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Students can download 10th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ______.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower.
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called:
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration:
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in ______.
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(с) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cortex lies between ……….
2. Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ………..
3. Glycolysis takes place in ………..
4. The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ……….
5. …….. is the ATP factory of the cells.

Answer:

1. epidermis and Pericycle
2. conjoint bundles
3. cytoplasm
4. splitting of Water molecules
5. Mitochondria

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plants.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as the cuticle.
3. In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in the dicot root.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.
2. True
3. False – In monocot stem cambium is absent.
4. True
5. True
6. False – Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
If xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged along the same radius with phloem towards the outside, such vascular bundle is called a collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
The carbon that is used in photosynthesis comes from CO₂ from the air.

Question 3.
What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Alcohol fermentation.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint (xylem and phloem lies in the same radius) collateral (xylem is the centre and phloem lies towards periphery) endarch (proto xylem in the centre, Meta xylem lies in the periphery) and open (cambium present in between xylem and phloem: They are arranged in the form of ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
In Dicot leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into

1. Palisade Parenchyma: They are found below the epidermis and are elongated. They have a number of chloroplasts and can take part in photosynthesis. The cells do not have intercellular spaces.
2. Spongy Parenchyma: They are found below the palisade parenchyma tissue. Cells are spherical or oval and are irregularly arranged. Cells have intercellular spaces and help in gaseous exchange.

In monocot leaves, mesophyll is present between both upper and lower epidermal layer. The cells are irregularly arranged with intercellular spaces. Mesophyll cells contain chloroplasts, to take part in photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic – tissues systems in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

• Dermal or epidermal tissue system.
• Ground tissue system.
• Vascular tissue system.

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms (green plants, algae and chlorophyll containing bacteria) utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food. It occur in the chloroplast of the cell.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
Respiratory quotient is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed during respiration. It is expressed as

Question 7.
Why should the light – dependent reaction occur before the light-independent reaction?
Answer:
In light – dependent photosynthesis, the photosynthetic pigment absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy, ATP and NADPH₂. These products move out from grana to the stroma of the chloroplast for the light-independent reactions (Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway). During this reaction, CO₂ is reduced in the carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. So the light-dependent reaction should occur before the light-independent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:
The overall reaction for photosynthesis.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate the following:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
Answer:

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The name and the three stages of cellular respiration.

• Glycolysis: (Glucose splitting): Glycolysis is the break down of one molecule of Glucose (6 Carbon) into two molecules of Pyruvic acid (3 Carbon). It takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Kreb’s cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of Glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and H₂O takes place through this cycle. It is also called as Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle. (TCA)
• Electron transport chain: It is a system of Electron Transport Chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during Glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.

The electrons, as they move through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP. This is called Oxidative Phosphorylation. During this process, oxygen which is the acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction?
What are the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chioroplast?
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS):

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(a) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions.
Answer:
The reaction of photosynthesis can be grouped into two: Light and Dark reaction.
The reaction involving pigments, solar energy and water that produce ATP and NADPH₂ are called light reaction.
The photosynthetic reactions in which CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates making use of ATP and NADPH₂ generated by light reaction are called dark reaction.
The overall reaction of photosynthesis can be written as follows:

(b) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
Light reaction use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH₂. The calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from CO₂ molecule.
This cycle then produce NAP + ADP + Pi which is used in light reaction with H₂O molecules to produce ATP and NADPH₂ again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
The Light-dependent reaction occurs in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The root hairs originate from:
(a) trichoblast
(b) endodermis
(c) hypodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(a) trichoblast

Question 2.
Sachs classified tissue system in plants into _____.
(a) five types
(b) two types
(c) three types
(d) four types.
Answer:
(c) three types

Question 3.
The innermost layer of the cortex is:
(a) epidermis
(b) hypodermis
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(c) endodermis

Question 4.
The powerhouse of the cell or ATP factory of the cells _____.
(a) Plastids
(b) Vacuoles
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria.
Answer:
(d) Mitochondria.

Question 5.
The vascular bundle with protoxylem facing centre of the stem is:
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) tetrarch
(d) polyarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 6.
This is the first step of both Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration _____.
(a) Electron transport chain
(b) Respiratory Quotient
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Kreb’s Cycle.
Answer:
(c) Glycolysis

Question 7.
The vascular bundle in the leaf is:
(a) collateral and open
(b) collateral and closed
(c) bicollateral and open
(d) collateral and exarch
Answer:
(b) collateral and closed

Question 8.
Photosynthesis takes place in:
(a) mitochondria
(b) peroxisomes
(c) chloroplast
(d) ribosomes
Answer:
(c) chloroplast

Question 9.
The dark reaction of photosynthesis were discovered by:
(a) Embden and Meyer
(b) Melvin and Calvin
(c) Kreb
(d) Pamas
Answer:
(b) Melvin and Calvin

Question 10.
………. is the organelle of cell respiration.
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) plastids
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(a) mitochondria

Question 11.
The hypodermis of monocot stem consists of:
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Sclsrenchyma
(c) Angular collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer:
(b) Sclsrenchyma

Question 12.
The layer is morphologically homologous to the endodermis found in the root which is:.
(a) periderm
(b) epidermis
(c) starch sheath
(d) mesophyll tissue
Answer:
(c) starch sheath

Question 13.
Pericycle is absent in:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot root
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 14.
………. is not a characteristic feature of spongy parenchyma.
(a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Irregular
(d) Closely arranged
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

Question 15.
Which of the following is not applicable of dicot stem?
(a) wedge shaped
(b) endarch
(c) collateral
(d) closed
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

II. Application based question:

Question 1.
In the given flow chart different layer of monocot root is shown. What is A and B?

