Bhagya

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He saw his older brother devour his first catch.
(a) consume
(b) devein
(c) divide
(d) smell
Answer:
(a) consume

Question 2.
A half-dozen policemen emerged out of the darkness.
(a) charged
(b) exit
(c) appeared
(d) jumped
Answer:
(c) appeared

Question 3.
Harvest was over.
(a) crop
(b) crab
(c) craze
(d) pests
Answer:
(a) crop

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
In fact, I’d say it was easier for us to collaborate and work together.
(a) difficult
(b) calmer
(c) tranquility
(d) quicker
Answer:
(a) difficult

Question 5.
Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete
(b) partial
(c) perfect
(d) whole
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
You will persuade him to come.
(a) urge
(b) dissuade
(c) disembark
(d) distract
Answer:
(b) dissuade

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘goose‘.
(a) goose
(b) gooses
(c) goosies
(d) geese
Answer:
(d) geese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word- ‘lonely‘.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ity
(d) ness
Answer:
(d) ness

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IPKF is ………………………
(a) Institute of Peace Keeping Federation
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force
(c) Intelligent Peace Keeping Force
(d) Indian Peace Keeping Federation
Answer:
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Shelton …………………………………. his jacket and went out.
(a) put on
(b) put down
(c) put off
(d) put aside
Answer:
(c) put off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘bow‘ to form a compound word,
(a) tail
(b) high
(c) rain
(d) hand
Answer:
(c) rain

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The crew started their voyage on ………………… 10 September 2017.
(a) from
(b) at
(c) on
(d) by
Answer:
(c) on

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
When we ………….. the Tasman Sea, we witnessed the brilliant Southern Lights from sea.
(a) will cross
(b) were crossing
(c) is cross
(d) will be crossed
Answer:
(b) were crossing

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Raghu added salt ……………. sugar to the milk.
(a) else
(b) so
(c) instead of
(d) but
Answer:
(c) instead of

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did Holmes want Smith to treat him?
Answer:
Holmes believed Mr. Smith, a plantation man, had foreknowledge of the eastern disease. He alone could cure him. So, he wanted Smith to treat him.

Question 16.
Who is shot at by the grandfather? Why?
Answer:
The zither-cop was shot at by the grandfather because he was the first to go up the stairs when they heard the sound of a creaking in the attic caused by the grandfather turning in the bed.

Question 17.
What did they do when they witnessed something new in their journey?
Answer:
As they were not specialists, whenever they spotted something new in the sea, they googled and browsed information to learn more about the species.

Question 18.
When did Aditya and the narrator go to Bramhapur?
Answer:
Aditya and the narrator were returning from the site of their new factory at Deodarganj. While returning, in the month of Magha, that is January or February by the English calendar, sometime in the middle of winter, around 3.30 p.m. they went to Bramhapur.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“She’s today’s woman. Today’s woman dear.
Love her, respect her, keep her near…”
(а) Describe today’s woman according to the poet.
(b) How should a woman be treated?
Answer:
(a) Today’s woman is a woman bom with determination, ready to take risks in life and is strong in her faith and beliefs.
(b) A woman should be treated with love and respect.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”.
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away”.”
(а) Explain the phrase, ‘dance winter away’.
(b) The ant tells the cricket to “dance the winter away.” Is the usage of the word . ‘dance’ appropriate here? If so, why?
Answer:
(a) The phrase ‘dance winter away’ means dancing all through the winter season.
(b) The word ‘dance’ here means ‘merry making and wasting time.’ It is appropriate here. The irresponsible cricket does not deserve any sympathy.

Question 21.
“But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What do you understand by the word, ‘slip’?
(b) What is the Law by which a machine lives?
Answer:
(a) A slip is nothing but a mistake.
(b) The Law is the way in which the machine is designed and programmed to work when the command is given.

Question 22.
“Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.”
(a)’ Who is referred to as ‘our brothers’ in this stanza?
(b) What lesson can we learn from these lines?
Answer:
(a) The people who live in countries other than ours have been referred to as our brothers.
(b) These lines teach us the lesson of peace, universal brotherhood and harmony.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The novel was read by Mom in one day.
Mom read the novel in one day.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“How will they get here?” asked Kalyani.
Answer:
Kalyani asked me how they would get here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
If you will sit down said Miranda I will carry your logs the while
“If you will sit down, said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Unless you work hard you cannot succeed.
You cannot succeed without working hard.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) her glory / sincere prayers / Kali heard / and appeared / in all / Rama’s / before him
(b) unexpectedly, / instead of / laugh uncontrollably / inspiring awe / made Rama / her form
Answer:
(a) Kali heard Rama’s sincere prayers and appeared before him in all her glory.
(b) Unexpectedly, instead of inspiring awe her form made Rama laugh uncontrollably.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger asks you the way to go to Meenakshi Temple. Help the stranger to reach his/ her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• Go straight on N.S.K. Salai and go past the crossroad connecting P.M. Salai.
• After the second left you will come to R.R. Road.
• You will find Meenakshi temple on the opposite side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section-I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Was the young seagull same at the beginning and at the end of the lesson? Compare and contrast the two kinds of the same seagull in the lesson.
Answer:
No, the young seagull was not the same bird at the beginning and at the end of the lesson. In the beginning, the young seagull used to be all alone on his ledge. His two brothers and his sister had flown away the day before. He had been afraid of flying with them. Whenever he tried to flap his wings, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. His father and mother flew around calling to him shrilly.

They were constantly scolding and taunting him. They were threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. However, the young seagull was more confident and sure of his success in the end. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. After trials and errors, his wings spread outwards. He was soaring gradually downwards forgetting all his hesitations and fears. He could float on the ocean now. His success was welcomed by his family. They were praising him now and their beaks were offering him their scraps of dog-fish.
“Positivity ,confidence and persistence are
key in life – so never give up in life.”

Question 30.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze.

Technology is vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to leam using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players.

Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled. EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate and access the computer. Thus, Technology is a boon to the disabled.
“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too.

One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.
“It’s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 32.
Give an account of the last day of M. Hamel in school.
Answer:
The story described what was just another ordinary day for Franz who started very late for school that morning. Franz, who played truant with French class, feared M. Hamel’s iron rod. He came to the school thinking he would be punished as he had not leamt his lesson on participles. In fact, he was reluctant to go to school. Initially, he thought of spending the bright warm day outdoors enjoying the chirping of birds and seeing the drilling of Prussian soldiers at the back of the sawmill. On the way, Franz passed the Town hall, where he saw a large crowd reading the bulletin board which had been a source of all bad news. Franz rushed to his classroom, overseeing it for the fear of being chided.

When Franz arrived at the school, his classmates were already seated and the teacher had already started teaching. The back benches were occupied by grim and solemn villagers including the Mayor, The Postmaster, Hauser and many others. To his surprise, M. Hamel was in his Sunday clothes. Franz found M. Hamel to be kinder than usual. Franz was shocked to know that it was the last French lesson and the German teacher would start classes the next day.

He was full of regret for not learning his mother tongue and felt a sudden love for French. He even started liking M. Hamel and forgot all about his ruler. When M. Hamel asked Franz to recite the rules of participle, he was petrified. M. Hamel didn’t scold him and remarked that the only problem with people of

Alsace was procrastinating learning. He blamed parents and himself for exploiting children. Hamel then talked of the French language, calling it the most beautiful language in the world. He said that when we were enslaved knowing our mother tongue was similar to having the key to prison. As the church clock bell struck twelve, M. Hamel with a choked throat wrote on the Blackboard Vive La France!, i.e. Long Live France and dismissed the class.
“Our memories of yesterday will last a lifetime.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question  33.
Give summary of the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent also runs. They growl at everything and hence something goes wrong. Even if their station is high or humble, they are known by the name of Grumble. The weather is always at extreme conditions and they scold at each other at both seasons. Everything is topsy-turvey with people who live on the gloomy Complaining street.

Even when they are satisfied with everything, there isn’t a doubt that they would growl about not having anything to grumble about. The strangest thing is not a single person in the Grumble family can accept the family name because no Grumbler will accept that he is a grumbler nor associated with such qualities. They are so contagious that anyone who says with them for a bit too long become a grumbler himself. Hence, it is wise to keep our feet away from Complaining Street.

Therefore, let us learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. One should never belong to the family of Grumble, even if the status changes drastically.
“Be grateful and you won’t grumble.
Grumble and you won’t be grateful.”

Question  34.
‘Some crickets have four legs and some have two’. Elucidate this statement from the poet’s point of view.
Answer:
The poet is comparing the lazy crickets to the two-legged creatures – the human beings. The poetic device Metaphor is perfectly used to fit into the situation. Everyone knows that crickets have four legs. But he says some have two to compare the silly cricket to the two¬legged human-beings who sometimes are as lazy and silly as the cricket in this poem.

The poet wants to suggest that this story is not entirely a fable; rather, it is related to the real world. Surely, some people are as careless and lazy as the cricket is. Likewise, some humans like the cricket also don’t plan out for the future or for the bad times. They just enjoy the present moment. The poet is thus calling such people as mindless as the cricket.
“God gave us the gift of life; it is up to us to give ourselves the gift of living well.”

Question  35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“If the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(i) Mention the figure of speech in the third line.
(it) Pick out thexontrasting words in the above lines.
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iv) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
Answer:
(i) Alliteration is the figure of speech in the third line.
(ii) The contrasting words are ‘youth’ and ‘age’
(iii) The rhyming words are fear and cheer; whole and toll.
(iv) The rhyme scheme is abba.

Question  36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Beside the house sits a tree.
It never grows leaves,
Not in the winter, spring, summer or fall.
It just sits there, never getting small or ever growing tall,
How could this be?
Answer:
Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like thee house since it has no leaves in any of the seasons. The tree is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(if) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (if), (i), (v), (iv)
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(ii) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

One afternoon in the early fall, when Peter was eight years old, his mother called him from his play. “Come, Peter,” she said. “I want you to go across the dike and take these cakes to your friend, the blind man. If you go quickly, and do not stop to play, you will be home again before dark.” The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poof blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea. Then he remembered his mother’s wish that he should return before dark and, bidding his friend goodbye, he set out for home.

Questions
(i) Which word indicates it’s the beginning of the season Autumn?
(ii) What did Peter’s mom want him to do?
(iii) Was the little boy happy to obey his mother’s instruction?
(iv) What was the conversation Peter had with his blind friend?
(v) What was the wish of Peter’s mom?
Answer:
(i) The word ‘fall’ indicates the beginning of the season Autumn.
(ii) Peter’s mother wanted Peter to go across the dike and take the cakes to his blind friend.
(iii) Yes, the boy was happy.
(iv) Peter stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike
and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.
(v) Peter’s mom wanted Peter to return home before dark.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below. Fans and Air Conditioners – to fan away your sweat- to beat the heat.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are a librarian of Chennai Public School, Chennai. Write a letter to the store manager of a bookseller placing order for some story books in English for the school library.
Answer:
Rishabh Kumar
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram Chennai
10th May, 2020
The Store Manager .
Indian Book House
Chennai Dear Sir
Sub: Order for stoiy books
I am the librarian of Chennai Public School, R.K. Puram. Please send me the following story books at the address given above. The books should be suitable for the age group of 10 to 14 years. All the books should be sent via VPP as early as possible:

• The Boy in the Dress by David Walliams 10 copies
• Fantastic Mr Fox by Roald Dahl 10 copies
• The Summer of the Swans by Betsy Byars 10 copies
• The Well: David’s Story by Mildred D. Taylor 10 copies

Thanking you
Yours sincerely
Rishabh Kumar Librarian

Address on the envelope
To
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram
Chennai

Question 41.
You are Pradeep/Asha. As President of the Dramatic Club of your school you have organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of your school. Write a notice in about 50 words, informing the students of your school about this proposed event.
Answer:

Dramatic Club J S S Public School, Erode 16 Aug. 2020 Notice On the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of the school, the Dramatic Club has organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays as per details given below: Date : 30 Aug 20XX Time : 10 a.m. onwards Venue : Ashoka Auditorium Participants : Maximum 7 in a team Last Date for the receipt of Entry forms : 25 Aug. 20XX by 4.00 pm Pradeep/Asha President Dramatic Club,

Question 42.
Write an article in about 150 -200 words on ‘Disaster Management’.
Answer:
Disaster Management
Our country is prone to disasters like floods, drought, cyclones, or earthquakes. We do not . have any clear-cut policy of disaster management nor any force to tackle the situation. Adhoc measures are adopted to cope with every disaster. We wait and watch for others to join the fray. There are heated arguments over jurisdiction—centre or state liability, official assessment and surveys before any help is rushed out to the affected area.

The slow response results in the loss of precious human life and valuable property. We must have clear-cut, well defined guidelines for disaster management. A well-trained task-force having special equipment and trained personnel should be constituted. Its controlling officer should have the authority to  take decisions and ensure their speedy implementation.

Better transport and communication facilities will ensure better results. Bureaucratic set-up should not be allowed to interfere with the work of the disaster-management group.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Concentration of forests is mostly in the hills of western districts and in the Javadi group of hills in Vellore district. Dense forests are also seen in Salem district. More than half of the area in the Nilgiris is under forest. Other districts hold 1% to 5% of area under forests.

Thanjavur being the alluvial plain is suitable for agriculture which has less than 1% of forest cover. The forests of Tamil Nadu have different types of trees. Most of the trees in the state shed their leaves in the dry season. Tamil Nadu has large areas of sandal wood plantations, about 5,88,000 hectares. Hard wood trees are available in the forests of Coimbatore, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.
Notes
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Answer:
Uneven distribution-concentration in western districts, Nilgiris, Javadi hills, Vellore and Salem-other districts have 1-5% forests. Thanjavur only 1% of land under forests.
Different kinds of trees.
Deciduous trees, Hardwood trees, Sandalwood trees and Ordinary trees for firewood available -5,88,000 hectares under sandalwood.
Spread
Hardwood trees-Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Nilgiris Firewood-Madurai, Thanjavur and Coimbatore Rubber-Kanyakumari

Summary

Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Rough Draft
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Forest cover is dense in šter ditticts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1 % of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has goo oefarciwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations. Trees that are used as fuel are found in and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Fair Draft:
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Forest cover is dense in western districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking on the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go to a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and me are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she will mind if I refused her offer.
Answer:
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking in the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go for a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for a walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and I are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she would mind if I refused her offer.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, we who countries strange.
Answer:
Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Prospero overthrown – teenage daughter – isolated island – marooned – companion Ariel, Caliban – appropriated by Antonio – King of Naples – Ferdinand, Antonio – wrecked in sea storm – Prospero’s orders – invisible and spy – Miranda sees Ferdinand – plan works – test Ferdinand’s loyalty – menial tasks – pleasant – propose marriage – shipwrecked crew’ grieve – magical delicious banquet – Ferdinand and Miranda marry.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. There was an island in the sea, the only inhabitants of which were an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda, a very beautiful young lady. She came to this island so young. Prospero had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned in the bodies of large trees.

These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero. He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew and sends Ariel to check on his brother and other inmates of the ship. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. Meanwhile, Ferdinand is brought before Prospero. Miranda wonders what kind of a creature he was as she has not seen any other human beings on the island. Instantly they fall in love for each other. Prospero realises their love and tests Ferdinand’s love for his daughter giving him menial tasks.

Ferdinand is found worthy by Prospero. In the end Antonio finally meets Prospero, he feels remorse for his deeds and begs pardon from Prospero. Prospero forgives him and they all leave to Milan and the wedding of Miranda and Ferdinand commences with delicious banquets.

[OR]

(b) According to the list kept in the Bible, develop the given hints and say what you can infer of Uncle Philip’s collection of stones.
Toni’s fear – iron box explosion – found in his uncle’s Bible – list of the stones, cost – dated two years before uncle’s death – well known – enormous value – curious histories – Empress-Queen Maria Theresa – Blood ruby – murders – unequalled collection – black pearl – queer.

One fine day when Tom was already groping in fear that the iron box may explode with careless handling by someone, found between the leaves of his uncle’s Bible, a numbered list of the stones with their cost. It was dated two years before his uncle’s death. Many of the stones were well known, and their enormous value was also mentioned. Several of the rubies were described with care and curious histories of them were given in detail.

One was said to be the famous “Sunset ruby,” which had belonged to the Empress-Queen Maria Theresa. One was called the “Blood ruby,” not because of the colour but on account of the murders it had occasioned. The pearls were described with care as an unequalled collection. Concerning two of them, they seemed to have done much evil and some good. One, a black pearl, was mentioned in an old bill of sale which seemed queer.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
A long time ago there lived a monster called the sphinx. She had the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird. Her eyes were so fierce that nobody dared to look at her face. The sphinx sat on a cliff outside the city of Thebes. When a man passed by her, she would ask him a riddle. The man had to give the right answer, or the sphinx would eat him up. The riddle was so difficult that no one could answer it. Many men lost their lives and people were afraid to come out of their houses. Then one day a clever man wanted to answer the sphinx.

His name was Oedipus and he was not afraid of the sphinx. The sphinx stopped and asked him a riddle “what walks on four legs in the morning, on two legs at noon and on three legs in the evening?”Oedipus said that it was easy. “You try and answer it!” roared the sphinx. Oedipus said, “The answer is man walks on four legs in his childhood, on two legs when grown up and on three legs during old age”. Hearing the right answer the sphinx was disappointed and very angry. She jumped off the cliff and ended her life.

Questions.
(a) How did the sphinx look like?
(b) What would the sphinx do if a man failed to give the right answer to her riddle?
(c) Why was the sphinx angry?
(d) What is the ‘third leg’ of man in his old age?
Answer:
(a) The sphinx looked like a monster with the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird.
(b) The sphinx would eat up the man if he failed to give the right answer to her riddle.
(c) Hearing the right answer to her riddle from Oedipus, the sphinx was disappointed and very angry
(d) The third leg is invariably the walking stick the old man will be using in his old age.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Mother India
Is there aught you need that my hands withhold.
Rich gifts of raiment or grain of gold?
Lo! I have clung to the East and West Priceless treasures tore from my breast.
And yielded the sons of my stricken womb To the drum – beats of duty, the sabres of doom.
Gathered like pearls in their alien graves Silent they sleep by the Persian waves,
Scattered like shells on Egyptian sands.
They lie with pale brows and brave, broken hands They are strewn like blossoms mown down by chance On the blood-brown meadows of Flanders and France.
Can ye measure the grief of the tears I weep Or compass the woe of the watch I keep?
Or the pride that trills thro’ my heart’s despair And the hope that comforts the anguish of prayer?
And the far and glorious vision I see Of the torn red banners of victory?
When the terror and tumult of hate shall cease And life be refashioned on anvils of peace,
And your love shall offer memorial thanks
To the comrades who fought in your dauntless ranks,
And your honour the deeds of the deathless ones,
Remember the blood of my martyred sons!

Questions.
(a) Why is Mother India proud?
(b) State Mother India’s vision of a new world.
(c) What does Mother India expect?
(d) Pick out words from the poem which is equivalent to
(i) commotion
(ii) friends.
Answer:
(a) Mother India is proud because of her sons’ supreme sacrifice that eternalizes them forever.
(b) Mother India envisions a new world based on peace, love and understanding.
(c) Mother India expects the world to remember the sacrifices made by her sons in the World War with gratitude.
(d) (i) Commotion – tumult
(ii) Friends – comrades

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.
When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
Answer:
(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.
Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by …………….
2. Except the Palayakkarars of ……………. all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.
3. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ……………. for eight years.
4. Bennerman deputed ……………. to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
5. Kattabomman was hanged to death at …………….
6. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the …………….
7. ……………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
8. ……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Answers:

1. Viswanatha Nayaka of Madurai
2. Sivagiri
3. Gopala Nayakar
4. Ramalinganar
5. Kayathar
6. Second Palayakarar war
7. Fateh Hyder (the eldest son of Tipusultan)
8. Colonel. Gillespie

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) UnderColonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

1. They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
2. On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 2.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
The two prominent blocs were Eastern and Western Palayams:

Eastern Palayams:

1. Sattur
2. Nagalapuram
3. Ettayapuram
4. Panchalamkurichi.

Western Palayams:

1. Uthumalai
2. Thallawankottai
3. Naduvakurichi
4. Singampatti
5. Seithur.

Question 3.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:
Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars. Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from sendee.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:

1. With the support of the East India company Arcot Nawab Mohamed Ali wanted to bring Madurai and Tirunelveli regions which were under the command of Nawab Chandra Sahib’s agents.
2. These agents got the support of Tamil Palayakkarars and had close relationship with Puli Thevar.
3. An army was sent under the head of Mahfiizkhan to capture Tirunelveli.
4. Before he station his troops near Kalakadu 2000 soldiers from Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.
5. In the Battle of Kalakadu Mahfiizkhan troops were routed.
6. The organized resistance of the Palayakkarars under Puli Thevar gave an opportunity to the English to interfere directly in the affairs of Tirunelveli.

Question 5.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:
The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 6.
Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Answer:

1. The proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British.
2. Many Palayakkars rebelled together, especially Chinna Maruthu collected nearly 20,000 men to challenge British.
3. But the Rajas of Pudukkottai, Ettayapuram and Thanjavur supported British.
4. So, in May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichy rebels failed.
5. Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generation.
6. The rebellion of Marudhu brothers is a land mark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
7. It is also known as “South Indian Rebellion”.

Question 7.
Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
Answer:
Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Velunachiyar

(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
Answer:
The military chief of Velunachiyar was ‘Thandavarayanar’.

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
Answer:
Velunachiyar had training in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?
Answer:
She married Muthu Vadugar the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?
Answer:
Her daughter name was Vellachinachiyar.

Question 2.
Dheeran Chinnamalai
(а) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai was born in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
Answer:
Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Mohammed Ali

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
Answer;
He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.
Answer:
Several events led to the conflicts between Veerapandiya Kattabomman and the East India Company.
Event 1:

1. Under the provisions of a treaty signed in 1781 with Mysore Sultan the East India Company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi where Veerapandiya Kattabommman was the ruler.
2. The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.
3. The collectors adopted force and humiliated the Palayakaras to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Event 2: Collector Jackson against the wish of the Madras Government wanted to send an army to collect the revenue dues from Kattabomman.

1. The arrogant English collector ordered Kattabomman to meet him in. Ramanathapuram. But Kattabomman’s attempts became futile as Jackson refused to meet him.
2. At last Kattabomman was made to stand for three hours before the haughty collector in Ramanathapuram.
3. Sensing danger Kattabomman with his brother’s help escaped from that place.
4. Kattabomman on his return to Panchalamkurichi represented to the Madras Council about his ill treatment by the collector Jackson.
5. Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798 and proved that he was not committed any offence.
6. He cleared almost all the revenue arrears.
7. Jackson was dismissed from his service.

Event 3: Inspired by the Marudhu brothers Tiruchirapaili proclamation Kattabomman was interested to join the confederacy.

1. Kattabomman and Marudhu brothers jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
2. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri who was a tributary to the company.
3. So the company considered Kattabomman’s expedition as a challenge to their authority.
4. Under the command of Bannerman on 1st September 1799 an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.
5. The evasive reply of Kattabomman made Bannerman to attack the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
6. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.
7. The Britsh put a prize on his head.
8. Betrayed by the Rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was arrested.
9. During the trial before all the Palayakkarars he bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.
10. He was hanged to death at Kayatharu near Tirunelveli on 16th October.
11. His courageousness and bravery was enacted as ballads by Indian folks.

Question 2.
Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
Answer:
In May 1801, the English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchirappalli. The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil. But they were defeated by the forces of the English. In the end, the able commanders of the English company helped. Unfortunately, the rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
Outcomes

• The Marudhu brothers were executed in the fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram on 24 October 1801.
• Oomaithurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkuruchi on 16 November 1801.
• Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.
• Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generations.

Question 3.
Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.
Answer:
Causes for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806:

1. The Sepoys in the British Indian Army had a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.
2. The English officers disrespect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.
3. Many sepoys families were in dire economic straits due to out break of famine in 1805 and the unsettled conditions caused by new land tenures.
4. The imprisonment of Tipu’s sons and the family members in Vellore Fort.

The immediate cause for the revolt was triggered by the new military regulations introduced by the Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.

