced by the number of labourers employed.

Therefore, it is the expected income or revenue from the sale of output at different levels of employment.
Aggregate demand has the following four components:

1. Consumption demand
2. Investment demand
3. Government expenditure and
4. Net Export (export – import)

The desired or planned demand (spending) is the amount that households, firms, the governments and the foreign purchasers would like to spend on domestic output.

In other words, desired demand in the economy is the sum total of desired private consumption expenditure, desired investment expenditure, desired government spending and desired net exports (difference between exports and imports). Thus, the desired spending is called aggregate spending (demand), and can be expressed as:
AD = C + I + G + (X – M)
The diagram explains that aggregate demand price increases or decreases with an increase or decrease in the volume of employment. Aggregate demand curve increases at an increasing rate in the beginning and then increases at a decreasing rate.

This shows that as income increases owing to increase in employment, expenditure of the economy increases at a decreasing rate.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Effective demand.
Answer:

1. The starting point of Keynes theory of employment and income is the principle of effective demand.
2. Effective demand denotes money actually spent by the people on products of industry.
3. The money which entrepreneurs receive is paid in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit.
4. Therefore effective demand equals national income.
5. An increase in the aggregate effective demand would increase the level of employment.
6. A decline in total effective demand would lead to unemployment.
7. Therefore, total employment of a country can be determined with the help of total demand of a country.
8. According to the Keynes theory of employment, “Effective demand signifies the money spent on consumption of goods and services and on investment.
9. The total expenditure is equal to the national income, which is equivalent to the national output”.
10. The relationship between employment and output of an economy depends upon the level of effective demand which is determined by the forces of aggregate supply and aggregate demand.
    ED = Y = C + I = Output = Employment
11. Effective demand determines the level of employment in the economy.
12. When effective demand increases, employment will increase.
13. When effective demand decreases, the level employment will decline.
14. The effective demand will be determined by two determinants namely consumption and investment expenditures.
15. The consumption function depends upon income of the people and marginal propensity to consume.
16. According to Keynes, if income increases, consumption will also increase but by less than the increase in income.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the working of Multiplier.
Answer:
Working of Multiplier:
1. Suppose the Government undertakes investment expenditure equal to Rs 100 crore on some public works, by way of wages, price of materials etc.
2. Thus income of labourers and suppliers of materials increases by Rs 100 crore. Suppose the MPC is 0.8 that is 80 %.
3. A sum of Rs 80 crores is spent on consumption (A sum of Rs 20 Crores is saved).
4. As a result, suppliers of goods get an income of Rs 80 crores.
5. They intum spend Rs 64 crores (80% of Rs 80 cr).
In this manner consumption expenditure and increase in income act in a chain like manner. The final result is ΔY = 100 + 100 × 4/5 + 100 × [4/5]² + 100 × [4/5]³ or,
ΔY = 100 + 100 × 0.8 + 100 × (0.8)² + 100 × (0.8)³
= 100 + 80+ 64 + 51.2… = 500
that is 100 × 1/1 – 4/5
100 × 1/1/5
100 × 5 = Rs 500 crores
For instance if C = 100 + 0.8Y, I = 100,
Then Y = 100+ 0.8Y + 100
0. 2Y = 200
Y = 200/0.2 = 1000 → Point B
If I is increased to 110, then
0. 2Y = 210
Y = 210/0.2 = 1050 → Point D
For Rs 10 increase in I, Y has increased by Rs 50.
This is due to multiplier effect.
At point A, Y = C = 500
C = 100 + 0.8 (500) = 500; S = 0
At point B, Y = 1000
C = 100 + 0.8 (1000) = 900; S = 100 = I
At point D, Y = 1050
C = 100 + 0.8 (1050) = 940; S = 110 = I
When I is increased by 10, Y increases by 50.
This is multiplier effect (K = 5)
K = \(\frac{1}{0.2}\) = 5

[OR]

(b) Explain about Marginal Efficiency of Capital [MEC] short run factors and long run factors.
Answer:
(a) Short – Run Factors
(i) Demand for the product:

• If the market for a particular good is expected to grow and its costs are likely to fall, the rate of return from investment will be high.
• If entrepreneurs expect a fall in demand for goods and a rise in cost, the investment will decline.

(ii) Liquid assets:

• If the entrepreneurs are holding large volume of working capital, they can take advantage of the investment opportunities that come in their way.
  The MEC will be high.

(iii) Sudden changes in income:

• The MEC is also influenced by sudden changes in income of the entrepreneurs.
• If the business community gets windfall profits, or tax concession the MEC will be high and hence investment in the country will go up.
• On the other hand, MEC falls with the decrease in income.

(iv) Current rate of investment:

• Another factor which influences MEC is the current rate of investment in a particular industry.
• If in a particular industry, much investment has already taken place and the rate of investment currently going on in that industry is also very large, then the marginal efficiency of capital will be low.

(v) Waves of optimism and pessimism:

1. The marginal efficiency of capital is also affected by waves of optimism and pessimism in the business cycle.
2. If businessmen are optimistic about future, the MEC will be likely to be high.
3. During periods of pessimism the MEC is under estimated and so will be low.

(b) Long – Run Factors
The long run factors which influence the marginal efficiency of capital are as follows:
(i) Rate of growth of population:

• Marginal efficiency of capital is also influenced by the rate of growth of population.
• If population is growing at a rapid speed, it is usually believed that the demand of various types of goods will increase.
• So a rapid rise in the growth of population will increase the marginal efficiency of capital and a slowing down in its rate of growth will discourage investment and thus reduce marginal efficiency of capital.

(ii) Technological progress:

• If investment and technological development take place in the industry, the prospects of increase in the net yield brightens up.
• For example, the development of automobiles in the 20th century has greatly stimulated the rubber industry, the steel and oil industry etc.
• So we can say that inventions and technological improvements encourage investment in various projects and increase marginal efficiency of capital.

(iii) Monetary and Fiscal policies:
Cheap money policy and liberal tax policy pave the way for greater profit margin and so MEC is likely to be high.

(iv) Political environment:
Political stability, smooth administration, maintenance of law and order help to improve MEC.

(v) Resource availability:
Cheap and abundant supply of natural resources, efficient labour and stock of capital enhance the MEC.

Question 43 (a).
Briefly explain the Monetary Economics and money.
Answer:
Monetary Economics is a branch of economics that provides a framework for analyzing money and its functions as a medium of exchange, store of value and unit of account. It examines the effects of monetary systems including regulation of money and associated financial institutions.

Meaning

1. Money is anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services and repayment of debts and that serves as a medium of exchange.
2. A medium of exchange is anything that is widely accepted as a means of payments.
3. In recent years, the importance of credit has increased in all the countries of the world.
4. Credit instruments are used on an extensive scale.
5. The use of cheques, bills of exchange, etc., has gone up.
6. It should however, be remembered that money is the basis of credit.

[OR]

(b) What are the objectives of Monetary Policy? Explain.
Answer:
The specific objectives of monetary policy are Objectives of monetary policy:

1. Neutrality of Money
2. Stability of Exchange Rates
3. Price Stability
4. Full Employment
5. Economic Growth
6. Equilibrium in the Balance of Payments

1. Neutrality of Money:

• Economists like Wicksteed, Hayek and Robertson are the chief exponents of neutral money.
• They hold the view that monetary authority should aim at neutrality of money in the economy.
• Monetary changes could be the root cause of all economic fluctuations.
• According to neutralists, the monetary change causes distortion and disturbances in the proper operation of the economic system of the country.

2. Exchange Rate Stability:

• Exchange rate stability was the traditional objective of monetary authority.
• This was the main objective under Gold Standard among different countries.
• When there was disequilibrium in the balance of payments of the country, it was automatically corrected by movements.

3. Price Stability:

• Economists like Crustave Cassel and Keynes suggested price stabilization as a main objective of monetary policy.
• Price stability is considered the most genuine, objective of monetary policy.
• Stable prices repose public confidence,
• It promotes business activity and ensures equitable distribution of income and wealth.

4. Full Employment:

• During world depression, the problem of unemployment had increased rapidly.
• It was regarded as socially dangerous, economically wasteful and morally deplorable.
• Thus, full employment was considered as the main goal of monetary policy.

5. Economic Growth:

• Economic growth is the process whereby the real per capita income of a country increases over a long period of time.
• It implies an increase in the total physical or real output, production of goods for the satisfaction of human wants.
• Monetary policy should promote sustained and continuous economic growth by maintaining equilibrium between the total demand for money and total production capacity and further creating favourable conditions for saving and investment.

6. Equilibrium in the Balance of Payments:
Equilibrium in the balance of payments is another objective of monetary policy which emerged significant in the post war years.

Question 44 (a).
What do you mean by balance of payments?
Answer:
Balance of Payments (BOP):
1. BoP is a systematic record of a country’s economic and financial transactions with the rest of the world over a period of time.

2. When a payment is received from a foreign country, it is a credit transaction while a payment to a foreign country is a debit transaction.

3. The principal items shown on the credit side are exports of goods and services, transfer receipts in the form of gift etc., from foreigners, borrowing from abroad, foreign direct investment and official sale of reserve assets including gold to foreign countries and international agencies.

4. The principal items on the debit side include imports of goods and services, transfer payments to foreigners, lending to foreign countries, investments by residents in foreign countries and official purchase of reserve assets or gold from foreign countries and international agencies.

[OR]

(b) Explain the relationship between Foreign Direct Investment and economic development.
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Trade:

1. FDI is an important factor in global economy.
2. Foreign trade and FDI are closely related. In developing countries like India
3. FDI in the natural resource sector, including plantations, increases trade volume.
4. Foreign production by FDI is useful to substitute foreign trade. .
5. FDI is also influenced by the income generated from the trade and regional integration schemes.
6. FDI is helpful to accelerate the economic growth by facilitating essential imports needed for carrying out development programmes like capital goods, technical know-how, raw materials and other inputs and even scarce consumer goods.
7. FDI may be required to fill the trade gap.
8. FDI is encouraged by the factors such as foreign exchange shortage, desire to create employment and acceleration of the pace of economic development.
9. Many developing countries strongly prefer foreign investment to imports.
10. However, the real impact of FDI on different sections of an economy.

Question 45 (a).
Describe the Types of Terms of Trades.
Answer:
Types of Terms of Trade:
The different concepts of terms of trade were classified by Gerald M.Meier into the following three categories:
Terms of Trade related to the Ratio of Exchange between Commodities:

1. Net Barter Terms of Trade:
This type was developed by Taussig in 1927. The ratio between the prices of exports and of imports is called the “net barter terms of trade’. It is named by Viner as the ‘commodity terms of trade’.
It is expressed as:
T_n = (P_x / P_m) × 100
Where,
T_n = Net Barter Terms of Trade
P_x = Index number of export prices
P_m = Index number of import prices
This is used to measure the gain from international trade. If ‘T_n’ is greater than 100, then it is a favourable terms of trade which will mean that for a rupee of export, more of imports can be received by a country.

2. Gross Barter Terms of Trade:
This was developed by Taussig in 1927 as an improvement over the net terms of trade. It is an index of relationship between total physical quantity of imports and the total physical quantity of exports.
T_g = (Q_m / Q_x) × 100
Where,
Q_m = Index of import quantities
Q_x = Index of export quantities
If for a given quantity of export, more quantity of import can be consumed by a country, then one can say that terms of trade are favourable.

3. Income Terms of Trade:
The income terms of trade was given by G.S.Dorrance in 1948. It is the index of the value of exports divided by the price index for imports multiplied by quantity index of experts. In other words, it is the net barter terms of trade of a country multiplied by its exports- volume index.
T_y = (P_x / P_m ) Q_x
Where,
P_x = Price index of exports
P_m = Price index of imports
Q_x = Quantity index of exports

[OR]

(b) Write a note on ‘BRICS’.
Answer:
BRICS:

1. BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
2. Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met annually at formal summits.
3. South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS summit in July 2018.
4. The agenda for BRICS summit 2018 includes Inclusive growth, Trade issues, Global governance, Shared Prosperity, International peace and security.
5. It’s headquarters is at Shanghai, China.
6. The New Development Bank (NDB) formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank was established by BRICS States.
7. The first BRICS summit was held at Moscow and South Africa hosted the Tenth Conference at Johanesberg in July 2018.
8. India had an opportunity of hosting fourth and Eighth summits in 2009 and 2016 respectively.
9. The BRICS countries make up 21 percent of global GDP. They have increased their share of global GDP threefold in the past 15 years.
10. The BRICS are home to 43 percent of the world’s population.
11. The BRICS countries have combined foreign reserves of an estimated $4.4 trillion

Question 46 (a).
Bringout the objectives of SAARC.
Answer:
Objectives of SAARC:
According to Article I of the Charter of the SAARC, the objectives of the Association are as follows:

1. To promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and improve their quality of life;
2. To accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region;
3. To promote and strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia;
4. To contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another’s problems;
5. To promote active collaboration and mutual assistance in the economic, social, cultural, technical and scientific fields;
6. To strengthen co-operation with other developing countries;
7. To strengthen cooperation among themselves in international forums on matters of common interest;
8. To cooperate with international and regional organisations with similar aims and purposes.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of federal finance.
Answer:
Principles of Federal Finance:
In the case of federal system of finance, the following main principles must be applied:

1. Principle of Independence.
2. Principle of Equity.
3. Principle of Uniformity.
4. Principle of Adequacy.
5. Principle of Fiscal Access.
6. Principle of Integration and coordination.
7. Principle of Efficiency.
8. Principle of Administrative Economy.
9. Principle of Accountability.

1. Principle of Independence:

• Under the system of federal finance, a Government should be autonomous and free about the internal financial matters concerned.
• It means each Government should have separate sources of revenue, authority to levy taxes, to borrow money and to meet the expenditure.
• The Government should normally enjoy autonomy in fiscal matters.

2. Principle of Equity:
From the point of view of equity, the resources should be distributed among the different states so that each state receives a fair share of revenue.