(a) A – Hypodermis, B – Vascular bundle
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle
(c) A – Cortex, B – Xylem
(d) A – Hypodermis, B – Xylem
Answer:
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle

Question 2.
Casparian strip are characteristic feature of A endodermis and it is made up of B. What is A and B respectively?
(a) shoot, suberin
(b) root, lignin
(c) root, suberin
(d) root and shoot, suberin
Answer:
(c) root, suberin

Question 3.
Which of the following is present in monocot leaves?
A. Bulliform cell
B. Leaf base
C. Bundle sheath
D. Resin gland
E. Water cavity
(a) A, B, C, E
(b) A, B, D, E
(c) A, B, E
(d) A, B, C
Answer:
(d) A, B, C

Question 4.
A vascular bundle in which phloem is on both the sides of the xylem and separated from it by strips of cambium is said to be:
(a) Collateral open
(b) Bicollateral open
(c) Concentric
(d) Bicollateral closed
Answer:
(b) Bicollateral open

Question 5.
Presence of cuticle is a common character of:
A. Monocot stem
B. Dicot stem
C. Monocot root
D. Dicot root
E. Monocot leaf
F. Dicot leaf
(a) A, B, E, F
(b) B, F
(c) A, B, C, D, E, F
(d) A, E, F
Answer:
(a) A, B, E, F

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is known as “Father of Plant Anatomy”.
2. ……….. are the group of cells that are similar or dissimilar in structure and origin, but perform similar function.
3. Based on the ability to divide, tissues are classified into ……….. and ……… tissue.
4. ………. is the outermost layer.
5. The main function of vascular tissue system are transport of ……….. and ……….
6. Epidermis protects the ……… tissue.
7. ………, ………., ………… and ……….. forms the ground tissue system.
8. Epiblema is also known as ……… or ……….
9. ……….. helps in the movement of water and dissolved salts from cortex into xylem.
10. The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called …………
11. All the tissues inner to endodermis constitute …………
12. The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called …………
13. Reaction centres and the accessory pigments together are called …………
14. Light reaction takes place in ………. membrane of the chloroplast.
15. Kreb cycle is also known as ……….
16. Glycolysis take place in ……… of the cell.
17. Krebs cycle occurs in ……….. matrix.
18. The gas evolved during photosynthesis is ……….
19. The first step in aerobic respiration is ………..
20. Energy currency of cells is ………..
21. Major functions of epiblema is ……….
Answer:
1. Nehemiah Grew
2. Tissues
3. Meristamatic and Permanent
4. Epidermis
5. Water and Food
6. inner
7. Cortex, Endodermis, Pericycle and Pith
8. Rhizodermis or Piliferous layer
9. Casparian strips
10. Conjuctive tissue
11. Stele
12. Hypodermis
13. Photosystems
14. thylakoid
15. Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA)
16. Cytoplasm
17. Mitochondria
18. Oxygen
19. Glycolysis
20. ATP
21. Protection

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in Sentence:

Question 1.
What are the functions of Epidermis?
Answer:

• The epidermis protects the inner surface.
• Stomata help in transpiration.
• Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 2.
Name the factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:
The process of photosynthesis is affected internally by:

1. Pigments
2. Leaf age
3. Accumulation of carbohydrates and
4. Hormones.

The process of photosynthesis is affected externally by:

1. Light
2. CO₂
3. Temperature
4. Water
5. Minerals.

Question 3.
What are Oxysomes?
Answer:
The inner mitochondria membrane bear minute regularly spaced, Tennis racket shaped particles called Oxysomes, which involve in ATP synthesis.

Question 4.
What is Cortex?
Answer:
The region below the epidermis is called cortex. Its main function is to store starch.

Question 5.
What is Pericycle?
Answer:
Pericycle is the outer most layer of stele. It is made of single layer of thin walled cells.

Question 6.
What are the functions of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

Question 7.
Where are passage cell located and write its function?
Answer:
The passage cell is an endodermal cell located opposite to the protoxylem, which are thin wall without casparian strips. The main function of passage cell is entry of water from cortex to xylem.

Question 8.
What is protoxylem lacuna?
Answer:
In mature vascular bundle the lowest proto xylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna. Eg: Monocot stem.

Question 9.
Define Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The series of cyclic reaction involved in converting pyruvic acid to CO₂ and water in mitochondria is called Kreb’s cycle.

Question 10.
Why mitochondria is called ‘Power house of the cell’?
Answer:
A large number of ATP molecules are produced in the mitochondria, so they are called power house of the cell.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Name the three types of plastids.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast: green coloured plastids helps in photosynthesis.
2. Chromoplast: yellow, red, orange coloured plastids, gives colour to flowers and fruits.
3. Leucoplast: colourless plastids, store food.

Question 2.
List out the functions of chloroplast.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Storage of starch
3. Synthesis of fatty acids
4. Storage of lipids

Question 3.
What are Concentric bundles? Explain its types.
Answer:
Vascular bundles in which either xylem completely surrounds the phloem or phloem surrounds the xylem is called concentric vascular bundle. It is of two types:

1. Amphivasal: Xylem surrounds phloem. Eg: Dracaena
2. Amphicribral: Phloem surrounds xylem. Eg: Ferns

Question 4.
What are photosynthetic pigment?
Answer:

1. Pigments involved in photosynthesis are called Photosynthetic pigments.
2.  Primary pigment traps solar energy and converts it into electrical and chemical energy. Accessory pigments pass on the absorbed energy to primary pigment.

Question 5.
(a) Differentiate between Palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:

(b) Differentiate between Monocot ieaf and Dicot leaf.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define stele.
Answer:
Central Part inner to endodermis is called stele. It includes pericycle and vascular system.

Question 7.
Where respiratory cavity is located?
Answer:
The air space that is found next to the stomata is called respiratory cavity or sub stomatal cavity.

Question 8.
What is an isobilateral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In monocot leaf, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma (i.e., made of only spongy or palisade parenchyma) is called isobilateral leaf.
Eg: Grass (Monocot leaf)

Question 9.
What is dorsiventral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In dicot leaf, the mesophyll is differentiated into palisade parenchyma on the upper side and spongy parenchyma on the lower side. A leaf showing this differentiation is mesophyll is designated as dorsiventral. Eg: Dicot leaf.

Question 10.
Define tetrarch xylem.
Answer:
If the number of proto xylem points are four, the xylem is called tetrarch. Eg: Dicot root

Question 11.
What are generally called as accessory pigments?
Answer:
Photosynthetic pigments other than chlorophyll ‘a’ are generally I called accessory pigments. Eg: Chlorophyll ‘A’- Carotenoids and Xanthophyll.

Question 12.
W’rite any three significance of photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. It is the source of all our food and fuel,
2. It drives all other process of biological and a biological world,
3. It is responsible for the growth and sustenance of our biosphere.