1. The Indian soldiers were not allowed to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.
2. They were asked to shave their beard and trim the moustache to look smart.
3. The most resented cause was the leather cockade made of animal skin.
4. The sepoys were compelled to wear the turban and those who refused were severely punished.
5. In 10^th July 1806 in the early hours guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the regiments 1^st and 23^rd raised their standard of revolt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.
Answer:
Few names of the patriotic leaders of the’early revolt against the British mle in Tamil Nadu are listed below.

1. Subramaniya Bharathiyar
2. Kumaraswamy Mudaliar (popularly known as Tiruppur Kumaran)
3. Velunachiyar
4. Vanchinathan
5. Veerapandia Kattabomman
6. V.O. Chidambaram
7. Dheeran Chinnamalai
8. Subramaniya Siva
9. The Maruthu Pandiyar brothers (Periya Maruthu, Chinna Maruthu)
10. Puli Thevar

Students can collect pictures of the above mentioned patriotic leaders and paste it in a notebook, prepare an album and submit to the teacher. Below the picture, student should also write the name of the patriotic leader below the picture.

If the student is very good in drawing skills, then instead of pasting pictures, they can also draw two or three of the patriotic leaders images and write their name below and prepare an album. Students can also use their creativity, imagine a battle field and can portrait that also.

Question 2.
Stage play visualising the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.
Answer:
Stage play – Conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman.
Participants: Characters – Kattabomman, Subramanianar, Oomaithurai, Collector Jackson, Company officials soldiers.

Scence – 1 Kattabomman’s Court.

A company official reading the notice issued by collector Jackson. (Kattabomman’s soldier asking permission to let in the company official)

Sepoy : Maharaja, English East India Company’s servant brought a message for you. Shall I ask him to let in. I seek your permission.

Kattabomman : Allow him. (Servant entry)

Kattabomman: What message you have brought?

Servant : Maharaja (Reading the message)
I, “The collector of Ramnad” issuing order to Kattabomman to meet in person.

Kattabomman : yes you can go

Scene – 2

Kattabomman and his Minister and some soldiers going to meet Jackson after hearing he was camping at placard showing courtallam.

Collector has gone Srivilliputtur (Voice)

Placard showing Srivilliputur (You are asked to come to Ramanathapuram)

Scene – 3 (Ramanathapuram Fort)

Kattabomman waiting outside the gate to meet the Collector. After lhour he was asked to get inside the court of collector Jackson.

Jackson: Not noticing him wantedly I am
Kattabomman: I am kattabomman who is collector Jackson.
Jackson: Got angry Hay who are you nian calling me by name?
Kattabomman: I am Kattabomman wants to know who you are? Asking me the question.
(Further got irritated)
Jackson: I am collector Jackson. Are you the defiant Kattabomman.
Kattabomman: I want to know for what reason I was asked to come over here. As a coward ran and came to Ramanathapuram Mr. Jackson.
Jackson: Shut up man. You have the charge on you that you didn’t pay neither the tribute not the tax arrears.
(Irritated by his command)
Kattabomman: Whom do you expect to pay tribute or Taxes. Me? Why I should pay taxes. It’s our land the nature is giving water to the field. We the people till the land, sow the seeds plant the saplings watered the field, nurtured the plants, removed the weeds. What work you have done for asking the tax.
Jackson: Hay man Kattabomman you are talking too much, Your region belong to us.
Kattabomman: (Laughing) Is it so? Who gave you the right of possession?
Jackson: (Furiated yelling) Guards arrest him.
(Guards entry)
Kattabomman: Sensing the danger took out the sword (fighting and escaping from that place)
(screen)

Question 3.
A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.
Answer:
Common causes for the Revolt at Vellore and Revolt of 1857.

Vellore Revolt:

1. Most of the soldiers in the British army were well trained soldiers from various Palayams. Hindus and Muslims majority Indian Troops.
2. Resentment over low salary promotion prospects
3. New dress code, rules and regulations affected the religions sentiments.
4. Uprising was well planned and raised by the soldiers at Vellore Fort shot down many colonels
5. Immediate cause introduction of Agnew Turban- a leather hat made of animal skin.
6. Soldiers were forced to wear the Turban.
7. Spread to other areas Bellary, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Sankagiri, Walajabad, Nandy durg.
8. Fateh hyder Tipu’s son was declared as their leader.

Revolt of 1857:

1. Most of the soldiers were from Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims. Out numbered the English officers.
2. Same point of view low salary inferior out look of the English officers.
3. Conversion activities interference in the Indian culture affected their sentiments.
4. Revolt originated from Bengal regiment.
5. Introduction of Greased cartridges smeared with animal fat.
6. Indian soldiers were compelled to use the cartridges.
7. Spead to Kanpur, Delhi, Oudh, Jhansi, Lucknow, Bihar etc.
8. Emperor Bahadhur Shah II of Delhi was made to sit on the throne and declared as the emperor of India.

These points clearly shows that the Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions And Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Palayakkarars in Tamil refers to the:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.
(b) Revenue collectors of the British
(c) Rebels of the Carnatic region
(d) Commanders of Nawab of Arcot
Answer:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

Question 2.
Palayakkarars police duties were known as ……………….
(a) Padikaval
(b) Village Kaval
(c) Irravu Kaval
Answer:
(a) Padikaval

Question 3.
The first female ruler of Sivagangai who resisted the colonial power of the British:
(a) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai
(b) Rani Mangammal
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Kuyili
Answer:
(c) Velunachiyar

Question 4.
Puli Thevar was defeated by …………… in 1767.
(a) Khan Sahib
(b) Captain Campbell
(c) Hyder Ali
Answer:
(b) Captain Campbell

Question 5.
The British commander who put down the Vellore revolt was:
(a) Bannerman
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Sir John cradock
(d) Colonel Gillespie
Answer:
(d) Colonel Gillespie

Question 6.
Who was Mahfuzkhan?
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot
(b) Minister of the Nawab of Arcot
(c) Brother of Yusuf Khan
(d) Indian sepoy in the British army
Answer:
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

Question 7.
Veerapandiya Kattabomman was the Palayakkarar of :
(a) Sivagangai
(b) sivagiri
(c) Madurai
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(d) Panchalamkurichi

Question 8.
Where did Kattabomman escape?
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Tarapuram
Answer:
(c) Pudukottai

Question 9.
On his return to Panchalamkurichi ………………….. represented to the Madras council.
(a) Kattabomman
(b) Marudhu brothers
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Dheeran chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Kattabomman

Question 10.
Which city was annexed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Panchalamkuruchi
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 11.
Jackson was dismissed from service and a new collector ………………….. was appointed.
(a) Syed
(b) Clarke
(c) William Brown
(d) S.R Lushington
Answer:
(d) S.R Lushington

Question 12.
Kattabomman cleared all the revenue arrears leaving only a balance of ………………….. pagodas.
(a) 1180
(b) 1080
(c) 1801
(d) 1108
Answer:
(b) 1080

Question 13.
Yadhul Nayak was the Palayakkarar of:
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Dindigul
(c) Anamalai
(d) Kamudhi
Answer:
(c) Anamalai

Question 14.
Oomathurai and Sevathaiah the two brothers of Kattabomman escaped from the Palayamkottai prison to:
(a) Kamudhi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Kerala
(d) Thiruchirappalli
Answer:
(a) Kamudhi

Question 15.
………………….. involved in setting the disputes in the Kongu region.
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai
(b) Velunachiyar
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word ………………….. means a domain a military camp or a little kingdom.
2. The Palayakkararsystem was in practice during the rule of ………………….. of warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom.
3. The police duties of Palayakkarars were known as …………………..
4. The Palayakkarars of Sivagiri, Ettayapuram and Panchalamkurichi did not join the confederacy of …………………..
5. The unity of the Palayakkarars began to break with the …………………..
6. In 1772 under the command of ………………….. stormed the kalaiyar kovil palace.
7. The South Indian confederacy was organised by
8. The forces of Diwan of Mysore and Chinnamalai fought at
9. The failed because there was no immediate help from outside.
10. The was the predecessor of the great Revolt of 1857.
11. Under poligar system was given for valuable military services rendered by any individual.
12. The began to consolidate and extend its influence after the three carnatic wars in Tamil Nadu.
13. ………………….. the Minister of viswanatha Nayaka helped him to introduce Palayakkarar system in Tamil Nadu.
14. The Palayakkarar system lasted for from ………………….. the Nayaks of Madurai.
15. Within their respective Palayams Palayakkarars function as ………………….. authorities.
16. Traditionally there were ………………….. Palayakkarars created by Nayak rulers.
17. Many Palayakkarars refused to pay taxes to the company as their lands handed down to them over …………………..
18. The company branded ………………….. as rebels.
19. Mahfuzkhan was the brother of …………………..
20. ………………….. was sent with a contingent army under colonel Heron to capture Tirunelveli and Madurai.
21. Mahfuzkhan had the support of ………………….. and ………………….. from the carnatic to capture Tirunelveli.
22. Two thousand soldiers from ………………….. joined the forces of Puli Thevar at kalakad.
23. The Palayakkarars of Tirunelveli under Puli Thevar constantly rebelled against
24. Yusufkhan’s (Khan sahib) original name was ………………….. before his conversion to Islam.
25. The ………………….. from Tiruchirappalli arrived in September 1760 to assist Yusufkhan to attack Puli Thevar.
26. The battering of ………………….. by Yusufkhan took two months.
27. Expel of French power from Pondicherry made Travancore, ………………….., Uthumalai and ………………….. to support the English.
28. The ………………….. was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764 by the company.
29. Captain ………………….. defeated Puli Thevar in 1767.
30. Puli Thevar escaped and died in …………………..
31. Velunachiyar was under the protection of Gopala Nayak for ………………….. years.
32. At the age of 16 ………………….. was married to Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.
33. Dalavay means …………………..
34. In behalf of Velunachiyar Dalavai ………………….. wrote a letter to Sultan Hyder AN seeking military assistance.
35. Hyder Ali ordered his commandant ………………….. in Dindigul Fort to provide required military assistance to Velunachiyar.
36. Kuyili faithful friend of Velunachiyar led a unit of women soldiers named after …………………..
37. ………………….. was the shepherd girl who was killed by the company for not divulging information on kuyili the commander.
38. The company’s administrators ………………….. and ………………….. considered Kattabomman a man of peaceful disposition.
39. To meet out the expenses of Nawab and his family ………………….. of the revenue (taxes) collection was allowed.
40. The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was ………………….. pagodas in 1798.
41. The did not give permission to collector Jackson to send an army to Panchalamkurichi to collect dues from Kattabomman.
42. Kattabomman’s Minister ………………….. accompanied him to Ramanathapuram to met collector Jackson.
43. In a clash at the gate of Ramanathapuram Fort English officer ………………….. was killed.
44. In may 1799 ………………….. issued orders from Madras for the advance of forces to Tirunelveli.
45. Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on …………………..
46. ………………….. gathered all the secrets of the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
47. In a clash at ………………….. Sivasubramanianar was taken a prisoner.
48. Kattabomman escaped to …………………..
49. ………………….. was executed at Nagalapuram on 13th September.
50. Kattabomman was hanged from a ………………….. in the old Fort of Kayathar.

Answers:

1. Palayam
2. Prataba Rudhra
3. Padikaval or Arasukaval
4. Puli Thevar
5. elimination of French power from Pondicherry
6. Lt. Col Bon Jour
7. Marudhu brothers of Sivagangai
8. Noyyal river bed
9. Vellore Revolt
10. Vellore Revolt
11. Palayam
12. English East India Company
13. Ariyanathar
14. two hundred years
15. independent sovereign
16. 72
17. sixty generations
18. defiant Palayakkarars
19. Nawab of Arcot
20. Mahfuzkhan
21. cavalry and foot soldiers
22. Travancore
23. Nawab’s authority
24. Marudhunayagam
25. artillary
26. Nerkkatumseval Fort
27. Seithur, Surandai
28. Yusufkhan
29. Campbell
30. exile
31. eight
32. Velunachiyar
33. Military chief
34. Thandavarayanar
35. Syed
36. Udaiyal
37. Udaiyal
38. James London, Colin Jackson
39. one- sixth
40. 3310
41. Madras Government
42. Sivasubramanianar
43. Lietenant Clarke
44. Lord Wellesley
45. 5th September 1799
46. Ramalinganar
47. Kallarpatti
48. Pudukottai
49. Sivasubramanianar
50. Tamarind tree

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with Hyder Ali.
(ii) Hyder Ali provided the required military assistance to Velunachiyar
(iii) A fierce battle was fought at Devadanampatti.
(iv) Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived in Ramanathapuram.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dheeran chinnamalai was trained by the French.
(ii) He launched Gwerilla attack and evaded capture by the British.
(iii) He was born at Coimbatore,
(iv) He refused to accept the rule of the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Coimbatore was annexed at the end of the Anglo – Mysore was in 1799.
(ii) The status of Raja of Thanjavur had been reduced to that of a vassal.
(iii) English East India company acquired the revenue districts of salem and Dindigul from Tipu.
(iv) A treaty was forced on Marudhu brothers on the charge of disloyalty.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Kattabomman took an expedition to Sivagiri to influence to join Marudhu brothers.
Reason (R): Palayakkarars of Sivagiri was a tributory to the company of the British. They refuse to join.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is wrong ans R is correct
(d) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Chinna Marudhu collected 20,000 men to challenge the English army and many Palayakkarars joined, but failed.
Reason (R): Divide and Rule Policy of the British split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The Nawab of Arcot gave the power of collecting revenue to the English East India company from southern Palayakkarars.
Reason (R): The company branded the defiant Palayakkarars as rebels.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation to A.
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is wrong

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Carnatic treaty.
Answer:
The suppression of the Palayakkarar rebellions of 1799 and 1800-1801 resulted in the liquidation of all the local chieftains of Tamil Nadu. Under the terms of the Carnatic treaty of 31 July 1801. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakarar system to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 2.
Why was the Revenue collection of the southern Palayakkarars was given to the company Rule?
Answer:

1. Nawab of Arcot had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the camatic wars.
2. When the debts exceeded his capacity to pay, he gave the Revenue Collection Authority to the company rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hyder Ali.
Answer:
Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore. He was a bitter enemy of England. He was born in 1772. Though he started his career as a soldier, he rose to the position of commander-in-chief. In 1766, when the Raja of Mysore died, Hyder Ali proclaimed himself as the ruler and became the Sultan of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was the son of Hyder Ali.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports of Puli Thevar. When did these forts come under the control of Yusuf Khan?
Answer:
The three major ports of Puli Thevar were Nerkattumseval, Vasudevanallur and Panayur. In 16th May 1761 they came under the control of Yusufkhan.

Question 5.
What does the word ‘Palayam’ mean? What does the Palayakkarar in Tamil refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘Palayam’ means a domain, military camp, or a little kingdom. The Palayakkarar in Tamil refers to the holder of a little Kingdom as a feudatory to a greater sovereign.

Question 6.
Write about the brave act of Kuyili the friend of Velunachiyar.
Answer:

1. Kiyili was a faithful friend of velunachiyar.
2. She led the unit of women soldiers.
3. Kuyili is said to have walked in to the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire, destroying all the ammunition.

Question 7.
Why did the Nawab of Arcot borrow money from the East India company? What happened when his debts exceeded his capacity to pay?
Answer:
The Nawab of Arcot borrowed money from the East India company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars. When his debts exceeded his capacity to pay, the power of collecting the land revenue dues from southern Palayakkarars was given to the East India company.

Question 8.
How the Rebellion of Marudhu brothers referred as and who participated in the rebellion?
Answer:
In the British records the rebellion of Marudhu brothers (1800) is referred as the “Second Palayakkarar war”.

Those who participated in the Rebellion were: Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai, Gopala Nayak of a Dindigul, Kerala verma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaj i of Mysore.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Siege of Panchalamkuruchi
(a) Why did Lord Wellesley issue orders in May 1799?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley issued orders in May 1799 for the advance of forces from Tiruchirapalli, Thanjavur, and Madurai to Tirunelveli.

(b) Who commanded the troops?
Answer:
Major Bannerman commanded the troops.

(c) What commanded the troops?
Answer:
On 1st September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) Why did Bannerman depute Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort?
Answer:
Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort so that he could convey a message asking him (Kattabomman) to surrender.

Question 2.
Consequences of Vellore Revolt

(a) Where was Tipu’s sons imprisoned after the revolt?
Answer:
Tipu’s sons were sent to Calcutta after the revolt.

(b) What was the reward given to the people who suppressed the revolt?
Answer:
Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas. The officers and men engaged in the suppression were rewarded with prize money and promotion.

(c) Name the English Generals who were removed from their office?
Answer:
Col. Sir John Cradock, Adjutant General Agnew and Governor William Bentinck were removed from their office.

(d) What was withdrawn after the revolt?
Answer:
The military regulations were withdrawn after the revolt.

Question 3.
New Military Regulations
(a) What were the Indian soldiers asked to do according to new’ military regulation?
Answer:
According to the new military regulation the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked.

(b) How did the new turban add fuel to fire?
Answer:
The new turban was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

(c) How did the sepoys react to the new turban?
Answer:
The sepoys refused to wear the new turban.

(d) What was the Company’s reaction?
Answer:
The company remained silent. It did not pay any notice to the sepoys grievances.

Question 4.
The Seige of Panchalamkurichi

(a) From which regions forces were sent to Tirunelveli?
Answer:
From the regions of Tiruchirappali, Thanjavur and Madurai sent to Tirunelveli.

(b) Which troops joined the British later?
Answer:
The Travancore troops joined the British later.

(c) What was served on Kattabomman and for what purpose?
Answer:
An ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) What was the response of Kattabomman?
Answer:
Kattabomman refused to surrender.

Question 5.
Proclamation of 1801

(a) Who issued the proclamation of 1801?
Answer:
Marudhu pandiyar issued the proclamation of Independence 1801.

(b) Why did they issue the proclamation?
Answer:
The proclamation was an early call to the Indians to unite.

(c) Where was the copies of proclamation pasted?
Answer:
The proclamation was pasted on the walls of Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of Srirangam temple.

(d) From where did the forces reinforced to fight with the revolters?
Answer:
British reinforcements were rushed from Bengal, Ceylon and Malaya.

Question 6.
Grievances of Indian Soldiers

(a) Who deliberate on the future course of action against the company Government?
Answer:
The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains.

(b) What was the culmination of the Palayakkarar wars?
Answer:
The Vellore Revolt of 1806

(c) What were the resentment of British Indian army?
Answer:
The British Indian army had a strong resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

(d) What bothered the Indian sepoys much?
Answer:
The new recruitment of the sepoys to the army.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny.
Answer:

• The British administration prohibited the Hindu soldiers from smearing religious marks on their foreheads.
• They ordered the Muslims to shave their beard and trim their moustache.
• This created a strong resentment among the soldiers.
• Instigated by the sons of Tipu, the revolting soldiers gathered in the Vellore fort, under the pretext of a marriage function.
• At midnight the soldiers surrounded the fort and killed most of the Europeans.
• They unfurled the flag of Tipu over the fort.
• Fateh Hyder, the second Son of Tipu was declared as the ruler.
• But the revolt was crushed by the British.

Question 2.
How did Velunachiyar able to get back her territory (Sivagangai)?
Answer:

1. Velunachiyar during her period of hiding organised an army.
2. She succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar (Virupachi near Dindigul) but Hyder Ali as well.
3. She was affluent in Urdu. Velunachiyar explained in detail in urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.
4. She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English.
5. Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigal fort to provide the necessary military assistance.
6. Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored ammunition.
7. With military assistance from Gbpala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.
8. She was crowned as queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.
9. She was the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Dindigul League.
Answer:

1. The famous Dindigul league was headed by Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of virupachi.
2. He formed the league with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and poojai Nayak of Devadanapatti.
3. He drew the inspiration from Tipu Sultan, who sent a deputation to show his camaraderie.
4. He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined Oomaidurai, Kattabomman’s brother.
5. He put up a fierce fight at Aanamalai hills.
6. The local peasants gave him full support.
7. But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in 1801.

Question 4.
Give an account of Marudhu brothers Rebellion of 1800.
Answer:

1. Despite the suppression of Kattabomman’s revolt in 1799 rebellion broke out again in 1800.
2. In the British records it is referred to as the second Palayakkarar war.
3. In April 1800 the confederacy consisting of Marudhu Pandiyars of Sivagangai, GopalaNayak of Dindigul, Kerala verma of malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore met at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the company.
4. The Uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to Ramanathapuram and Madurai.
5. The company got wind of it and declared war on Krishnappa Nayak of Mysore, Kerala Verma of Malabar and others.
6. The Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam, and Tarapuram were caught and hanged.
7. In February 1801, the two brothers of Kattabomman, Oomathurai and Sevathaiah escaped from Palayamkottai prison and Chinna Marudhu took them to Siruvayal his capital.
8. The English demanded the Marudhu Pandiyars to hand over fugitives but they refused.
9. Col.Agnew and Col.Innes marched on Sivagangai.
10. In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of independence the Tiruchirappalli proclamation.
11. The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.

VIII. Map Study

Mark important centres of Early revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu.

Map: Centres of Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jvotiba Phule
(d) Ayvankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

II. Fill in the blanks

1.  …………….. founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ……………..
3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ……………..
4. Gulumgir was written by ……………..
5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ……………..
6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ……………..
7. …………….. was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
8. …………….. brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ……………..

Answers:

1. Ramalinga Adigal
2. M.G.Ranade
3. Jyothika Phule
4. Jyothika Phule
5. Vivekanandha
6. Singh Sabha
7. Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
8. Jyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

1. In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
2. He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
3. Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
4. Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and the Deccan Educational Society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali brought social tremendous changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants, This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established in 1865, “Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sanga” which means Society for pure truth in Universal self-hood. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many western eductated young Bengalis. Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
Reformist movement means a movement to reform (or) bring positive changes in the Social or religious institution of a society.

Revival movement means to give a new life to the social or religious institution of a society which seems to be dying or being diluted.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj raised voice against:

1. Caste system
2. Dowry
3. Ill-treatment of women
4. Polygamy
5. Infanticide

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by -Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows. He opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 9.
What was the impact of IyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka?
Answer:
Jyothee Thassar went to Sri Lanka in 1898 and converted into Buddhism. In the same year, he founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras to construct the rational religious philosophy through Buddhist religion. He argued that the so-called untouchables were orginally Buddhists who were sligmatised by Brahminism. He stated that the revival of Buddhism could leberate the people from the evil of caste practice that afflicted the Hindu society.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of this movement, was to improve the community of Muslims by giving them education, especially is western education and take up government services.

(ii) Who is considered the soul-of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of this movement

(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
English books were translated into Urdu. So that the interest of the Muslims would be best served if it is in Urdu and to concentrate on it.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
The college was raised to the status of a University in 1920 was Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental college.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
It is showing compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarupta are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
‘Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ means ‘Society for Pure Truth in Universal self-hood.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
He established a free feeding houses for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(i) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The organizers of Deoband movement was the orthodox Muslim Ulema.

(ii) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
(a) The twin objective of this movement were propagating the pure teaching of the Quran and the Hadith.
(b) Encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and the un- islamic elements.

(iii) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulema under the leadership of Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid Ahamad Gangotri founded the school at Deoband in U.R

(iv) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
The Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (Fatwa) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisation called the United Patriotic Association and The Muhammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:
The Indian reformists were quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits to critical scrutiny. Instead they attempted to harmonise both Indian and Western cultures. However, their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female infanticide, and child marriage, and all kinds of superstitious religious beliefs. Reformist movements like the Brahmo Samaj, the Prathana Samaj and the Aligarh Movement. These movements brought considerable reforms in the contemporary society.

Revivalist movements tended to revive former customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past. The Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement, organised by the orthodox Muslim Ulimas other such movements included the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission.