3. Principle of Uniformity:
In a federal system, each state should contribute equal tax payments for federal finance.

4. Principle of Adequacy of Resources:

• The principle of adequacy means that the resources of each Government i.e. Central and State should be adequate to carry out its functions effectively.
• Here adequacy must be decided with reference to both current as well as future needs.
• Besides, the resources should be elastic in order to meet the growing needs and unforeseen expenditure like war, floods etc.

5. Principle of Fiscal Access:

• In a federal system, there should be possibility for the Central and State Governments to develop new source of revenue within their prescribed fields to meet the growing financial needs.
• In nutshell, the resources should grow with the increase in the responsibilities of the Government.

6. Principle of Integration and coordination:

• The financial system as a whole should be well integrated.
• There should be perfect coordination among different layers of the financial system of the country.
• Then only the federal system will survive.
• This should be done in such a way to promote the overall economic development of the country.

7. Principle of Efficiency:

• The financial system should be well organized and efficiently administered.
• Double taxation should be avoided.

8. Principle of Administrative Economy:

• Economy is the important criterion of any federal financial system.
• That is, the cost of collection should be at the minimum level and the major portion of revenue should be made available for the other expenditure outlays of the Governments.

9. Principle of Accountability:
Each Government should be accountable to its own legislature for its financial decisions i.e. the Central to the Parliament and the State to the Assembly.

Question 47 (a).
What are the similarities of Public and Private Finance?
Answer:
(i) Rationality:

• Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality.
• Maximization of welfare and least cost factor combination underlie both.

(ii) Limit to borrowing:

• Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing.
• The Government also cannot live beyond its means.
• There is a limit to deficit financing by the state also.

(iii) Resource utilisation:

• Both the private and public sectors have limited resources at their disposal.
• So both attempt to make optimum use of resources.

(iv) Administration:

• The effectiveness of measures of the Government as well as private depends on the administrative machinery.
• If the administrative machinery is inefficient and corrupt it will result in wastages and losses.

[OR]

(b) What are the functions of NITI Aayog?
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:

1. Cooperative and Competitive Federalism: To enable the States to have active participation in the formulation of national policy.
2. Shared National Agenda: To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of States.
3. Decentralized Planning: To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model.
4. Vision and Scenario Planning: To design medium and long-term strategic frameworks towards India’s future.
5. Network of Expertise: To mainstream external ideas and expertise into government policies and programmes through a collective participation.
6. Harmonization: To facilitate harmonization of actions across different layers of government, especially when involving cross-cutting and overlapping issues across multiple sectors; through communication, coordination, collaboration and convergence amongst all the stakeholders.
7. Conflict Resolution: To provide platform for mutual consensus to inter-sectoral, inter¬departmental, inter-state as well as centre-state issues for all speedy execution of the government programmes.
8. Coordinating Interface with the World: It will act nodal point to harness global expertise and resources coming from International organizations for India’s developmental process.
9. Internal Consultancy: It provides internal consultancy to Central and State governments on policy and programmes.
10. Capacity Building: It enables to provide capacity building and technology up-gradation across government, benchmarking with latest global trends and providing managerial and technical know-how.
11. Monitoring and Evaluation: It will monitor the implementation of policies and progammes and evaluate the impacts.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The branches of the subject Economics is………….
(a) Wealth and welfare
(b) production and consumption
(c) Demand and supply
(d) micro and macro
Answer:
(d) micro and macro

Question 2.
………. is another name for economics.
(a) Political economy
(b) Socialist economy
(c) Capitalist economy
(d) Planned economy
Answer:
(a) Political economy

Question 3.
Income method is measured by summing up of all forms of…………
(a) Revenue
(b) Taxes
(c) expenditure
(d) Income
Answer:
(d) Income

Question 4.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2+

Question 5.
According to classical theory, rate of interest is a reward for………..
(a) Investment
(b) Demand
(c) Capital
(d) Saving
Answer:
(d) Saving

Question 6.
Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Say’s law of Market – Classical theory of Employment
(b) Adam Smith – Wealth of nations
(c) Keynes – The General theory of Employment, Interest and Money
(d) A.C. Pigou – French Economist
Answer:
(d) A.C. Pigou – French Economist

Question 7.
When investment is assumed autonomous the slope of the AD schedule is determined by the…………
(a) marginal propensity to invest
(b) disposable income .
(c) marginal propensity to consume
(d) average propensity to consume
Answer:
(c) marginal propensity to consume

Question 8.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) J.M. Clark – Ceteris Paribus
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption
(c) R.F. Khan – Accelerator model
(d) Duesenberry – Laissez-faire
Answer:
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption

Question 9.
The basic distinction between M₁ and M₂ is with regard to…………..
(a) post office deposits
(b) time deposits of banks
(c) saving deposits of banks
(d) currency
Answer:
(b) time deposits of banks

Question 10.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Question 11.
Repo Rate meAnswer:…………
(a) Rate at which the Commercial Banks are willing to lend to RBI
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks
(c) Exchange rate of the foreign bank
(d) Growth rate of the economy
Answer:
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks.

Question 12.
Lowering the Bank rate off sets……….. tendencies.
(a) Deflationary
(b) Inflationary
(c) Stagflationary
(d) Hyper inflationary
Answer:
(a) Deflationary

Question 13.
Which of the following is a modem theory of international trade?
(a) absolute cost
(b) comparative cost
(c) Factor endowment theory
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Factor endowment theory

Question 14.
The headquarters of ASEAN is ……………..
(a) Jaharta
(b) New Delhi
(c) Colombo
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(a) Jaharta

Question 15.
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Objectives of IMF – To promote textiles
(b) Functions of IMF – Exchange stability
(c) Facilities offered by IMF – Basic Debit Facility
(d) Achievements of IMF – Country discipline and co-operation
Answer:
(b) Functions of IMF – Exchange stability

Question 16.
………. refers to Government spending incurred by central, state, local government of a country.
(a) Public Finance
(b) Public Expenditure
(c) Public Revenue
(d) Social Welfare
Answer:
(b) Public Expenditure

Question 17.
Which of the following is the anticipated effect of Global wanning?
(a) Rising sea levels
(b) Changing precipitation
(c) Expansion of deserts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Rising sea levels

Question 18.
………… the state is all powerful in preparation and implementation of the plan.
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Planning by direction
(c) Indicative planning
(d) Imperative planning
Answer:
(d) Imperative planning

Question 19.
State whether the statements are true or false.
(i) Economic development was redefined in terms of reduction of poverty, inequality and unemployment with in the context of a growing economy.
(ii) New welfare oriented approach is “Redistribution with growth”.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (0 is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 20.
Assertion (A): Ronald Fisher introduced the concept of Standard Deviation.
Reason (R): Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Mixed Economy (or) Mixedism.
Answer:
In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.

In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government. India, England, France and Brazil are the examples of mixed economy.

Question 22.
Explain briefly NNP at factor cost.
Answer:
Net National Product refers to the value of the net output of the economy during the year. NNP is obtained by deducting the value of depreciation, or replacement allowance of the capital assets from the GNP. It is expressed as,
NNP = GNP – depreciation allowance.

Question 23.
Write the types of unemployment.
Answer:
Types of unemployment:

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Seasonal Unemployment
3. Frictional Unemployment
4. Educated Unemployment
5. Technical Unemployment
6. Structural Unemployment
7. Disguised Unemployment

Question 24.
Define marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
Answer:
Marginal Propensity to Consume:
The marginal propensity to consume may be defined as the ratio of the change in the consumption to the change in income. Algebraically it may be expressed as under:
MPC = \(\frac{ΔC}{ΔY}\)
Where, ΔC = Change in Consumption; ΔY = Change in Income
MPC is positive but less than unity, 0 < \(\frac{ΔC}{ΔY}\) < 1

Question 25.
What is gold standard?
Answer:
Gold Standard is a system in which the value of the monetary unit or the standard currency is directly linked with gold. The monetary unit is defined in terms of a certain weight of gold. The purchasing power of a unit of money is maintained equal to the value of a fixed weight of gold.

Question 26.
Define international trade.
Answer:
International Trade refers to the trade or exchange of goods and services between two or more countries. In other words, it is a trade among different countries or trade across political boundaries. It is also called as ‘external trade’ or ‘foreign trade’ or ‘inter-regional trade’.

Question 27.
Write the ‘ASEAN’ member of countries.
Answer:
ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by the five original member countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.

Question 28.
What is public revenue?
Answer:
Public Revenue: Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation, rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.

Question 29.
Define Global warming.
Answer:
Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperatures around the world have risen by 0.75°C (1.4°F) over the last 100 years. About two thirds of this increase has occurred since 1975. Carbon dioxide, methane, Chlorofluoro Carbon, nitrous oxides are the green house gases warming the earth’s surface. So it is also called green house effect. The CO₂ is the most important of the green house gases contributing to 50% of global warming. Global warming adversely affects agriculture, horticulture and eco system.

Question 30.
Define economic development.
Answer:
Economic development refers to the problems of underdeveloped countries and economic growth to those of developed countries. Economic development deals with the problems of UDCs. Change is discontinuous and spontaneous.

Economic development is not determined by any single factor. Economic development depends on Economic, Social, Political and Religious factors.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Indicates the Merits of Socialism.
Answer:

1. Reduction in Inequalities: No one is allowed to own and use private property to exploit others.
2. Rational Allocation of Resources: The central planning authority allocates the resources in a planned manner. Wastages are minimised and investments are made in a pre planned manner.
3. Absence of Class Conflicts: As inequalities are minimum, there is no conflict between rich and poor class. Society functions in a harmonious manner.
4. End of Trade Cycles: Planning authority takes control over production and distribution of goods and services. Therefore, economic fluctuations can be avoided.
5. Promotes Social Welfare: Absence of exploitation, reduction in economic inequalities, avoidance of trade cycles and increase in productive efficiency help to promote social welfare.

Question 32.
Write the statistical problems.
Answer:
The following are the some of the statistical problems:

1. Accurate and reliable data are not adequate, as farm output in the subsistence sector is not completely
2. informed. In animal husbandry, there are no authentic production data available.
3. Different languages, customs, etc., also create problems in computing estimates.
4. People in India are indifferent to the official inquiries. They are in most cases non-cooperative also.
5. Most of the statistical staff are untrained and inefficient.

Question 33.
What do you mean by propensity to consume?
Answer:
The consumption function or propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is a “functional relationship between two aggregates viz., total consumption and gross national income.”
Symbolically, the relationship is represented as C = f (Y)
Where, C = Consumption; Y Income; f = Function

Thus the consumption function indicates a functional relationship between C and Y, where C is the dependent variable and Y is the independent variable, i.e., C is determined by Y. This relationship is based on the ceteris paribus (other things being same) assumption, as only income consumption relationship is considered and all possible influences on consumption are held constant.

Question 34.
Explain Demand-pull and Cost push inflation.
Answer:
Demand-Pull Vs Cost-Push inflation:
(i) Demand-Pull Inflation: Demand and supply play a crucial role in deciding the inflation levels in the society at all points of time. For instance, if the demand is high for a product and supply is low, the price of the products increases.

(ii) Cost-Push Inflation: When the cost of raw materials and other inputsrises inflation results. Increase in wages paid to labour also leads to inflation.

Question 35.
Give a brief note on NBFI.
Answer:
Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI):

A non-banking financial institution (NBFI) or non-bank financial company (NBFC) is a financial institution that does not have a full banking license or is not supervised by the central bank.

The NBFIs do not carry on pure banking business, but they will carry on other financial transactions. They receive deposits and give loans: They mobilize people’s savings and use the funds to finance expenditure on investment activities. In short, they are institutions which undertake borrowing and lending. They operate in both the money and the capital markets.

NBFIs can be broadly classified into two categories. Viz.., (1) Stock Exchange; and (2) Other Financial institutions. Under the latter category comes Finance Companies, Finance Corporations, ChitFunds, Building Societies, Issue Houses, Investment Trusts and Unit Trusts and Insurance Companies.

Question 36.
What are import quotas?
Answer:
Import Control: Imports may be controlled by:

1. imposing or enhancing import duties
2. restricting imports through import quotas
3. licensing and even prohibiting altogether the import of certain non-essential items. But this would encourage smuggling.

Question 37.
Mention the objectives of ASEAN.
Answer:
Objectives of ASEAN:
The ASEAN Declaration states the aims and purposes of the Association as:

1. To accelerate the economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region;
2. To promote regional peace and stability and adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter;
3. To promote cooperation among the members of ASEAN through the exchange of knowledge and experience in the field of public sector auditing.
4. To provide a conducive environment and facilities for research, training, and education among the members
5. To serve as a centre of information and as an ASEAN link with other international organizations.

Question 38.
Mention any three methods of redemption of public debt.
Answer:
Methods of Redemption of Public Debt:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.

(i) Sinking Fund:

1. Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
2. The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
3. By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
4. This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(ii) Conversion:

1. Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.
2. It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
3. Under this system a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
4. Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(iii) Budgetary Surplus:

1. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
2. Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
3. However, this method is rarely possible.

Question 39.
State the meaning of e-waste.
Answer:

1. Electronic waste which is commonly referred as “e-waste” is the new byproduct of the Info Tech society.
2. It is a physical waste in the form of old discarded, end of life electronics.
3. It includes a broad and growing range of electronic devices from large household appliances such as refrigerators, air conditioners, cellular phones, computers and other electronic goods”.
4. Similarly, e-waste can be defined as the result when consumer, business and household devices are disposed or sent for re-cycling (example, television, computers, audio-equipments, VCR, DVD, telephone, Fax, Xerox machines, wireless devices, video games, other household electronic equipments).