Question 13.
What are the functions of epidermal tissue system?
Answer:

1. Epidermis protects the inner tissues.
2. Stomata helps in transpiration.
3. Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 14.
Differentiate between monocot and dicot stem.
Answer:

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain Epidermal tissue system.
Answer:

1. The outer most covering layer of plants.
2. It contains epidermis, stomata and epidermal out growths.
3. Epidermis are interrupted by many minute pores called stomata.
4. Epidermis is covered by cuticle to check evaporation of water.
5. Trichomes and root hairs are some epidermal growths.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Vascular bundle.
Answer:
Xylem and Phloem are present in the form of bundles called vascular bundles.
1. Radial
2. Conjoint
3. Concentric.
1. Radial vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate matter or different radii are called Radial vascular bundle. Eg: roots

2. Conjoint vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius are called conjoint vascular bundle. Divided in two types:
(a) Collateral vascular bundles : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius with phloem towards the outside is called collateral vascular bundles. Eg: stem and leaf.
Collateral vascular bundles are of two types:

• Open collateral vascular bundle: Vascular bundle consists of cambial tissue in between xylem and phloem are called Open collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Dicot stem
• Closed collateral vascular bundle: Cambium is absent in vascular bundle are called Closed collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Monocot stem.

(b) Bicollateral : Phloem occurs on both the outer and inner side of xylem. This vascular bundle is Bicollateral vascular bundle. Eg: Cucurbita.

3. Concentric vascular bundle : The vascular bundle in which either phloem surrounds the xylem or xylem surrounds the phloem completely called Concentric vascular bundles. It is of two types: (a) Amphivasal, (b) Amphicribral.
(a) Amphivasal: The Xylem completely surrounds the phloem. Eg: Dracaena
(b) Amphicribral: The Phloem completely surrounds the xylem. Eg: Ferns

Exarch: Protoxylem vessels are present towards the periphery and meta xylem towards the centre. Eg: Root
Endarch: Protoxylem are present towards the centre and meta xylem towards the periphery. Eg: Stem

Question 3.
Explain the Primary structure of Monocot root.
Answer:
The internal structure of Monocot root has
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis
2. Cortex
3. Endodermis
4. Stele
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot root.
• Made up of single layer of thin walled, paranchymatous cell.
• Root hair helps in absorption of water and minerals.
• Stomata and cuticle are absent.
• Main function is to protect inner tissue.

2. Cortex:

• The region below the epidermis is cortex.
• Made up of only parenchymatous cells with intercellular space.
• It is a multi layer.
• Function is to store water and food material.

3. Endodermis:

• Inner most cortex is called Endodermis.
• It forms a complete ring around the stele with characteristic Casparian strips and Passage cell.
• There is a band like thickening made of suberin in casparian strips.

(iv) Stele:
Central part inner to endodermis is stele.
It contains Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith.
(a) Pericycle:

• Outer most layer of stele made of single layer of tightly arranged Parenchymatous cell.
• Function is to originate lateral root.

(b) Vascular bundles:

• Radial arrangement of vascular tissue.
• Xylem is exarch and polyarch.
• The conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue.

(c) Pith:

• Large central part, composed of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
• Function is to store the starch.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of Dicot root.
Answer:

Question 5.
Describe the Primary structure of T.S of Monocot stem.
Answer:
(i) Epidermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot stem.
• Made up of single layer and tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle.
• Few stomata are seen in epidermis.
• Multicellular hairs are absent.

(ii) Hvpodermis:

• The layer below the epidermis is called hypodermis.
• Hypodermis is made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
• It is interrupted by chlorenchyma.

Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to plant.

(iii) Ground tissue:

• There is no distinction of cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
• Inner to hypodermis parenchyma cell forms the ground tissue.

(iv) Vascular bundles:

• Vascular bundles are scattered in the ground tissue. Each vascular bundle are surrounded by bundle sheath by sclerenchymatous tissue.
• Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, endarch and closed.
• Xylem contains meta xylem and protoxylem.
• In mature Vascular bundle the lowest protoxylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna.
• Phloem contains seive tubes and companion cells.

(v) Pith:

• It is not differentiated in monocot stem.

Question 6.
Write a short note on structure of chloroplast.
Answer:
(i) Chloroplast are the actual site of photosynthesis.
(ii) They are green plastids containing green pigment called chlorophyll.
(iii) It mainly consists of Envelope, Stroma, Thylakoids and Grana.

Envelope : Chloroplast has outer and inner envelope membranes which is seperated by intermembrane space.
Stroma : Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma. It contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules required for protein synthesis.
Thylakoids : It’s membrane encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoids forms a stack of disc like structures called a grana (singular-granum).
Grana : Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs stacked one above the other. These stacks are termed as grana,they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Question 7.
Explain the primary structure of T.S Dicot stem.
Answer:
The internal structure of Dicot stem has
(i) Epidermis :

• Outer most layer of dicot stem made up of tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle which check transpiration.
• Few stomata and multicellular hairs are present in epidermal cells.

(ii) Cortex :
Cortex is differentiated into 3 zones:

• Hypodermis : The layer below the epidermis is called Hypodermis. It is made by few layers of collenchymatous cells which gives mechanical strength.
• Middle cortex : Inner to hypodermis is made up of few layer of chlorenchymatous tissue which helps in photosynthesis.
• Inner cortex : Inner cortex is made by parenchyma cells which stores food materials. The inner most layer of cortex is called endodermis. The cells are compactly arranged in barrel shaped cells that contain starch grains. So this layer also called starch sheath.

(iii) Stele :
Central part inner to endodermis is called stele. It contains pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.

• Pericycle : A few layer of sclerenchyma cells occurs in patches outside the phloem in each vascular bundle.
• Vascular bundle : Vascular bundle are conjoint collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of ring.
• Pith : Large central part, composed if parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces. Function is to store the food.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of T.S of dicot leaf.
Answer:
The T.S of dicot leaf contains
(i) Epidermis – Upper and Lower
(ii) Mesophyll
(iii) Vascular bundles

(i) Epidermis :
The leaf is dorsiventral it has upper and lower epidermis.

• Upper Epidermis : Made up of single layer of tightly packed parenchyma cells. Cuticle is thicker than the lower epidermis.
• Lower Epidermis : Made up of single layer of parenchymatous cells with thin cuticle. Stomata are more in Lower epidermis. Used for transpiration and gaseous exchange.

(ii) Mesophyll :
The region between upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

• Palisade parenchyma: Present below the upper epidermis cells are elongated. Cells do not have intercellular spaces. More number of chloroplast present. Function is photosynthesis.
• Spongy parenchyma: Present above the lower epidermis. Cells are irregular shaped. Cells have intercellular spaces less number of chloroplast is present. Function is gaseous exchange.

(iii) Vascular bundles : Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed. Vascular bundles are surrounded by a compact layer of parenchymatous cells. These are called Bundle sheath. Xylem is present towards the upper epidermis. Phloem is present towards the lower epidermis.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOT).