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

1. Introduction of English Education made the Indians think that the British aim is to produce English educated middle class clerks.
2. The People came under the influence of Western ideas and thoughts.
3. The Propaganda of Christianity in India which served Britains imperial interests.
4. Many Indian scholars such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen contributed to bring a change in the social institutions of the country.
5. The Reformists were deeply concerned with the existed social evils like sati, child marriage and Polygamy.
6. Following the organisational structure of Christian missionaries, Indian reformers wanted to establish reform movements.
7. All over India, there set to begin a social awakening on the eradication of terrible caste tyranny.
8. The reformers strived hard to bring back the glorious past of India.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.
Answer:
Ramakrishna Paramhamsa and Vivekananda have played a big role in regenerating the Indian society.

Ramakrishna Paramhamsa: He was a simple priest of Dakshineshwar near Calcutta. He gained popularity in the latter half of the nineteenth century. He emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhagan. He was an ardent worshipper of goddess Kali. In his view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if practised, would lead to salvation. He said, “Jiva in Siva” (all living beings are God). They need service not mercy service for man, must be regarded as God. He attracted educated youth who were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organisations such as the Brahmo Samaj.

Swami Vivekananda: He was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramhamsa. He emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society. His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relations to the materialistic achievements of the west. He suggested that the lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were traditionally excluded. His activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many western educated young Bengalis. Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19^th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Solution:

1. The position of women in India during the 19^th century was miserable. They were not treated equal to men and they were denied rights.
2. The Social reformers of the 19th century played a significant role in bringing an awakening to the people that women’s participation will strengthen the society.
3. The reformers strongly advocated education for women.
4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy with the help of the Governor General of British, William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.
5. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry and wanted polygamy to come to an end. He also raised voice against child marriage.
6. Reformer Vidyasagar led a movement by which ‘Widows Remarriage Reform Act’ of 1856 was intended
7. to improve the lot of child widows and save them perpetual widowhood.
8. Reformer Jyothiba Phule opened Orphanages and homes for widows.
9. Sikh Reform movement prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
10. Reformer Iyothee Thessar considered education as an important tool for empowerment for women and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools for the Untouchables in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Debate Social evils of 19^th century with those of present day.
Answer:
The list below shows the social evil of 19^th century and of the present day. The students should form themselves as separate groups one supporting the 19th century and the other supporting present day. The judgement of the debate can be.

There should be great reformers like that of the 19^th century and eradicate the social evils of today. Education itself is a great reformer that should awaken the minds of the young children of today for not involving themselves in any of the social evil nor they see others doing it.

Social evils of 19^th century: Child Marriage, superstitious beliefs, Sati, not allowing widows to remarry denying education for women, caste differences, untouchability, Brahman domination.

Social evils of present day: Female Infanticide Dowry system, sexual harassment of women, (or) women safety, Domestic violence (or) violence at home . Drug trafficing, pollution (Air, sound and water) Hygiene and sanitation. Disobeying rules,everywhere and anywhere.

Question 2.
Students can write an assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.
Answer:
Assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.

Brahmo Samaj founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy denounces image worship and the caste system. In the 19^th century the society benefitted by this social reform. The movement lost force in the 20^th century its fundamentals are still accepted by the society.

Ramakrishna Mission: The Mission carries out extensive educational and Philanthropic work in India. They work on the principle of selfless work done with dedication to God. As of 2016, the Mission have 182 centers all over the world (136 in India, 13 in USA, 13 in Bangladesh, 2 in Russia) .Besides these, there are private centers all over the world run by the followers of Sri Ramakrishna and Vivekananda. The Mission has received numerous awards throughout its lifetime.

Theosophical society: The Theosophical society at Adyar is a beautiful campus with influence since its founders first arrived here in 1882. The society helps the nation even today by running Olcott Memorial High school in Tamil Nadu. They extend their help by various activities at times of disasters especially Tsunami in 2004. Now in Adyar , open all days except Saturday, Sunday public hoildays.

Arya Samaj: Arya Samaj established a chain of DAV educational institutions for the education of both boys and girls. It represented a form of national awakening of the Indian people. It adopts the programme of mass education, elimination of sub-castes and equality of men and women.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was one of the earlier reformers influenced by the western ideas to initiate reforms.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) M.G.Ranade
(d) Atma Ram Pandurang.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 2.
Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829, to abolish “Sati” due to the efforts of
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant
(b) Lala Hansray
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 3.
Arya Samaj movement initiated its movement in ………………
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Question 4.
The headquarters of the Rama Krishna Mission is at
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Belur
(c) Melur
Answer:
(b) Belur

Question 5.
Prarthana Samaj was founded in ………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 6.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the
(a) Aligarh movement
(b) Muslim League
(c) Theosophical Society
Answer:
(a) Aligarh movement

Question 7.
……………… was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramahansa
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Atma Ram Pandurang
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer:
(a) Vivekananda

Question 8.
A great socialist reformer from Kerala is
(a) Sree Narayana Guru
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Sai
Answer:
(a) Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha ………………
(a) 1849
(b) 1851
(c) 1850
(d) 1862
Answer:
(b) 1851

Question 10.
The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Suddhi movement
(c) National movement
Answer:
(b) Suddhi movement

Question 11.
Iyothee Thassar called the ……………… as Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar.
(a) Untouchables
(b) Parsis
(c) Akali
(d) Sikhs
Answer:
(a) Untouchables

Question 12.
……………… criticized the rule of British as the rule of White Devils.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal
(c) Furdunji Naoroji
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 13.
……………… considered education as a powerful tool for empowerment and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Vaikunda Swamigal
(d) Sree Narayan Guru
Answer:
(b) Iyothee Thassar

Question 14.
……………… raised funds and campaigned to educate the lower caste of Pulaya people.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ayyankali

Question 15.
……………… was called respectfully by his followers as Ayya.
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Namdhari
Answer:
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 16.
……………… launched the Satyashodak Samaj to stir the non-Brahmin masses to self-respect and ambition.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule.
(c) Narayana Guru
(d) Annie Besant
Answer:
(b) Jyotiba Phule.

Question 17.
……………… started a number of DAV Schools.
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Theosophical Society
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 18.
……………… worked mainly for the Ezhava community of Kerala.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) M.G. Ranade
Answer:
(b) Sree Narayan Guru

Question 19.
Deoband movement was a ……………… movement.
(a) Reform
(b) Revival
(c) Anti-Reform
(d) Anti-Revival
Answer:
(b) Revival

Question 20.
Rast Goftar was the main voice of ……………… movement.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) Parsi
(d) Vaikundar
Answer:
(c) Parsi

Question 21
……………… condemned the religious custom of animal sacrifice.
(a) Iyothee Thassar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Ramalinga
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Vaikundar

Question 22.
“I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honor, their hearts weary, and I grew weak” who said this”?
(a) Vallalar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Iyothee Thassar
(d) Deoband
Answer:
(a) Vallalar

Question 23.
……………… and ……………… are the Socio-religious movement among the Sikhs.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) (a), (b) and Akaii movement
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 24.
……………… was the movement founded in USA and later shifted to India,
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Theosophical Society

Question 25.
……………… established the Khalsa college for the Sikhs in Amritsar.
(a) Namdhari
(b) Nirankari
(c) Singh Sabha
(d) Akaii
Answer:
(c) Singh Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks

1. English Education was introduced by British with the arm of producing …………….. in India.
2. In the 19th Century …………….. had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
3. The Indian reformers attempted to harmonize both Indian and …………….. cultures.
4. The two categories of reform movements are: reform movements and …………….. movements.
5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy preached worship of …………….. God.
6. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ideas forced Bentinck to bring legislation abolishing ……………..
7. Sati was abolished in the year ……………..
8. The Governor General …………….. helped in abolishing Sati in India.
9. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
10. Brahmo Samaj was taken over by …………….. after the death of Ram Mohan Roy.
11. Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
12. Widow Remarriage Reform Act was passed in the year ……………..
13. Gulamgiri was an important work written by ……………..
14. …………….. was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association.
15. …………….. was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
16. …………….. movement was similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
17. The age for marriage was fixed as …………….. years.
18. The age of marriage was raised to thirteen years in ……………..
19. The age of consent Act was passed in ……………..
20. Arya Samaj was initiated at ……………..
21. …………….. was the founder of Arya Samaj.
22. Strict monotheism was one of the main principle of ……………..
23. Swami Dayananda wrote the book ……………..
24. …………….. started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic Schools and Colleges.
25.  …………….. raised his voice as Go back to Vedas.
26. …………….. accused that the group running he DAV School is too Westernised.
27. …………….. worked as a priest in Kali temple but later became a great reformer.
28. “Jiva is Siva” means ……………..
29. The counter-conversion movement was called as ……………..
30. …………….. means songs of Ignorance.
31. The Theosophical Society was founded by …………….. and ……………..
32. The Theosophical movement was founded in the …………….. in 1875.
33. The Theosophical movement was in India at …………….. in Chennai in 1886.
34. Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas with the help of the newspapers called …………….. and ……………..
35. …………….. opened a first School for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
36. Jyothi Phule launched the Truth Seekers Society in ……………..
37. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam is an organisation to uplift the ……………..
38. …………….. translated many English books especially Science books into Urdu.
39. …………….. raised funds to educate the lower class pulaya people.
40. …………….. started the Aligarh movement.
41. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was founded in the year ……………..
42. The Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College was raised to the status of a University in ……………..
43. …………….. used journalism as tool to make inroads into the print public sphere.
44. Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ……………..
45. Mercy to all living beings including plants is called ……………..
46. …………….. opposed both Infant marriages and the use of astrology.
47. …………….. was the founder of the Nirankari movement.
48. Nirankar movement worship the God as ……………..
49. Nirankar means ……………..
50. The Namdhari movement was founded by ……………..
51. …………….. cult was also known as Ayya Vazhi.
52. …………….. founded Samathura Samajam.
53. …………….. was a siddha medicine practitioner who turned into a reformer.
54. …………….. started a weekly journal Oru Paisa Tamilian.

Answers:

1. Clerks
2. Christianity
3. Western
4. Revival
5. One
6. Sati
7. 1829
8. Bentinck
9. 1828
10. Debendranath Tagore
11. 1857
12. 1856
13. JyotibaPhule
14. Ranade
15. Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
16. PrarthanaSamaj
17. Ten
18. 1925
19. 1860
20. Punjab
21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
22. Arya Samaj
23. Satyartha Prakash
24. Arya Samaj
25. Swami Dayanda Saraswathi
26. Swami Shradhananda
27. Ramakrishna
28. All living beings are God
29. Suddi movement
30. Marutpa
31. Madame H.P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
32. USA
33. Adyar
34. New India and Commonweal
35. JyothiPhule
36. 1870
37. Depressed classes
38. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
39. Sadhu Jana paripalanasangam
40. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
41. 1875
42. 1920
43. IyotheeThassar
44. Vallalar
45. Jeeva karanga
46. Parsi Reform movement
47. Baba Dayal das
48. Nirankar
49. Formless
50. Baba Ram Singh
51. Vaikunda Swamigal
52. VaikundaSwamigal
53. Iyothee Thassar
54. Iyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy argued that the ancient texts of the Hindus preached Monotheism.
(ii) Brahmo Samaj failed to attract the people from the lower sections of society.
(iii) Its impact on the culture of modern Bengal and its middle class was quite significant.
(iv) The poet Rabindranath Tagore carried on the work of Brahmo Samaj after Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The age of marriage of initially fixed for 25 years.
(ii) Later it was reduced to thirteen years in 1925.
(iii) It was raised to eighteen in 1891.
(iv) Now, the law remained as twenty as in 1860 Act.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) Arya Samaj attempted to check the incidence of religious conversion in British India.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with God through the practice of singing bhajans.
(iii) Theosophical Society stimulated the study of the Christianity among people.
(iv) Savitribai Phule devoted her life for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Narendra Nath Datta was known as Swami Vivekananda.
(ii) He became famous for his address on Hinduism at the Indian Congress of Hindus in Chicago in 1893.
(iii) Narayana Guru inspired Kerala Society especially among the Ezhavas.
(iv) inspired by Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and Commonweal.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule is chiefly known as the earliest leader of the non-Brahmin movement.
(iii) His work Gulamgiri is an important text that summarized many of his radical ideas.
(iv) Thinkers and writers such as Kumaran Asan and Dr. Palpu were influenced by Narayana Guru ideas.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.

Question 6.
(i) Deoband School did not prepare its students for the government jobs but for the preaching of Islamic faith.
(ii) In South Travancore, there were restrictions on lower caste people as to what to wear and not to wear.
(iii) lyothee Thassar established a movement called as Oru, Paisa Tamilian.
(iv) John Rathinam ideas were collected into a text called Akila Thirattu.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Keshab Chandra Sen was greatly influenced by Christianity. Reason (R): He was believing in its spirit, but not in the person of its founder.
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Reform movement Arya Samaj was started in Punjab. Reason (R): Swami Dayananda Saraswathi settled in Punjab to preach his ideas
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The primary achievement of the Ramakrishna was his ability to attract educated youths..
Reason (R): The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo vedic Schools and colleges.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Narayana Guru established a grand temple at Arivupuram and dedicated it to all.
Reason (R): In his days, the people of the depressed classes has no access to temples.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The School at Deoband encouraged English education. Reason (R): The instruction imparted in the School was the Original Islamic religion.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct.
(c) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Ramaiinga Adigal established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.
Reason (R): There was a terrible famine in South India in 1866.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Pandithar lyothee Thassar went to Srilanka in 1898 and converted to Buddhism.
Reason (R): He was disappointed with the Hindi dharma, which served as a base for propogating caste in Hindu Society.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (vii)
B. (vi)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:

1. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
2. It advocated inter-dining, inter-caste marriage, widow re-marriage, improvement of women and downtrodden classes, abolition of Purdha System and Child marriage.
3. The Samaj is founded night schools, asylum and Orphanages and other such institutions for the downtrodden people.

Question 2.
Write a note on Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
It was a reform movement formed in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy at Calcutta. The Samaj mainly focused on the customs of Sati, Child marriage and Polygamy and wanted to remove them legally. The Samaj was successful by abolishing Sati in 1829, with the help of the Governor General Bentinck. It appealed widow remarriage and followed monotheism.

Question 3.
Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society.
Answer:

1. To develop the feeding of fraternity.
2. To study ancient religions, philosophy and science.
3. To find out the laws of nature and the development of divine power in India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna mission. The mission did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is the practical Vedanta of this mission.

Question 5.
Point out the impacts of Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. These movements greatly helped to abolish some of the evils like sati, child marriage and inter and untouchability.
2. It promoted education, encouraged widow re-marriage, inter-caste marriages and inter-dining.
3. It instilled social awakening and spirit of nationalism in the middle of Indians.
4. It made the people to be proud of their culture and glory.
5. It helped the Indians to face problems with scientific approach and outlook.

Question 6.
List out the Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) The Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu are Ramalinga Swamigal – emphasising feeding of poor.
(ii) Vaikunda Swamigal – emphasising unity of people of all castes.
(iii) Iyothee Thassar – emphasising Caste less society.

Question 7.
Who is known as Martin-Luthur of Hinduism? Why?
Answer:

1. Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi is known as the Martin Luther of Hinduism.
2. He started Suddhi Movement to reconvert the Hindus who had been converted to other religions earlier.
3. By his efforts, a large number of people were taken back within the fold of Hinduism.

Question 8.
As a student of today, what do you think the social evils present in today’s world and need reform?
Answer:
The Social evils present in today’s world and need reforms are Girl child harassment, female infanticide, Non-observance of societal rules, Adulteration, and above all poverty and pollution.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) What Were the languages learnt by Raja Rammohan Roy?
Answer:
Arabic, Sanskrit, Persian, English, French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew languages.

(c) Name the books written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Answer:
Precepts of Jesus Christ and Guide to Peace and Happiness were written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) What did Brahmo Samaj believe?
Answer:
It believed in a “Universal religion” based on the principle of one Supreme God.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) When, where and who founded the Arya Samaj.
Answer:
The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi in 1875, in Punjab.

(b) What was the main idea focused by the Samaj.
Answer:
‘Go Back to Vedas’.

(c) What did the Samaj do in the field of education?
Answer:
The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic schools and colleges to spread education.

(d) What was the name of the school started after dayananda starting OAV schools are westernised?
Answer:
By 1900, Swami Shraddhanada established his own network of schools called Gurukulas emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 3.
The Theosophical Society

(a) Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Answer:
It was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S. Olcott.

(b) Why was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded to preach about God and Wisdom.

(c) Who was the president of this society in 1893?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant.

(d) Where is the headquarters of this society located?
Answer:
The headquarters of this society is at Adyar in Chennai.

Question 4.
Parsi and Sikh Reform Movements

(a) Who founded the Parsis’ Reform Society?
Answer:
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Parsis’ Reform Society in 1851.

(b) What are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements?
Answer:
Nirankaris and Namdharis are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements.

(c) Name the leader from Parsi community who played a big role in early congress?
Answer:
Pherozeshah Mehta and Dinshaw Wacha played a big role in early congress from Parsi community.

(d) Who were the founders of the Sikh Reform movements? What was the objective?
Answer:
Baba Dayal Das was the founder of the Nirankari movement and Baba Ram Singh was the founder of the Namdhari movement Its main objective was to restore the purity of Sikhism and the authority of Guru Nanak.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elaborate the Early Reform Movements in Bengal.
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj: This was one of the earlier reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Deeply concerned with the customs of Sati, child marriage and polygamy, raised his voice through the Samaj and abolished sati by legislation in 1829. The Samaj strongly advocated education for women, widow remarriage and western education. It Condemned Idol worship and meaningless rituals and ceremonies.

Adi Brahmo Samaj: In 1886, a Split occurred in Brahmo Samaj and Keshab Chandra Sen left the Samaj and founded a new organisation called Debendranath’s organisation also called as Adi-Brahmo Samaj, This Samaj also followed the ideas of Brahmo Samaj.

Prarthana Samaj: A movement similar to Brahmo Samaj founded in Bombay was called Prathana Samaj. It was founded by R.C Bhandarkar and Mahadev Govinda Ranade. Inter caste dining, Inter-caste marriage, Widow remarriage, improvement of women and depressed classes were their main activities.

Arya Samaj: The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi. This is a revival movement stating ‘ Go back to Vedas’, The Samaj concentrated on social reforms and education . DAV schools of today were originally started by Arya Samaj.

Ramakrishna Mission: Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. The mission actively involved in the social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is their slogan which means Service to God.

Theosophical Movement: The Theosophical movement was founded in ‘ USA by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott. Later the movement laid its foundation headed by Annie Besant in Adyar, Chennai.

She spread her ideas through her newspaper New India and commonweal. This movement played a major role in Indian Nationalist politics.

Question 2.
Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:

1. Ramakrishna Mission’s activities cover the areas like educational work, healthcare, cultural activities, rural upliftment, tribal welfare and youth movement.
2. It has its own hospitals, charitable dispensaries, maternity clinics, tuberculosis clinics and mobile dispensaries.
3. It also maintains training centres for nurses.
4. Orphanages and homes for the elderly people are maintained. Rural and tribal welfare works are also going on.
5. It educational activities the Ramakrishna Mission has established many renowned educational institutions in India.
6. It has its own universities, colleges and vocational training centres.
7. It has also involved in disaster relief operations during famine, epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake, cyclones and communal disturbances.
8. It played an important role in the installation of Photo Voltaic (PV) lighting system in the Sundarbans regions of West Bengal. The PV lighting was used to provide electricity to the people, who were traditionally depending on kerosene and diesel.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 K^-1
(b) 8.03 mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 K^-1
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1

Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Question 4.
Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value of Avogadro number ………..
2. The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

1. 6.023 × 10²³
2. Inter convertible
3. 1 gram, 1°C
4. A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Answer:
A. (s)
B. (t)
C. (p)
D. (q)
E. (r)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
i.e., V ∝ T.
(or)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant.

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is co-efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).
Answer:
Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90 K
Let Final temperature be T₂K
A₀ = 10 m²
Coefficient of superficial expansion is
α_A = 0.0021 / k
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
\(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.0021 ΔT
∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10
= 0.021
T₂ – T₁ = 0.021
T₂ – 90 = 0.021
∴ Final temperature T₂ = 90.021 K

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Answer:
Initial volume V₀ = 0.25 m³
Final volume = 0.30 m³
Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³
Temperature ΔT = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion is

∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion
α_v = 0.004 /K

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ……… (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following
\(\frac{V}{nT}\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N₀.
i.e., n = µN_A
Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be K_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1). Hence, we have the following equation:
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = K_B
PV = µN_AK_BT
µN_AK_B = R
which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:

To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The commonly used scales of temperature are:
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.
(a) PT = nRV
(b) Pv = nRT
(c) PV = nRT
(d) PT = RV.
Answer:
(b) Pv = nRT
Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.
The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:
(a) 30 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 327 K
(d) 0 K
Answer:
(b) 300 K

Question 4.
Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -212°C.
Answer:
(c) -273°C
Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273
at K = 0, C = -273°.

Question 5.
The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = 273 – C
(b) K = C + 273
(c) K=
(d) K = C
Answer:
(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.
Linear expansion is related to _____.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) volume
(d) mass.
Answer:
(b) length
Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.
For any exchange of heat:
(a) Heat gained = Zero
(b) Heat lost = Zero
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost
(d) Heat gained = -heat lost
Answer:
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.
………. is the degree of hotness.
(a) Heat
(b) Calorie
(c) Joule
(d) Temperature
Answer:
(d) Temperature

Question 9.
Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.025 × 10²⁵
(c) 6.24 × 10²⁴
(d) 6.022 × 10²².
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
Hint: N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 10.
If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.
(a) 273 K
(b) 600 K
(c) -527 K
(d) -273 K
Answer:
(b) 600 K

Question 11.
When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:
(a) Spirit has cooling effect.
(b) Spirit has boiling effect.
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.
(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.
Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) convection
Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.
Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:
(a) 226 × 10² J
(b) 336 × 10³ J
(c) 353 × 10³ J
(d) 3 × 10⁵ J
Answer:
(b) 336 × 10³ J

Question 14.
Relation between α, β and γ is _____.
(a) α = β = γ
(b) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=3 \gamma\)
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
(d) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{4}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
Hint: (c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\) (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Question 15.
When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.
(a) Volume
(b) Temperature
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 16.
Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:
(a) is in vapour state
(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.
(d) cause bums by nature.
Answer:
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.
Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?
(a) α, β
(b) α, γ
(c) γ, α
(d) β, α.
Answer:
(c) γ, α
Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.
According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:
(a) Heat gained by the surroundings
(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings
(c) Heat gained by the body
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:
(a) Less
(b) Temperature
(c) More
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More

Question 20.
In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:
(a) Solid should not be heated less
(b) Solid should not be heated more
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C
(d) Volume does not change.
Answer:
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:
(a) Pressure of atmosphere
(b) Temperature of atmosphere
(c) Humidity of atmosphere E
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.
Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:

Answer:
(c) V_t = V_o (1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\))

Question 23.
At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.
(a) Less
(b) Some
(c) More
(d) No
Answer:
(c) More

Question 24.
The relationship between length (L₀) of a body and change in temperature is:

Answer:
(b) L₀ = \(\frac{ΔL}{α_{L}ΔT}\)

Question 25.
The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:
(a) °C
(b) K^-1
(c) Cal
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) K^-1

Question 26.
Coefficient of superficial expansion:
(a) is same for all materials
(b) is infinity
(c) different for different materials
(d) is zero
Answer:
(c) different for different materials

Question 27.
The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is \(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) =
(a) α_A
(b) α_AΔT
(c) \(\frac{α_A}{ΔT}\)
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) α_AΔT

Question 28.
According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:
(a) P ∝ V
(b) P = V
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)
(d) V ∝ P
Answer:
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 29.
At constant temperature of a gas:
(a) PV = 1
(b) PV = 0
(c) PV = infinity
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 30.
The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
(b) TV = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) V = T
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 31.
If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(b) V ∝ n
(c) V = n
(d) \(\frac{n}{V}\) = constant
Answer:
(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant is the mathematical form of:
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) Dalton’s law
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.
Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:
(a) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 34.
A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:
(a) Gas
(b) Ideal gas
(c) Perfect gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.
The value of universal gas constant is:
(a) 3.81 J/mol/K
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K
(c) 8.13
(d) 6.81 J/mol/K
Answer:
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 36.
The unit of universal gas constant is:
(a) \(\frac{J}{K}\)
(b) J mol^-1K
(c) J/mol/K
(d) J K^-1 mol
Answer:
(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.
If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:
(a) natural gas
(b) bio gas
(c) real gas
(d) perfect gas
Answer:
(d) perfect gas

Question 38.
Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:
(a) PV = T
(b) P = RT
(c) PV = RT
(d) PV = R
Answer:
(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….
2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….
3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….
4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.
5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.
6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.
7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………
8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..
9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.
10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………
11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………
12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..
13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.
14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….
15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.
16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.
17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………
18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………
19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………
20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..
21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.
22. The equation of state of a gas is …………
23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….
24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………
Answer:
1. 17°C
2. 310 K
3.50°C
4. thermal equilibrium
5. Heat
6. mass
7. Heat gained, Heat lost
8. expansion
9. different, different
10. K^-1
11. Temperature
12. K^-1
13. inversely
14. Boyle’s law
15. directly proportional
16. number of atoms or molecules
17. 6.023 × 10²³/mol
18. ideal gas
19. real gas
20. real gas
21. more
22. PV = RT
23. state of any gas
24. µN_A, N_A – Avogadro’s number

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.
3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.
4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.
5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.
6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L₀α_LΔT
7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.
8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.
9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.
10. According to Avogadro’s law \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
Answer:
1. True
2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273
3. True
4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.
8. True
9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.
10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (t)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (r)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (t)
B – (s)
C – (p)
D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.
Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.
Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer
Answer:
As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.
What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?
Answer:
The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.
What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?
Answer:
The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:
Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,
Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
0 K = -273°C.