Question 40.
How would you break the vicious circle of poverty?
Answer:
Breaking the Vicious Circle of Poverty:

1. The vicious circle of poverty is associated with low rate of saving and investment on the supply side.
2. In UDCs the rate of investment and capital formation can be stepped up without reduction in consumption. For this, the marginal rate of savings is to be greater than average rate of savings.
3. To break the vicious circle on the demand side, Nurkse suggested the strategy of balanced growth.
4. If investment is made in several industries simultaneously the workers employed in various industries will become consumers of each other’s products and will create demand for one another.
5. The balanced growth i.e. simultaneous investment in large number of industries creates mutual demand. Thus, through the strategy of balanced growth, vicious circle of poverty operating on the demand side of capital formation can be broken.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Explain the Importance of Factor Cost.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Critically explain Say’s law of market.
Answer:
Criticisms of Say’s Law:
The following are the criticisms against Say’s law:

1. According to Keynes, supply does not create its demand. It is not applicable where demand does not increase as much as production increases.
2. Automatic adjustment process will not remove unemployment. Unemployment can be removed by increase in the rate of investment.
3. Money is not neutral. Individuals hold money for unforeseen contingencies while businessmen keep cash reserve for future activities.
4. Say’s law is based on the proposition that supply creates its own demand and there is no over production. Keynes said that over production is possible.
5. Keynes regards full employment as a special case because there is under – employment in capitalist economies.
6. The need for state intervention arises in the case of general over production and mass unemployment.

Question 42 (a).
What is consumption function?
Answer:
Meaning of Consumption Function:
The consumption function or propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is a “functional relationship between two aggregates viz., total consumption and gross national income.”

Symbolically, the relationship is represented as
C = f(Y)
Where,
C = Consumption; Y = Income;/= Function
Thus the consumption function indicates a functional relationship between C and Y, where C is the dependent variable and Y is the independent variable, i.e., C is determined by Y. This relationship is based on the ceteris paribus (other things being same) assumption, as only income consumption relationship is considered and all possible influences on consumption are held constant.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Inflation Effects of production.
Answer:
Effects on Production: When the inflation is very moderate, it acts as an incentive to traders and producers. This is particularly prior to full employment when resources are not fully utilized. The profit due to rising prices encourages and induces business class to increase their investments in production, leading to generation of employment and income.

1. However, hyper-inflation results in a serious depreciation of the value of money and it discourages savings on the part of the public.
2. When the value of money undergoes considerable depreciation, this may even drain out the foreign capital already invested in the country.
3. With reduced capital accumulation, the investment will suffer a serious set-back which may have an adverse effect on the volume of production in the country. This may discourage entrepreneurs and business men from taking business risk.
4. Inflation also leads to hoarding of essential goods both by the traders as well as the consumers and thus leading to still higher inflation rate.
5. Inflation encourages investment in speculative activities rather than productive purposes.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the functions of Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
Functions of Central Bank (Reserve Bank of India):
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.
1. Monetary Authority: It controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rate, maintain healthy balance of payment, attain financial stability, control inflation, strengthen banking system.

2. The issuer of currency: The objective is to maintain the currency and credit system of the country. It is the sole authority to issue currency. It also takes action to control the circulation of fake currency.

3. The issuer of Banking License: As per Sec 22 of Banking Regulation Act, every bank has to obtain a banking license from RBI to conduct banking business in India.

4. Banker to the Government: It acts as banker both to the central and the state governments. It provides short-term credit. It manages all new issues of government loans, servicing the government debt outstanding and nurturing the market for government securities. It advises the government on banking and financial subjects.

5. Banker’s Bank: RBI is the bank of all banks in India as it provides loan to banks, accept the deposit of banks, and rediscount the bills of banks.

6. Lender of last resort: The banks can borrow from the RBI by keeping eligible securities as collateral at the time of need or crisis, when there is no other source.

7. Act as clearing house: For settlement of banking transactions, RBI manages 14 clearing houses. It facilitates the exchange of instruments and processing of payment instructions.

8. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves: It acts as a custodian of FOREX. It administers and enforces the provision of Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. RBI buys and sells foreign currency to maintain the exchange rate of Indian rupee v/s foreign currencies.

9. Regulator of Economy: It controls the money supply in the system, monitors different key indicators like GDP, Inflation, etc.

10. Managing Government securities: RBI administers investments in institutions when they invest specified minimum proportions of their total assets/liabilities in government securities.

11. Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: The Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 (PSS Act) gives RBI oversight authority for the payment and settlement systems in the country. RBI focuses on the development and functioning of safe, secure and efficient payment and settlement mechanisms.

12. Developmental Role: This role includes the development of the quality banking system in India and ensuring that credit is available to the productive sectors of the economy. It provides a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives. It also includes establishing institutions designed to build the country’s financial infrastructure. It also helps in expanding access to affordable financial services and promoting financial education and literacy.

13. Publisher of monetary data and other data: RBI maintains and provides all essential banking and other economic data, formulating and critically evaluating the economic policies in India. RBI collects, collates and publishes data regularly.

14. Exchange manager and controller: RBI represents India as a member of the International Monetary Fund [IMF], Most of the commercial banks are authorized dealers of RBI.

15. Banking Ombudsman Scheme: RBI introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in 1995. Under this scheme, the complainants can file their complaints in any form, including online and can also appeal to the Ombudsman against the awards and the other decisions of the Banks.

16. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India: To measure the performance of banks against Codes and standards based on established global practices, the RBI has set up the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI).

[OR]

(b) Explain the State Industrial Development Corporations.
Answer:
State Industrial Development Corporations (SIDCOs):

1. The Industrial Development Corporations have been set up by the state governments and they are wholly owned by them.
2. These institutions are not merely financing agencies; they are entrusted with the responsibility of accelerating the industrialization of their states.

SIDCO (Small Industrial Development Corporation):

1. SIDCOs provide financial assistance to industrial concerns by way of loans guarantees and underwriting of or direct subscriptions to shares and debentures.
2. In addition to these, they undertake various promotional activities, such as conducting techno-economic surveys, project identification, preparation of feasibility studies and selection and training of entrepreneurs.
3. They also promote joint sector projects in association with private promoter in such type of projects.
4. SIDCOs take 26 percent, private co-promoter takes 25 percent of the equity, and the rest is offered to the investing public.
5. SIDCOs undertake the development of industrial areas by providing all infrastructural facilities and initiation of new growth centers.
6. They also administer various State government incentive schemes.
7. SIDCOs get refinance facilities form IDBI.
8. They also borrow through bonds and accept deposits.

Question 44 (a).
Explain briefly the Comparative Cost Theory.
Answer:
Ricardo’s Theory of Comparative Cost Advantage:

1. David Ricardo, the British economist in his ‘Principles of Political Economy and Taxation’ published in 1817, formulated a systematic theory called ‘Comparative Cost Theory’.
2. Ricardo demonstrates that the basis of trade is the comparative cost difference. In other words, trade can take place even if the absolute cost difference is absent but there is comparative cost difference.
3. According to Ricardo, a country can gain from trade when it produces at relatively lower costs. Even when a country enjoys absolute advantage in both goods, the country would specialize in the production and export of those goods which are relatively more advantageous.

Assumptions:

1. There are only two nations and two commodities (2×2 model)
2. Labour is the only element of cost of production.
3. All labourers are of equal efficiency.
4. Labour is perfectly mobile within the country but perfectly immobile between countries.
5. Production is subject to the law of constant returns.
6. Foreign trade is free from all barriers.
7. No change in technology.
8. No transport cost.
9. Perfect competition.
10. Full employment.
11. No government intervention.

Illustration:
Ricardo’s theory of comparative cost can be explained with a hypothetical example of production costs of cloth and wheat in America and India.

Comparative Cost Advantage
(Units of labour required to produce one unit)

It is evident from the example that India has an absolute advantage in production of both cloth and wheat.

However, India should concentrate on the production of wheat in which she enjoys a comparative cost advantage. (80/120 < 90/100). For America the comparative cost disadvantage is lesser in cloth production. Hence America will specialize in the production of cloth and export it to India in exchange for wheat. (Any exchange ratio between 0.88 units and 1.2 units of cloth against one unit of wheat represents gain for both the nations). With trade, India can get 1 unit of cloth and 1 unit of wheat by using its 160 labour units. In the absence of trade, for getting this benefit, India will have to use 170 units of labour. America also gains from this trade. With trade, America can get 1 unit of cloth and one unit of wheat by using its 200 units of labour. Otherwise, America will have to use 220 units of labour for getting 1 unit of cloth and 1 unit of wheat.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain causes for Balance of payments disequillibrium.
Answer:
Causes for BoP Disequilibrium:
The following are the major causes producing disequilibrium in the balance of payments of a country.
(i) Cyclical Fluctuation:

1. .Cyclical disequilibrium in different countries is caused by their cyclical fluctuations, their phases and magnitude.
2. World trade shrinks during depression while trade flourishes during prosperity.

(ii) Structural Changes:

1. Structural disequilibrium is caused by the structural changes brought by huge development and investment programmes in the developing economies.
2. Such economies may have high propensity to import for want of capital for rapid industrialization, while export may not be boosted up to that extent.

(iii) Development Expenditure:

1. Development disequilibrium is caused by rapid economic development which results in income and price effects.
2. The less developed countries in the early stage of development are not self sufficient.
3. Income, savings and investment are abysmally low.
4. They depend upon developed countries for import of commodities, capital and technology.
5. Export potential is low and import intensity is high.
6. So the LDCs suffer from adverse BoP.

(iv) Consumerism:

1. Balance of payments position of a country is adversely affected by a huge increase in consumption.
2. This increases the need for imports and decreases the capacity to export.

(v) Demonstration Effect:

1. Deficit in the balance of payments of developing countries is also caused by demonstration effect which influences the people in UDCs to imitate western styled goods.
2. This will raise the propensity to import causing adverse balance of payments.
3. This is good for the developed countries.

(vi) Borrowing:

1. International borrowing and investment may cause a deficit in the balance of payments.
2. When the international borrowing is heavy, a country’s balance of payments will be adverse since it repays loans with interest.
3. Servicing of debt is a huge burden. That is why the IJDCs are forced to borrow more.

(vii) Technological Backwardness:

1. Due to technological backwardness, the people (Indians) are unable to use the energy (Solar) available with them.
2. As a result they import huge petroleum products from foreign countries, increasing the trade deficit.

(viii) Global Politics:

1. The rich countries (e.g. USA) need to sell their weapons to promote their economy and generate employment.
2. Hence, wars between countries (for example Iran and Irag, Pakistan and India) are stimulated In order to win the wars, the poor countries are forced to buy the weapons from weapon – rich countries, using their export earnings and creating trade deficit.
3. Thus UDCs are trapped forever.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the achievements of World Bank.
Answer:
Achievements of World Bank:
The World Bank is said to be successful in achieving its primary objective of reconstruction and-development of war ravaged nations. It helped greatly in the reconstruction of Europe after the World War II. It has been providing the developed and developing countries the same treatment in the process of growth.

1. It is noted that the Bank’s membership has increased from the initial number of 30 countries to 68 countries in 1960 and to 151 countries in 1988. The IBRD has 189 member countries.
2. The Bank grants medium and long-term loans (i.e., payable over a period of 15-20 years) for reconstruction and development purposes to the member countries. The actual term of a loan depends upon the estimated useful life of the equipment or plant financed.
3. Initially the World Bank’s loans were mainly directed at the European countries for financing their programmes of reconstruction. Later it changed its development loan strategy and lays more emphasis of financing schemes for the poor masses of the developing countries.
4. The World Bank grants loans to member countries only for productive purposes particularly for agriculture, irrigation, power and transport. In other words, the Bank strengthens . infrastructure needed for further development.
5. The International Development Association (IDA), the Soft Loan Window of the Bank provides loans to UDCs at very low rate of interest. However, the economic inequality among the member-countries goes on increasing. Many African countries are yet to improve their economic status.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the merits of indirect taxes over direct taxes.
Answer:
Merits of Direct Taxes:
(i) Equity:

1. Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base.
2. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.

(ii) Certainty:

1. Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes.
2. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

(iii) Elasticity:

1. Direct taxes also satisfy the canon of elasticity.
2. Income tax is income elastic in nature. As income level increases, the tax revenue to the Government also increases automatically.

(iV) Economy:

1. The cost of collection of direct taxes is relatively low.
2. The tax payers pay the tax directly to the state.

Merits of Indirect Taxes:
(i) Wider Coverage:

1. All the consumers, whether they are rich or poor, have to pay indirect taxes.
2. For this reason, it is said that indirect taxes can cover more people than direct taxes.
3. For example, in India everybody pays indirect tax as against just 2 percent paying income tax.

(ii) Equitable:
The indirect tax satisfies the canon of equity when higher tax is imposed on luxuries used by rich people.

(iii) Economical:

1. Cost of collection is less as producers and retailers collect tax and pay to the Government.
2. The traders act as honorary tax collectors.

(iv) Checks harmful consumption:

1. The Government imposes indirect taxes on those commodities which are harmful to health e.g. tobacco, liquor etc.
2. They are known as sin taxes.

(v) Convenient:

1. Indirect taxes are levied on commodities and services.
2. Whenever consumers make purchase, they pay tax along with the price.
3. They do not feel the pinch of paying tax.

Question 46 (a).
Bring out the merits and demerits of Direct taxes.
Answer:
Merits of Direct Taxes:
(i) Equity:

1. Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base.
2. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.

(ii) Certainty:

1. Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes.
2. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax. (Hi) Elasticity:
3. Direct taxes also satisfy the canon of elasticity.
4. Income tax is income elastic in nature.
5. As income level increases, the tax revenue to the Government also increases automatically. (iv) Economy:
6. The cost of collection of direct taxes is relatively low.
7. The tax payers pay the tax directly to the state.

Demerits of Direct Taxes:
(i) Unpopular:

1. Direct taxes are generally unpopular.
2. It is inconvenient and less flexible.

(ii) Productivity affected:

1. According to many economists direct tax may adversely affect productivity.
2. Citizens are not willing to earn more income because in that case they have to pay more taxes.

(iii) Inconvenient:
The tax payers find it inconvenient to maintain accounts, submit returns and pay tax in lump sum.