Question 1.
The cells of endodermis show band like thickening on their radial and inner tangential walls called casparian strips. Why?
Answer:
It is to prevent the re-entry of water into the cortex once water entered the xylem tissue.

Question 2.
Do plants like Croton, with non – green leaves have chlorophyll and do they perform photosynthesis?
Answer:
The chlorophyll is present in Croton leaves, embedded along with other coloured pigments like carotenoids and anthocyanin. These coloured pigments assist or help the pigment chlorophyll in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 3.
How do we see beautiful colours in Autumn and enjoy the fall?
Answer:
Chlorophyll gives a green colour to plants. During winter, there is not enough light for photosynthesis. So they use food, which is stored in summer. As the green chlorophyll disappears or fades away, we begin to see yellow, orange and red colour. We cannot see them in summer, because they are covered by the green chlorophyll.

But in autumn or fall season glucose trapped in the leaves, after photosynthesis stops. Sunlight and cool nights of autumn cause the leaves to turn this glucose into a red colour.
It is the combination of all these things, that make the beautiful colours, we enjoy in the fall.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Manganese is used in:
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel Making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
Answer:
(b) Steel Making

Question 2.
The Anthracite coal has
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 7% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
Answer:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon

Question 3.
The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Question 4.
The city which is called the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 5.
The first Jute mill of India was established at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Baroda
Answer:
(a) Kolkata

Question 6.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The most abundant source of energy is:
(a) Biomass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil
Answer:
(b) Sun

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is:
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
Answer:
(b) Mineral Deposits

Question 10.
One of the shore-based steel plants of India is located at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Goa
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(d) Visakhapatnam

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Question 2.
Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand is the leading producer of Iron ore (25%), other states are Odisha (21%), Chattisgarh (18%), Karnataka (20%), Andhra Pradesh (5%) and also the state of Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Question 4.
State the uses of Manganese.
Answer:

1. Manganese is a silvery grey element always available with iron, laterite and other minerals.
2. It is very hard and brittle. So it is used for making iron and steel to give strength.
3. It also serves as raw materials for alloying.
4. It is also used in the manufacture of bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Question 5.
What is natural gas?
Answer:
It usually accompanies petroleum accumulations.
[OR]
Natural gas is an important clean energy resources found in association with or without petroleum. It is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry. It is considered an eco-friendly fuel because of low carbondioxide emissions.

Question 6.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:
Based on carbon content coal is classified into

1. Anthracite – contains 80% to 90% carbon.
2. Bituminous – contains 60% to 80% carbon.
3. Lignite – contains 40% to 60% carbon
4. Peat – less than 40% carbon

Question 7.
Mention the major areas of jute production in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh, Odisha are the major jute producing area.

Question 8.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
West coast: Mumbai high, Gujarat coast, Basseim, Aliabet (South of Bhavanagar), Ankleshwar, Cambay – Luni region, Ahmedabad -Kaloi region and Punjab – Haryana.

East Coast: Brahmaputra valley, Digboi, Nahoratitya, Moran-Hugrijan, Rudrasagar-Lawa (Assam region), Surrma Valley. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Punjab. Haryana, Baleshwar coast.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Renewable and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. These resources can be replenished after utilization.
2. Abundantly available in nature.
3. Eg: Sun energy, Wind etc.

Non-Renewable resources:

1. These resources cannot be regained after utilization.
2. Limited stock take millions of years for formation.
3. Eg: Minerals

Question 2.
Metallic and non-metallic minerals
Answer:
Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals contain one or more metallic elements.
2. They can be further classified into ferrous and Non-ferrous minerals.
3. Eg: Iron-ore, Manganese

Non-Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals do not contain metal in them.
2. They can be classified into energy fuels and construction minerals.
3. Eg: Coal, Petroleum, lime stone, Gypsum.

Question 3.
Agra based industry and mineral based industry.
Answer:
Agro based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from agricultural products.
2. Eg: Cotton textile industry, Jute mills, Silk industry, Sugar industry etc.
3. Labour intensive

Mineral based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from metallic and non- metallic minerals.
2. Eg: Coal industry, Iron and Steel industry etc.
3. Capital intensive

Question 4.
Jute industry and sugar industry.
Answer:
Jute industry:

1. Second largest textile industry.
2. Jute fibre is the basic raw material.
3. Gunny bags, Canvas, pack sheets,Cordage are some of the Jute products.
4. Concentrated in and around West Bengal.

Sugar industry:

1. Second largest agro based industry.
2. Sugarcane is the basic raw material.
3. Sugar Jaggery, Khandsari are some of the products of sugar industry.
4. Uttar Pradesh have more than 50% of the sugar industries.

Question 5.
Conventional energy and non- conventional energy
Answer:
Conventional energy:

1. Non renewable energy.
2. Mainly energy is produced by burning fossil fuels.
3. Production of energy till the stock of mineral availability.
4. Thermal power – Coal, petroleum and Natural gas and Nuclear minerals.

Non-Conventional energy:

1. Renewable energy
2. Mainly energy is produced by harnessing power from nature.
3. Continuous flow of energy production is possible.
4. Solar energy, Wind energy. Bio mass energy, tidal and wave energy.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industries contribute about 7% of industrial output, 2% of India’s GDP and 15% of the country’s export earnings. It is one of the largest sources of employment generation in the country. At present there are 1,719 textile mills in the country. Out of which 188 mills are in public sector, 147 in cooperative sector and 1,284 in private sector. Currently, India is the third largest producer of cotton and has the largest loom arc and ring spindles in the world. At present, cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India. About 16% of the industrial capital, 14% of industrial production and over 20% of the industrial labour of the country are engaged in this industry.

The higher concentration of textile mills in and around Mumbai, makes it as “Manchester of India”. Presence of black cotton soil in Maharashtra, humid climate, presence of Mumbai port, availability of hydro power, good market and well developed transport facility favour the cotton textile industries in Mumbai. The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil nadu. Coimbatore is the most important centre in Tamil nadu with 200 mills out of its 435 and called as “Manchester ‘ of South India”. Erode, Tirupur, Karur, Chennai, Thirunelveli, Madurai, Thoothukudi, Salem and Virudhunagar are the other major cotton textiles centres in the state.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the Hoogly region.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the concentration of Jute industries in the Hoogly region in West Bengal.

1. Raw materials: West Bengal is the largest producer of Jute. Availability of raw Jute for production.
2. Processing: Jute require fresh water for processing. Abundant water supply is available by the riverines and continuous supply of fresh water is ensured due to Perennial nature.
3. Transport: Well connected by the network of water ways, road ways and railways.
4. Cheap labour: West Bengal is one of the densely populated area . So cheap labour is available.
5. Market: Kolkatta being one of the textile centre great demand for the product as well as port facilities available for export.