Question 5.
Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.
Answer:
All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.
What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?
Answer:
There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.
What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?
Answer:
Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.
Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?
Answer:
Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.
What is meant by heating?
Answer:
The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.
What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
Answer:
As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.
What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?
Answer:

1. Temperature of the substance rises.
2. The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.
Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.
Answer:
As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.
What is meant by linear expansion?
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.
Answer:

1. It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.
2. Size of molecules is negligibly small.
3. There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.
Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?
Answer:
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 16.
What is meant by superficial expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.
Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.
State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.
What is meant by cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.
Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.
What is real expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.
What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.
State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
i.e., V α n
(or) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant

Question 24.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (N_A) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 10²³/mol.

Question 25.
What are real gases?
Answer:
If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Question 26.
What is a perfect gas?
Answer:
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.
Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.
Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.
Answer:
Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Transform 100°C into K.
Answer:
T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K
= (273 + 100) K
= 373 K
100°C = 373 K

Question 2.
Convert 23 K into °C.
Answer:
T = 23 K
T°C = K – 273
= 23 – 273
= -250°C
23 K = -250°C

Question 3.
If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10^-6 °C.
Solution:
L₀ = 66 m = 6600 cm
α = 11 × 10^-6 °C.
∆L = L_t – L₀ = 3.63
t₁ = 10°C
t₂ = ?
\(\alpha=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \times \alpha}} \\ {\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{3.63}{6600 \times 11 \times 10^{-6}}}\end{array}\)
∆T = t₂ – t₁ = 50
⇒ t₂ – 10 = 50
⇒ t₂ = 50 + 10 = 60°C
so final temperature t₂ = 60°C

Question 4.
At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?
Answer:
Let T_B = T_B – x

∴ 180x = 100x – 3200
80x = -3200
x = –\(\frac{3200}{80}\) = -40°
x = -40°
∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Question 5.
On heating a glass block of 10⁵ cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of
(i) Cubical expansion and
(ii) Linear expansion
Answer:
Volume V₀ = 10⁵ cm³
Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C
Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³
(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is

α_V = 26.67 × 10^-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is
α_L = \(\frac{αV}{3}\)
α_L = \(\frac{26.67}{3}\) × 10^-6
α_L = 8.89 × 10^-6/°C

Question 6.
A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m³ at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.
Solution:
Given, P₁ = 76 cm Hg, P₂ = 7.6 cm of Hg
V₁ = 30 m³, V₂ = ?
T₁ = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T₂ = -54 + 273 = 219 K
By gas equation
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1} \mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{76 \times 30 \times 219}{300 \times 7.6}\) = 219 m³
So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m³.

Question 7.
If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A}\) = 0.22% = \(\frac{0.22}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C
∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion

= 22 × 10^-6/°C

Question 8.
Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.
Answer:
Pressure P = 1.013 × 10⁵ pa
Volume V = 22.4 lit I
= 22.4 × 10^-3 m³
Temperature T = 273 K
For one mole of a gas
PV = RT
∴ R = \(\frac{PV}{T}\)

= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.
When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Answer:
Initial pressure P₁ = P

PT + 0.004PT = PT + P
0.004PT = P
∴ T = \(\frac{1}{0.004}\)
= 250 K
∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.
A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O₂ and 0.2 mole of CO₂ . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.
Answer:
n₁ = 0.1; n₂ = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;
Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10^-6 m³
Pressure P = P₁ + P₂

P = 3.74 × 10⁵ pa

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:
(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.
Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.
Explain linear expansion in Solids.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K^-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.
Write a note on superficial expansion.
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:

\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.
What do you know about cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_VΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?
Answer:
A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.
At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.
Answer:
The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.
Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?
Answer:
It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.
When does the Charle’s law fail?
Answer:
By Charle’s law at constant pressure
V ∝ T or T ∝ V
At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.
When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?
Answer:
When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.
A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.
Answer:
The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Question 7.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.
Answer:
No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Money market Institutions are ………………
(a) Investment Houses
(b) Mortgage Banks
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer:
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 3.
Risk in the Money Market is ………………
(a) High
(b) Market Risk
(c) Low credit and Market Risk
(d) Medium Risk
Answer:
(c) Low credit and Market Risk

Question 4.
A pessimistic speculator is ………………
(a) Stag
(b) Bear
(c) Bull
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(b) Bear

Question 5.
An optimistic speculator is ……………
(a) Bull
(b) Bear
(c) stag
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(a) Bull

Question 6.
SEBI is empowered by the Finance Ministry nominate ……………. mumbers on the governing body of every stock exchange.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
The process of converting physical shares into electronic from is called from is called …………..
(a) Dematerialisation
(b) Delisting
(c) Materialisation
(d) Debarring
Answer:
(a) Dematerialisation

Question 8.
Labour turnover is the rate at which employees the organisation.
(a) enter
(b) leave
(c) salary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) leave

Question 9.
Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
(a) physical Test
(b) psychological Test
(c) attitude Test
(d) proficiency Tests
Answer:
(b) psychological Test

Question 10.
When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called …………..
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Refresher training
(c) Role Pay
(d) Apprenticeship training
Answer:
(d) Apprenticeship training

Question 11.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………..
(a) Spot Market
(b) Local Market
(c) Security Market
(d) National Market
Answer:
(c) Security Market

Question 12.
Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to to its target ………….. to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Retailer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 13.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of ……………..
(a) Customer to buyers
(b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyer’s
(d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
(a) Customer to buyers

Question 14.
The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from ……………
(a) 1.1. 1986
(b) 1.4.1986
(c) 15.4. 1987
(d) 15.4.1990
Answer:
(c) 15.4. 1987

Question 15.
Which of the following is not consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right’to consume
(d) Right to he informed
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Question 16.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods/services complained against and the compensation, if any, claimed is………………..
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore
(b) Exceeding ₹ 10 lakhs
(c) Exceeding ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) Exceeding ₹ 12 lakhs
Answer:
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore

Question 17.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 18.
In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer?
(a) When goods are ascertained
(b) When goods are appropriate
(c) Delivery to the carrier
(d) Sale or return basis
Answer:
(c) Delivery to the carrier

Question 19.
………………. cannot be a bearer instrument.
(a) Cheque
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 20.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Span of Management?
Answer
The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be managed efficiently by a superior. Simply, the manager having the group of subordinates who report him directly is called as the span of management.

Question 22.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 23.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer
Broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both the parties.

Question 24.
What is Mentoring training method?
Answer
Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees. It is mostly used for managerial employees.

Question 25.
Define E-Marketing.
Answer
“E-Marketing is achieving marketing objectives through use of digital technologies like Internet, world wide web, e-mail, wireless media, and management of digital customer data and electronic customer management systems.

Question 26.
What is caveat Venditor?
Answer
Today, most sales in the U.S. fall under the principle of caveat venditor, which means “let the seller beware,” by which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability.

Question 27.
What is Privatisation.
Answer
Privatization is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, agency or public service from the government to the private sector.

Question 28.
List three characteristics of a promissory Note.
Answer
Characteristics of a Promissory Note:

• A promissory note must be in writing.
• The promise to pay must be unconditional.
• It must be signed by the maker.

Question 29.
List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer

• Discovery of Idea
• Determining the business objectives
• Detailed Investigation
• Choice of form of enterprise
• Fulfilment of the formalities
• Preparation of Business Plan
• Mobilisation of funds
• Procurement of Machines and Materials

Question 30.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP?
Answer
Following Companies are required to appoint KMP:

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What determines the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:

• Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
• Determine the shape or configuration of the organisation.
• There is a wide and a narrow span of management.

Question 32.
Bring out the scope of financial market in India.
Answer:
The financial market provides financial assistance to individuals, agricultural sectors, industrial sectors, service sectors, financial institutions like banks, insurance sectors, provident funds and the government as a whole. With the help of the financial market all the above stated individuals, institutions and the Government can get their required funds in time. Through the financial market the institutions get their short term as well as long term financial assistance. It leads to overall economic development.

Question 33.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short-term financial requirements of the Central Government. Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 64 days Treasury Bills 34.

Question 34.
Explain National Stock Exchange. (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchange was incorporated in November, 1992. It uses satellite link to spread trading throughout the country. Through computer network, members’ orders for buying and selling within prescribed price are matched by central computer.

Question 35.
Name the types of Selection Test.
Answer:
Selection tests are of two types:

• Ability Tests and Personality Tests. Ability tests can further be divided into: aptitude test, achievement test, intelligence test, and judgement test.
• Personality tests can further be divided into: interest test, personality inventory test, projective test or thematic appreciation test, and attitude test.

Question 36.
Write the importance of Consumerism.
Answer:
Importance of consumerism lies in

• Awakening and uniting consumers
• Discouraging unfair trade practices
• Protecting against exploitation
• Awakening the government.
• Effective implementation of consumer protection laws
• Providing complete and latest information
• Discouraging anti-social activities

Question 37.
What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment in PSUs: The Govt, has started the process of disinvestment in those PSUs which had been running into loss. It means that Govt, has been selling out these industries to private sector. So disinvestment is a system of privatizing government enterprises.

Question 38.
Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur.
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Determining the business objectives: Entrepreneur has to develop business objectives in the backdrop of nature of business and type of business activity i.e. nature of business, manufacturing or trading, type of business organisation chosen so that he/she can organise the venture in accordance with the objectives determined by him/her.

(iii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iv) Choice of form of enterprise: Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to implement the venture. There are various forms of organisation namely sole proprietor, partnership, company and co-operatives etc. which are in existence.

(v) Fulfilment of the formalities: Having chosen the appropriate type of organisation, entrepreneur has to take necessary steps to establish the form of organisation chosen. As regards sole trader, the formalities are barest minimum. In the case of partnership firm, entrepreneur has to arrange for partnership deed and he has to get the deed registered.

(vi) Preparation of Business Plan: Entrepreneur has to prepare a business plan or project report
of the venture that he is proposing to take up.

(vii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(viii) Procurement of Machines and Materials: Entrepreneur has to locate the various sources of supply of machineries, equipments and materials.

Question 39.
What is Causal Vacancy?
Answer:
If a director is absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months, then it is called casual vacancy. It may be filled by the appointment of alternate director. The appointment must be authorised by the articles of association by passing a resolution in the meeting.

Question 40.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority, i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41
(a) Explain Lombard Street and Wall Street.
Answer:
Lombard Street
Lombard Street is in London. It is a street notable for its connections with the merchants, banking and insurance industries of London. From bank junction, where nine streets converge by the bank of England, Lombard Street runs southeast for a short distance.

Wall Street
Wall Street is a street in New York. It is the original home of the New York Stock exchange.
Also it is the historic headquarters of the largest U.S. brokerages and investment banks.
Wall Street is also used as a collective name for the financial and investment community.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Operating functions of HRM.
Answer:
Operating functions of HRM:

• Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement and promotion.
• Development: It includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, and organisational development.
• Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus schemes.
• Retention: This is made possible through health and safety, social security, job satisfaction and quality of work life.
• Maintenance: This encourages employees to work with job satisfaction, reducing labour turnover, for human resource.

Question 42.
(a) Differentiate Recruitment and Selection.
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Recruitment	Selection
1. Meaning	It means searching candidates for the right job.	It refers to the process of selecting the suitable candidates and offering them job.
2. Objective	Inviting large number of candidates to apply for the vacant post.	Picking up the most suitable candidates.
3. Method	It is an economical method.	It is an expensive method.
4. Contractual relation	It involves the communication of vacancies. There is no contractual relation.	It creates contractual relation between employer and employee.
5. Process	Recruitment process is very simple.	Selection process is very complex and complicated.
6. Time	Requires less time since it involves merely identifying vacancies and advertising them.	It is more time-consuming because each and every candidate has to be tested on various aspects before finally being selected.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of placement.
Answer:
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements
  of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43.
(a) What is Marketing?
Answer:

• Marketing is the performance of buying activities that facilitate to more flow of goods and services. It is one of the oldest profession in the world.
• Objective: The traditional objective of marketing had been to make the goods available at places where they are needed.
• Later on this idea was changed from ‘exchange’ to “Satisfaction of human wants”. Marketing is linking the consumer and the producer. Also marketing helps to maintain economic stability and economic development.

[OR]

(b) What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
Salient features of The Indian Consumer Protection Act, 1986:

• Protecting consumers against products and services which are harmful to the health of the consumers.
• Ensuring consumers with supply of goods at fair quality.
• Ensuring the availability of goods in correct quantity and right size.
• Protecting the consumers against pollution of various kinds.
• Ensuring that consumers are charged fair price.
• Protecting the consumers against unfair trade practices of unscrupulous trader.

Question 44.
(a) What are the responsibilities of consumers?
Answer:
Rights and responsibilities are two sides of the same coin. The responsibilities of consumers are listed below:

• The consumer must pay the price of the goods according to the terms and conditions.
• The consumer has the responsibility to make the seller to deliver the goods in time.
• The consumer has to bear any loss, which may arise to the seller, due to delay in taking delivery.
• The consumer has to follow the instructions and precautions while using the product.
• The consumer must collect the cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the seller.
• The consumer must file a complaint with the seller about the defects in products or deficiency in service.

[OR]

(b) Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods.
Answer
A seller is deemed to be an unpaid seller when :
(a) the whole of the price has not been paid or
(b) a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument given to him has been dishonoured. Rights of an Unpaid Seller against the Goods: Where the Property in the Goods has Passed to the Buyer:
Right of Lien: An unpaid seller has a right to retain the goods till he receives the price. But to exercise this lien-
(i) He must be in possession of goods
(ii) The goods must have been sold without any condition.

• Right of Stoppage in Transit: Where the seller has delivered the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, but the buyer has not acquired them, then the seller can stop the goods.
• Right of Resale: The unpaid seller can resell the goods

(iii) Where they are of a perishable nature or
(iv) Where the seller has expressly reserved the right of resale in the contract itself.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs?
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows
(i) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.
(ii) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations

(iii) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
(iv) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
(v) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Preparation of a project report.
Answer:
An entrepreneur can get the report prepared by technical consultancy organisations or by auditors or by government agencies. The report should include the following:
(i) Technical feasibility: It should contain the description of product, raw materials, quality control measures, water, power and transport.
(it) Economic viability: It involves compilation of demand for domestic and export market.
(iii) Financial viability: It should cover the aspects like: Non-recurring expenses like cost of land, and building. Recurring expenses like wages and salaries.
(iv) Managerial competency: Entrepreneurs has to include the mechanism for managing the venture in the project report.

(v) Provisional registration certificate: He has to apply for provisional registration certificate. It will be issued after certain conditions for a period of one year.
(vi) Permanent registration certificate: If the venture has commenced production, or is ready to commence production, it is eligible to get permanent registration certificate.
(vii) Statutory licence: He should obtain Municipal Licence from the authority concerned.
(viii) Power connection: He has to make application to Assistant Divisional Engineer of Electricity Board for power connection.
(ix) Arrangement of finance: Entrepreneur requires two types of finance namely Long term and Short term.

Question 46.
(a) Explain how director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of Company can be removed from his Office before the expiry of his term by

• the Shareholders
• the Central Government
• the Company Law Board

(i) Removal by shareholders (Sec- 169): A company may, by giving a special notice and passing an ordinary resolution, remove a director before the expiry of his period of office.
(ii) Removal by the Central Government: The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following situations:

• Where a person concerned in the conduct and management of the affairs of a company has been guilty of fraud and negligence.
• If the business is managed by a person without sound business principles.
• Where the business of a company has been managed by such a person, who likes to cause injury or damage to the business.

(iii) Removal by the Company Law Board: If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order to terminate the director.

[OR]

(b) Describe the different types of resolutions which company may pass in the suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
A motion, with or without the amendments which is put to vote at a meeting and passed with the required quorum becomes resolution. Resolution may be classified into three types. They are: Ordinary resolution, Special resolution and resolution requiring special notice.

(i) Ordinary Resolution: An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures
• To declare the dividends
• To appoint the directors

(ii) Special Resolution: A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority.
Special Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change the registered office of the company
• To alter the Articles of Association
• To commence any new business
• To appoint the auditor for the company

(iii) Resolution requiring Special Notice: There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.

The following matters require special notice:

• To remove a director before the expiry of his period
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Question 47.
(a) Discuss the significance of understanding business environment and the internal factors affecting business.
Answer:
A business in order to remain successful and competitive has to adapt to the constantly changing environment. The significance of understanding the business environment is as follows:

• Helps in formulating strategy and future planning.
• The analysis of business environment helps a business to identify new opportunities.
• Environment scanning helps the firms to identify threats which affect the business.

Internal factors of environment:

• Value system: The success of an organisation depends upon the sharing of value system by all members.
• Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
• Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the composition of the board.
•  Internal power relations: This refers to the internal power relations that exist in an organisation. The relations among board members, and the CEO and employees, shareholders are the factors affecting in taking decisions.

[OR]

(b) What is Voluntary Consumer Organisations? Explain its Functions.
Answer:
Voluntary consumer organisations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by the consumers to protect their rights and interests.
Functions:

• Collecting Data on Different Products: These organizations collect samples of different products from time to time and test them.
• Filing Suit on Behalf of Consumers: If a consumer is not able to protest regarding his complaints, these organisations file case in the court, on behalf of a consumer.
• Protests against Adulteration: The consumer organisations play a significant role in eliminating the evil of adulteration, hoarding, black-marketing.
• Helping Educational Institutions: These organizations advice the educational institutions the way to prepare courses of study.
• Extending Support to Government: Consumer organisations keep informing the government agencies about adulteration, artificial scarcity, inferior quality products.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 4 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.
(c) Rate of change of energy is current.
(d) Rate of change of current is charge.
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is:
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) ohm
(d) ohm meter
Answer:
(c) ohm

Question 3.
In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
(a) The switch produces electricity.
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
(d) The bulb is getting charged.
Answer:
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit

Question 4.
Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. When a circuit is open, ……….. cannot pass through it.
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ……….
3. The wiring in a house consists of ………… circuits.
4. The power of an electric device is a product of ……… and ………..
5. LED stands for ………..

Answer:

1. current
2. resistance
3. parallel
4. potential difference, current
5. Light Emitting Diode

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Answer:

1. False – Ohm’s law states that the relationship between current and voltage.
2. True
3. False – The SI unit for electric current is ampere.
4. False – One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
5. False – The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest of the “individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (c)
(v) – (d)

V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 coulomb}{1 second}\)

Question 2.
What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
If the conductor is made a thicker area of cross-section of conduction increases that will decrease the resistance.

Question 3.
Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
Answer:
Tungsten metal is used in bulbs because its melting point is the greatest.
But it is not used in fuse wires. When a current more than 5A flows tungsten wire will be melted. Hence tungsten is not used in fuse wire.

Question 4.
Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Answer:
The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron and electric toaster.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: It is the amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.
Electric potential

Potential difference : It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric force.
Potential difference V_A – V_B = \(\frac{W_{A}-W_{B}}{Q}\)

Question 2.
What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

1. The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
2. The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
3. Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V. Hence, = \(\frac{1}{V}\) = constant.
The value of this proportionality constant is found to \(\frac{1}{R}\)
Therefore, I = (\(\frac{1}{R}\)) V
V = IR

Question 4.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Answer:

Question 5.
What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

1. In the domestic appliance, it is used as a parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
2. It has an alternative current (AC). Not DC current as it is from cables, so high potential flows through this.
3. One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

VIII. Long answer Questions.

Question 1.
With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:
(a) in series and
(b) in parallel
Answer:
(a) Resistors in series : A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if resistors are connected end to end, so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.

Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series. Let the current flowing through theorem be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁,V₂ and V₃ across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = I R₁ ………. (1)
V₂ = I R₂ ……… (2)
v₃ = I R₃ ………. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃ …….. (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_S.
Then,
V = I R_S ……….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we get,
I R_S = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….. (6)
Thus, you can understand that when a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’.
i.e., R_S = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel : A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

Consider that three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected across two common points A and B The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is me sured using the voltmeter. The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I₁, I₂ and I₃ passing through R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, you have,

The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), you get
I = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_3}\) ……… (4)
Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be R_P Then,
I = \(\frac{V}{R_P}\) ……… (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), you have

Thus, when a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{R}{n}\)

The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
(b) Name and define its unit.
(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be r connected in a circuit?
Answer:
(a) (i) Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
(ii) The electric current represents the number of charges flowing in any cross-section of a conductor (say a metal wire) in unit time.

(b) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(c) (i) The ammeter is used to measure the current.
(ii) An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
(iii) The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 3.
(a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
(a) Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

1. directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
2. directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor.
3. directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(b) Because,

1. It has high resistivity,
2. It has a high melting point,
3. It is not easily oxidized.

(c) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.

Question 4.
Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)
Answer:

1. Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
2. The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
3. The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
4. The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
5. The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

Question 5.
(a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
(b) List the merits of LED bulb.
Answer:
(a) Advantages of LED TV:

1. It has brighter picture quality.
2. It is thinner in size.
3. It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
4. Its life span is more.
5. It is more reliable.

(b) Advantages of LED bulb:

1. As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.
2. It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.
3. In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have significantly low power requirement.
4. It is not harmful to the environment.
5. A wide range of colours is possible here.
6. It is cost-efficient and energy efficient.
7. Mercury and other toxic materials are not required. One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more LED bulbs.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
Answer:
(i) When heating is maximum, the power
P₁ = 420 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{420}{220}\) = 1.909 A
I = 1.909 A

(ii) When heating is minimum
Power P₂ = 180 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
∴ Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{180}{220}\) = 0.8181 A
I = 0.8181 A

Question 2.
A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Solution:
100 W = 100 joules per second
1 watt hours = 3600 joules
The electric bulb is lighted for 5 hours daily,
100 W × 5 = 500 watt hours
500 watt hours = 1800000 joules
1 kWh = 3600000 joules
Units consumed per day = \(\frac{1800000}{3600000}\) = 0.5 units
Untis consumed in month = 0.5 × 31 = 15.5 units …. (1)
Now, Sum of power of four 60 watt bulbs = 240 W
240 W × 5 hours = 1200 watt hours
1200 watt hours = 4320000 joules
Energy consumed per day = \(\frac{4320000}{3600000}\) = 1.2 units
Energy consumed in a month = 1.2 × 31 = 37.2 units …. (2)
Total energy consumed in a month = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 units
1 unit = 1 kWh
The energy consumed in the month of January = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.
A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s
(a) power
(b) resistance
(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.
Answer:
Voltage V = 3 V
Current I = 600 mA
(a) Power = VI
= 3 × 600 × 10^-3
= 1800 × 10^-3
= 1.8 W

(c) Time = 4h
Energy consumed E = P × t
E = 1.8 × 4
= 7.2 W

Question 4.
A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
(c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Answer:
(a) Original resistance
R = \(\frac{l}{A}\)
∴ R α l
After cutting length of each piece
r = \(\frac{l}{5}\)
New resistance
R’ = \(\frac{l’}{A}\)
R’ α l’

R : R’ = 5 : 1

(b) When five parts of the wire are placed in parallel.
Effective Resistance

Resistance of the combinations
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)

(c) When resistance are connected in series

R_S = R
When resistance are connected in parallel
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)
R_S : R_P = R : \(\frac{R}{25}\)
= 25 R : R_1
R_S : R_P = 25 : 1

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Answer:
Let the resistance be R, and R2 when two resistances are connected in series
R_S = R₁ + R₂
= 9
R₁ + R₂ = 9 ……….(1)
When two resistance are connected in parallel

Using (1) equation (2) becomes
\(\frac{9}{R_{1}R_2}\)
R₁ R₂ = 18 ……….(3)
(R₁ – R₂)² = (R₁ + R₂)² – 4R₁R₂
= (9)² – 4 × 18
= 81 – 72 = 9
∴ (R₁ – R₂) = √9 = 3 ………(4)
From (1)
R₁ + R₂ = 9
2R₁ = 12
∴ R₁ = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 ohm
From (1)
R₂ = 9 – R₁
= 9 – 6 = 3Ω
The values of resistances are
R₁ = 6 ohm
R₂ = 3 ohm

Question 2.
How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Solution:
Current I = 5A
Time (t) = 1 second
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
\(\mathbf{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{n e}{t}\)
Number of electron, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{I} t}{e}\) = \(\frac{5 \times 1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
n = 3.125 × 10¹⁹.