(iv) Tax Evasion:

1. The burden of direct tax is so heavy that tax-payers always try to evade taxes.
2. This ultimately leads to the generation of black money, which is harmful to the economy.

[OR]

(b) Brief the linkage between economy and environment.
Answer:
Linkage between Economy and Environment:

1. Man’s life is interconnected with various other living and non-living things.
2. The life also depends on social, political, ethical, philosophical and other aspects of economic system.
3. In fact, the life of human beings is shaped by his living environment.
4. The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model”.
5. The model considers the total economic process as a physically balanced How between inputs and outputs.
6. Inputs are bestowed with physical property of energy which is received from the environment.
7. The interdependence of economics and environment.

Question 47 (a).
Describe the case for planning.
Answer:
The economic planning is justified on the following grounds.
(i) To accelerate and strengthen market mechanism: The market mechanism works imperfectly in underdeveloped countries because of the ignorance and unfamiliarity with it. A large part of the economy comprises the non-monetized sector.

(ii) To remove unemployment: Capital being scarce and labour being abundant, the problem of providing gainful employment opportunities to an ever-increasing labour force is a difficult task.

(iii) To achieve balanced development: In the absence of sufficient enterprise and initiative, the planning authority is the only institution for planning the balanced development of the economy.

• Development of Agriculture and Industrial Sectors: The need for developing the agriculture sector along with the industrial sector arises from the fact that agriculture and industry are interdependent.
• Development of Infrastructure: The agriculture and industrial sectors cannot develop in the absence of economic and social overheads. The building of canals, roads, railways, power stations, etc., is indispensable for agricultural and industrial development.
• Development of Money and Capital Markets: The expansion of the domestic and foreign trade requires’ not only the development of agricultural and industrial sectors along with social and economic overheads but also the existence of financial institutions.

(iv) To remove poverty and inequalities: Planning is the only path open to underdeveloped countries, for raising national and per capita income, reducing inequalities and poverty and increasing employment opportunities.

[OR]

(b) Central Statistical Office (CSO)
Answer:

1. The Central Statistical Office is one of the two wings of the National Statistical Organisation (NSO).
2. It is responsible for co-ordination of statistical activities in the country and for evolving and maintaining statistical standards.
3. Its activities include compilation of National Accounts; conduct of Annual Survey of Industries and Economic Censuses, compilation of Index of Industrial Production as well as Consumer Price Indices.
4. It also deals with various social statistics, training, international cooperation, Industrial Classification, etc.
5. The CSO is headed by a Director- General who is assisted by 5 Additional Director- Generals looking after the National Accounts Division, Social Statistics Division, Economic Statistics Division, Training Division and the Coordination and Publication Division.
6. CSO is located in the Sardar Patel Bhawan, Parliament Street, New Delhi. The Industrial
   Statistics Wing of CSO is located in Kolkata.
7. The Computer Centre also under the CSO is located in R K Puram, New Delhi.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The country following Capitalism is……….
(a) Russia
(b) America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Russia

Question 2.
The value of NNP at production point is called……….
(a) NNP at factor cost
(b) NNP at market cost
(c) GNP at factor cost
(d) Per capita income
Answer:
(a) NNP at factor cost

Question 3.
The basic concept used in Keynes Theory of Employment and Income is……….
(a) Aggregate demand
(b) Aggregate supply
(c) Effective demand
(d) Marginal Propensity Consume
Answer:
(c) Effective demand

Question 4.
The aggregate effective demand would increase the level of……….
(a) unemployment
(b) employment
(c) cyclical unemployment
(d) open unemployment
Answer:
(b) employment

Question 5.
The term super multiplier was first used by……….
(a) J.R.Hicks
(b) R.G.D. Allen
(c) Kahn
(d) Keynes
Answer:
(a) J.R.Hicks

Question 6.
Paper currency system is managed by the………..
(a) Central Monetary authority
(b) State Government
(c) Central Government
(d) Banks
Answer:
(a) Central Monetary authority

Question 7.
What is the name of inflation without a rise in price level?
(a) Repressed Inflation
(b) Hyper Inflation
(c) Galloping Inflation
(d) Cost-Push Inflation
Answer:
(a) Repressed Inflation

Question 8.
Moral suasion refers…………
(a) Optimization
(b) Maximization
(c) Persuasion
(d) Minimization
Answer:
(c) Persuasion

Question 9.
Current account deposits are operated by……….
(a) agriculturists
(b) business men
(c) government servants
(d) labourers
Answer:
(b) business men

Question 10.
Terms of Trade of a country show………..
(a) Ratio of goods exported and imported
(b) Ratio of import duties
(c) Ratio of prices of exports and imports
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Ratio of prices of exports and imports

Question 11.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes

Answer:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Question 12.
International Development Association is an affiliate of…………
(a) IMF
(b) World Bank
(c) SAARC
(d) ASEAN
Answer:
(b) World Bank

Question 13.
International Monetary Fund headquarters are present in……….
(a) Geneva
(b) Washington DC
(c) England
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Washington DC

Question 14.
The difference between total expenditure and total receipts including loans and other liabilities is called……….
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Primary deficit
(d) Revenue deficit
Answer:
(a) Fiscal deficit

Question 15.
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of Production Functions, Commercial Functions and……….. Functions.
(a)’ Defence
(b) Growth
(c) Development
(d) Government
Answer:
(c) Development

Question 16.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Question 17.
The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Limiting nutrients
(c) Enrichment
(d) Schistosomiasis
Answer:
(b) Limiting nutrients

Question 18.
Types of Noise pollution. (Pick the odd one out.)
(a) Atmospheric noise pollution
(b) Industrial noise pollution
(c) Man made noise pollution
(d) Acid rain pollution
Answer:
(d) Acid rain pollution

Question 19.
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent variables is called………….
(a) Correlation
(b) Regression
(c) Residual
(d) Slope
Answer:
(b) Regression

Question 20.
CSO Director Generals are (Pick the odd one out.)
(a) National Accounts Division [NAD]
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]
(c) Economic Statistics Division [ES]
(d) Co-ordination and Publication Division [CPD]
Answer:
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Mixed Economy (or) Mixedism.
Answer:
In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government. India, England, France and Brazil are the examples of mixed economy.

Question 22.
Write the Factor Incomes group.
Answer:
Factor incomes are grouped under labour income, capital income and mixed income.

1. Labour income – Wages and salaries, fringe benefits, employer’s contribution to social security.
2. Capital income – Profit, interest, dividend and royalty
3. Mixed income – Farming, sole proprietorship and other professions.

Question 23.
Give reasons for labour retrenchment at present situation.
Answer:

1. Modem technology being capital intensive requires less labourers and contributes to technological unemployment.
2. Now a days, invention and innovations lead to the adoption of new techniques there by the existing workers are retrenched.
3. Labour saving devices are responsible for technological unemployment.

Question 24.
Write two approaches of the equilibrium level of Income in Keynesian theory?
Answer:
There are two approaches to determination of the equilibrium level of income in Keynesian theory. These are:

1. Aggregate demand – Aggregate supply approach
2. Saving – Investment approach

Question 25.
Define average propensity to consume (APC).
Answer:
Average Propensity to Consume:
The average propensity to consume is the ratio of consumption expenditure to any particular level of income.” Algebraically it may be expressed as under:
APC = \(\frac{C}{Y}\)
Where, C = Consumption; Y = Income

Question 26.
Define inflation.
Answer:

1. Inflation is a consistent and appreciable rise in the general price level.
2. In other words, inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising and consequently the purchasing power of currency is falling.
3. “Too much of Money chasing too few goods” – Coulbourn
4. “A state of abnormal increase in the quantity of purchasing power” – Gregorye

Question 27.
Write the meaning of Open market operations.
Answer:

1. In narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in the money market.
2. In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.
3. When the banks and the private individuals purchase these securities they have to make payments for these securities to the Central Bank.

Question 28.
What do you mean by public debt?
Answer:
The state has to supplement the traditional revenue sources with borrowing from individuals, and institutions within and outside the country. The amount of borrowing is huge in the under developed countries to finance development activities. The debt burden is a big problem and most of the countries are in debt trap.

Question 29.
What do you mean by ecosystem?
Answer:
An ecosystem includes all living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their non-living environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere). Ecosystems are the foundations of the Biosphere and they determine the health of the entire earth system.

Question 30.
What are the social indicators of economic development?
Answer:
Social Indicators:
Social indicators are normally referred to as basic and collective needs of the people. The direct provision of basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation and housing facilities check social backwardness.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Outline the major merits of capitalism.
Answer:
Merits of Capitalism

1. Automatic Working: Without any government intervention, the economy works automatically.
2. Efficient Use of Resources: All resources are put into optimum use.
3. Incentives for Hard work: Hard work is encouraged and entrepreneurs get more profit for more efficiency.
4. Economic Progress: Production and productivity levels are very high in capitalistic economies.
5. Consumers Sovereignty: All production activities are aimed at satisfying the consumers.
6. Higher Rates of Capital Formation: Increase in saving and investment leads to higher rates of capital formation.
7. Development of New Technology: As profit is aimed at, producers invest on new technology and produce quality goods.

Question 32.
Write briefly about national income and welfare.
Answer:
National Income is considered as an indicator of the economic wellbeing of a country.
The per capita income as an index of economic welfare suffers from limitations which are stated below:

1. The economic welfare depends upon the composition of goods and services provided. The greater the proportion of capital goods over consumer goods, the improvement in economic welfare will be lesser.
2. Higher GDP with greater environmental hazards such as air, water and soil pollution will be little economic welfare.
3. The production of war goods will show the increase in national output but not welfare.
4. An increase in per capita income may be due to employment of women and children or forcing workers to work for long hours. But it will not promote economic welfare.

Question 33.
Give short note on Expenditure method.
Answer:
List out the assumptions of Say’s law.
The Say’s Law of market is based on the following assumptions:

1. No single buyer or seller of commodity or an input can affect price.
2. Full employment.
3. People are motivated by self interest and self – interest determines economic decisions.
4. The laissez faire policy is essential for an automatic and self adjusting process of full employment equilibrium. Market forces determine everything right.
5. There will be a perfect competition in labour and product market.
6. There is wage-price flexibility.
7. Money acts only as a medium of exchange.
8. Long – run analysis.
9. There is no possibility for over production or unemployment.

Question 34.
Explain any three subjective and objective factors influencing the consumption function.
Answer:
Subjective Factors:

1. The motive of precaution: To build up a reserve against unforeseen contingencies. e.g. Accidents, sickness.
2. The motive of foresight: The desire to provide for anticipated future needs. e.g. Old age.
3. The motive of calculation: The desire to enjoy interest and appreciation.

Objective Factors:

1. Income Distribution: If there is large disparity between rich and poor, the consumption is low because the rich people have low propensity to consume and high propensity to save.
2. Price level: Price level plays an important role in determining the consumption function. When the price falls, real income goes up; people will consume more and propensity to save of the society increases.
3. Wage level: Wage level plays an important role in determining the consumption function and there is positive relationship between wage and consumption. Consumption expenditure increases with the rise in wages. Similar is the effect with regard to windfall gains.

Question 35.
Explain the Evolution Of money.
Answer:

1. The introduction of money as a medium of exchange was one of the greatest inventions of mankind.
2. Before money was invented, exchange took place by Barter, that is, commodities and services were directly exchanged for other commodities and services.
3. Under the barter system, buyers and sellers of commodities had to face a number of difficulties.
4. Surplus goods were exchanged for money which in turn was exchanged for other needed goods.
5. Goods like furs, skins, salt, rice, wheat, utensils, weapons, etc. were commonly used as money.
6. Such exchange of goods for goods was known as “Barter Exchange” or “Barter System”.

Question 36.
What is E-Banking?
Answer:
Online banking, also known as internet banking, is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.

The online banking system typically connects to or be part of the core banking system operated by a bank and is in contrast to branch banking which was the traditional way customers accessed banking services.

Question 37.
Explain the objectives of WTO.
Answer:

1. To ensure reduction of tariff and other barriers.
2. To eliminate discrimination in trade.
3. To facilitate higher standard of living.
4. To facilitate optimal use of world’s resources.
5. To enable the LDCs to secure fair share in the growth of international trade.
6. To ensure linkages between trade policies, environmental policies and sustainable development.

Question 38.
What are the functions of finance commission of India.
Answer:

1. The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes, which may be divided between them and the allocation among the states of the respective shares of such proceeds;
2. To determine the quantum of grantsin- aid to be given by the Centre to states [Article 275 (1)] and to volve the principles governing the eligibility of the state for such grant-in-aid;
3. Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President of India in the interest of sound finance. Several issues like debt relief, financing of calamity relief of states, additional excise duties, etc. have been referred to the Commission invoking this clause.

Question 39.
Explain the limitations of statistics.
Answer:
1. Statistics is not suitable to the study of qualitative phenomenon: Since statistics is basically a science and deals with a set of numerical data. It is applicable to the study of quantitative measurements. As a matter of fact, qualitative aspects like empowerment, leadership, honesty, poverty, intelligence etc., cannot be expressed numerically and statistical analysis cannot be directly applied on these qualitative phenomena.

2. Statistical laws are not exact: It is well known that mathematical and physical sciences are exact. But statistical laws are not exact and statistical laws are only approximations. Statistical conclusions are not universally true. They are true only on an average.

3. Statistics table may be misused: Statistics must be used only by experts; otherwise, statistical methods are the most dangerous tools on the hands of the inexpert. The use of statistical tools by the inexperienced and untrained persons might lead to wrong conclusions.

4. Statistics is only one of the methods of studying a problem: Statistical method does not provide complete solution of the problems because problems are to be studied taking the background of the countries culture, philosophy, religion etc., into consideration. Thus the statistical study should be supplemented by other evidences.

Question 40.
Briefly explain the kinds of measures of dispersion.
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

1. Absolute measure of dispersion
2. Relative measure of dispersion

1. Absolute measure of dispersion indicates the amount of variation in a set of values in terms of units of observations.