Question 3.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry is the basic industry. The raw materials are obtained both from Metallic and Non-Metallic minerals.

Iron and Steel industries are located in close proximity to the coal fields or Iron ore mines.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

Question 1.
iron ore production centres.
Answer:

Question 2.
Centres of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
Answer:

Question 3.
Coal mining centres.
Answer:

Question 4.
Areas of cultivation of cotton.
Answer:

Question 5.
Iron and Steel industries.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ………………. is called as mineral oil.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Natural gas
(d) Mica
Answer:
(a) Petroleum

Question 2.
Manchester of India is ……..
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 3.
The ………………. is the largest oil field in India producing 65% of oil.
(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Mumbai high
(c) Kalol
(d) Surma valley
Answer:
(b) Mumbai high

Question 4.
Chotta Nagpur plateau is noted for ……..
(a) Natural vegetation
(b) Mineral resource
(c) Cotton cultivation
Answer:
(b) Mineral resource

Question 5.
TamilNadu produces about ………………. % of the total thermal electricity produced in India.
(a) 5
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 90
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 6.
In India most of the Iron and Steel industries are located in the …… plateau.
(a) Chott Nagpur
(b) Deccan
(c) Malwa
Answer:
(a) Chott Nagpur

Question 7.
Areas near ………………. district has the largest concentrations of wind farm capacity at a single location in the world.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Thiruvallur
(d) Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) Kanyakumari

Question 8.
The resources that can be reproduced again and again is called ……
(a) Mineral resources
(b) Renewable resource
(c) Natural resource
Answer:
(b) Renewable resource

Question 9.
Bysinosis is an occupational lung disease caused by exposure to:
(a) natural gas
(b) cotton dust
(c) coal power
(d) automobile
Answer:
(b) cotton dust

Question 10.
Lignite is extracted in Tamil Nadu …….
(a) Kadaloor
(b) Neyveli
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(b) Neyveli

Question 11.
National News Print and Papermills (NEPA) is in ………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) TamilNadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Question 12.
Sugar bowl of India is …….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar

Question 13.
The ………………. is the largest producer of electronic goods in India.
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Mysuru
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 14.
The leading producer of electronic goods is ……..
(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Hyderabad
Answer:
(a) Bangalore

Question 15.
………………. is an aluminium ore.
(a) Manganese
(b) Magnesium
(c) Bauxite
(d) Anthracite
Answer:
(c) Bauxite

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What are the features of copper and aluminium?
Answer:

• Malleability
• Expandability
• Good conductor of heat and energy (electricity)

Question 2.
Where was the first hydro-electric power station in India established?
Answer:
The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at “Darjeeling” in 1897.

Question 3.
In which type of rocks is limestone found?
Answer:
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks.

Question 4.
What is the origin of the word petroleum?
Answer:
The word petroleum is derived from two Latin words petro (Rock) and Oleum (oil) thus petroleum is oil obtained from rocks of the earth. It is also called as mineral oil.

Question 5.
Name any five software centres.
Answer:

1. Chennai
2. Bangalore
3. Mysore
4. Hyderabad
5. Coimbatore

Question 6.
When was the Nuclear power programme initiated in India and where was the first Atomic Power station was set up?
Answer:

1. Nuclear Power programme was initiated in the 1940s, when “ Tata Atomic Research Commission was incorporated in August 1948.
2. The 1st nuclear power station was set up at Tarapur near Mumbai in 1969.

Question 7.
What are the raw materials for the paper industry?
Answer:
Woodpulp, bamboo, salai, Sabai grasses, waste paper and bagasse

Question 8.
Write a note on NPCIL.
Answer:

1. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited ( NPCIL) is wholly owned by the Government of India.
2. It is a Public sector undertaking.
3. Responsible for the generation of nuclear power for electricity.
4. Administered by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). It is responsible for designing, constructing and operating the Nuclear power stations in India.

Question 9.
What are the major centres of the automobile industry?
Answer:
Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, New Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Satara and Mysore.

Question 10.
Where are the centres of IT parks located in India?
Answer:
Centres of IT parks in India are located in Chennai, Coimbatore, Thiruvananthapuram, Bengaluru, Mysuru, Hyderabad, Vishakapatnam, Mumbai, Pune, Indore, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Noida, Mohali and Srinagar.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Paper industry and Iron and Steel industry.
Answer:
Paper industry

1. Forest-based industry.
2. Serve as an index for education and literacy.
3. Wood pulp, Bamboo, bagasse are some of the basic raw materials.

Iron and Steel industry:

1. Mineral-based industry.
2. Key industry for industrial development.
3. Iron ore and Manganese are the main raw materials.

Question 2.
Solar and Wind energy.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. Conversion of sunlight into electricity.
2. Photo voltoic cells or use of lenses, mirror and tracking system is used.
3. Installation cost is more and different applications is required as per the need.
4. Occupy more space.

Wind energy:

1. Conversion of energy is from the flow of wind.
2. Wind turbines are used.
3. Installation cost is comparatively less.
4. Occupy less space.

Question 3.
Difference between Manganese and Mica.
Answer:
Manganese:

1. It is a Metallic mineral.
2. Very hard and brittle in nature.
3. Raw material for iron and steel basic raw material for alloying.

Mica:

1. It is a Non-Metallic mineral.
2. Translucent, splitable into thin sheets, elastic and incompressible.
3. Exclusively used in electrical goods and also for making lubricants, paints, varnishes etc.

Question 4.
Iron and Steel industry and Software industry.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry:

1. Age old industry.
2. Depend upon minerals.
3. Large scale industry.
4. Began in 1907.

Software industry:

1. Recently developed industry.
2. Depend upon skill and knowledge (technical).
3. Small and medium scale industry.
4. Began in 1970.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Enumerate the automobile industry as the fast-growing industry of India.
Answer:
The first automobile industry was established at the Premier Automobiles Ltd at Kurla (Mumbai) in 1947 and the Hindustan Motor Ltd at Uttarpara (Kolkata) in 1948. At present India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufactures which includes two wheelers, commercial vehicles, passenger cars, Jeep, scooty, scooters, motor cycles mopeds and three wheelers.