Question 3.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Resistance R = 10Ω
Let l be the length of the wire R ∝ 1
When the length is increased to three times,
l’ = 3l
∴ New Resistance
R’ ∝ l’ ∝ 3l
∴ \(\frac{R}{R’}\) = \(\frac{l}{3l}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ R’ = 3R
New resistance = 3 times the original resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of:
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) mass
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

Question 2.
The S.I. unit of electric current is _____.
(a) Volt
(b) Power
(c) Ampere
(d) newton.
Answer:
(c) Ampere

Question 3.
The unit of electric current is:
(a) ampere
(b) volt
(c) watt
(d) kilo-watt
Answer:
(a) ampere

Question 4.
The work done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points in a circuit is 2 J. What is the potential difference between the points?
(a) 1 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) 1 V

Question 5.
The amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other is:
(a) resistance
(b) current
(c) Potential
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Potential

Question 6.
Ohm’s law gives the relative between potential difference and:
(a) emf
(b) temperature
(c) resistance
(d) current
Answer:
(d) current

Question 7.
The unit of resistance is _____.
(a) volt
(b) volt ampere^-1
(c) ampere
(d) Joule.
Answer:
(b) volt ampere^-1

Question 8.
The symbol of battery is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity for a given material is ______.
(a) zero
(b) constant
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b).
Answer:
(b) constant

Question 10.
The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20 ohm is:
(a) 100 V
(b) 4 V
(c) 0.01 V
(d) 40 V
Answer:
(b) 4 V

Question 11.
The unit of electrical conductivity ______.
(a) ohm^-1 metre
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1
(c) Volt Ampere^-1
(d) ohm.
Answer:
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1

Question 12.
Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:
(a) potential difference
(b) electric power
(c) electric energy
(d) charge
Answer:
(c) electric energy

Question 13.
The resistivity of a material is 4 × 10^-8 Ωm and its conductivity ______.
(a) 25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(b) 0.25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(c) 25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.
Answer:
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.

Question 14.
The commonly used safely fuse wire is made of:
(a) nickel
(b) lead
(c) an alloy of tin and lead
(d) copper
Answer:
(c) an alloy of tin and lead

Question 15.
The value of one horse power is:
(a) 746 kW
(b) 746 W
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ W
(d) 3.6 × 10⁶ kW
Answer:
(b) 746 W

Question 16.
When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in series, the effecive resistance for series is ______.
(a) nR
(b) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) nR

Question 17.
Name the physical quantity which is measured in kW:
(a) electric energy
(b) electric power
(c) electric current
(d) electric potential
Answer:
(b) electric power

Question 18.
What is the amount of current, when 20 C of charges flows in 4 s through a conductor? [l = \(\frac{q}{v}\)]
(a) 5 A
(b) 80 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(a) 5 A

Question 19.
Nichrome is ______.
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) an alloy
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) an alloy

Question 20.
The main source of biomass energy is:
(a) coal
(b) heat energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) cow-dung
Answer:
(d) cow-dung

Question 21.
The value of one ampere is:
(a) \(\frac{1second}{1coulomb}\)
(b) 1 coulomb × sec
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)
(d) 1 coulomb
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)

Question 22.
The heat produced in an electric heater of resistance 2 Ω is connected to an electric source, when a current of 6 A flows for 5 minutes _____.
(a) 216 × 10² J
(b) 2160 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 150 J.
Answer:
(a) 216 × 10² J
Hint: Formula H = I²Rt Joule.

Question 23.
The value of \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\)
(a) 1 kWh
(b) 1 Wh
(c) ampere
(d) volt
Answer:
(d) volt

Question 24.
The mathematical from of Ohm’s law is given by:
(a) V = IR
(b) I = VR
(c) R = \(\frac{I}{V}\)
(d) I = \(\frac{R}{V}\)
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 25.
One kilowatt hour is _____.
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J
(b) 36 × 10⁶ J
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ J
(d) 36 × 10⁵ J.
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J

Question 26.
If the length and radius of a conductor is doubled then its specific resistance will:
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) be tripled
(d) remain the same
Answer:
(d) remain the same

Question 27.
The value of resistivity of nichrome is:
(a) 1.5 × 10⁶ Ωm
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm
(c) 5.1 × 10⁶ Ωm
(d) 5.1 × 10^-6 Ωm
Answer:
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm

Question 28.
Due to short circuit, effective resistance in the circuit becomes _____.
(a) large
(b) very small
(c) very large
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) very small

Question 29.
if a conductor has a length of 1 m and area of 1 m² then its resistivity is equal to its:
(a) resistance
(b) conductance
(c) length
(d) conductivity
Answer:
(a) resistance

Question 30.
When resistors are connected in parallel, potential difference across each resistor will be:
(a) different
(b) same
(c) vary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) same

Question 31.
LED TV screen was developed by James P. Mitchell in _____.
(a) 1797
(b) 1977
(c) 2009
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(b) 1977

Question 32.
Heat developed across a conductor H =
(a) IRt
(b) VR
(c) I²Rt
(d) I²R
Answer:
(c) I²Rt

Question 33.
Expression for electric energy is:
(a) W = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
(b) W = VIt
(c) W = Vt
(d) W = \(\frac{V}{It}\)
Answer:
(b) W = VIt

Question 34.
In our home, fuse box consists of:
(a) fuse wire
(b) MCB
(c) fuse wire or MCB
(d) switches
Answer:
(c) fuse wire or MCB

Question 35.
Which of the following is a semi conductor device?
(a) LED bulb
(b) fuse
(c) MCB
(d) switch
Answer:
(a) LED bulb

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The flow of charge: Electric current. A continuous closed path of an electric current is ………. The unit of charge: Coulomb then-current ……….
2. Electric current I: Charge (Q)/ ………. while electric potential V is ……….
3. A resistor of resistance R:  Then variable resistance and ……….. rheostat ……….
4. In series connection of resistors: ………. Then for parallel connection of resistors: ………..
5. The transformation of energy in Electric oven: ………… Electric cell ………..
6. The expression obtained from Ohm’s law ………… joule’s law
7. The unit of electric power …………. then electric energy ………..
8. The equivalent of 1 volt ………. then for 1 ohm ………..
9. The tap-key is used to ……… and ……….. an electric circuit.
10. The opposition to flow of current is called ………. and its unit is ………..
11. The heat developed in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of ………… and ………. of flow.
12. The S.I unit of electric current is ……….
13. The S.l unit of resistance is ……….
14. ……….. is the S.l unit of potential difference.
15. From Ohm’s law \(\frac{V}{I}\) =
16. If a current 2A flows through conductor having a potential difference of 6 V then its resistance is ……….
17. If R is the resistance of a conductor then its conductance is G = ……….
18. Conductivity is ……… for ……….. than insulators.
19. When resistors are connected in series the equivalent resistance is …………. than the highest resistance of individual resistors.
20. In series connection ……….. is less as effective resistance is more.
21. Tungsten is used as heating element because its resistance is ……….
22. Tungsten is used as filament in the electric bulb because its melting points is …………
23. If a current of 6A flows through a 5Ω resistance for 10 minutes than heat developed in the resistance is ……….
24. When a current of IA flows through a conductor having potential difference of IV, the electric power is ………..
25. 746 watt is equivalent to ………..
26. In displays are used ………….
Answer:
1. Electric circuit, Ampere
2. Time (t), Work done (W)/charge (Q)
3.
4. Current is same, Potential difference is same
5. electrical into heat energy, chemical into electrical energy
6. V = IR, H = I²Rt
7. Kilowatt, want hour
8. \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\), \(\frac{1volt}{1ampere}\)
9. open, close
10. resistance, ohm
11. current, time
12. ampere
13. Ohm 15. R
14. Volt
15. R
16. 3 ohm
17. \(\frac{I}{R}\)
18. more, conductors
19. greater
20. Current
21. high
22. high
23. 108 kJ
24. 1 W
25. 1 horse power
26. LED bulbs

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Current is the rate of flow of charges
2. The symbol of diode is

3. Potential = \(\frac{charge}{time}\)
4. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is V = IR
5. Nichrome is used in electric bulb.
6. The unit of conductance is mho.
7. The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistance.
8. In parallel connection the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}+R_{2}}{R_{1}R_{2}}\)
9. Heat produced in a conductor is H = l²Rt
10. 1 kWh = 3.6 J.
11. An MCB is a switching device.
12. LED means Light Emitting Diode.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False – Potential = \(\frac{Workdone(W)}{Charge(Q)}\)
4. True
5. False – Nichrome is used in heating device.
6. True
7. True
8. False – In parallel connection, the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\)
9. True
10. False – 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J
11. True
12. True

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 2.
Match the components with symbols

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 7.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a series system, equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistance.
Reason: The current that passes through each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion,
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion
Answer:
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In a parallel system, the total current is equal to the sum of the current through each resistor.
Reason: The potential difference across each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: The unit of power watt is not frequently used in practice. Reason: it cannot be converted into Joule.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: A wire carrying a current has electric field around d.
Reason: A wire carrying current is stays electrically neutral.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason a re true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: In order to pass current through electric circuit, it must be closed.
Reason: In our home, the switch is ON, then the current flows through the bulb. So, the bulb glows.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Resistance of a material opposes the flow of charges.
Reason: It is different for different materials.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Reason: The unit of conductivity is Ohm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 8.
Assertion: One end of the earthing wire is connected to a body of the electrical appliance and its other end is connected to a metal tube that is burried into the Earth.
Reason: The earth wire provides low resistance path to the electric current.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: The passage of electric current through a wire results in the production of heat.
Reason: The heating effect is used in electric heater electric iron etc.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: One kilowatt hour is known as one unit of electrical energy.
Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer type Questions

Question 1.
If a charge of QC flows through a conductor in time t second then what is the value of current?
Answer:
Charge = \(\frac{Charge}{time}\)
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)

Question 2.
What is the electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop.
(or)
path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires so as to connect an electric appliance to a source of electric charges (battery).

Question 3.
If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled than what happens its resistance?
Answer:
Resistance of a wire
R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) ………. (1)
l’ = 2l
A’ = 2A
∴ New Resistance
R’ = l × \(\frac{2l}{2A}\)
R’ = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) …….. (2)
Form (1) and (2) it is found that resistance remains unchanged.

Question 4.
What is the unit of resistance and resistivity of a conductor?
Answer:
(i) The unit of resistance is ohm.
(ii) The unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

Question 5.
Define the unit of resistance? (or) Define one ohm.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.
\(\text { Ohm }=\frac{1 \text { volt }}{1 \text { ampere }}\).

Question 6.
What is the unit of conductivity?
Answer:
The unit of conductivity is mho meter.

Question 7.
What is the value of one kilo watt hour?
Answer:
One kilowatt hour = 1000 W hr
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J

Question 8.
What is the heating effect of electric current?
Answer:
The passage of electric current through a wire resulting in the production of heat. This phenomenon is called the heating effect of current. This heating effect of current is used in devices like electric heater, electric iron, etc.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is an electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop (or) path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow.

Question 2.
Draw a circuit diagram to represent a simple electric circuit.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the direction of conventional current?
Answer:
By convention, the direction of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge (or) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 4.
Define electric potential.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Question 5.
What is meant by overloading?
Answer:
(i) Overloading happens when a large number of appliances are connected in series to the same source of electric power. This leads to a flow of excess current in the electric circuit.

(ii) When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 6.
What is meany by short circuit?
Answer:

1. When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short circuit’.
2. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force.
3. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires.
4. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

Question 7.
Draw an electric circuit to understand Ohm’s law.
Answer:

Question 8.
Define resistance of a conductor.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Question 9.
Define Resistance. Give its unit and conductance.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.
Conductance: It is defined as the reciprocal of its resistance (R). Hence, the conductance ‘G’ of a conductor is given by
\(\mathrm{G}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Its unit is ohm^-1. It is also represented as ‘mho’.

Question 10.
Define electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section. Its unit is ohm metre.

Question 11.
What is meant by electrical conductivity?
Answer:
The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
σ = \(\frac{1}{p}\)

Question 12.
Mention the differences between the combination of resistances in series and parallel.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write short notes about filament in electric bulbs.
Answer:
In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 14.
What is meant by electric power?
Answer:
The electric power is the product of the electric current and the potential difference due to which the current passes in a circuit.

Question 15.
What is meant by overloading of an electric circuit?
Answer:
When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 16.
What is meant by LED bulb?
Answer:
An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used.

Question 17.
W hat is meant by seven segment display? state its uses.
Answer:
(i) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text.
(ii) It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, microwave ovens, etc.

Question 18.
What do you know about LED television.
Answer:
LED Television is one of the most important applications of Light Emitting Diodes. An LED TV is actually an LCD TV (Liquid Crystal Display) with LED display. An LED display uses LEDs for backlight and an array of LEDs act as pixels. LEDs emitting white light are used in monochrome (black and white) TV; Red, Green and Blue (RGB) LEDs are used in colour television.

Question 19.
What is fuse wire?
Answer:
The function of fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from excess current due to overloading or a short circuit.

Question 20.
Draw a group between potential difference and current.
Answer:

Question 21.
Write short note about short circuit?
Answer:
When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short ‘ circuit’. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

VIII. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate various components used in electrical circuit and their uses?
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain series connection of parallel resistors.
Answer:

If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, you get a series – parallel circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p1. Similarly, let R₃, and R₄ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p2. Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series. Using equation we get

We get = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….(1)
Finally, using equation (1), the net effective resistance is given by
R_total = R_P1 + R_P2

Question 3.
Explain parallel connection of series resistors.
Answer:
If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, you get a parallel-series circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S1. Similarly, let R₃ and R₄ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S2. Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.

Using equation
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
We get R_S1 = R₁ + R₂, R_S2 = R₃ + R₄
Finally, using equation
\(\frac{1}{R_P}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_3}\)
the net effective resistance is given by
\(\frac{1}{R_{total}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{S1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{S2}}\)

Question 4.
Explain applications of heating effect.
Answer:
Electric Heating Device: The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric heater, geyser, etc. In these appliances Nichrome, which is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium is used as the heating element. Because:
(i) it has high resistivity,
(ii) it has a highmelting point,
(Hi) it is not easily oxidized.

Fuse Wire : The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Filament in bulbs : In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 5.
Write short notes about
(i) LED bulb
(ii) Seven segment display
Answer:
(i) An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used. With the help of the chemical compounds like Gallium Arsenide and Gallium Phosphide, the manufacturer can produce LED bulbs that radiates red, green, yellow and orange colours. Displays in digital watches and calculators, traffic signals, street lights, decorative lights, etc., are some examples for the use of LEDs.

(ii) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text. It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, micro wave ovens, etc. It consists of 7 segments of LEDs in the form of the digit 8. These seven LEDs are named as a, b, c, d, e, f and g. An extra 8th LED is used to display a dot.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron draws a current of 0.5 A when the voltage is 220 volts. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)
Charge Q = ?
Charge I = 0.5 A
Time = 1 hour
= 60 × 60 s
Q = It
= 0.5 × 3600
= 1800 C
The amount of electric charge flowing = 1800 C

Question 2.
A current of 5A flows through a heater for 10 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through the electric circuit.
Answer:
Q = I × t
Current I = 5A
Time t = 10 × 60 = 600 s
= 5 × 600 = 3000 C

Question 3.
A torch bulb draws a current 0.6 A, when glowing from a source of 6 V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when glowing.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.6A
Potential V = 6V
R = ?
R = \(\frac{V}{I}\) = \(\frac{6}{0.6}\) = 10Ω
The resistance of the bulb = 10Ω

Question 4.
Find the potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2 A in a wire of resistant 20Ω.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.2A
Resistance R = 20Ω
Potential difference V = ?
V = 0.2 × 20 = 4V
The potential difference in a wire = 4V

Question 5.
Calculate the amount of work done in moving charge of 25 C across two points having potential difference of 20V.
Answer:
W = QV
Charge Q = 25 C
Potential difference V = 20 V
W = 25 × 20 = 500 J

Question 6.
Three resistances are connected in an electrical circuit as shown in the circuit diagram. Determine the potential difference across resistance R₂.
Answer:

For series connection, the effective resistance
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω
Total potential = 12V
Amount of current flowing through the circuit
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{S}}\) = \(\frac{12V}{6Ω}\) = 2A
Potential difference across resistance R₂
V = I × R₂
= 2 × 2 = 4V
The potential difference across the resistance R₂ = 4 V

Question 7.
In the given network, find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
Answer:

An equivalent of the given network is drawn in the relevant parts as follows: Resistance of the combination R₁ and R₂ is
R_S = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R₁, R₂ and R₃ is

The resistance of series combination R_P1 and R₄ is R_S1 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S1 and R₅ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P2 and R₆ is
R_S2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S2 and R₇ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P3 and R₈ is
R_P3 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S3 and R₉ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P4 and R₆ is
R_S4 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S4 and R₈ is

∴ Resistance between A and B is 5Ω

Question 8.
For a given circuit calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the total current in the circuit
(iii) the current through each resistor.
Answer:

For parallel connection, the effective resistance

(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit
R_P = 0.588Ω

(ii) Total current in the circuit
I = 10.2 A

(iii) Current through R₁ = 6A
Current through R₂ = 3A
Current through R₃ = 1.2A

Question 9.
An electric iron a rating of 750 W, 220 V.
(i) Calculate current passing through it and
(ii) Its resistance when in use.
Answer:
P = VI
I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
Ohm’s law V = IR

(i) The amount of current passing
I = 3.4A
(ii) Resistance
R = 64.7Ω

Question 10.
Following graph was plotted between V and I values. What would be the values of \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V and 1.2 V?
Answer:

V₁ = 0.8V, I₁ = 32A; V₂ = 1.2V; I₂ = 48A

Question 11.
Three resistors of 2Ω, 4Ω and 8Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 3 V. Calculate
(i) Current through each resistor and
(ii) Total current in the circuit.
Answer:

Potential difference across each resistor is same.
(i) Current through each resistor:

(ii) Total current in the circuit: I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
I = 1.5 + 0.75 + 0. 375
I = 2.625 A

Question 12.
Two bulbs of 40 W and 60 W are connected in series to an external potential difference. Which bulb will glow brighter? Why?
Answer:
Let the external potential difference be 230 V

For 40 W bulb resistance is R

For 60 W bulb resistance is R

According to Ohm’s law
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
Current flowing through 40 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{1322.5}\) = 0.1739 A
Current flowing through 60 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{881.6}\) = 0.2608 A
When bulbs are connected in series effective resistance is
R_S = R₁+ R₂ = 1322.5 + 881.6
R_S = 2204.1Ω
Net current
I = \(\frac{230}{2204.1}\) = 0.1043 A
Using power equation P = I²R
For 40 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 1322.5
= (0.01087) × 1322.5 = 14.386 W
For 60 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 881.6
= (0.01087) × 881.6 = 9.5904 W
In a series system, higher the resistance, higher the brightness so, 40 W bulb glows brighter.

Question 13.
A wire is bent into a circle. The effective resistance across the diameter is 8Ω. Find the resistant if the wire.
Answer:
R_P = 8Ω = resistance across diameter
\(\frac{1}{R}\) + \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
\(\frac{2}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
R = 16Ω
x is the resistance of the wire.
x = 16 + 16 = 32Ω
x = 32Ω

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
A 60 W bulb is connected in parallel with a room heater. This combination is connected across the mains. If 60 W bulb is replaced by a 100 W bulb what happens to the heat produced by the heater? Given reason.
Answer:
Heat produced by the heater will be same. When the bulb and a heater are connected in parallel and this combination is connected across the mains, potential difference across each is the same equal to the voltage V of the mains irrespective of the resistance of the bulb.

If R is the resistance of the heater then heat produced by the heater will be \(\frac{V^2}{R}\) in both cases. Hence heat produces by heater will not be changed.

Question 2.
Two bulbs 60 W and 100 W are connected in series and this combination is connected to a d.c power supply. Will the potential difference across 60 W bulb be higher than that across 100 W bulb?
Answer:
60 W bulb has a higher resistance than the resistance across 100 W bulb since the power developed is P = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Potential difference across a bulb will be proportional to resistance. Hence potential difference across 60 W bulb is higher than that across 100 W bulb.

Question 3.
Super conductors has lowest resistance. Is it true. Give reason.
Answer:
True. When the temperature of super conductor is reduced to zero or near by zero its resistance becomes zero.

Question 4.
A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and radius of the wire is doubled then what happens to the heat produced in the wire?
Answer:
We know that resistance of a conducting wire is R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\)
\(\frac{Pl}{πr^{2}}\)
If length l and radius r are doubled, then resistance will become half. But heat produced H = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Hence, heat produced per second will become thrice.

Question 5.
Calculate the effective resistance between A and B.
Answer:

The electrical circuit can be redrawn as

The resistance R₁ and R₂ are in series
R_S = R₁ + R₂ = 2 + 2 = 4Ω
The resistance R_S and R₃ are in parallel

∴ Effective resistance R_eff= 1.33Ω

Question 6.
Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5Ω and 10Ω respectively. Calculate the ratio of radii of the two wires.
Answer:
Resistance

∴ r₁ : r₂ = √2 : 1

Question 7.
An iron box of 400 W power is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, find the weekly expense on using the iron box.
Answer:
Power P = 400 W

Energy consumed = Power × Time
= 400 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 200 Wh
Energy consumed in one week= 200 × 7
= 1400 Wh = 1.4 kWh
= 1.4 unit
∴ Total cost per week = 1.4 × 0.75 = Rs 1.05
Weekly expense = Rs 1.05

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The whole family walked about on the big plateau.
(a) highland
(b) pinnacle
(c) lake
(d) valley
Answer:
(a) highland

Question 2.
Before I could intervene, the cops were in the attic.
(a) interfere
(b) interrogate
(c) instigate
(d) investigate
Answer:
(a) interfere

Question 3.
Nagen had a rustic look.
(a) urban
(b) rural
(c) modem
(d) crude
Answer:
(d) crude

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I gave my crew members the best dishes with the limited resources.
(a) limitations
(b) partial
(c) incomplete
(d) boundless
Answer:
(d) boundless

Question 5.
They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion
(b) enclosure
(c) addition
(d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

Question 6.
The man was startled.
(a) annoyed
(b) alarmed
(c) reassured
(d) amused
Answer:
(c) reassured

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘millennium’.
(a) millennia
(b) millenniums
(c) millenniumes
(d) millenniaas
Answer:
(a) millennia

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – imagine.
(a) or
(b) ary
(c) al
(d) tion
Answer:
(d) tion

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation SAARC.
(a) South African Association for Regional Cooperation
(b) South Asian Association for Railways Cooperation
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Corporation
Answer:
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The match was ……………. due to rain.
(a) called upon
(b) called on
(c) called off
(d) called at
Answer:
(c) called off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘flower’ to form a compound word.
(a) sun
(b) rain
(c) sky
(d) son
Answer:
(a) sun

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The cat was hiding …………………….. the table.
(a) by
(b) under
(c) at
(d) for
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
I speak, and the words appear on my screen and then ……………………….. I them out.
(a) can be printed
(b) can printing
(c) were printed
(d) can print
Answer:
(d) can print

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
The baby isn’t sleeping, ………………………. it’s late.
(a) in spite
(b) even though
(c) although
(d) so
Answer:
(b) even though

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section -I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What happened to the young seagull when it landed on the green sea?
Answer:
When the young seagull landed on the green sea, he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly and shrieked shrilly, turning his beak sideways and crowed amusedly. He screamed with fright when he dropped his legs to stand on the green sea and sank into it.