2. Relative measures of dispersion are free from the units of measurements of the observations. They are pure numbers. They are used to compare the variation in two or more sets, which are having different units of measurements of observations.

3. Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion. Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation in 1893. Standard deviation is also called Root- Mean Square Deviation. The reason is that it is the square-root of the mean of the squared deviation from the arithmetic mean. It provides accurate result. Square of standard deviation is called Variance.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
What is Market price and Equations?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Narrate the equilibrium between ADF and ASF with diagram.
Answer:
Equilibrium between ADF and ASF

• Under the Keynes theory of employment, a simple two sector economy consisting of the household sector and the business sector is taken to understand the equilibrium between ADF and ASF.
• All the decisions concerning consumption expenditure are taken by the individual households, while the business firms take decisions concerning investment.
• It is also assumed that consumption function is linear and planned investment is autonomous.
• There are two approaches to y determination of the equilibrium level of income in Keynesian theory. These are :1. Aggregate demand – Aggregate supply approach, 2. Saving – Investment approach
• In this chapter, out of these two, aggregate Tg demand and aggregate supply approach is alone explained to understand the determination of equilibrium level of income and employment.
• The concept of effective demand is more Q clearly shown in the figure.
• In the figure, the aggregate demand and aggregate supply reach equilibrium at point E. The employment level is N₀ at that point.
• At ON₁ employment, the aggregate supply is N₁ R₁. But they are able to produce M₁ N₁. The expected level of profit is M₁R₁.
• To attain this level of profit, entrepreneurs will employ more labourers.
• The tendency to employ more labour will stop once they reach point E.
• At all levels of employment beyond, ON₀, the aggregate demand curve is below the aggregate supply curve indicating loss to the producers.
• Hence they will never employ more than ON₀ labour.
• Thus effective demand concept becomes a crucial point in determining the equilibrium level of output in the capitalist economy or a free market economy in the Keynesian system.
• It is important to note that the equilibrium level of employment need not be the full employment level (N₁) from the Figure, it is understood that the difference between N₀ – N₁ is the level of unemployment.
• Thus the concept of effective demand becomes significant in explaining the under employment equilibrium.

Question 42 (a).
Explain Keynes psychological law of consumption function with diagram.
Answer:
The three propositions of the law

Proposition (1):
Income increases by Rs 60 crores and the increase in consumption is by Rs 50 crores.
Proposition (2):
The increased income of Rs 60 crores in each case is divided in some proportion between consumption and saving respectively, (i.e., Rs 50 crores and Rs 10 crores).
Proposition (3):
As income increases consumption as well as saving increase. Neither consumption nor saving has fallen.

Diagrammatically, the three propositions are explained in figure. Here, income is measured horizontally and consumption and saving are measured on the vertical axis. C is the consumption function curve and 45° line represents income consumption equality.

Proposition (1):
When income increases from 120 to 180 consumption also increases from 120 to 170 but the increase in consumption is less than the increase in income, 10 is saved.

Proposition (2):
When income increases to 180 and 240, it is divided in some proportion between consumption by 170 and 220 and saving by 10 and 20 respectively.

Proposition (3):
Increases in income to 180 and 240 lead to increased consumption 170 and 220 and increased saving 20 and 10 than before. It is clear from the widening area below the C curve and the saving gap between 45° line and C curve.

[OR]

(b) Explain the functions of money.
Answer:

1. Primary Functions:
(i) Money as a medium of exchange: This is considered as the basic function of money. Money has the quality of general acceptability, and all exchanges take place in terms of money.

(ii) Money as a measure of value: The second important function of money is that it measures the value of goods and services. In other words, the prices of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money. Money is thus looked upon as a collective measure of value.

2. Secondary Functions:
(i) Money as a Store of value: Savings done in terms of commodities were not permanent. But, with the invention of money, this difficulty has now disappeared and savings are now done in terms of money. Money also serves as an excellent store of wealth, as it can be easily converted into other marketable assets, such as, land, machinery, plant etc.

(ii) Money as a Standard of Deferred Payments: Borrowing and lending were difficult problems under the barter system. In the absence of money, the borrowed amount could be returned only in terms of goods and services. But the modem money-economy has greatly facilitated the borrowing and lending processes.

(iii) Money as a Means of Transferring Purchasing Power: The field of exchange also went on extending with growing economic development. The exchange of goods is now extended to distant lands.

3. Contingent Functions:
(i) Basis of the Credit System: Money is the basis of the Credit System. Business transactions are either in cash or on credit.

(ii) Money facilitates distribution of National Income: The task of distribution of national income was exceedingly complex under the barter system.

(iii) Money helps to Equalize Marginal Utilities and Marginal Productivities: Consumer can obtain maximum utility only if he incurs expenditure on various commodities in such a manner as to equalize marginal utilities accruing from them. Now in equalizing these marginal utilities, money plays an important role, because the prices of all commodities are expressed in money.

(iv) Money Increases Productivity of Capital: Money is the most liquid form of capital. In other words, capital in the form of money can be put to any use.

4. Other Functions:
(i) Money helps to maintain Repayment Capacity: Money possesses the quality of general acceptability. To maintain its repayment capacity, every firm has to keep assets in the form of liquid cash. The firm ensures its repayment capacity with money.

(ii) Money represents Generalized Purchasing Power: Purchasing power kept in terms of money can be put to any use. It is not necessary that money should be used only for the purpose for which it has been served.
(iii) Money gives liquidity to Capital: Money is the most liquid form of capital. It can be put to any use.

Question 43 (a).
Elucidate the functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
The functions of commercial banks are broadly classified into primary functions and secondary functions.

Functions of Commercial Banks
I. Primary Functions:
1. Accepting Deposits: It implies that commercial banks are mainly dependent on public deposits.
There are two types of deposits
(i) Demand Deposits: It refers to deposits that can be withdrawn by individuals without any prior notice to the bank. In other words, the owners of these deposits are allowed to withdraw money anytime by writing a withdrawal slip or a cheque at the bank counter or from ATM centres using debit card.

(ii) Time Deposits: It refers to deposits that are made for certain committed period of time. Banks pay higher interest on time deposits. These deposits can be withdrawn only after a specific time period by providing a written notice to the bank.

2. Advancing Loans: It refers to granting loans to individuals and businesses. Commercial banks grant loans in the form of overdraft, cash credit, and discounting bills of exchange.

II. Secondary Functions:
The secondary functions can be classified under three heads, namely, agency functions, general utility functions, and other functions.
1. Agency Functions: It implies that commercial banks act as agents of customers by performing various functions.

• Collecting Cheques: Banks collect cheques and bills of exchange on the behalf of
  their customers through clearing house facilities provided by the central bank.
• Collecting Income: Commercial banks collect dividends, pension, salaries, rents, and interests on investments on behalf of their customers. A credit voucher is sent to customers for information when any income is collected by the bank.
• Paying Expenses: Commercial banks make the payments of various obligations of customers, such as telephone bills, insurance premium, school fees, and rents.

2. General Utility Functions: It implies that commercial banks provide some utility services to customers by performing various functions.

• Providing Locker Facilities: Commercial banks provide locker facilities to its customers for safe custody of jewellery, shares, debentures, and other valuable items. This minimizes the risk of loss due to theft at homes. Banks are not responsible for the items in the lockers.
• Issuing Traveler’s Cheques: Banks issue traveler’s cheques to individuals for traveling outside the country. Traveler’s cheques are the safe and easy way to protect money while traveling.
• Dealing in Foreign Exchange: Commercial banks help in providing foreign exchange to businessmen dealing in exports and imports. However, commercial banks need to – take the permission of the Central Bank for dealing in foreign exchange.

3. Transferring Funds: It refers to transferring of funds from one bank to another. Funds are transferred by means of draft, telephonic transfer, and electronic transfer.

4. Letter of Credit: Commercial banks issue letters of credit to their customers to certify their creditworthiness.

• Underwriting Securities: Commercial banks also undertake the task of underwriting securities. As public has full faith in the credit worthiness of banks, public do not hesitate in buying the securities underwritten by banks.
• Electronic Banking: It includes services, such as debit cards, credit cards, and Internet banking.

III. Other Functions:

1. Money Supply: It refers to one of the important functions of commercial banks that help in increasing money supply.
2. Credit Creation: Credit Creation means the multiplication of loans and advances. Commercial banks receive deposits from the public and use these deposits to give loans:

[OR]

(b) Describe the Merger of Banks.
Answer:
Merger of Banks:

1. Union Cabinet decided to merge all the remaining five associate banks of State Bank Group with State Bank of India in 2017.
2. After the Parliament passed the merger Bill, the subsidiary banks have ceased to exist.
3. Five associates and the Bharatiya Mahila Bank have become the part of State Bank of India (SBI) beginning April 1, 2017.
4. This has placed State Bank of India among the top 50 banks in the world.
5. The five associate banks that were merged are State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur (SBBJ), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH), State Bank of Mysore (SBM), State Bank of Patiala (SBP) and State Bank of Travancore (SBT).
6. The other two Associate Banks namely State Bank of Indore and State Bank of Saurashtra had already been merged with State Bank of India.
7. After the merger, the total customer base of SBI increased to 37 crore with a branch network of around 24,000 and around 60,000 ATMs across the country.

Question 44 (a).
Explain the Adam Smith’s Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage Theory and Assumptions with diagram.
Answer:
Adam Smith’s Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage:
Adam Smith argued that all nations can be benefitted when there is free trade and specialisation in terms of their absolute cost advantage.

The Theory:
According to Adam Smith, the basis of international trade was absolute cost advantage.

Trade between two countries would be mutually beneficial when one country produces a commodity at an absolute cost advantage over the other country which in turn produces another commodity at an absolute cost advantage over the first country.

Assumptions:

1. There are two countries and two commodities (2×2 model).
2. Labour is the only factor of production.
3. Labour units are homogeneous.
4. The cost or price of a commodity is measured by the amount of labour required to produce it.
5. There is no transport cost.

Illustration:
Absolute cost advantage theory can be illustrated with the help of the following example.

Absolute Cost Advantage:

1. From the illustration, it is clear that India has an absolute advantage in the production of wheat over China and China has an absolute advantage in the production of cloth over India.
2. Therefore, India should specialize in the production of wheat and import cloth from China.
3. China should specialize in the production of cloth and import wheat from India.
4. This kind of trade would be mutually beneficial to both India and China.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the functions of World Bank.
Answer:
Functions of IBRD (or) World Bank:
The World Bank performs the major role of providing loans for development works to member countries, especially to underdeveloped countries. The World Bank provides long¬term loans for various development projects. Article 1 of the Agreement states the functions performed by the world bank as follows.
(i) Investment for productive purposes: The World Bank performs the function of assisting in the reconstruction and development of territories of member nations through facility of investment for productive purposes. It also encourages the development of productive facilities and resources in less developed countries.

(ii) Balanced growth of international trade: Promoting the long range balanced growth of trade at international level and the maintaining equilibrium in BOPs of member nations by encouraging international investment.

(iii) Provision of loans and guarantees: Arranging the loans or providing guarantees on loans by various other channels so as to execute important projects.

(iv) Promotion of foreign private investment: The promotion of private foreign investment by means of guarantees on loans and other investment made by private investors. The Bank supplements private investment by providing finance for productive purpose out of its own resources or from borrowed funds.

(v) Technical services: The World Bank facilitates different kinds of technical services to the member countries through Staff College and experts.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the scope of public finance.
Answer:
Scope of Public Finance:
The subject ‘Public Finance’ includes five major sub-divisions, viz., Public Revenue, Public Expenditure, Public Debt, Financial Administration and Fiscal Policy.

(i) Public Revenue:
Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation, rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.

(ii) Public Expenditure:
This part studies the fundamental principles that govern the Government expenditure, effects of public expenditure and control of public expenditure.

(iii) Public Debt:

1. Public debt deals with the methods of raising loans from internal and external sources.
2. The burden, effects and redemption of public debt fall under this head.

(iv) Financial Administration:

1. This part deals with the study of the different aspects of public budget.
2. The budget is the Annual master financial plan of the Government.
3. The various objectives and steps in preparing a public budget, passing or sanctioning, allocation evaluation and auditing fall within financial administration.

(v) Fiscal Policy:
Taxes, subsidies, public debt and public expenditure are the instruments of fiscal policy.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain causes for the increase in public debt.
Answer:
Causes for the Increase in Public debt:
The causes for enormous growth of public debt may be studied under the following sub-headings:
1. War and Preparation of war
Waging war has become one of the important causes for incurring debts by the governments. In modem times, the preparation for war and nuclear defence programmes take away the major share of the government’s revenue and so it incurs debt.

2. Social obligations
Modem states are considered to be ‘Welfare States and they have to undertake many social obligations like public health, sanitation, education,insurance, transport and communications, etc., besides providing the minimum necessaries of life to the citizens of the country. To finance these, the State has to incur a heavy public debt.

3. Economic Development and Deficit
The government has to undertake many projects for economic development of the country. Construction of railways, power projects, irrigation projects, heavy industries, etc., could be thought of only by means of mobilising resources in the form of public debt. Due to heavy public expenditure, the governments always face deficit budget. Such deficits have to be financed only through borrowings.

4. Employment
Most of the governments of modem days face the problem of unemployment and it has become the duty to solve this by making huge public expenditure. To solve the unemployment problem, and to fight recession, the government has to make huge expenditures. For this the States have to resort to public debt.

5. Controlling inflation
The Government can withdraw excess money from circulation, by raising public debt and thus prevent prices from rising.

6. Fighting depression
During the depression phase, private investment is lacking. The Government applies compensatory public spending by borrowing from internal and external sources.

Question 46 (a).
What is land pollution? Mention the causes of land pollution.
Answer:
The land pollution is defined as, “the degradation of land because of the disposal of waste on the land”. Any substance (solid, liquid or gaseous) that is discharged, emitted or deposited in the environment in such a way that it alters the environment causes land pollution.
Causes of Land Pollution:
(i) Deforestation and soil erosion:

1. Deforestation carried out to create dry lands is one of the major concerns.
2. Land that is once converted into a dry or barren land, can never be made fertile again, whatever the magnitude of measures to convert it.