Among the production of two wheelers, motorcycles are manufactured at Faridabad, Haryana and Mysore. While scooters are manufactured at Lucknow, Satara, Akudi (Pune), Panki (Kanpur) and Odhai (Ahmedabad). The cars produced at Haryana, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai are Maruti, Ambassador, Fiat, Ford and Hyndai etc. Presenceof foreign car companies such as Mercedes Benz, Fiat, General Motors, Toyota and the recent entry of passenger cars manufacturers BMW, Audi, Volks Wagen and Volvo makes the Indian automobile sector a special one.

Several new joint venture agreements for the manufacture of cars have recently been signed by the Indian companies and renowned car manufacturers of the world. The Indian auto industry is said to take a big leep in the near fixture. This expected to provide much more competitive environment to the industry and a wide choice of ultra modem cars to the consumers. This is the fast growing industry in India.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of Iron ore and their nature?
Answer:
Iron ores are rocks and minerals from which metallic iron can be economically extracted.

The different forms of Iron ore are:

Form of Iron ores	Iron content %
Magnetite	72.4%
Haemetite	69.9%
Goethite	62.9%
Limonite	55%
Siderite	48.2%

Nature: The ores are usually rich in iron oxides and vary in colour from dark grey, bright yellow or deep purple to rusty red.

Question 3.
Write about the uses of Coal and its areas of distribution.
Answer:

1. Coal is a non-renewable resource. It is available in the form of sedimentary rocks.
2. It has close association with the industrial development of any country.

Uses: Coal is an important source of energy in India with its varied and innumerable uses

1. It is converted into gas, oil and thermal power electricity.
2. Besides it forms a basic raw materials for the production of chemicals, dyes, fertilizers, paints, synthetic and explosives.
3. Distribution: Indian coal is mostly associated with Gondwana region and is primarily found in peninsular India.
4. The States of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh alone account for nearly 90% of coal reserves of the country. About 2% of India’s coal is of tertiary type and is mostly in Assam and Jammu and Kashmir.
5. Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state in the country. Indian lignite (brown coal) deposits occur particularly in Tamil Nadu ( Neyveli), Puducherry and Kerala.

Question 4.
Give an account on Automobile industry in India.
Answer:
Automobile industry’ is one of the most dynamic industrial groups in India. India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufacturers.

Distribution: The automobile industries are found in four clusters viz: Delhi, Gurgaon and Manesar in North India.

West India: Pune, Nasik, Halol and Aurangabad East India: Jamshedpur and Kolkatta South India: Chennai, Bengaluru and Hosur.

Major-Indian companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Tata motors, Ashok Leyland, Mahindra and Mahindra, Eicher motors and Ford motors.

Foreign companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Hyundai, Mercedes Benz , ITEC, MAN.

Automobile industries in India manufactures two wheelers passenger car, Jeep, Scooty, Scooter, Mopeds, Motorcycles and three wheelers.

Passenger car manufacturers: Tata motors, Maruti Suzuki , Mahindra and Mahindra and Hindustan motors are Indian companies.

Foreign car companies in India: Mercedez Benz, Fiat, General motors, Toyota, recent entry BMW, Audi, Volkswagon and Volvo.

Two wheeler manufacturing is dominated by Indian companies like Hero, Bajaj Auto and TVS.

Major centres of Automobile industries: Mumbai, Chennai, Jamshedpur, Jabalpur, Kolkata, Pune, New Delhi, Kanpur, Bengaluru, Satara, Lucknow • and Mysuru. Chennai is named as “Detroit of Asia” due to the presence of major automobile manufacturing units and allied industries around the city.

Question 5.
What are the major challenges faced by the Indian industries?
Answer:
Some major challenges faced by industries in India are:

1. Non-availability of large blocks of land.
2. Shortage and fluctuation in power supply.
3. Non-availability of cheap labourers.
4. Poor access to credit.
5. High rate of interest for borrowed loan.
6. Lack of technical and vocational training for employees.
7. In appropriate living conditions nearby industrial areas.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
Any two places producing limestone
Answer:

Question 2.
Any two Nuclear power stations
Answer:

Question 3.
Any two Thermal power stations in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Question 4.
Wind farm places (any 2)
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four
  alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in detaiL Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Which charge configuration produces a uniform electric field?
(a) point charge
(b) infinite uniform line charge
(c) uniformly charged infinite plane
(d) uniformly charged spherical shell
Answer:
(c) uniformly charged infinite plane

Question 2.
The work done in carrying a charge Q, once round a circle of radius R with a charge Q₂ at the centre is  ………….
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{1} \mathrm{Q}_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
(b) Zero
(c)  \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{1} \mathrm{Q}_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{R}} \)
(d) infinite
Answer:
(b) Zero
Hint: The electric field is conservative. Therefore, no work is done in moving a charge around a closed path in a electric field.

Question 3.
The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 Ω is……………………..
(a) 0.2 Ω
(b) 0.5 Ω
(c) 0.8 Ω
(d) 1.0 Ω
Answer:
(b) 0.5 Ω

Question 4.
An electron moves straight inside a charged parallel plate capacitor of uniform charge density σ. The time taken by the electron to cross the parallel plate capacitor when the plates of the capacitor are kept under constant magnetic field of induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) is ……….


Answer:
(d)

Question 5.
In a series resonant RLC circuit, the voltage across 100Ω resistor is 40 V. The resonant frequency co is 250 rad/s. If the value of C is 4 pF, then the voltage across L is……………….
(a) 600 V
(b) 4000 V
(c) 400 V
(d) IV
Answer:
(c) 400 V

Question 6.
During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium:
(a) electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density
(b) electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density
(c) electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density
(d) both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero
Answer:
(c) electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density

Question 7.
First diffraction minimum due to a single slit of width 1.0 x 10^-5 cm is at 30°. Then wavelength of light used is, …………………
(a) 400 Å
(b) 500 Å
(c) 600 Å
(d) 700 Å
Answer:
(b) 500 Å
Hint. For diffraction minima, d sin θ = nλ
\(\lambda=\frac{d \sin \theta}{n}=\frac{1 \times 10^{-5} \times 10^{-2} \times \sin 30^{\circ}}{1}=0.5 \times 10^{-7}\)
λ = 500 Å

Question 8.
The sky would appear red instead of blue if
(a) atmospheric particles scatter blue light more than red light
(b) atmospheric particles scatter all colours equally
(c) atmospheric particle scatter red light more than blue light
(d) the sun was much hotter
Answer:
(c) atmospheric particle scatter red light more than blue light

Question 9.
Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends upon
(a) frequency
(b) intensity
(c) nature of atmosphere surrounding the electron
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) frequency
Hint: Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends on the frequency of incident radiation.