Question 16.
What was the mean act of Holmes with Dr. Watson?
Answer
When Dr. Watson offered to examine symptoms and treat him Holmes said he would have a doctor in whom he had confidence. This was really very rude of Holmes and showed his madness.

Question 17.
What is the meaning of Tarini? Why is it worshipped?
Answer
The word ‘Tarini ’ means ‘boat ’ and in Sanskrit it means ‘ Saviour ’. Tara – Tarini is worshipped for safety and success at sea.

Question 18.
What did Sasanka tell Aditya, looking at the fifteen ten-rupee notes in his hand?
Answer
Sasanka said to Aditya, ‘Aditya, this smacks too much of charity. Doesn’t it? I had recognised you at Nagen uncle’s tea shop by that mole on your right cheek. I could see you had not recognised me. So I recited the same poem that I had recited on the prize-giving day, on purpose, so that you may remember. Then, when you came to visit me, I couldn’t help venting my anger on you.’

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(a) How can one travel on with cheer?
(b) What is meant by ‘veil’?
Answer
(a) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.
(b) A veil is a cover that is used to partially hide something.

Question 20.
“And so it were wisest to keep our feet From wandering into Complaining Street;”
(a) What is the wisest thing that the poet suggests?
(b) What does the phrase ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to?
Answer
(a) The wisest thing is to avoid wandering into the complaining street.
(b) The phrase, ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to restricting your path from strolling.

Question 21.
“At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold,”
(a) What made the cricket bold?
(b) Why did the cricket drip and tremble?
Answer
(а) Starvation and hunger made the cricket bold.
(b) The cricket dripped wet and trembled with cold because it was winter.

Question 22.
“Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) What is the requirement of the machines?
(b) What does the second line indicate?
Answer
(a) The requirement of the machines is water, coal and oil.
(b) The second line indicates the close arrangement of the nuts, screws and bolts.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer
I will never forget this experience.
This experience will not be forgotten by me

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer
They asked us, “Are you going anywhere at the weekend.?”
They asked us if we were going anywhere at the weekend.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Answer

• M Hamel saw me and said very kindly go to your place quickly, little Franz we were beginning without you
• M. Hamel saw me and said very kindly, “Go to your place quickly, little Franz. We were beginning without you

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer
He is rich, yet he is unhappy.
Despite being rich he is unhappy.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Six puppies / to/ had / Maya’s / given birth / dog
(b) Many times / Sita told Ravi / two dogs / have / already / we
Answer
(a) Maya’s dog had given birth to six puppies.
(b) Many times Sita told Ravi we already have two dogs.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Help the stranger from Mariadass street to reach his/her destination, Madha Poonga with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps

• From Mariadoss street, proceed further and take the left at the crossroads on P.V.Koil Street.
• Go further down and cross Andhra Post office on the left and R.K.Oil Mill on the right.
• After half a furlong, you must take the right on P. V.Koil street where you will find Madha Poonga on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
What do you know about James Thurber, the narrator?
Answer:
The narrator James Thurber, presents himself as acting judiciously, although his actions are uncommon to raise the uncertainties of the policemen. He is the first person in the household to hear the mysterious sound, as he is stepping out of the bathtub at 1:15 a.m. on November 17th. After waking his brother Herman, he is the one who resolves that the reason of the sound downstairs must be an apparition. When his hasty mother decides that the sounds must be caused by intruders, the narrator thinks that she is past reasoning. Even when the cops arrive, he is still wrapped in a towel from his bath.

Later, when the reporter comes around asking questions, the narrator puts on one of his mother’s blouses, explaining that it is the only thing that he can find at the moment. He chooses to be honest with the reporter and tell him that the problem was caused by ghosts, but the reporter does not take him earnestly. Later, when the policeman who has been shot by Grandfather wants to challenge him and take his gun back, the narrator mediates with composed receptivity and offers to take the gun over to the police station in the morning.
“A judicious reticence is hard to learn, but
it is a lifetime lesson.’’

Question 30.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently-abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life. Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Blutooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smart watch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music. iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
“Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation.”

Question 31.
What do you know about the Navikaa Sagar Parikrama?
Answer:
Navika Sagar Parikrama was a project undertaken in consonance with the National policy to empower women to attain their full potential. The Project is considered essential towards promoting ocean sailing activities in the Navy while depicting Government of India’s thrust for Nari Shakti which means women power. The Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sunil Lanba gave his welcome speech when this project was launched.

The voyage was aimed to show case ‘Make in India’ initiative by sailing on-board indigenously built INSV Tarini. The special feature of this sailboat is that it encouraged use of environment friendly non-conventional renewable energy resources such as the wind; collected and updated meteorological, ocean and wave data on regular basis for accurate weather forecast by India Meteorological Department (IMD) and also collected data for monitoring marine pollution on high seas.
“The goal is not to sail the boats, but rather to help the boat sail herself.’’

Question 32.
‘Man does change with time’-What were the various changes that came about in Aditya?
Answer:
Man does change with time. According to Sanyal, Aditya was a boy who could never compete him in scholastic or non-scholastic activities. He was a liar and an envious personality. But, years later Aditya no longer is the same personality. He is more matured and responsible. His childish nature makes him feel guilty, for stealing the medal that belonged to Sanyal.

Aditya now wanted to restore Sanyal, his lost happiness. Knowing about his financial constraints, he decides to give him the cost of the silver medal. He drives with a firm determination to his ancestral house. When he reaches, he rushes to the attic. Aditya gets on top of a packing Case and pushes his hand inside the ventilator, upsetting a sparrow’s nest. However, he heaves a sigh of relief when he gets what he had been looking for. He goes straight to the Jeweller to determine the current rate of the medal in the market. All these surely show a remarkable change in him.

Even when Sanyal behaves rudely, Aditya is courteous and friendly. His only intention is penitence. He is so mature that he even understands and justifies the grievances Sanyal had in his heart. When Sanyal prefers the medal, without second thoughts he restores it to Sanyal whole-heartedly.
“Change is universal.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Narrate the fable of ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ in your own words.
Answer:
The silly young cricket was fun-loving. He used to sing all through the pleasant sunny months of summer and spring. He was short-sighted. He didn’t bother to store food for the rainy season and cold winter. When the earth was covered with ice and snow, he found that he had nothing to eat and his cupboard was empty. There were no flowers nor leaves on the trees. He grew nervous. Starvation could be seen over his face. Wet with the rain and shivering with cold, the hungry cricket went to an ant to get shelter and food.

He made it clear that he would return the borrowed grain the next day. With humility, the miserly ant said that he was surely the servant and friend of the cricket. But as a matter of principle, the ants neither borrow nor lend. He asked why he never bothered to store something for the rainy day. The cricket admitted that he had been careless and foolish. He enjoyed the beauties of summer and sang merrily. The ant then told him bluntly to go and dance all winter and turned the poor cricket out.
‘Prudence is foresight and farsightedness. ’

Question 34.
The poem ‘No men are foreign’ has a greater relevance in today’s world. Elucidate.
Answer:
The poet, James Kirkup, quotes various instances to prove that no men are foreign. The very title of the poem is thought-provoking and forces the reader to think about the issue of people living in other countries as foreigners and strangers. As the poem advances, the poet recurrently emphasises that all human beings are indistinguishable in their nature and tactics. All live on the same earth; enjoy air, sun and water; love peace and are opposed to war.

They all have mutual experiences and toil in a similar manner to earn the living. The realistic reasoning put forth by the poet and the numerous reminders fully satisfy the reader that no men are foreign. He gets the message that alienation from fellow brethren is equally damaging to himself. He also understands that by treating other men as foreign, the world stands exposed to the risk of war which can lead to permanent destruction and pollution of mother earth. It is true that many people have been telling us to live harmoniously since long. We never follow their message.

We also know that our greed to get more wealth and power cannot give us peaceful life. But some deep-rooted evils in our society make us draw a distinction between people. We know that all customs and conventions have been made by people. We start to hate even our family members due to our ego to be more powerful. By doing so, we at last harm ourselves. In society, people dislike selfish people. So before going to hurt other’s feeling, first of all we should think whether doing such act with others are justified by other people or society.
‘Smile at strangers and you just might change a life. ’

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal; – Not mourning for the things that disappear ”
(i) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) What is the figure of speech used in the second line?
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(iv) Give an example of the usage of couplet in the above stanza.
Answer:
(i) ‘Let, live, life’ are the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) The figure of speech is alliteration, (e.g. forward face)
(iii) Year and disappear; soul and goal are the rhyming words.
(iv) With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
Answer:
Here it is clearly stated that the only requirement for the machine is water, coal and oil. The moving parts may have a clearance of a thousandth of an inch which may be the permissible variation from the required dimensions. These parts are closely arranged with bolts and nuts leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels. With such a setup, the machines are willing to work round the clock, non-stop without any rest.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the great sea.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (iv), (v), (i), (ii)
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the
great sea.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The next room, a broad gallery about a quarter of a mile long, was devoted to publicity, and it well may be imagined what the publicity for such a journal as the Earth Herald had to be. It brought in a daily average of three million dollars. They are gigantic signs reflected on the clouds, so large that they can be seen all over a whole country.

From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, these inordinate advertisements. At that moment the clock struck twelve. The director of the Earth Herald left the hall and sat down in a rolling armchair. In a few minutes he had reached his dining room half a mile away, at the far end of the office. The table was laid and he took his place at it.

Within reach of his hand was placed a series of taps and before him was the curved surface of a phonotelephote, on which appeared the dining room of his home in Paris. Mr and Mrs Bennett had arranged to have lunch at the same time – nothing could be more pleasant than to be face to face in spite of the distance, to see one another and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.
Questions
(i) Where was the broad gallery?
(ii) What happened in the broad gallery?
(iii) What was the income of the Earth Herald every day?
(iv) Why did the director sit on the roiling armchair?
(v) State the use of the phonoteleohote.
Answer:
(i) The broad gallery was in Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper.
(ii) The broad gallery was devoted to publicity. From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, inordinate advertisements.
(iii) The income of Earth Herald was an average of three million dollars every day.
(iv) He sat down in a rolling armchair to reach his dining room which was half a mile away, at the far end of the office.
(v) One can see each other and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Branded water purifier – Introductory offer only Rs. 8,500/-. Best virus remover

Question 40.
You are S. Sundaram. Write a letter to the Commissioner of Chennai Corporation, complaining about the poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in your locality.
Answer:
S. Sundaram
34, Periyar Road
Chennai-46
19 September, 20XX
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai
Sir,
Sub: Poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in Periyar Road I want to draw your kind attention towards the poor sanitary conditions prevailing in our locality – Periyar Road. It seems that the cleaners have forgotten the existence of this locality on the civic map of Chennai. Heaps of rubbish are lying here and there, with flies swarming around and pigs wallowing in the filth and mud caused by the overflow of dirty water from the drains on to the road. The drains are choked as they are neither cleaned nor flushed.

The dirty water collects on the road forming cesspools of filthy water. There are also many pits on the roads which are full of drain water. All these serve as breeding places for mosquitoes. The mosquito menace is so intense in our locality that we have to use anti mosquito sprays, mats and repellants have undisturbed sleep for a couple of hours. You are requested to pay
a surprise visit to the locality and judge the state yourself. Kindly take some immediate and effective steps to improve the sanitation and rid us of the menace of mosquitoes.

Hoping for a favourable action.
Yours faithfully
S. Sundaram

Address on the envelope
To
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai

Question 41.
You are Juliet / Gideon, Gymkhana Club of Coimbatore. Draft a notice to be sent to the members asking them to attend the extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body (Insert the necessary details).
Answer:

Gymkhana Club, Coimbatore 10 March 20XX NOTICE Members are requested to make it convenient to attend an extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body to discuss amendments in guest charges and monthly subscriptions. Date : 20th March 20XX Time : 7 p.m. Place : Gymkhana Club Complex, Coimbatore Governing Body members are requested to stay for dinner. Prabhat/Parvi Secretary

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Circus
In the world of public entertainment, circus occupies a prominent place. We feel thrilled to watch the antics of the lion, bear and elephants who dance to their ring master’s tunes. Animals were born free, but man has tamed them and uses them for his own benefit. The tricks and feats of these animals provide a sheer contrast to the adventurous feats of performing artistes. The children express their joy with clapping while the grown-ups just marvel at the daredevilry of the ringmasters.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country.

The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3,1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Notes
Title: Greatness of India
1. (a) Greatness of the country – people
(b) our country men are second to none
(c) From the ancient people Indians excelled in arts and crafts
(d) After Independence Government took steps to improve in all spheres
(e) The first five year plan was designed
(f) Green revolution attained self sufficiency

2. (a) The present age is the atomic age
(b) India made the first nuclear explosion
(c) India sent cosmonauts to space

Summary

Title: Greatness of India
Rough Draft
India fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful clear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian effort we have sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft:

India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence by the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 55

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari by the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons are a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture are most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior than my father in service.
(e) He is going everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.
Answer:
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari in the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons is a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture is most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior to my father in service.
(e) He goes everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, no …………… and water.
Answer:
Remember, no men are strange, no countries foreign
Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes
Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon
Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.
They, too, aware of sun and air and water,

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Love of a son for his mother – opposition to the law – tyrant – elderly people inefficient – importance of aged people – decree. Foothills – proclamation – cruel decree – killing aged people wasn’t common – poor farmer distressed.
Answer:
“The Aged Mother” by Matsuo Basho is a Japanese folklore about the love of a son for his mother and the mother’s love in return for her son. They encountered this agony as an opposition to the law of placing aged people to death. The tyrant stated the law of killing the elderly people because he was a warrior himself who felt that only the young men and women who were robust were useful to the country. According to the warrior, elderly people were inefficient and couldn’t be obliging to individuals who were however healthy as him.

To such a despotic leader, the importance of aged people was insignificant. Hence, he pronounced it as a decree. When the poor farmer and his aged mother who lived in a poor hut of the foothills in the country of Shining heard the proclamation by the despotic leader who announced the cruel decree of killing elderly people in that place, their heart was distressed. During this period, killing aged people wasn’t common. Therefore, when the poor farmer came to know of the decree he bore sadness in his heart. He was extremely concerned and was in deep thoughts to make an escape.

[OR]

(b) Narrate the story of Zigzag by developing the following hints.
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family – shelter Somu’s new pet – talks twenty-one languages – genuine African witch doctor’s gift – to Mrs Krishnan a nuisance – children Arvind, Maya – the unique gifts – ZigZag, a disappointment – steadfast sleep – chandelier and fan blades – maid Lakshmi – unfinished masterpiece -e-mail – seventh day – reply – Zig Zag’s snore take a turn – at the clinic.
Answer:
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family shelters Somu’s new pet, Zig-Zag, a queer-looking African bird, who is known for talking and singing in twenty-one different languages. They consider Zigzag to be a harmless, unusual and lovable bird bred by a genuine African witch doctor, who gifted it to Somu when he toured the deepest jungles of Africa. To Somu, the bird is an absolute treasure and a real help. Mrs. Krishnan considers it a nuisance.

Their son Arvind and daughter Maya are keen on having the pet. They both discuss the unique gifts given by Uncle Somu viz insect-eating plant, tiny shark teeth penknife and the aboriginal boomerang. ZigZag turns out to be a disappointment for the Krishnan family. Zigzag does nothing but sleep and snore to annoy all around. All attempts to awaken the bird goes in vain. The bird at first before resorting to a steadfast sleep eats the nuts and fruits, keeps them safe in the chandelier and the fan blades.

The maid Lakshmi shrieks in an excited manner thinking she is blessed with papayas and bananas raining inside the room. Mrs. Krishnan is annoyed at the slice of overripe papaya whizzing off the fan and splattering all over her unfinished masterpiece – Sunset at Marina spreading streaks of gooey orange pulp and shiny black seeds all over it. Dr. Krishnan leaves an e-mail message for Somu, asking him for clear instructions on how to stop Zigzag from snoring. On the seventh day, they receive the reply that he never sleeps nor snores. Mrs. Krishnan wants it to be sent to Visu as her friends and experts will come home and choose her paintings for the exhibition. Krishnan takes ZigZag in the car and hopes to find Visu so that ZigZag’s snore doesn’t add to the din of the sobs and shrieks produced by the tiny patients waiting for him.

However, Ziggy-Zagga, King-of-the-Tonga, was not familiar to being kept waiting, makes his way to the clinic where he perches himself on the nurse’s reception table. Suddenly things take a turn when ZigZag starts speaking. It’s Zigzag’s voice, clear and commanding. Gone was Zigzag’s bored and grumpy expression. Instead, the bird looked happy and alert as it went about the job it had been trained for, first with the African witch doctor and then with Dr. Somu.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
Rambutan is a close cousin of the litchi fruit, but not as well known. It is a member of the Sapindaceae family and resembles the litchi, except for its long, flesh coloured spines. Rambutan (Napheluim lappaceum) is an ever green tropical tree which reaches a height of 50 to 80 feet and has a straight trunk, with a dense spreading crown. There are both male and female trees and only female trees bear fruit. It grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.

Rambutan is usually propagated by seeds. The seeds taken from the fruit, may be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system. While harvesting the entire fruit cluster must be cut from the branch. The fruit must be kept dry and well ventilated to prevent them from getting spoilt. The peeled fruits are occasionally stewed as dessert.

Questions.
(a) Which fruit does the Rambutan look like?
(b) What is the botanical name for Rambutan?
(c) What kind of soil is ideal for Rambutan?
(d) Why should the seed be planted horizontally?
Answer:
(a) Rambutan looks like the litchi but for the long, flesh coloured spines.
(b) The botanical name for Rambutan is Napheluim lappaceum.
(c) Rambutan grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.
(d) The seed should be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
All are over: does truth sound bitter As one at first believes?
Mark, ‘tis the sparrow’s good night twitter About our cottage eaves?
And the leaf-buds on the vine are woolly,
I noticed that, today;
One day more bursts them open fully You know the red turns grey.
Tomorrow we meet the same then, dearest?
May I take your hand in mine?
Mere friends are we — well, friends the merest Keep much that I resign:
For each glance of the eye so bright and black,
Though I keep with heart’s endeavour, —
Your voice, when you wish the snowdrops back,
Though it stays in my soul forever!
Yet I will but say what mere friends say,
Or only a thought stronger.
I will hold your hand but as long as all may,
Or so very little longer.

Questions.
(a) What is meant by the words, ‘All are over’?
(b) What did the poet note?
(c) What is the deep-rooted desire of the poet?
(d) What are the two things praised in the poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘All are over’ means that the love affair between the lover and his mistress has come to an end.
(b) The poet noted the sparrow’s good night twitter in the cottage roof-space and the leaf- buds on the vine which had gone woolly.
(c) The deep-rooted desire of the poet is to win back his lost beloved.
(d) The eyes and voice are the two things praised in this poem.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 3

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
One is liable to put in too much milk.
(a) certain (b) responsible (c) eager (d) likely
Answer:
(b) responsible

Question 2.
Two children had given me a profound lesson.
(a) shallow (b) intense (c) modest (d) humble
Answer:
(b) intense

Question 3.
I cooked them over the fierce flames.
(a) benign (b) mild (c) ferocious (d) sublime
Answer:
(c) ferocious

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
I have liberty to be indifferent to you.
(a) disinterested (b) heedless (c) unconcerned
Answer:
(c) unconcerned

Question 5.
Liberties of all may be preserved.
(a) damaged (b) retained (c) conserved
Answer:
(a) damaged

Question 6.
This trolley was commandeered by an intrepid crew of two.
(a) adventurous (b) daring (c) bold (d) timid
Answer:

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘mind blowing’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Gerund (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Gerund

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of IIM.
(a) Indian Institute of Minorities (b) Indian Institute of Managers (c) Indian Institute of Marine (d) Indian Institute of Management
Answer:
(d) Indian Institute of Management

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
Bhaskar was John’s Protege.
(a) villain (b) relative (c) disciple (d) superior
Answer:
(d) superior

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Webinar.
(a) Web + Minar (b) Website + Seminar (c) Web + Portal (d) Web + Seminar
Answer:
(b) Website + Seminar

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for ‘veterinarian’.
(a) vegan (b) vegin (c) vet (d) veteran
Answer:
(c) vet

Question 12.
Someone who makes animated films with a series of drawings on paper or on the computer is called ………………….. .
(a) infanticide (b) animator (c) parricide (d) fratricide
Answer:
(b) animator

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘hostile’.
(a) -eous (b) -ly (c) -y (d) -ity
Answer:

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun. I remember a time radio shows were popular.
(a) when (b) where (c) which (d) whose
Answer:
(d) whose

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition. My friend has been living in UK ………………………… two years.
(a) since (b) in (c) for (d) at
Answer:
(a) since

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. I shouldn’t have lost my temper, …………………………?
(a) shall I (b) should I (c) wouldn’t I (d) won’t I
Answer:
(c) wouldn’t I

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
His arrogant behavior with others has left him ‘high and dry’.
(a) to be penniless (b) to be very sick (c) to be very famous (d) isolated
Answer:
(d) isolated

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Joseph was half bald at 25.
(a) follicular challenged (b) hairless (c) hairy (d) glaring
Answer:
(a) follicular challenged

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. What is important is what you have left.
(a) SVC (b) SVOCA (c) SVOAA (d) SVCA
Answer:
(a) SVC

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
When I …………………….. my own recipe, I find eleven outstanding points.
(a) get into (b) look out (c) put into (d) look through
Answer:
(d) look through

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“What could they offer us for bait?
Our captain was brave and we were true…”
(a) What do you mean by bait?
(b) Why did the soldiers believe that they were invincible?
Answer:
(а) Bait means something intended to entice someone to do something usually dishonorable.
(b) The soldiers believed that they were invincible because their captain was brave and they were loyal.

Question 22.
“For your sakes, shall the tree be ever dear.
Blent with your images, it shall arise
In memory, till the hot tears blind mine eyes!”
(a) For whose sake will the trees be dear to the poet?
(b) Whose images bring out hot tears?
Answer:
(a) For the sake of three younger Dutts who died of Tuberculosis, the tree will be dear to Torn Dutt.
(b) The images of siblings who died due to TB bring out hot tears.

Question 23.
“All the world’s a stage
And all the men and women merely players:
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
His acts being seven ages.”
(a) How are the men and women of this world?
(b) Explain: ‘They have their exits and their entrances’.
Answer:
(a) The men and women of this world are just like players on the stage of life.
(b) They take birth and enter the world. They die and depart from the world.

Question 24.
“And this might stand him for the storms and serve him for humdrum monotony”
(a) What does the poet mean by storms?
(b) What can help the son overcome “the boring routine” in life?
Answer:
(a) The poet means life’s challenges by ‘storms’.
(b) One can overcome ‘the boring routine’ by keeping a strong steel/rock-like will power and face life boldly.

Question 25.
“…., for my purpose holds
To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths Of all the western stars, until I die”
(a) What was Ulysses’ purpose in life?
(b) How long would his venture last?
Answer:
(a) Ulysses proposes to sail beyond sunset and baths. His goal is not death but is in death. He seeks life in death. Ordinary mortals can’t reach ‘Happy isles’ or baths while they are alive. Ulysses wants to find direct evidence of spiritual reality after death. He wants to venture into the unknown.
(b) His venture would last until he confronts his death.