(ii) Agricultural activities:

1. With growing human and pet animal population, demand for food has increased considerably.
2. Farmers often use highly toxic fertilizers and pesticides to get rid off insects, fungi and bacteria from their crops.
3. However the overuse of these chemicals, results in contamination and poisoning of land.

(iii) Mining activities:
During extraction and mining activities, several land spaces are created beneath the surface.

(iv) Landfills:

1. Each household produces tones of garbage each year due to changing economic lifestyle of the people.
2. Garbage like plastic, paper, cloth, wood and hospital waste get accumulated.
3. Items that cannot be recycled become a part of the landfills that cause land pollution.

(v) Industrialization:

1. Due to increasing consumerism more industries were developed which led to deforestation.
2. Research and development paved the way for modem fertilizers and chemicals that were highly toxic and led to soil contamination.

(vi) Construction activities:

1. Due to urbanization, large amount of construction activities are taking place.
2. This has resulted in large waste articles like wood, metal, bricks, plastic.
3. These are dumped at the outskirts of urban areas that lead to land pollution.

(vii) Nuclear waste:

1. The leftover radioactive materials, harmful and toxic chemicals affect human health.
2. They are dumped beneath the earth to avoid any casualty.

[OR]

(b) What are the effects of Land pollution?
Answer:
Effects of Land Pollution:
(i) Soil pollution:

1. Soil pollution is another form of land pollution, where the upper layer of the soil is damaged.
2. This is caused by the ovemse of chemical fertilizers, and pesticides.
3. This leads to loss of fertile land.
4. Pesticides kill not only pests and also human beings.

(ii) Health Impact:

1. The land when contaminated with toxic chemicals and pesticides lead to problem of skin cancer and human respiratory system.
2. The toxic chemicals can reach our body through foods and vegetables.

(iii) Cause for Air pollution:

1. Landfills and waste dumping lead to air pollution.
2. The abnormal toxic substances spread in the atmosphere cause transmit respiratory diseases among the masses.

(iv) Effect on wildlife:

1. The animal kingdom has suffered mostly in the past decades.
2. They face a serious threat with regards to loss of habitat and natural environment.
3. The constant human activity on land is leaving it polluted, forcing these species to move farther away.
4. Sometimes several species are pushed to the verge of extinction or disappear due to no conducive environment.

Question 47 (a).
Trace the evolution of economic planning in India.
Answer:
The evolution of planning in India is stated below:

(i) Sir M. Vishveshwarya (1934): a prominent engineer and politician made his first attempt in laying foundation for economic planning in India in 1934 through his book, “Planned Economy of India”. It was a 10 year plan.

(ii) Jawaharlai Nehru (1938): set-up “National Planning Commission” by a committee but due to the changes in the political era and second World War, it did not materialize.

(iii) Bombay Plan (1940): The 8 leading industrialists of Bombay presented “Bombay Plan”. It was a 15 Year Investment Plan.

(iv) S.N Agarwal (1944): gave the “Gandhian Plan” focusing on the agricultural and rural economy.

(v) M.N. Roy (1945): drafted ‘People’s Plan”. It was aiming at mechanization of agricultural production and distribution by the state only.

(vi) J.P. Narayan (1950): advocated, “Sarvodaya Plan” which was inspired by Gandhian Plan and with the idea of Vinoba Bhave. It gave importance not only for agriculture, but encouraged small and cottage industries in the plan.

[OR]

(b) Find the Standard Deviation of the following data:
14, 22, 9, 15, 20, 17, 12, 11
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Indicate the contribution of J M Keynes to economics……..
(a) Wealth of Nations
(b) General Theory
(c) Capital
(d) Public Finance
Answer:
(b) General Theory

Question 2.
Per capita income is obtained by dividing the National income by………..
(a) Production
(b) Population of a country
(c) Expenditure
(d) GNP
Answer:
(b) Population of a country

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Expenditure method is called outlay method.
Reason (R): This method is used only private sector.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 4.
The component of aggregate demand is………..
(a) Personal demand
(b) Government expenditure
(c) Only export
(d) Only import
Answer:
(b) Government expenditure

Question 5.
If the Keynesian consumption function is C= 10 + 0.8 Y then, if disposable income is Rs 1000, what is amount of total consumption?
(a) Rs 0.8
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 810
(d) Rs 0.81
Answer:
(c) Rs 810

Question 6.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) J.M. Clark – Ceteris Paribus
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption
(c) R.F. Khan – Accelerator model
(d) Duesenberry – Laissez-faire
Answer:
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption

Question 7.
………. inflation is in no way dangerous to the economy.
(a) Walking
(b) Running
(c) Creeping
(d) Galloping
Answer:
(a) Walking

Question 8.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes

Answer:
(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Question 9.
Expansions of ATM.
(a) Automated Teller Machine
(b) Adjustment Teller Machine
(c) Automatic Teller mechanism
(d) Any Time Money
Answer:
(a) Automated Teller Machine

Question 10.
Commercial Banks create credit in favour of the……..
(a) consumers
(b) business men
(c) customers
(d) agriculturists
Answer:
(c) customers

Question 11.
Net export equals ………
(a) Export x Import
(b) Export + Import
(c) Export – Import
(d) Exports of services only
Answer:
(c) Export – Import

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Price of a commodity is measured by the amount of labour required to produce it.
Reason (R): Trade is one of the Demerit.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 13.
Which of the following is not the member of SAARC?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bhutan
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 14.
IBRD otherwise called the………..
(a) IMF
(b) SDR
(c) SAF
(d) World Bank
Answer:
(d) World Bank

Question 15.
Finance Commission determines …………
(a) The finances of Government of India
(b) The resources transfer to the states
(c) The resources transfer to the various departments
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The resources transfer to the states

Question 16.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

codes

Answer:
A-2, B-4. C-1, D-3

Question 17.
………. is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface as well as its atmosphere.
(a) Globe warming
(b) Global warming
(c) Globe spoiled
(d) Temperature warming
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 18.
The supply side vicious circle of poverty suggests that poor nations remain poor because
(a) Saving remains low
(b) Investment remains low
(c) There is a lack of effective government
(d) a and b above
Answer:
(d) a and b above

Question 19.
……….planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.
(a) Financial
(b) Physical
(c) Functional
(d) Structural
Answer:
(b) Physical

Question 20.
The word ‘statistics’ is used as……….
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Singular and Plural
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Singular and Plural

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Capitalism?
Answer:
Capitalism, is total freedom and private ownership of means of production. Capitalistic economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.

Question 22.
Write the formula for calculating GNP.
Answer:
GNP at market prices means the gross value of final goods and services produced annually in a country plus net factor income from abroad
(C + I + G + (X – M) + (R – P)

Question 23.
Write the headlines of difficulties in Measuring National Income.
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:

1. Transfer payments
2. Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance
3. Unpaid services
4. Income from illegal activities
5. Production for self-consumption and changing price
6. Capital Gains
7. Statistical problems.

Question 24.
What is effective demand?
Answer:
The starting point of Keynes theory of employment and income is the principle of effective demand.  Effective demand denotes money actually spent by the people on products of industry. The money which entrepreneurs receive is paid in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit. Therefore effective demand equals national income.

Question 25.
Define “Unemployment”.
Answer:
Unemployment: When there are people, who are willing to work and able to work but cannot find suitable jobs.

Question 26.
Define average propensity to save (APS).
Answer:
Average Propensity to Save (APS):
The average propensity to save is the ratio of saving to income. APS is the quotient obtained by dividing the total saving by the total income. In other words, it is the ratio of total savings to total income. It can be expressed algebraically in the form of equation as under
APS = \(\frac{S}{Y}\)
Where, S = Saving; Y = Income

Question 27.
Define “Ceteris paribus”.
Answer:
Ceteris paribus (constant extraneous variables): The other variables such as income distribution, tastes, habits, social customs, price movements, population growth, etc. do not change and consumption depends on income alone.

Question 28.
State briefly the functions of SAARC.
Answer:
Functions of SAARC:
The main functions of SAARC are as follows.

1. Maintenance of the co operation in the region
2. Prevention of common problems associated with the member nations.
3. Ensuring strong relationship among the member nations.
4. Removal of the poverty through various packages of programmes.
5. Prevention of terrorism in the region.

Question 29.
What are the components of GST?
Answer:
Components of GST:
The component of GST are of 3 types. They are: CGST, SGST & IGST.

1. CGST: Collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale (e.g. Within state/ union territory)
2. SGST: Collected by the State Government on an intra-state sale (e.g. Within state/ union territory)
3. IGST: Collected by the Central Government for inter-state sale (e.g. Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu)

Question 30.
What are environmental goods? Give examples.
Answer:
Environmental goods are typically non-market goods, including clear air, clean water, landscape, green transport infrastructure (footpaths, cycle ways, greenways, etc.), public parks, urban parks, rivers, mountains, forests, and beaches.

Concerns with environmental goods focus on the effects that the exploitation of ecological systems have on the economy, the well-being of humans and other species, and on the environment.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the socialistic econonomy.
Answer:
Socialistic Economy (Socialism):

1. The Father of Socialism is Karl Marx. Socialism refers to a system of total planning, public ownership and state control on economic activities.
2. Socialism is defined as a way of organizing a society in which major industries are owned and controlled by the government.
3. A Socialistic economy is also known as ‘Planned Economy’ or ‘Command Economy’.
4. In a socialistic economy, all the resources are owned and operated by the government.
5. Public welfare is the main motive behind all economic activities. It aims at equality in the distribution of income and wealth and equal opportunity for all.
6. Russia, China, Vietnam, Poland and Cuba are the examples of socialist economies. But, now there are no absolutely socialist economies.

Question 32.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 33.
Give short note on Expenditure method.
Answer:
The Expenditure Method (Outlay method):

1. The total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together.
2. To calculate the expenditure of a society, it includes personal consumption expenditure, net domestic investment, government expenditure on consumption as well as capital goods and net exports.

Question 34.
Describe the types of unemployment.
Answer:
The following are the types of unemployment.
Types of unemployment:

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Frictional Unemployment
3. Technical Unemployment
4. Disguised Unemployment
5. Seasonal Unemployment
6. Educated Unemployment
7. Structural Unemployment

1. Cyclical Unemployment:

• This unemployment exists during the downturn phase of trade cycle in the economy.
• In a business cycle during the period of recession and depression, income and output fall leading to widespread unemployment.
• It is caused by deficiency of effective demand.
• Cyclical unemployment can be cured by public investment or expansionary monetary policy.

2. Seasonal Unemployment:

• This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
• In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
• These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
• Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry, holiday resorts etc.

3. Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

• Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
• This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery.
• shortage of raw materials etc.
• The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

4. Educated Unemployment:

• Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does
  not match the job.
• Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

5. Technical Unemployment:

• Modem technology being capital intensive requires less labourers and contributes to technological unemployment.
• Now a days, invention and innovations lead to the adoption of new techniques there by the existing workers are retrenched.
• Labour saving devices are responsible for technological unemployment.

6. Structural Unemployment:

• Structural unemployment is due to drastic change in the structure of the society.
• Lack of demand for the product or shift in demand to other products cause this type of unemployment.
• For example rise in demand for mobile phones has adversely affected the demand for cameras, tape recorders etc.
• So this kind of unemployment results from massive and deep rooted changes in economic structure.

7. Disguised Unemployment:

• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are than what is actually required.
• Even if some workers are withdrawn, production does not suffer.
• This type of unemployment is found in agriculture.
• A person is said to be disguisedly by unemployed if his contribution to output is less than what he can produce by working for normal hours per day.
• In this situation, marginal productivity of labour is zero or less or negative.

Question 35.
Differentiate autonomous and induced investment.
Answer:

Sl.No	Autonomous Investment	Induced Investment
1	Independent	Planned
2	Income inelastic	Income elastic
3	Welfare motive	Profit Motive

Question 36.
What is money supply?
Answer:

1. Money supply means the total amount of money in an economy.
2. It refers to the amount of money which is in circulation in an economy at any given time.
3. Money supply plays a crucial role in the determination of price level and interest rates.
4. Money supply viewed at a given point of time is a stock and over a period of time it is a flow.

Question 37.
Distinguish between money market and capital market.
Answer:

S.No.	Money Market	Capital Market
1.	Money market is the mechanism through which sthort term funds are loaned and borrowed. It designates financial instittutions which handle the purchase, sale and transfer of short term credit instruments.	Capital Market is a part of financial system which is concerned with raising capital by dealing in shares, bonds and other long term investments.
2.	Commercial banks, acceptance houses, Non Banking Financial Institutions and the Central Bank are the institutions catering to the requirements of short term funds in the money Market.	The market where investment instruments like bonds, equities and mortgages are traded is known as the capital market.

Question 38.
List out the achievements of ASEAN.
Answer:
The ASEAN Declaration states the aims and purposes of the Association as:

1. To accelerate the economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region;
2. To promote regional peace and stability and adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter;
3. To promote cooperation among the members of ASEAN through the exchange of knowledge and experience in the field of public sector auditing.
4. To provide a conducive environment and facilities for research, training, and education among the members
5. To serve as a centre of information and as an ASEAN link with other international organizations.

Question 39.
Give two examples for direct tax.
Answer:

1. Equity: Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.
2. Certainity: Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

Question 40.
Define economic planning.
Answer:
Economic Planning is “collective control or suppression of private activities of production and exchange”. – Robbins
“Economic Planning in the widest sense is the deliberate direction by persons in-charge of large resources of economic activity towards chosen ends”. – Dalton

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Compare the feature among Capitalism, Secularism and Mixedism.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the difficulties involved in the measurement of national income?
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:
In India, a special conceptual problem is posed by the existence of a large, unorganised and non-monetised subsistence sector where the barter system still prevails for transacting goods and services. Here, a proper valuation of output is very difficult.