Question 10.
The ratio between the first three orbits of hydrogen atom is…………….
(a) 1:2:3
(b) 2:4:6
(c) 1:4:9
(d) 1:3:5
Answer:
(c) 1:4:9
Hint :
E_n = \(\frac{-13.6 \times z^{2}}{n^{2}}\)
n = 1; E₁ =- 13.6 eV/ atom
n = 2; E₂ = – 3.4 eV/ atom
n = 3; E₃ = -1.51 eV/atom                             ’
The ratio of three orbits E₁ : E₂ : E₃ = 13.6 : 3.4 : 1.51 = 1 : 4 : 9

Question 11.
Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom did not explain fully
(a) diameter of H-atom
(b) emission spectra
(c) ionisation energy
(d) the fine structure of even hydrogen spectrum
Answer:
(d) the fine structure of even hydrogen spectrum
Hint: Bohr theory could not explain the five structure of hydrogen spectrum.

Question 12.
If a half-wave rectified voltage is fed to a load resistor, which part of a cycle the load current will flow?
(a) 0° – 90°
(b) 90° – 180°
(c) 0° – 180°
(d) 0° – 360°
Answer:
(c) 0° – 180°

Question 13.
Diamond is very hard because ……………..
(a) it is covalent solid
(b) it has large cohesive energy
(c) high melting point
(d) insoluble in all solvents
Answer:
(b) it has large cohesive energy

Question 14.
The internationally accepted frequency deviation for the purpose of FM broadcasts.
(a) 75 kHz
(b) 68 kHz
(c) 80 kHz
(d) 70 kHz
Answer:
(a) 75 kHz

Question 15.
The blue print for making ultra durable synthetic material is mimicked from
(a) Lotus leaf
(b) Morpho butterfly
(c) Parrot fish
(d) Peacock feather
Answer:
(c) Parrot fish

Part – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 17 is compulsory.   [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Define ‘electric flux’.
Answer:
The number of electric field lines crossing a given area kept normal to the electric field lines  is called electric flux. Its unit is N m² C^-1. Electric flux is a scalar quantity.

Question 17.
Determine the number of electrons flowing per second through a conductor, when a current of 32 A flows through it.
Answer:
I = 32A, t= 1 s
Charge of an electron, e = 1.6 x 10^-19 C
The number of electrons flowing per second, n =?

Question 18.
Define magnetic flux.
Answer:
The number of magnetic field lines crossing per unit area is called magnetic flux φ_B
\(\phi_{\mathrm{B}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\mathrm{B} \mathrm{A} \cos \theta=\mathrm{B} \perp \mathrm{A}\)

Question 19.
Give any one definition of power factor.
Answer:
The power factor is defined as the ratio of true power to the apparent power of an a.c. circuit.
It is equal to the cosine of the phase angle between current and voltage in the a.c. circuit.

Question 20.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:

• The incident ray, reflected ray and normal to the reflecting surface all are coplanar (ie. lie in the same plane).
• The angle of incidence i is equal to the angle of reflection r. i = r

Question 21.
Why do metals have a large number of free electrons?
Answer:
In metals, the electrons in the outer most shells are loosely bound to the nucleus. Even at room temperature, there are a large number of free electrons which are moving inside the metal in a random manner.

Question 22.
The radius of the 5th orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.25 A. Calculate the wavelength of the electron in the 5th orbit.
Answer:
2πr = nλ
2 x 3.14 x 13.25 Å = 5 x λ
.’. λ = 16.64 Å

Question 23.
Draw the output waveform of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:

Question 24.
Explain centre frequency or resting frequency in frequency modulation.
Answer:
When the frequency of the baseband signal is zero (no input signal), there is no change in the frequency of the carrier wave. It is at its normal frequency and is called as centre frequency or resting frequency.

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 28 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What is corona discharge?
Answer:
The electric field near the edge is very high and it ionizes the surrounding air. The positive ions are repelled at the sharp edge and negative ions are attracted towards the sharper edge.
This reduces the total charge of the conductor near the sharp edge. This is called action at points or corona discharge.

Question 26.
What is electric power and electric energy?
Answer:
Electric power: It is the rate at which an electric appliance converts electric energy into other forms of energy. Or, it is the rate at which work is done by a source of emf in maintaining an electric current through a circuit.
\({ P }=\frac { { W } }{ t } ={ VI }={ I }^{ 2 }{ R }=\frac { { V }^{ 2 } }{ { R } } \)
Electric energy: It is the total workdone in maintaining an electric current in an electric circuit for a given time.
W = Vt = VIr joule = I²R? joule.

Question 27.
A bar magnet having a magnetic moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{M}}\) is cut into four pieces i.e., first cut in two pieces along the axis of the magnet and each piece is further cut into two pieces. Compute the magnetic moment of each piece.
Answer:
Consider a bar magnet of magnetic moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{M}}\). When a bar magnet first cut in two pieces along the axis, their magnetic moment is \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{M}}}{2}\)

Question 28.
The current in an inductive circuit is given by 0.3 sin (200t – 40°) A. Write the equation for the voltage across it if the inductance is 40 mH.
Answer:
L = 40 x 10^-3H; i = 0.1 sin (200 t – 40°); X_L = ωL = 200 x 40 x 10^-3 = 8 Ω
V_m = I_m X_L = 0.3 x 8 = 2.4 V
In an inductive circuit, the voltage leads the current by 90° Therefore,
υ = V_m sin (ωt + 90°)
υ = 2.4 sin (200f – 40°+ 90°)
υ = 2.4 sin (200f +50°)volt

Question 29.
Writedown the integral form of modified Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
This law relates the magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through that path.

Question 30.
Two light sources have intensity of light as I_o. What is the resultant intensity at a point where the two light waves have a phase difference of π/3?
Answer:
Let the intensities be I_o
The resultant intensity is, I = 4 I_o cos² (φ/2)
Resultant intensity when, ϕ = π/ 3, is I = 4I₀ cos² (π / 6) I
= 4I₀(√3 / 2)² =3I₀

Question 31.
Write the properties of cathode rays.
Answer:

• Cathode rays possess energy and momentum and travel in a straight line with high speed of the order of 10⁷m s^-1
• It can be deflected by application of electric and magnetic fields.
• When the cathode rays are allowed to fall on matter, they produce heat.
• They affect the photographic plates and also produce fluorescence when they fall on   certain crystals and minerals.
• When the cathode rays fall on a material of high atomic weight, x-rays are produced.
• Cathode rays ionize the gas through which they pass.
• The speed of cathode rays is up \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ 10 } \right) ^{ th }\) of the speed of light.