Question 26.
“Full-galloping: nor bridle drew
Until he reached the mound.”
(a) Why was the rider in a hurry?
(b) Where did the soldier stop? Why?
Answer:
(a) The rider was carrying an urgent message to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The soldier stopped at the mound. Napoleon Bonaparte was expecting news about the outcome of the battle at Ratisbon.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Silas : Dad, John is visiting us today.
Dad : Did you tell your mother about it?
Silas told his dad that John was visiting them that day. Dad asked Silas if he had told his mother about it.

Question 28.
He must carry out my orders. Otherwise he will be sacked, (combine using if)
Answer:
If he does not carry out my orders, he will be sacked.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If it had not rained yesterday, we would have finished painting the walls.
Answer:
Had it not rained yesterday, we would have finished painting the walls.

Question 30.
He said that he was so disappointed that he would not try again. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
He said that he was too disappointed to try it again.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
A creeper climbs, in whose embraces bound No other tree could live.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while appreciating the strength of her Casuarina tree.

Explanation: The creeper saps the tree for its survival and growth. But the tree treats the creeper’s tight hold as a lover’s embrace. It ignores bite marks oflove.lt allows the creeper to lean on its trunk and live. The tree also grows stout and strong.

Question 32.
Is second childishness and mere oblivion
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says this while man gets ready to leave this world (i.e.) the last stage of his life on this lonely planet.

Explanation: In this stage, man becomes totally forgetful. He loses his teeth, eyesight and taste. He loses all his senses of perception. Like a baby, he can’t do anything on his own. So, the poet calls this stage “second childhood” when the old man behaves in a childish manner.

Question 33.
Tell him too much money has killed men and left them dead years before burial:
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘A Father to his Son” written by Carl August Sandburg.

Context: The poet says these words while dwelling on the evil effects of amassing wealth beyond basic needs.

Explanation: Oliver Goldsmith says, “Where wealth accumulates, man decays.” The poet says that a man who amasses wealth against ethical principles is spiritually dead. The wealth earned should benefit a large number of people and not the individual who initiated the wealth.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What are the author’s views on China tea?
Answer:
China tea has virtues which are not to be despised. It is economic. One can drink it without milk. But there is not much stimulation in it. One does not feel wiser, braver or more optimistic after drinking it.

Question 35.
Why does Dr. Barnard describe the blind boy as a ‘walking horror’?
Answer:
At the time of the grand prix, the boy was a walking horror. His face was disfigured. A long flap of skin was hanging from the side of his neck to his body. As the wound healed around his neck, his lower jaw became gripped in a mass of fibrous tissue. The only way he could open his mouth was to raise his head.

Question 36.
How would ‘liberty’ cause universal chaos?
Answer:
When liberty is used without accommodating the interests of others, it results in universal chaos. Everybody would be getting in everybody else’s way. Nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would become a social anarchy.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

Expenditure of the State Government Public Welfare
(a) Which is the sector for which the State Government spends the most?
(b) What is the percent of expenditure made by the State Government on Public Welfare?
(c) What is the percent of expenditure made by the State Government on Transport?
Answer:
(a) The State Government spends for Education the most.
(b) Eighteen percent of the expenditure by the state government is on public welfare.
(c) Thirty percent of the expenditure by the state government is on transport.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a reporter and an entrepreneur.
Answer:
Reporter: How did you become the owner of such a large chain of grocery stores?
Brown : I couldn’t read nor write and being an uneducated person I lost my job.
Reporter: What do you mean by saying that the reason is because you could not read or write?
Brown : Yes because of that, I had to leave my job as the vicar of St. Peter’s church.
Reporter: Why did you leave your job as vic’ar of St. Peter’s church?
Brown : I was sent away by the Priest as I couldn’t read nor write as the Vicar.

Question 39.
Describe the process of recycling waste materials.
Answer:
The first step is to collect the materials that can be recycled such as Aluminum cans, Car Bumpers, Newspapers and paper towels, Motor oil, Nails, Trash bags, Egg cartons and Laundry detergent bottles.

Once the items have been collected the next step is to find a secondary use of the material. Recycled material is used in many manufacturing processes and many companies have found very innovative uses for the materials.

The next step in the process is to purchase goods made from recycled materials. When in the grocery store check out the labelling and often you will see where the product is made with a percentage of post-consumer products.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) One man’s meat is another man’s ………………… (prison, poison, gift)
(b) People who live in glass houses should not throw ………………… (water, fruits, stones)
(c) Every cloud has a silver ………………… (lining, finish, colour)
Answer:
(a) poison (b) stones (c) lining

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Describe the ‘Grand Prix’ at Cape Town’s Red Cross Children’s Hospital.
Answer:
The author describes the event as “the Grand Prix of Cape Town’s Red Cross Childrens’ Hospital”. A nurse had left a breakfast trolley unattended. Very soon this trolley was commandeered by a daring crew of two, a driver and a mechanic. The mechanic provided motor power by galloping along behind the trolley head down. While the driver, seated on the lower deck held on with one hand and steered it by scrapping his foot on the floor. The choice of roles was easy because the mechanic was totally blind and the driver had only one arm. It was better than Indianapolis 500 car race. Patients shouted and cheered the boys. There was a grand finale of scattered plates and silverware before the nurse and ward sister took control of the situation.

[OR]

How did Hillary and Tenzing prepare themselves before they set off to the summit?
Answer:
They started up their cookers and drank lots of lemon juice and sugar. Then they took sardines and biscuits. Hillary cleaned the ice off the oxygen sets. He rechecked and tested them. He had removed his boots which had become wet the day before. They were now frozen solid. It would be very challenging to start climbing ice-cold Himalayas with such wet and chilling boots. So, he cooked them over the fierce flame of Primus and managed to soften them up.

They were also conscious of the probabilityof braving snow storms during the ascent. They fortified their clothing with wind proof and also pulled three pairs of gloves silk, woollen, and windproof on to their hands. At 6.30 am they crawled out of their tent into the snow. They hoisted their 30 lb. of oxygen gear on their backs. Connecting their oxygen masks they turned on the valves to bring life-giving oxygen into their lungs. Taking a few deep breaths, they got ready to go.

Question 42.
How does nature communicate with the Toru Dutt?
Answer:
Like Wordsworth, Toru Dutt is also a great lover of nature. She has also had mystical experiences in communion with nature. The emotional bonding between herself and the giant Casuarina tree is beyond reason. When she is away on the shores of Italy and France, she could distinctly hear the dirge-like murmer of her beloved tree who obviously missed her. She could perceive it as the tree’s lament and eerie speech expressing its anguish over the long spells of her absence.

Ordinary human eyes will fail to perceive the distinct communication of the Casuarina tree. But through the eyes of faith, similar to William Wordsworth’s inward eye in the poem ‘Daffodils’ it is possible. She was able to vividly see in her inner vision the sublime form of the Casuarina tree. The surprising thing is that she was able to see the tree in its prime in her own “loved native clime.”

[OR]

What is Ulysses’ clarion call to his sailors? How does he inspire them?
Answer:
In the third part of the poem, Ulysses makes a clarion call to his hearty compatriots (i.e.) mariners. They have been with him both during ‘thick and thin’ or thunders or sunshine. They had frolicsome time fighting along with Ulysses against great warriors and Gods in the past. Ulysses does not want to live in memory of glory. He believes they need not waste away their precious time in nostalgic memories just recounting their escapades to younger generation. He is conscious of the impending death in old age. But he tells it is not “too late to seek a newer world”.

The many “voices of the ocean” call out to the mariners to resume voyage. He does not want his compatriots to miss even an hour which could provide them novel experiences in their voyage. He persuades his compatriots to gather at the port as the sails are already puffing up welcoming them all. Their life would be one of fulfillment only when they venture out into the unknown on the seas. He uses an emotional bait to his mariners.

He highlights the probable outcome of their voyage. They might reach the “Happy Isles” (i.e.) great paradise and meet Achilles, their war hero. No matter how much strength they have, they still have some “strength of will” left to strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Children reaction – touch of sunlight – tan themselves – teacher warns – take off jackets – jungle in the Venus – colour of stones – ran among trees – hide and seek – breathed off the fresh air – blessed sea of soundlessness – savoured everything – mirth for one hour.
Answer:
Children get really excited. They want to see the touch of sunlight on all form of life in the planet. They want to tan themselves in the new found warmth of the Sun. Children persist that they be allowed to go out to the Sun. The teacher allows them with a warning that they must be back in two hours. They start running and turning their faces up to the sky and feeling the Sun on their cheeks like a warm iron. They take off their jackets to allow the Sun to bum their arms.

They gladly shouted “Oh, its better than Sun lamps. Children stood in the great jungle in the Venus. The jungle was in the colour of stones as they had not seen the Sun for years. The children lay out laughing on the jungle mattresses and heard it sigh and squeak under them resilient and alive. They ran among the trees, they slipped and fell and pushed one another.

They played hide and seek. But most of them squinted at the sun until tears ran down their faces. They put their hands up to the yellowness and the amazing blueness, they breathed off the fresh air and listened to the silence in a blessed sea of soundlessness. They looked at everything and savoured everything. Like animals escaped from their caves, they ran shouting in circles. Their mirth continued for one hour.

[OR]

Lord Weston – judge – pompous and vain – secretary Roger – displeasure over Roger’s request – piece of paper – warning – legal punishments – 15th of March – fair judgement – unperturbed by threat – precautionary measures – assassination attempt – a gardener – Weston’s absent-mindedness.
Answer:
‘Remember Caesar’ is a light hearted comedy. The name Caesar is the name of a tragic hero Julius Caesar in one of the plays of William Shakespeare. Weston gives an appointment to Mr. Caesar to discuss rose tree planting work in his garden. Just to remind him of the proffered appointment, he scribbles two words “Remember Caesar” and keeps that scrap
of paper in his coat pocket and has forgotten about it. On seeing that note, Lord Weston is shocked. Roger, the assistant of the judge elevates him to the level of a tragic hero.

He flatters the judge that his death could be a great loss to England as he was a great impartial judge. Mrs. Weston’s entry lightens up the whole drama and the tragedy transitions into a dark comedy. Lady Weston keeps hinting about earlier attempts when he was eating a game pie. When Weston says he has instructed Roger to barricade all doors, her immediate worry is about the grocery awaited. She asks if he was expecting both French and Dutch together in the attempt to assassinate. Lady Weston doesn’t want to send away the cook. She is practical.

She wants her to stay back to cook his pet dishes. Lady Weston brings a handful of candles to keep the room lit if Mr. Weston has to stay underground for a while. A velvet coat is construed as an infernal machine that could blow up the whole place is smothered with books inside a pail of water. The arrival of Mr. Caesar only sorts out the knot. The judge remembers to meet Mr. Caesar on 15th March.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals.

We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 192
No. of words to be written in the summary: 192/3 = 64 ± 5

Rough Draft

Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have procedure Wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair Draft: Man is a Social Animal

Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In the matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief we are interdependent. We eat food, wear clothes, live in houses that others have produced or made. We use language created by others. Without language, their mental power would not grow. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

No. of words in the summary: 77

[OR]

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey:
lives & efforts
our actions & desires – bound up

Practices:
Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others
Lang – learnt 4m others – for mental power

Status:
Indiv. if left alone – be primitive
The individual – much in virtue
member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.

Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language; indiv. – individual; 4m – from; mat. – material

Question 45.
Write a letter to the manager of M/S Santiago and Co, placing an order for 25 high speed ceiling fans of different sizes. You, David/Delshya is the Finance Director of HCL company.
Answer:
From
Mr. David
Finance Head
HCL – Rajakilpakkam
Maduravoyal
26th March, 2020

To
Messrs. Santiago and Co.
3, Rutt Market
Chennai

Sir,

Reg: Supply of High Speed Ceiling Fans

Please send by road transport the following Pavlo High Speed Ceiling fans so as to reach us before 10th April, 2020 at the rates as mentioned I your catalogue – cum – price list for 2020-2021 with a trade discount of 15% on the total amount of the invoice. We would like to place on order the following:

• 10 Pavlo High Speed Ceiling fans 58 inches size
• 05 Pavlo High Speed Ceiling fans 48 inches size
• 10 Pavlo High Speed Ceiling fans 36 inches size

Please ensure that the packing is without any discrepancies. Kindly note that the goods with manufacturing defects or those damaged in transit will be returned at your cost. A cheque bearing number 324657 for Rs. 10,000/- dated 30th March, 2020 as advance payment is enclosed herewith. The balance amount will be paid within a fortnight after receipt of goods. Thanking you in advance for your delivery of goods without any delay.

Yours sincerely,
Mr. David – Finance Director
(for) HCL – Rajakilpakam

Address on the envelope:
To
Messrs. Santiago and Co.
3, Rutt Market
Chennai

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Hazards Of Reckless Driving”.
Answer:
Hazards Of Reckless Driving

Careless driving is one of the leading causes of accidents. When a driver fails to drive with due. care, it can cause serious harm to others sharing the road. I had a bitter experience of such reckless driving last month while returning from GGHS School, which is just a kilometre away from my house. As I was returning home around 5.30 p.m., after Math coaching class, I heard some screaming behind me and hence just turned to see what the sound was about.

The very next second, I was knocked down by a speeding motorcycle. I had a hairline crack on my right ankle and bruises on my right arm. I was really lucky that I did not have major issues. However, I was in a state of severe shock for more than a week and I dreaded stepping out on the road. There should be severe actions taken against those who violate traffic rules.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) Neither Ravi nor Rani have failed.
(b) The Collection ‘Fragrant Flowers’ are quite interesting.
(c) The distance between Chennai to Trichy is more than 300 Kins.
(d) The scissors is missing.
(e) We are living at Chennai.
Answer:
(a) Neither Ravi nor Rani has failed.
(b) The Collection ‘Fragrant Flowers’ is quite interesting.
(c) The distance from Chennai to Trichy is more than 300 Kms.
(d) The scissors are missing.
(e) We are living in Chennai.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) My cat was crazily chasing a squirrel while I ………….. (red/read) a fairy ………….. (tale/tail) to my children.
(b) That looks delicious, and I am so hungry! ………….. I have some? (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) I have worked too long! I ………….. take a break! (use a semi-modal)
(d) They (go) to take a cruise next summer. (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) read/tále (b) May (c) need to (d) are going

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below;
(a) French actress Mary’s clothing was designed by her friend Yas for her next project.
(b) In the world’s largest open-air theatre, stories of Krishna and Kansa area magically retold,
(c) Technology develops machines that can substitute for humans and replicate human actions.
(d) A normal bulb uses almost 80% energy to create heat and only 20% for production of light.
(e) A tropical diet is based on fruits and vegetables, while a polar diet rely on meat and fish.
[Robotics; Cuisine; Movie; Electrodynamics; Entertainment]
Answer:
(а) Movie (b) Entertainment (c) Robotics (d) Electrodynamics (e) Cuisine

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
A long time ago there lived a monster called the sphinx. She had the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird. Her eyes were so fierce that nobody dared to look at her face. The sphinx sat on a cliff outside the city of Thebes. When a man passed by her, she would ask him a riddle. The man had to give the right answer, or the sphinx would eat him up. The riddle was so difficult that no one could answer it.

Many men lost their lives and people were afraid to come out of their houses. Then one day a clever man wanted to answer the sphinx. His name was Oedipus and he was not afraid of the sphinx. The sphinx stopped and asked him a riddle “what walks on four legs in the morning, on two legs at noon and on three legs in the evening?”

Oedipus said that it was easy, “you try and answer it!” roared the sphinx. Oedipus said, “The answer is man walks on four legs in his childhood, on two legs when grown up and on three legs during old age”. Hearing the right answer the sphinx was disappointed and very angry. She jumped off the cliff and ended her life.

Questions:
a. How did the sphinx look like?
b. What would the sphinx do if a man failed to give the right answer to her riddle?
c. Why was the sphinx angry?
d. What is the ‘third leg’ of man in his old age?
e. What is the most suitable title to the passage?
Answers:
(a) The sphinx looked like a monster with the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird.
(b) The sphinx would eat up the man if he failed to give the right answer to her riddle.
(c) Hearing the right answer to her riddle from Oedipus, the sphinx was disappointed and very angry
(d) The third leg is invariably the walking stick the old man will be using in his old age.
(e) The title could be ‘Sphinxs’ Riddles’.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 The World after World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 5.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 6.
When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 7.
Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Syria
Answer:
(a) Cairo

Question 8.
When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. was known as the “Father of modern China”.
2. in 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ………………. University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat-Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ……………….
4. ……………….. treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
5. The treaty of ………………. provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in ……………….
7. ………………. was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
8. ………………. treaty signed on February 7,1992 created the European Union.

Answers:

1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
2. Peking
3. Chiang-Kai-Sheik
4. Central Treaty organisation
5. Versailles
6. 1955
7. Strasbourg
8. Maastricht

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
(ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
(iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
(ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
(iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the region.
(iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war¬. ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A)and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
Answer:
Three causes of the Chinese Revolution of 1911 are

1. The government of Manchu dynasty began to disintegrate with the death of the Empress Dowager Cixi in 1908. The new emperor was two-years old and the provincial governors began to assert their independence. In October 1911 the local army mutinied and the revolt spread.
2. There were a few middle class leaders. Dr. Sun Yat-sen was one among them. He took part in the rising against the Manchus in 1895. The rising failed and Sun Yat-Sen was sent in the prison. But he continued to spread nationalist ideas.
3. Yuan Shih-Kai, who had earlier served as a minister in the Manchu administration, persuaded those responsible for the ascension of the young Emperor to prevant on him to abdicate.

Question 2.
Explain how in 1928 Kuomintang and Chiang-Kai Shek established Central Government in China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China. Starting from Canton, in 1928, he captured Peking and also removed all communists in the Kuomintang party. Thus, he established Central government in China.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mao’s Long March.
Answer:
Mao was an active leader who had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party, by 1933. In 1934, he organised communist army of about 100,000 and set out on a long March. The marchers were continually harassed by Kuominatang forces, by local war lords and by unfriendly tribesmen of the 100,000 who set out, only 20,000 finally arrived in northern Shemi in late 1935, after crossing nearly 6000 miles. They were soon poined by other communist armies. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. Mao’s Long March, as it is called so, has become legendary in the history of China.

Question 4.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Iran and Pakistan signed a pact known as Baghdad pact. In 1958, when United States joined, then it was called as Central Treaty organization. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in their region. It was dissolved in 1979.

Question 5.
What was the Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to and Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economies after the end of World War II. It operated for four years beginning in April 1948. The goals of the United States were to rebuild war-tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 6.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests-Elaborate.
Answer:
In 1956, Egypt invaded Suez Canal under Colonel Nasser and nationalized it. With the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force. They bombed Egyptian air fields as well as Suez Canal area. However, United States and United Nations pressure, all the three invaders withdrew from Suez Canal.

Question 7.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:
The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World. During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 8.
How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
Answer:
In April 1961, on the island of Bay of Pigs, U.S bombed Cuban airfields and surrounded Cuba, with their warships. At the same time, USSR was secretly installing nuclear missiles in Cuba. Finally when Soviet President Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles, the Cuban missile-crisis defused.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Cold War

(a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
Answer:
United States and the Soviet Union were the two military blocs that emerged in the post World War-II.

(b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
Answer:
The term Cold war was first coined by the English writer George Orwell in 1945 and it was used for the first time by Bernard Baruch, a multimillionaire from USA.

(c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw Pact was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO.

(d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
With the Break-up of USSR in 1991, the Warsaw Pact was dissolved.

Question 2.
Korean War

(a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
Answer:
Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.

(b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
Answer:
Syngman Rhee

(c) How long did the Korean War last?
Answer:
The Korean War lasted three years

(d) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

Question 3.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

(a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
Answer:
At Belgrade, in 1961, the first conference on NAM was held.

(b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
Answer:
The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nikrumah (Ghana), Sukrano (Indonesia),.

(c) What were the objectives of NAM?
Answer:
Peaceful co-existence, commitment to peace and security.

(d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade Conference.
Answer:

1. Non-Alignment with any of the two super powers (USA/USSR).
2. Fight all forms of colonialism and Imperialism.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:

1. Mao was greatly influenced by the ideas of Max and Lenin. He wanted to make China a communist country. So, he became active in the political activities of Hunan from the year 1912.
2. After the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925, The Kuomintang was organised under the leadership of Chang Kai-Shek. Being an avowed critic of communists, Chiang removed all the important position holders in the Communist Party including Mao Tse Tung to weaken the party. However, the communists continued to influence the workers and peasants the Kuomintang represented the interests of landlords and capitalists.
3. Mao had understood that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong. So, he started organising the peasantry. When the relationships between Kuomintang and Communist Party broke, a few hundred Communist-led by Mao retreated into the wild mountains on the border between the provinces of Kiangsi and Hunan. The Kuomintang could not penetrate the mountains.
4. Meanwhile, the campaign against the communists got distracted as Chiang Kai-Shek had to deal with the constant threat from Japan.
5. By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party. In 1934, he set out on a long march with the help of about 100,000 communist army. He also got support of other communist armies.
6. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. He organised workers and peasants councils in villages of Shensi and Kansu and finally got success in making China a communist country.

Question 2.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-lsraeii wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:

1. Before the creation of the State of Israel in 1948, all Arabs and their . descendants lived in the Palestine.
2. Ever since the formation, the Palestinian Liberation organisation (PLO). Israel came to be attacked by the Palestinian Guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan.
3. Israel resorted to violent military force .
4. In November 1966, an Israeli strike on the village of Al-Samu in the west bank of Jordan killed 18 people and wounded 54 people.
5. Israel’s air battle with Syria in April 1967 ended in the shooting down of six Syrian MIG fighter jets.
6. After air battle with Syria, when Arab States were mobilized by Nasser on June 5th Israel staged a sudden air strike that destroyed more than, 90% of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac.
7. Later, Egypt and Syria under Presidents Anwar Sadat and Hafez-al- Assad respectively concluded a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.
8. When peace deals did not work out with Israel, Egypt and Syria launched a sudden and surprise attack on the Yom Kippur religious holiday on 6^th October 1973.
9. Though Israel suffered heavy casualities, it finally pushed back the Arab forces.
10. Due to U.N intervention, Israel was forced to return and Arabs gained nothing.
11. U.S succeeded in showing their control on their region and oil resource, led to U. S led war against Iraq in 1991.

Question 3.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Divide the class into two groups. Let one group act as supporters of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union, Organise a debate.
Answer:
One group of students act as the supports of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union on their role in the cold war era.
(Students can have debate based on the following aspects)

During the time of cold war, the two super powers that emerged was USA and USSR.

Strengths of USA:

1. Strongest navy both the Pacific and Atlantic.
2. Continued and strong economic position that the USA held in the beginning till the end.
3. Foreign policy of the USA. The actions of USA during the cold war era, very powerful and could guarantee others the strong power of the nation is to prevent communism spreading elsewhere.
4. The country was able to generate the vast amount of wealth necessary to sustain the investment in weapons, technology and other operations.
5. USA was also technologically powerful in target finding, tracking, sensors etc.
6. The Truman’s doctrine was used throughout the war time. The doctrine helped USA to negotiate with other states to adopt capitalism.

Strengths of USSR:

1. Strongest land based military, especially tanks.
2. USSR developed air defense equipment and networks.
3. Spread of Communism joined together backed USSR.
4. As against NATO, USSR also formed military block, the Warsaw pact.
5. With Western European countries USSR facilitated trade relations.
6. Highly strengthened space exploration.

In the end of cold war, the Soviet Union fell, and the Communism expired.

Question 2.
Involving the entire class, an album may be prepared with pictures relating to Korean, Arab-lsraeli and Vietnam Wars to highlight the human sufferings in terms of death and devastation.
Answer:
Students should go to the search engine in google and type “The War’s impact on the Korean peninsula and trace the article of the journal of America – East Asia Relations” for a detailed Report.

Korean War: To give a sample answer: According to a U.S. Department of state publication, the number of killed, wounded and missing from the Armed forces of the Republic of Korea exceeded 4,00.000. From the U.S. side, 1,42,000. In addition, the heavy toll in death and injuries to the civilian population as well as wide property damage.