Transfer payments:

1. Government makes payments in the form of pensions, unemployment allowance, subsidies, etc. These are government expenditure.
2. But they are not included in the national income.
3. Because they are paid without adding anything to the production processes.
4. During a year, Interest on national debt is also considered transfer payments because it is paid by the government to individuals and firms on their past savings without any productive work.

Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance:

1. The deduction of depreciation allowances, accidental damages, repair and replacement charges from the national income is not an easy task.
2. It requires high degree of judgment to assess the depreciation allowance and other charges.

Unpaid services:

1. A housewife renders a number of useful services like preparation of meals, serving, tailoring, mending, washing, cleaning, bringing up children, etc.
2. She is not paid for them and her services are not directly included in national income.

Income from illegal activities:

1. Income earned through illegal activities like gambling, smuggling, illicit extraction of . liquor, etc., is not included in national income.
2. Such activities have value and satisfy the wants of the people but they are not considered as productive from the point of view of society.

Production for self-consumption and changing price:

1. Farmers keep a large portion of food and other goods produced on the farm for self consumption.
2. The problem is whether that part of the produce which is not sold in the market can be included in national income or not.

Capital Gains:

1. The problem also arises with regard to capital gains.
2. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase.
3. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Statistical problems:

1. There are statistical problems, too. Great care is required to avoid double counting. Statistical data may not be perfectly reliable, when they are compiled from numerous sources.
2. Skill and efficiency of the statistical staff and cooperation of people at large are also equally important in estimating national income.

Question 42 (a).
Write short note on the implications of Say’s law.
Answer:
Implications of Say’s Law:

1. There is no possibility for over production or unemployment.
2. If there exist unutilized resources in the economy, it is profitable to employ them up to the point of full employment. This is true under the condition that factors are willing to accept rewards on a par with their productivity.
3. As automatic price mechanism operates in the economy, there is no need for government intervention. (However, J.M. Keynes emphasized the role of the State)
4. Interest flexibility brings about equality between saving and investment.
5. Money performs only the medium of exchange function in the economy, as people will not hold idle money.

[OR]

(b) State the propositions of Keynes’s Psychological Law of Consumption.
Answer:
Propositions of the Law:
This law has three propositions:
(i) When income increases, consumption expenditure also increases but by a smaller amount. The reason is that as income increases, we wants are satisfied side by side, so that the need to spend more on consumer goods diminishes. So, the consumption expenditure increases with increase in income but less than proportionately.

(ii) The increased income will be divided in some proportion between consumption expenditure and saving. This follows from the first proposition because when the whole of increased income is not spent on consumption, the remaining is saved. In this way, consumption and saving move together.

(iii) Increase in income always leads to an increase in both consumption and saving. This means that increased income is unlikely to lead to fall in either consumption or saving. Thus with increased income both consumption and saving increase.

Question 43 (a).
Bring out the methods of credit control.
Answer:
Methods of Credit Control:
1. Bank Rate Policy:
The bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank of a country’ is prepared to re-discount the first class securities.

2. Open Market Operations:

• In narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in the money market.
• In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.

3. Variable Reserve Ratio:
(i) Cash Reserves Ratio:

• Under this system the Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserves Ratio.
• For example, if the Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit,this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.
• So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.

(ii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio:

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the amount which a bank has to maintain securities.
• The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities (i.e., the liabilities of the bank which are payable on demand anytime, and those liabilities which are accruing in one month’s time due to maturity) of a bank.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain the gains from International Trade Categories.
Answer:
Gains from International Trade:

• International trade helps a country to export its surplus goods to other countries and secure a better market for it.
• Similarly, international trade helps a country to import the goods which cannot be produced at all or can be produced at a higher cost.
• The gains from international trade may be categorized under four heads.

I. Efficient Production:
International trade enables each participatory country to specialize in the production of goods in which it has absolute or comparative advantages. International specialization offers the following gains.

1. Better utilization of resources.
2. Concentration in the production of goods in which it has a comparative advantage.
3. Saving in time.
4. Perfection of skills in production.
5. Improvement in the techniques of production.
6. Increased production.
7. Higher standard of living in the trading countries.

II. Equalization of Prices between Countries:
International trade may help to equalize prices in all the trading countries.

1. Prices of goods are equalized between the countries (However, in reality it has not happened).
2. The difference is only with regard to the cost of transportation.
3. Prices of factors of production are also equalized (However, in reality it has not happened).

III. Equitable Distribution of Scarce Materials:
International trade may help the trading countries to have equitable distribution of scarce resources.

IV. General Advantages of International Trade:

1. Availability of variety of goods for consumption.
2. Generation of more employment opportunities.
3. Industrialization of backward nations.
4. Improvement in relationship among countries (However, in reality it has not happened).
5. Division of labour and specialisation.
6. Expansion in transport facilities.

Question 44 (a).
Write a note on SAARC.
Answer:
South Asian Association For Regional Co-Operation (SAARC):

1. The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is an organisation of South Asian nations, which was established on 8 December 1985 for the promotion of economic and social progress, cultural development within the South Asia region and also for friendship and co-operation with other developing countries.
2. The SAARC Group (SAARC) comprises of Bangaladesh, Bhutan, India, The Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
3. In April 2007, Afghanistan became its eighth member.
4. The basic aim of the organisation is to accelerate the process of economic and social development of member states through joint action in the agreed areas of cooperation.
5. The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
6. The first SAARC summit was held at Dhaka in the year 1985.
7. SAARC meets once in two years. Recently, the 20th SAARC summit was hosted by Sri Lanka in 2018.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain facilities offered by IMF.
Answer:
Facilities offered by IMF:
The Fund has created several new credit facilities for its members. Chief among them are:
(i) Basic Credit Facility:

• The IMF provides financial assistance to its member nations to overcome their temporary difficulties relating to balance of payments.
• A member nation can purchase from the Fund other currencies or SDRs, in exchange for its own currency, to finance payment deficits.
• The loan is repaid when the member repurchases its own currency with other currencies or SDRs.
• A member can unconditionally borrow from the Fund in a year equal to 25% of its quota.
• This unconditional borrowing right is called the reserve tranche.

(ii) Extended Fund Facility:

• Under this arrangement, the IMF provides additional borrowing facility up to 140% of the member’s quota, over and above the basic credit facility.
• The extended facility is limited for a period up to 3 years and the rate of interest is low.

(iii) Compensatory Financing Facility:

• In 1963, IMF established compensatory financing facility to provide additional financial assistance to the member countries, particularly primary producing countries facing shortfall in export earnings.
• In 1981, the coverage of the compensatory financing facility was extended to payment problem caused by the fluctuations in the cost of cereal inputs.

(iv) Buffer Stock Facility:

• The buffer stock financing facility was started in 1969.
• The purpose of this scheme was to help the primary goods (food grains) producing countries to finance contributions to buffer stock arrangements for the stabilisation of primary product prices.

(v) Supplementary Financing Facility:
Under the supplementary financing facility, the IMF makes temporary arrangements to provide supplementary financial assistance to member countries facing payments problems relating to their present quota sizes.

(vi) Structural Adjustment Facility:

• The IMF established Structural Adjustment Facility (SAF) in March 1986 to provide additional balance of payments assistance on concessional terms to the poorer member countries.
• In December 1987, the Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) was set up to augment the availability of concessional resources to low income countries.
• The purpose of SAF and ESAF is to force the poor countries to undertake strong macroeconomic and structural programmes to improve their balance of payments positions and promote economic growth.

Question 45 (a).
What are the functions of a modern state?
Answer:
Functions of Modern State:
The modem state is a welfare state and not just police state. The state assumes greater roles by creating economic and social overheads, ensuring stability both internally and externally, conserving resources for sustainable development and so on.

(i) Defence:

1. The primary function of the Government is to protect the people from external aggression and internal disorder.
2. The government has to maintain adequate police and military forces and render protective
   services.

(ii) Judiciary:

1. Rendering justice and settlement of disputes are the concern of the government.
2. It should provide adequate judicial structure to render justice to all classes of citizens,

(iii) Enterprises:

1. The regulation and control of private enterprise fall under the purview of the modem State.
2. Ownership of certain enterprises and operating them successfully are the responsibilities of the government.

(iv) Social Welfare:
It is the duty of the state to make provisions for education, social security, social insurance, health and sanitation for the betterment of the people in the country.

(v) Infrastructure:
Modem States have to build the base for the economic development of the country by creating social and economic infrastructure.

(vi) Macro-economic policy:
The Government has to administer fiscal policy and monetary policy to achieve macro¬economic goals.

(vii) Social Justice:

1. During the process of growth of an economy, certain sections of the society gain at the cost of others.
2. The Government needs to intervene with fiscal measures to redistribute income.

(viii) Control of Monopoly:
Concentration of economic power is another evil to be corrected by the Government. So, the state intervenes through control of monopolies and restrictive trade practices to curb concentration of economic power.

[OR]

(b) What are the causes of water pollution?
Answer:
Water pollution is caused due to several reasons. Here are the few major causes of water pollution:
(i) Discharge of sewage and waste water:

1. Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agricultural runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
2. These wastes contain harmful chemicals and toxins which make the water poisonous for aquatic animals and plants.

(ii) Dumping of solid wastes:
The dumping of solid wastes and litters in water bodies cause huge problems.

(iii) Discharge of industrial wastes:
Industrial waste contains pollutants like asbestos, lead, mercury, grease oil and petrochemicals, which are extremely harmful to both people and environment.

(iv) Oil Spill:
Sea water gets polluted due to oil spilled from ships and tankers while travelling. The spilled oil does not dissolve in water and forms a thick sludge polluting the water.

(v) Acid rain:

1. Acid rain is pollution of water caused by air pollution.
2. When the acidic particles caused by air pollution in the atmosphere mix with water vapor, it results in acid rain.

(vi) Global warming:
Due to global warming, there is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.

(vii) Eutrophication:

1. Eutrophication is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
2. This results in bloom of algae in water.
3. It also depletes the oxygen in water which negatively affects fish and other aquatic animal population.

Question 46 (a).
Explain different sources of e-waste.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the non-economic factors determining development?
Answer:
Non-Economic. Factors:

1. Human Resource
2. Technical Know-how
3. Political Freedom
4. Social Organization
5. Corruption free administration
6. Desire for Development
7. Moral, ethical and social values
8. Casino Capitalism
9. Patrimonial Capitalism

Non-Economic Factors: ‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.
(i) Human Resources:

• Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income.
• There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth.
• A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset.
• Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

(ii) Technical Know-how:
As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

(iii) Political Freedom:
The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

(iv) Social Organization:
People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

(v) Corruption free administration:

• Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process.
• Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

(vi) Desire for development:
The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

(vii) Moral, ethical and social values:

• These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North.
• If people are not honest, market cannot function.

(viii) Casino Capitalism:
If People spend larger proportion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

(ix) Patrimonial Capitalism:
If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

Question 47 (a).
Describe different types of Planning.
Answer:

(i) Democratic Vs Totalitarian:
A form of rule in which the government attempts to maintain ‘total’ control over society, including all aspects of the public and private lives of its citizens.

(ii) Centralized Vs Decentralized:

• Under centralized planning, the entire planning process in a country is under a central planning authority.
• This authority formulates a central plan, fixes objectives, targets and priorities for every sector of the economy.
• In other words, it is called ‘planning from above’.

(iii) Planning by Direction Vs Inducement:
Under planning by direction, there is a central authority which plans, directs and orders the execution of the plan in accordance with pre-determined targets and priorities.

(iv) Indicative Vs Imperative Planning:

• Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed economies. It has been in practice in France since the Monnet Plan of 1947-50.
• In a mixed economy, the private sector and the public sector work together.
• Under this plan, the outline of plan is prepared by the Government.
• Then it is discussed with the representatives of private management, trade unions, consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts.

(v) Short, Medium and Long term Planning:

• Short-term plans are also known as ‘controlling plans’.
• They encompass the period of one year, therefore, they are also known as ‘annual plans’.

(vi) Financial Vs Physical Planning:
Financial planning refers to the technique of planning in which resources are allocated in terms of money while physical planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.

(vii) Functional Vs Structural Planning:
Functional planning refers to that planning which seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.

(viii) Comprehensive Vs Partial Planning:
General planning which concerns itself with the major issues for the whole economy is known as comprehensive planning whereas partial planning is to consider only the few important sectors of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Economic planning of Democratic planning and Totalitarian planning.
Answer:
Democratic Vs Totalitarian:

1. Democratic planning implies planning within democracy.
2. People are associated at every step in the formulation and implementation of the plan.
3. A democratic plan is characterized by the widest possible consultations with the various state governments and private enterprises at the stage of preparation.
4. The plan prepared by the Planning Commission is not accepted as such.
5. It can be accepted, rejected or modified by the Parliament of the country.
6. Under totalitarian planning, there is central control and direction of all economic activities in accordance with a single plan.
7. Consumption, production, exchange, and distribution are all controlled by the state. In authoritarian planning, the planning authority is the supreme body.
8. It decides about the targets, schemes, allocations, methods and procedures of implementation of the plan.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Max Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A firms total sales Rs 80,000 and its credit sales Rs 60,000. Then its cash sales is…………
(a) Rs 1,40,000
(b) Rs 70,000
(c) Rs 20,000
(d) Rs 80,000
Answer:
(c) Rs 20,000

Question 2.
A firm has assets worth 47,500, and liabilities 17,700, Then its capital is…………
(a) Rs 29,800
(b) Rs 65,200
(c) Rs 35,400
(d) Rs 17,700
Answer:
(a) Rs 29,800

Question 3.
Some organisations are established for the purpose of rendering services to the public without…………
(a) any profit motive
(b) any service motive
(c) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) any profit motive

Question 4.
Charitable institutions and educational institutions are example of………….
(a) Profit organisation
(b) Not-for-profit organisation
(c) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Not-for-profit organisation

Question 5.
The rate of interest on capital is generally agreed by the partner and is mentioned in the…………
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Profit and Loss A/c
(c) Partnership deed
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Partnership deed

Question 6.
Interest on capital is to be calculated on the capitals at the begining for the…………..
(a) Particular period
(b) Relevant period
(c) average period
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) Relevant period

Question 7.
The total capitalised value of the business is calculated by capitalising the average profits on the basis of………….
(a) average profit
(b) normal rate of return
(c) actual capital employed
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) normal rate of return

Question 8.
Goodwill is to be valued when …………
(a) analgamation takes place
(b) a partner is admitted
(c) one company takes over another company
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 9.
On admission of a partner if goodwill account is to be raised this should be debited to………….
(a) Partner’s capital A/c
(b) Goodwill A/c
(c) Revaluation A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Goodwill A/c

Question 10.
The old partners share all the accumulated profits and reserves in their……………
(a) new profit sharing ratio
(b) old profit sharing ratio
(c) capital ratio
(d) sacrificing ratio
Answer:
(b) old profit sharing ratio

Question 11.
At the time of retirement of partners, the existing partners stand to…………..
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) Income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Gain

Question 12.
At the time of retirement of a partners, calculation of new profit ratio is……………
(a) Compulsory
(b) Optional
(c) Necessary
(d) Not necessary
Answer:
(c) Necessary

Question 13.
Equity’ shares are known as …………
(a) authorised capital
(b) issued capital
(c) subscribed capital
(d) ordinary capital
Answer:
(d) ordinary capital

Question 14.
Authorised capital is also known as…………
(a) paid up capital
(b) called up capital
(c) nominal capital
(d) subscribed capital
Answer:
(c) nominal capital

Question 15.
Common size statement can be prepared with……….
(a) Double columns
(b) single columns
(c) three columns
(d) five columns
Answer:
(c) three columns

Question 16.
Which of the following are techniques tools or methods of analysis and interpretation of financial statements………..
(a) Ratio analysis
(b) Average analysis
(c) Trend analysis
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 17.
Interpretation of accounts is the………….
(a) art and science of translating the figures
(b) to know financial strengths and weakness of a business
(c) to know the causes for the prevailing performance of business
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
The term ‘Financial Statement’ covers………….
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) Balance sheet and profit and loss statement appropriation account
(c) profit and loss statement and balance sheet
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) profit and loss statement and balance sheet

Question 19.
A technique that is used in comparative analysis of financial statement is…………..
(a) graphical analysis
(b) preference analysis
(c) common size analysis
(d) returning analysis
Answer:
(c) common size analysis

Question 20.
In payment voucher cash or batik account is credited and other ledger account is…………..
(a) debited
(b) Credited
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) debited

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question no. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is a statement of Affairs?
Answer:
A statement of affairs is a statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities on a particular date. The balance of assets are shown on the right side and the balance of liabilities on the left side. This statement resembles a balance sheet. The difference between the total of assets and total of liabilities is taken as capital.
Capital = Assets – Liabilities

Question 22.
From the following details calculate the amount that will be shown as subscription in Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending 31st March, 2017.

Subscription outstanding for the year 2016-17 is Rs 2,400. Subscription for 2016-17 received in 2015-16 was Rs 1,000.
Answer:

Tutorial note:
(i) Subscription for the year 2015-16 Rs 7,500 and for the year 2017-18 Rs 1,500 do not relate to the current year. So they should not be recorded in Income and Expenditure Account.
(ii) Subscription outstanding for the current year 2016-17 is Rs 2.400. it should be added with the’ amount of subscription received during 2016-17.

Question 23.
Mani is a partner, who withdrew Rs 30,000 on 1st September, 2018. Interest on drawings is charged at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings on 31st December, 2018 and show the journal entries by assuming that fluctuating capital method is followed.
Answer:
Mani:
30,000 x \(\frac{6}{100}\) × \(\frac{4}{12}\) = Rs 600
Interest on drawings of Mani = Rs 600

Question 24.
What is goodwill?
Answer:
Goodwill is the good name or reputation of the business which brings benefit to the business. It enables the business to earn more profit. It is the present value of a firm’s future excess earnings.

Question 25.
Arul and Anitha are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3. On 31.3.2018, Ajay was admitted as a partner. On the date of admission, the book of the firm showed a general reserve of Rs 42,000. Pass the journal entry to distribute the general reserve.
Answer:

Question 26.
Mary, Meena and Mariam are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses equally.
Answer:
Mary retired from the partnership on 1.1.2019. On that date, their balance sheet showed accumulated loss of Rs 75,000 on the asset side of the balance sheet. Give the journal entry to distribute the accumulated loss.
Answer:
Journal entry

Question 27.
What is over-subscription?
Answer:
When the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares offered for . subscription it is said to be over subscription.

Question 28.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Working capital statement or schedule of changes in working is prepared to disclose net changes in working capitals on two specific dates (generally two balance sheet dates). It is prepared from current assets and current liabilities.
Working Capital = Current Assets – Current Liabilities

Question 29.
Calculate quick ratio of Auantfe Constructions Ltd from the information given below.

Answer:

Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= 2,50,000 – 50,000 – 15,000
= 1,85,000

Question 30.
What are accounting reports?
Answer:
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find out credit sales from the following information:

Answer:

Question 32.

Subscription of Rs 9,000 is still in arrears for the year 2012-13. Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for 2013-2014.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year 31.03.14

Question 33.
Arul is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the partnership deed, interest on drawings is charged at 12% p.a. During the year ended 31st December 2018 he drew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawings.
Answer:
Interest on drawings = Amount of drawings × Rate of interest × Period of interest

Question 34.
A firm’s profit for the last 5 years were Rs 20,000, Rs 30,000, Rs 40,000, Rs 50,000, and Rs 60,000. Calculated the value of firm’s goodwill on the basis of three years purchase of weighted average profit after using weight of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively.
Answer:

Goodwill = Weighted avg. profit × Number of years purchase
= 46,667 × 3 = Rs 1,40,000 (appr.)

Question 35.
What are the adjustments required at the time of admission of a partner?
Answer:
The following adjustments are necessary at the time of admission of a partner.

1. Distribution of accumulated profits, reserves and losses
2. Revaluation of assets and liabilities
3. Determination of new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio
4. Adjustment for goodwill
5. Adjustment of capital on the basis of new profit sharing ratio

Question 36.
Distinguish between sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:

Question 37.
Anu Company forfeited 200 equity shares of Rs 10 each issued at par held by Thiyagu for non-payment of the final call of Rs 3 per share. The shares were reissued to Laxman at Rs 6 per share. Show the journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:
In the books of Anu Company
Journal entries

Question 38.
From the following particulars, prepare comparative income statement of Arul Ltd.

Answer:
Comparative Income Statement Analysis of Arul Ltd. for the year ended 31.3.2016 to 31.3.2017

Question 39.
From the following statement of profit and loss of Mukesh Ltd. calculate
(i) Gross profit ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio.
Statement of Profit and Loss

Answer:

Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 5,00,000 – 2,00,000
= Rs 3,00,000
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchase of stock in trade + Changes in inventories
= 1,80,000 + 20,000 = Rs 2,00,000

Question 40.
Explain arty five applications of computerised accounting system (CAS).
Answer:
The applications of CAS are as follows

1. Maintaining accounting records
2. Inventory management
3. Pay-roll preparation
4. Report generation
5. Data Import/Export

PART – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Ananth does not keep his books under double entry system. Find the profit or loss made by him for the year ending 31st March, 2019.

Ananth had withdrawn Rs 60,000 for his personal use. He had introduced Rs 17,000 as capital for expansion of his business. Create a provision of 5% on debtors. Plant and machinery is to be depreciated at 10%.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the applications of computerised accounting system?
Answer:
Computerised accounting system refers to the system of maintaining accounts using computer. It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of computer in order to maintain and produce accounting records and reports.
The applications of computerised accounting system are as follows:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In computerised accounting system, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It does not require a large amount of physical space. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
Computerised accounting system facilitates efficient management of inventory, fast moving, slow’ moving and obsolete inventory can be identified. Updated information about availability of inventory, Level of inventory etc, can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Payroll Preparation:
Payroll involves the calculation of amount due to an employee. Pay of an employee may be calculated based on hours/days worked or units produced.

(iv) Report generation:
Computerised accounting system helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

(v) Data import/export:
Accounting data and information can be imported from or exported to other users within the organisation as well as outside the organisation.

(vi) Taxation:
Computerised accounting system helps to compute various taxes and to deduct these and deposit .the same to the Government account.

Question 42 (a).
What are the Sailent Feature of tally ERP.9?
Answer:
(i) A leading accounting package:
The first version of Tally was released in 1988 and through continuous development is now recognised as one of the leading accounting packages across the world with over a quarter million of customer Tally’s market share is more than 90%.

(ii) No accounting codes:
Unlike other computerised accounting packages which require numeric codes. Tally ERP 9 pioneered the “no accounting codes’” concept. Tally ERP 9 users have the freedom to allocate meaningful names in plain english to their data items in the system.

(iii) Compute business solution:
Tally ERP 9 provides a comprehensive solution to the accounting and inventory needs of a business. The packages comprises financial accounting book keeping and inventory accounting. It also has various tools to extract interpret and present data.

(iv) Speed:
It allows the user to maintain multiple companies and with unlimited levels of classification andJgrouping capabilities. It also allows dried down facility from report level to transaction level.

(v) Versatibility:
Tally ERP is suitable for a range of organisations from small grocery stores to large corporations with international locations and operations.

(vi) Online help:
The Tally ERP 9 online help (AH + H) provides instant assistance on basic and advanced feathers or any other relavent topics of Tally ERP. 9.

[OR]

(b) From the following Receipts and Payments account and from the information given below of Ramanathapuram Sports Club, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the year ended 31st December, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.

Additional information:
(j) Capital fund as on 1st January 2018 Rs 30,000.
(ii) Opening stock of sports material Rs 3,000 and closing stock of sports material Rs 5,000.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.12.18

Question 43 (a).
From the following Receipts and Payments account of Yercaud Youth Association, prepare Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st March, 2019 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:

Additional information:
(i) Opening capital fund Rs 20,000.
(ii) Stock of books on 1.4.2018 Rs 9,200.
(iii) Subscription due but not received Rs 1,700.
(iv) Stock of stationery on 1.4.2018 Rs 1,200 and stock of stationery on 31.3.2019, Rs 2,000
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19

[OR]

(b) From the following details of Rakesh, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2019 and a Balance Sheet as on that date.

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
Arulappan and Nallasamy are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 1. On 1st January 2018, their capitals were Rs 20,000 and Rs 10,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following:
(a) Interest on capital is to be allowed at 5% per annum.
(b) Interest on drawings charged to Arulappan and Nallasamy are Rs 200 and Rs 300, respectively.
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to Rs 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
Journal entries

[OR]

(b) Find out the value of goodwill by capitalising super profits:
(a) Normal Rate of Return 10%
(b) Profits for the last four years are Rs 30,000, Rs 40,000, Rs 50,000 and Rs 45,000.
(c) A non-recurring income of Rs 3,000 is included in the above mentioned profit of Rs 30,000.
(d) Average capital employed is Rs 3,00,000.
Answer:

Total profit = 27000 + 40000 + 50000 + 45000 = 162000

Question 45 (a).
Vetri and Ranjit are partners sharing profits in the ratio 3 : 2. Their balance sheet as on 31st December 2017 is as under.

On 1.1.2018 they admit suriya into their firm as a partner on the following arrangements,
(i) Suriya brings Rs 10,000 as capital for 1/4 share of profit
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by 10%
(iii) Debtors to be revalued at Rs 7,500
(iv) Furniture to be revalued at Rs 40,000.
(v) There is an outstanding wages of? 4,500 not yet recorded. Prepare revaluation account, partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Chandru, Vishal and Ramanan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2018 is as follows:

Ramanan retired on 31st March 2019 subject to the following conditions:
(i) Machinery is valued at Rs 1,50,000
(ii) Value of furniture brought down by Rs 10,000
(iii) Provision for doubtful debts should be increased to Rs 5,000
(iv) Investment of Rs 30,000 not recorded in the books is to be recorded now.
Pass necessary journal entries and prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners.
Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Kannan, Rahim and John are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. The balance sheet as on 31st December, 2017 was as follows:

John retires on 1st January 2018, subject to following conditions:
(i) To appreciate building by 10%
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide ? 1,000 for bad debts
(iv) An unrecorded liability of ? 8,000 have been noticed
(v) The retiring partner shall be paid immediately
Prepare revaluation account, partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after retirement.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Sudha Ltd. offered 1,00,000 shares of Rs 10 each to the public payable Rs 3 on application, Rs 4 on share allotment and the balance when required. Applications for 1,40,000 shares were received on which the directors allotted as:
Applicants for 60,000 shares – Full
Applicants for 75,000 shares – 40,000 shares (excess money will be utilised for allotment)
Applicants for 5,000 shares – Nil
All the money due was received. Pass journal entries up to the receipt of allotment.
Answer:

Working note

Question 47 (a).
Prepare common-size statement of financial position of Saleem Ltd as on 31st March, 2017 and 31st March, 2018.

Answer:
Common-size balance sheet of Saleem Ltd as on 31st March, 2017 and 31st March, 2018

[OR]

(b) From the following Balance Sheet of James Ltd. as on 31.03.2019 calculate
(i) Debt-equity ratio
(ii) Proprietary ratio
(iii) Capital gearing ratio
Balance Sheet of James Ltd. as on 31.03.2019

Answer:

Long term debts = Debentures = 3,00,000
Shareholder’s funds = Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 2,00,000 + 1,50,000
= 6,00,000

Funds bearing fixed interest or dividend = Preference share capital + Debentures + Long term borrowings.
= 2,00,000 + 3,00,000
= 5,00,000
Equity shareholder’s funds = Equity share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,50,000
= 4,00,000
Capital gearing ratio = 4 00 000 = \(\frac{500000}{400000}\) = 1.25 : 1