Arab-Israel War: Students should trace the answer from the google search engine as: The U.N. Report on Israel’s Gaza War.

To give a sample answer: From the 183 page report of the U.N. report, it is very clear that many civilians died. More than 6,000 Israeli airstrikes, 14,500 tank shells and 35,000 artillery shells led to the destruction of about 18,000 dwellings in Gaza. Nearly 1,462 Palestinian civilians, 299 women and 551 children were killed (According to U.N. Investigation). In Israel six civilians and 67 soldiers were killed.

Vietnam War: Students should trace the answer in the google search engine as “The War’s effect on the Vietnamese Land and People” for a detailed report.

To give a sample answer: About 58,000 American soldiers were killed and another 3,04,000 were wounded. Since most of the fighting took place in Vietnam, an estimated 4 million Vietnamese were killed on both sides including as many as 1 -3 million civilians. Many Vietnamese in country side turned into homeless refuges. Many forms and forests were destroyed.

Along with the detailed report, students should collect pictures showing Korea, Arab-Israel and Vietnam War, highlighting human sufferings. Students should click to google search engine and go to → Images → then type Korean War pictures / Arab Israel War pictures / Vietnam War pictures, download it take a print out of its and paste it in a A4 sheet paper or an a chart paper neatly and create an album.

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The emergence of ……………. and ……………. as super powers resulted in the division of the World into two block after World War II.
(a) Japan, USA
(b) USA, USSR
(c) China, Japan
(d) USA, Germany
Answer:
(b) USA, USSR

Question 2.
Dr.Sun yat-sen was born in a poor family near ………
(a) Canton
(b) France
(c) Spain
Answer:
(a) Canton

Question 3
……………. was called the father of modern China.
(a) Chiang-Kai-Shek
(b) Yuan-Shi-Kai
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Answer:
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen

Question 4.
Mao was born in ……… in South – East China.
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Hunan
Answer:
(c) Hunan

Question 5.
Yuan-Shi-Kai died in the year …………….
(a) 1912
(b) 1913
(c) 1915
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of Indo – China?
(a) Cambodia
(b) China
(c) Vietnam
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7.
The Historical Long March set out in China in …………….
(a) 1935
(b) 1937
(c) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 8.
In which of the following was indentured Vietnamese labour widely used?
(a) Rice cultivation
(b) Rubber plantation
(c) Industry
Answer:
(b) Rubber plantation

Question 9.
……………. was the leader of the people’s Republic of China.
(a) Marshall
(b) Truman
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Chiang-Kai-shek
Answer:
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung

Question 10.
Ho Chi Minh means ………
(a) He, Who enlightens
(b) Enlightenment
(c) The Enlightened one
Answer:
(a) He, Who enlightens

Question 11.
The Idea of European self-help programme financed by the United States was called as …………….
(a) NATO
(b) SEATO
(c) ECA
(d) Marshall plan
Answer:
(d) Marshall plan

Question 12.
EURATOM was established by the ………
(a) Treaty of Nanking
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) Treaty of London
Answer:
(b) Treaty of Rome

Question 13.
The term ‘cold war’ was first coined by the English writer …………….
(a) Shakespeare
(b) George Orwell
(c) William Dexter
(d) Peter Alphonse
Answer:
(b) George Orwell

Question 14.
As a part of Marshall plan financing, European nations received nearly ……………. billion in aid.
(a) $ 12
(b) $ 11
(c) $ 15
(d) $ 13
Answer:
(d) $ 13

Question 15.
Greece and Turkey joined NATO in the year …………….
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1955
Answer:
(c) 1952

Question 16.
……………. was otherwise called as pact.
(a) NATO
(b) CENTO
(c) SEATO
(d) EC SC
Answer:
(d) EC SC

Question 17
……………. are included as member countries in NATO.
(a) Canada, Belgium
(b) U.K., Portugal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
NATO had ……………. members by the year 2017.
(a) 30
(b) 51
(c) 29
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 19.
In December 1954, a conference of eight European nations took place in Moscow. This was called as …………….
(a) Warsaw pact
(b) Counter to NATO
(c) SEATO
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
The headquarters of the Warsaw pact was …………….
(a) Belgium
(b) Poland
(c) Moscow
(d) Romania
Answer:
(c) Moscow

Question 21.
The Korea was partitioned into North and South Korea in the year …………….
(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1945

Question 22.
With the collapse of the ……………. the idea of non-alignment lost relevance.
(a) Berlin
(b) CIA
(c) ECA
(d) Soviet Union
Answer:
(d) Soviet Union

Question 23.
The NAM held its first conference at ……………. in 1961.
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Thailand
(d) Philippine
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 24.
The World Zionist Organisation was founded in the year …………….
(a) 1857
(b) 1887
(c) 1897
(d) 1867
Answer:
(c) 1897

Question 25.
Castro nationalised the U.S. owned ……………. companies.
(a) cotton
(b) sugar
(c) oil
(d) petrol
Answer:
(b) sugar

Question 26.
The Cuban Missile crisis was defused by ……………. as the agreed to withdraw the missiles.
(a) Khrushchev
(b) Fidel Castro
(c) Leumi
(d) Stem Gang
Answer:
(a) Khrushchev

Question 27.
In the Arab World, it is treated as the ……………. when large number of Arabs become refugees.
(a) Catastrophe
(b) Nakbah
(c) Negev and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
For resolving the Suez Canal Crisis, ……………. from Indian played a crucial role.
(a) Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Bose
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(b) Nehru

Question 29.
Arab-lsrael war took place in the years …………….
(a) 1967,69
(b) 1969,74
(c) 1967,73
(d) 1972,73
Answer:
(c) 1967,73

Question 30.
……………. became the first president of the state of Palestine in 1989.
(a) Anwar Sadat
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser Arafat
(d) Nasser Hussain
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 31.
By the end of second world war, ……………. controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
(a) Vietminh
(b) Ho-Chi-Minh
(c) Ngo Dinh Diem
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Vietminh

Question 32.
……………. controlled the southern half of the Vietnam.
(a) Viet Minh
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Ngo Dinh Diam
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Bao Dai

Question 33.
The North and the South Vietnam were formally united as one country in …………….
(a) 1973
(b) 1976
(c) 1975
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 34.
In May 1949, ten countries met in ……………. and signed to form a council of Europe.
(a) Japan
(b) Syria
(c) London
(d) France
Answer:
(c) London

Question 35.
To prevent further European War ……………. was founded.
(a) Council of Europe
(b) Council of Trent
(c) ECSC
(d) EU
Answer:
(a) Council of Europe

Question 36.
……………. did not join the EEC, when it was formed.
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) USSR
(d) Italy
Answer:
(a) U.K

Question 37.
Britain, voted to exit the EU in the year …………….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2017
(d) 2019
Answer:
(c) 2017

Question 38.
West Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 39.
East Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(c) USSR

Question 40.
Germany was officially united on …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 41.
in 1985, ……………. became the head of the USSR.
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev
(b) Reagen
(c) Stalin
(d) Kohl
Answer:
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev

Question 42.
The Chernobyl disaster took place in the year …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 2006
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 43.
Gorbachev announced his resignation on …………….
(a) 21st November
(b) 25th December
(c) 2nd October
(d) 15th August
Answer:
(b) 25th December

Question 44.
USSR dissolved formally In the year …………….
(a) 31st Dec. 1990
(b) 30th Dec. 1991
(c) 31st Dec. 1991
(d) 28,h Feb. 1991
Answer:
(c) 31st Dec. 1991

Question 45.
……………. was an ally of Gorbachev.
(a) Yeltsin
(b) Brezhnev
(c) Khrushchev
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Yeltsin

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… and ………………… were the Superpowers after the World War II.
2. The cold war period ended with the fall of …………………
3. Empress Dowager died in ………………… led to the disintegration of the Manchu dynasty.
4. Kuomintang party of China was otherwise called as ………………… party.
5. ………………… was the ultimate aim of Dr. Sun Yat-sen’s party.
6. The Chinese revolution broke out in the year …………………
7. The first director of the Whampoa Military academy was …………………
8. The campaign against the communists led by Chiang-Kai-Shek was distracted by ………………… and warlords.
9. By ………………… Mao became the leader of the Chinese people.
10. Over ………………… delegates from various countries attended the people’s political consultative conference.
11. When Japanese surrendered in 1945, the Japanese areas were occupied by the …………………
12. By the year …………………, communist control has been established over most parts of China.
13. The two mighty communist powers in the world were ………………… and …………………
14. The term cold war was first coined by …………………
15. ………………… nations became a part of Marshall’s plan of self-help programme.
16. The Marshall plan funding ended in …………………
17. ………………… was created to resist Soviet aggression in Europe.
18. NATO means …………………
19. NATO was formed in the year …………………
20. The members of NATO agreed that, any armed attack on any one of them would be considered attack on …………………
21. For the collective security of the South-east Asia, ………………… was formed in 1954.
22. Member of SEATO were committed to prevent …………………
23. SEATO was formed in 1954, after signing of the …………………
24. ………………… was formed by Soviet Union as a counter to NATO.
25. ………………… European nations attended the Warsaw pact in December 1954.
26. The treaty on Warsaw pact was concluded on …………………
27. The Warsaw pact was dissolved in …………………
28. The Warsaw pact dissolved because of the break-up of …………………
29. The Baghdad pact was otherwise called as …………………
30. Turkey, Iran, Iraq, Pakistan and Great Britain signed a treaty in 1955, known as …………………
31. When U.S.A joined the Baghdad pact, it was called by name …………………
32. USA joined the Baghdad pact in the year …………………
33. CENTO was dissolved in the year …………………
34. Korea was partitioned as North Korea and South Korea in the year …………………
35. The president of North Korea was …………………
36. The party of Kim II was called as …………………
37. The president of the South Korea was …………………
38. The party of Syngman Rhee was …………………
39. Korean War lasted for ………………… years.
40. NAM refers to the …………………
41. NAM was signed in ………………… at the ………………… conference.
42. Bandung is a city in …………………
43. With the collapse of ………………… the idea of NAM lost importance.
44. CIA is a Central Intelligence Agency of …………………
45. The Act of ………………… in Cuba, threatened American economic interests.
46. USA bombed Cuban ………………… with the aim of overthrowing Castro’s regime.
47. ………………… was the president of USSR, when the Cuban Missile crisis took place.
48. Cuba was helped by …………………
49. When USSR remove missile from Cuba, USA had to agree to remove missile from ………………… and …………………
50. ………………… was a Zionist Terrorist Organisation.
51. The Zionist Para-military organization was called as …………………
52. The World Zionist organization was founded in the year …………………
53. Jews living outside their ancient home scattered around North America and Europe was called as …………………
54. ………………… Nationalised Suez Canal.
55. India represented by ………………… played a crucial role in resolving the crisis.
56. The Arab-lsraeli War took place in the years ………………… and …………………
57. PLO refers to …………………
58. PLO was formed in …………………
59. ………………… was the prominent leader of Palestine.
60. By the end of the Second World War, ………………… Controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
61. South Vietnam was ruled by …………………
62. America supported troops of ………………… Vietnam.
63. The city of ………………… was renamed as Ho-Chi-Minh city.
64. To create a United Europe to resist any threat from Soviet Russia, ………………… was formed.
65. European Economic Community was otherwise called as …………………
66. SEA refers to …………………
67. According to the SEA, each member was given ………………… votes.
68. The ………………… Treaty created the European Union.
69. Maastricht is in …………………
70. EU was created on Maastricht treaty signed on …………………
71. The headquarters of the EU is at …………………
72. Brussels is at …………………
73. ………………… Germany was prosperous.
74. ………………… Germany was suffering from lack of democracy and freedom.
75. Germany was officially reunited on …………………
76. Glasnost means …………………
77. Perestroika means …………………
78. ………………… was introduced by Gorbachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.
79. After Gorbachev, power fell into the hands of …………………
80. For ………………… days, Soviet Union, continued to exist only in name.
81. Soviet Union dissolved formally on 31st December …………………
82. USSR split into ………………… countries.
83. ………………… was the president of the newly independent Russian State.
84. U.S.A. troops used ………………… weapons in their war against Vietnam.
85. Napalm and Agent Orange are the names of incendiary …………………

Answers:

1. USA and USSR
2. Berlin Wall
3. 1908
4. National People’s Party
5. Socialism
6. 1911
7. Chiang-Kai-Shek
8. Japan
9. 1937
10. 650
11. Kuomintang
12. 1948
13. Soviet Union, People’s Republic of China
14. George Orwell
15. Sixty
16. 1951
17. NATO
18. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
19. 1949
20. NATO
21. SEATO
22. Communism
23. Manila Pact
24. Warsaw Pact
25. 8 (eight)
26. May 14, 1955
27. 1991
28. USSR
29. Central Treaty Organisation
30. Baghdad Pact
31. Central Treaty Organisation
32. 1958
33. 1979
34. 1945
35. Kim II
36. People’s Republic of Korea
37. Syngman Rhee
38. The Republic of Korea
39. three
40. Non-Aligned Movement
41. 1955, Bandung
42. Indonesia
43. Soviet Union
44. America
45. Castro
46. Airfields
47. Khrushchev
48. USSR
49. Turkey, Italy
50. Stem Gang
51. Irgun Zvai Leumi
52. 1897
53. Diaspora
54. Colonel Nasser
55. Nehru
56. 1967, 1973
57. Palestine Liberation Organisation
58. 1948
59. Yasser Arafat
60. Viet Minh
61. Ngo Dinh Diem
62. South
63. Saigon
64. Council of Europe
65. European Common Market
66. Single European Act
67. multiple
68. Maastricht
69. Netherlands
70. Feb 7, 1992
71. Brussels
72. Belgium
73. West Berlin’s
74. East Berlin
75. 3rd October 1990
76. openness
77. restructuring
78. Perestroika
79. Boris Yeltsin
80. Six 81.1991
81. 15
82. Boris Yeltsin
83. Bacteriological
84. bombs

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) The cold war period ended with the fall of Berlin Wall
(ii) Mao concentrated mainly on organizing the peasantry.
(iii) In 1937, the communist army of about 100,000 set out on the Long march.
(iv) Marshall plan funded nearly $ 15 billion.
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The USSR was much concerned about the destruction caused by the Second World War.
(ii) The South East Asia Treaty organization was organised for the collective security of countries in South East Asia.
(iii) The Communist States led by the Soviet Union came to be known First World Countries.
(iv) The Capitalist countries led by the U.S.A. were politically designated as Second World Countries.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) NAM refers to the Non-Aligned Movement.
(ii) The Single European Act of the EU as called as SEA.
(iii) Anwar Sadat was the president of the Palestine in 1989.
(iv) The fighters of South Vietnam were trained in guerrilla warfare.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The Third World principally consist of the developing World.
(ii) With the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalization, the term has lost its relevance.
(iii) The former colonies of Asia, Africa, and Latin America were called as Third World Countries.
(iv) The division of Germany into West and East led to glaring differences in living standards.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the four are correct.

Question 5.
(i) Yeltsin worked as a Mayor of Moscow.
(ii) Yeltsin was returned to power with overwhelming support of a Moscow in 1899.
(iii) For twelve days, the Soviet Union continued to exist only in name.
(iv) On 28th February 1991, USSR was formally dissolved.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) CENTO was otherwise called as Manila pact.
(ii) As a counter to SEATO, NATO was formed.
(iii) The Korean war helped to bring down the intensity of the Cold war.
(iv) The EEC eliminated barriers to the movement of goods, Capital and labour.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong

Question 7.
(i) The Berlin Wall was just a physical barrier.
(ii) Berlin Wall divided East Germany and West Germany.
(iii) USA supported East Berlin.
(iv) USSR supported West Berlin.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Yuan Shih-Kai of China lost prestige in his country.
Reason (R): He agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The rivalry that developed after World War 11 is referred to as “Cold War”.
Reason (R): This war did not take recourse to weapons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): There was High military expenditure on both sides of USA and USSR.
Reason (R): Soviet Union tested the nuclear bomb and America used the nuclear bomb against Japan.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and its European allies formed the NATO to wage war against Vietnam.
Reason (R): As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organised the Warsaw pact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R.) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): A small country had succeeded in winning Independence and the greatest power of the World-The country Vietnam.
Reason (R): The help given to Vietnam by the Socialist Countries, the political support given by Asia and Africa is evident.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Sun Yat-sen sent Chiang Kai-shek to Moscow, in Russia. The Russians in turn sent Michael Borodin to China.
Reason {R): Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China from Canton.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): U.S.A. supported Diem government in South Vietnam. Reason (R): U.S. wanted to establish a strong government in South Vietnam.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (vi)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Describe about Zionist movement.
Answer:
(i) In Palestine, the ancient home of Jews, only a few thousand Jews were living in 1900.
(ii) Some 15 million were scattered around Europe and North America.
(iii) These Jews had been subjected to systematic persecution for centuries.
(iv) But in the late nineteenth century, the persecution in Russia (Where two-thirds of the world’s jews lived), France and Germany was intense.
(v) Some Jews emigrated to Palestine, while many more went to the United States and Britain.
(vi) In 1896, Thodore Herzel, a Viennese journalist, published a pamphlet called the Jewish state in which he called for the creation of a Jewish national home. In 1897 the world zionist organisation was founded.

Question 2.
What was Truman’s policy?
Answer:
Truman, the president of USA announced a policy of containment of communism. This implies U.S. would support those countries which were threatened by USSR to spread communism.

Question 3.
Mention the initial member countries of the EU.
Answer:

1. Belgium
2. France
3. Italy
4. Luxemburg
5. Netherlands
6. West Germany

Question 4.
What is meant by SEA?
Answer:
SEA refers to the single European Act which came into force on July 1,1987. According to the SEA, each member was given multiple votes depending on the country’s population. Its main aim is establishing a single market.

Question 5.
Name the organs of the EU.
Answer:

1. European parliament
2. Council of the European Union
3. European commission
4. Court of Justice
5. Court of Auditors

Question 6.
Write a note on European Union.
Answer:
On February 7, 1992, the Maastricht Treaty that signed in Netherlands created the European Union. All the member countries of the EU will use common currency Euro, a single market and common Act. EU at present has 28 members with head quarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 7.
How was the European union formed?
Answer:
According to the Merger Treaty of 1967, the three communities namely the European coal and steel community, the European Economic community and the European Atomic Energy community were merged together to form the European union.

VII. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
People’s Republic of China

(a) Who was the leader of the People’s Republic of China?
Answer:
Mao Tse-Tung was the leader of the People’s Republic of China.

(b) Name the two mighty Communist powers of the world?
Answer:
The Soviet-Union and the people’s Republic of China.

(c) Who did not recognise People’s Republic of China and for how long?
Answer:
The UNO refused to recognise people’s Republic of China for more than twenty years.

(d) How did the government of Taiwan got recognition?
Answer:
The government of Chiang Kai-shek in Taiwan was given recognition ‘ due to the pressure from USA.

Question 2.
Achievements of EU

(a) What is the symbol of the Euro?
Answer:
The symbol of the Euro is €.

(b) What did the Euro eliminate?
Answer:
The Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border.

(c) How many members are there in the EU at present?
Answer:
At present, there are 28 members in the EU.

(d) Who allocates funds to European research projects?
Answer:
The European Research council.

Question 3.
Disintegration of The Soviet Union.

(a) Who became the head of USSR in 1985?
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev became the head of the USSR in 1985.

(b) What is meant by “thaw”?
Answer:
The “Thaw” refers to the period from the early 1950’s and 1960’s when repression and censorship in the Soviet Union was relaxed and millions of political prisioners were released. It was the period of Khrushchev’s reign.

(c) What is meant by Glasnost?
Answer:
Glasnost means openness. It was the policy of more transperancy and openness in the government policy of former Soviet Russia introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev.

(d) What is meant by Perestroika?
Answer:
Perestroika means restructuring. It refers to the programme introduced by Mikhail Gorbhachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.

Question 4.
Berlin Wall

(a) Who constructed a wall which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin? and when?
Answer:
East German began to construct a wall in 1961 which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin.

(b) How was it guarded?
Answer:
It was guarded with watchtowers and other lethal impediments to stop people from the east.

(c) What does the Berlin wall symbolise?
Answer:
It was symbolic boundary between Communism and Capitalism.

(d) What happened with the fall of the Berlin wall?
Answer:
With the fall of the Berlin wall , followed by the collapse of the Soviet Union, the cold war came to an end.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief account of the life and achievements of Ho Chi Minh.
Answer:
He was born in a small town in Central Vietnam. He studied in French school that produced great leaders. After his studies he worked on a French liner operating between Saigon and Marseilles. He was greatly inspired by European communist parties, became member of commintem and was instrumental in bringing together competing nationalists groups to form the Vietnamese communist party in 1930. It was later renamed the Indo-Chinese communist party. After spending 30 years abroad in Europe, China Thailand, he returned to Vietnam in 1941. He became President of the Vietnam Democratic Republic in 1943.

After the split of Vietnam, he and the communists took control of North Vietnam. With the help of his government, National Liberation Front in the south fought for unification of the country. He fought hard to maintain the autonomy of Vietnam and till the end proved true to his name. Ho Chi Minh meaning He, Who Enlightens.

Question 2.
Illustrate the cold war developments in case of the Vietnam war. Narrate how North and South Vietnam unified as Independent Nation.
Solution:

1. By 1945, the end of the second world war, Viet Minh controlled the northern half of Vietnam, led by Ho-chi- Minh.
2. Viet Minh and french reached an agreement by which North Vietnam would be a free state.
3. While French was helped by America, Viet Minh was helped by the new Chinese communist government.
4. War broke out between them. Eventually , France troops were defeated.
5. The Geneva conference that met on Korea and Indo China in 1954, decided that of Laos. Combodia and Vietnam. The independent states would be Laos and Cambodia. Vietnam, temporarily divided.
6. While North Vietnam controlled by Viet Minh with leader Ho-Chi-Minh and south Vietnam would be under the leadership of Bao Dai.
7. At the same time, South Vietnam was ruled by Ngo Dinh Diem.
8. When U.S wanted to establish a strong Non-communist government in South Vietnam. In 1965, marines landed on Danang naval base and namely 2,10,000 traps in the country, j (ix) The U.S bombed both North and South.
9. The fighters of North Vietnam trained in Guerrilla warfare sustained.
10. America suffered heavy casualties , vast devastated and many were killed.
11. The youth rebelled against the horrors of the war.
12. The protest against the war spread all over the world.
13. By 1975, the armies of the North and the only one party of South Vietnam called National Liberation front of South Vietnam attacked America.
14. By 30th April 1975, all the American troops had withdrawn and capital of South Vietnam Saigon was liberated.
15. North Vietnam and South Vietnam formally united as one country in 1976.
16. The city of Saigon was renamed as the Ho-Chi-Minh city .
17. Thus, the emergence of Vietnam as a united and Independent nation was an historic event.

Question 3.
Explain the breakup of the Soviet Union.
Answer:

1. In the middle of 1980’s Soviet Union economy was suffering.
2. In 1985, Mikhail Gorbachev took over as the president of USSR.
3. Gorbachev spoke about the need for openness (Glasnost) and Perestroika (restructuring).
4. But his ideas of reform did not work out for him because, to compete with U.S, USSR need to allocate more funds to the military.
5. The economic stagnation of the Soviet Union aggrevated tension and promoted nationalist feelings.
6. In the year 1988, Mass protest broke out in Armenia and in the Baltic states.
7. Gorbachev made attempts to stabilize his position by relying on conservative forces in 1989, 1991.
8. But the massive miner’s strike interrupted. The series of worker’s strike under mined the communist regimes first in Poland, then in Hungary.
9. The fall of Berlin wall in Germany, encouraged people to be united.
10. Gorbachev made a last attempt to take a hard line against miner’s strike and huge demonstrations in Moscow in 1991.
11. In response, the conservative forces in his government used troops in Moscow and held Gorbachev under house arrest.
12. Power fell into the hands of Boris Yeltsin.
13. In November 1991, eleven republics announced that they would establish a common wealth of independent states.
14. On 25th Dec 1991 , Gorbachev resigned.
15. For six days, the Soviet Union continued to remain only in name and at midnight on 31st December 1991 it was formally dissolved.
16. The USSR was no more.