Question 32.
Distinguish between wireline and wireless communication.
Answer:

Wireline communication	Wireless communication
It is a point-to-point communication.	It is a broadcast mode communication.
It uses mediums like wires, cable and optical fibres.	It uses free space as a communication medium.
These systems cannot be used for long distance transmission as they are connected.	These systems can be used for long distance transmission.
Ex. telephone, intercom and cable TV.	Ex. mobile, radio or TV broadcasting and satellite communication.

Question 33.
What is the difference between Nano materials and Bulk materials?
Answer:

• The solids are made up of particles. Each of the particle has a definite number of atoms, which might differ from material to material. If the particle of a solid is of size less than 100 nm, it is said to be a ‘nano solid’.
• When the particle size exceeds 100 nm, it is a ‘bulk solid’. It is to be noted that nano and bulk solids may be of the same chemical composition.
• For example, ZnO can be both in bulk and nano form.
• Though chemical composition is the; same, nano form of the material shows strikingly different properties when compared to its bulk counterpart.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions.  [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Calculate the electric field due to a dipole on its equatorial plane.
Answer:
Electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on the equatorial plane. Consider a point C at a distance r from the midpoint O of the dipole on the equatorial plane as shown in Figure.

Since the point C is equi­distant from +q and -q, the magnitude of the electric fields of +q and -q are the same. The direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{+}\) is along BC \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{-} \) and the direction of E is along CA. \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{+} \) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{-} \) and E are resolved into two components; one component parallel to the dipole axis and the other perpendicular to it. The perpendicular components \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{+}\right| \sin \theta \) and \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{-}\right| \sin \theta \) are oppositely directed and cancel each other. The magnitude of the total electric field at point C is the sum of the parallel components of E₊ and E and its direction is \(\overrightarrow { { E } } _{ + }\quad and\quad \overrightarrow { { E } } _{ – }\) and its direction is along \(-\hat{p}\)

(b) How the emf of two cells are compared using potentiometer?
Answer:
Comparison of emf of two cells with a potentiometer: To compare the emf of two cells, the circuit connections are made as shown in figure. Potentiometer wire CD is connected to a battery Bf and a key K in series. This is the primary circuit. The end C of the wire is connected to the terminal M of a DPDT (Double Pole Double Throw) switch and the other terminal N is connected to a jockey through a galvanometer G and a high resistance HR. The cells whose emf ξ₁ and ξ₂ and to be compared are connected to the terminals M₁, N₁ and M₂, N₂, of the DPDT switch. The positive terminals of Bf ξ₁ and ξ₂ should be connected to the same end C.

The DPDT switch is pressed towards M₁, N₁ so that cell ξ₁, is included in the secondary circuit and the balancing length l₁, is found by adjusting the jockey for zero deflection. Then the second cells ξ₂, is included in the circuit and the balancing length l₂, is determined. Let r be the resistance per unit length of the potentiometer wire and I be the current flowing through the wire.
we have
ξ₁ = Irl₁ ……………….. (1)
ξ₂ = Irl₂ ……………….. (2)
By dividing equation (1) by (2)
\(\frac{\xi_{1}}{\xi_{2}}=\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}\)
By including a rheostat (Rh) in the primary circuit, the experiment can be repeated several times by changing the current flowing through it.

Question 35.
(a) Discuss the working of cyclotron in detail.
Answer:
Cyclotron : Cyclotron is a device used accelerate the charged particles to gain large kinetic energy. It is also called as high energy accelerator. It was invented by Lawrence and Livingston in 1934.

Principle : When a charged particle moves normal to the magnetic field, it experiences magnetic Lorentz force.

Construction : The particles are allowed to move in between two semicircular metal containers called Dees (hollow D – shaped objects). Dees are enclosed in an evacuated chamber and it is kept in a region with uniform magnetic field controlled by an electromagnet. The direction of magnetic field is normal to the plane of the are enclosed in an evacuated chamber and it is kept in a region with uniform magnetic field controlled by an electromagnet. The direction of magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees. The two Dees are kept separated with a gap and the source S (which ejects the particle to be accelerated) is placed at the center in the gap between the Dees. Dees are connected to high frequency alternating potential difference.

Working: Let us assume that the ion ejected from source S is positively charged. As soon as ion is ejected, it is accelerated towards a Dee (say, Dee – 1) which has negative potential at that time. Since the magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees, the ion undergoes circular path. After one semi-circular path in Dee-1, the ion reaches the gap between Dees. At this time, the polarities of the Dees are reversed so that the ion is now accelerated towards Dee-2 with a greater velocity. For this circular motion, the centripetal force of the charged particle q is provided by Lorentz force.

\(\frac { mv^{ 2 } }{ r } =qv{ B }\Rightarrow r=\frac { m }{ q{ B } } v\Rightarrow r\propto v\)
From the equation, the increase in velocity increases the radius of circular path. This process continues and hence the particle undergoes spiral path of increasing radius. Once it reaches near the Very important condition in cyclotron operation is the resonance condition. It happens when the frequency { at which the positive ion circulates in the magnetic field must be equal to the constant frequency of the electrical oscillator f_osc From equation
\(f_{\text {osc }}=\frac{q \mathrm{B}}{2 \pi m} \Rightarrow \mathrm{T}=\frac{1}{f_{\text {osc }}}\)
The time Period of oscillation is \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \pi m}{q \mathrm{B}}\)
The kinetic energy of the charged particle is \(\mathrm{KE}=\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}=\frac{q^{2} \mathrm{B}^{2} r^{2}}{2 m}\)

Limitations of cyclotron

• the speed of the ion is limited
• electron cannot be accelerated
• uncharged particles cannot be accelerated

[OR]

(b) Give the uses of Foucault current.
Answer:
Though the production of eddy current is undesirable in some cases, it is useful in some other cases. A few of them are

(1) Induction stove : Induction stove is used to cook the food quickly and safely with less energy consumption. Below the cooking zone, there is a tightly wound coil of insulated wire. The cooking pan made of suitable material, is placed over the cooking zone. When the stove is switched on, an alternating current flowing in the coil produces high frequency alternating magnetic field which induces very strong eddy currents in the cooking pan. The eddy currents in the pan produce so much of heat due to Joule heating which is used to cook the food.

(2) Eddy current brake : This eddy current braking system is generally used in high speed trains and roller coasters. Strong electromagnets are fixed just above the rails. To stop the train, electromagnets are switched on. The magnetic field of these magnets induces eddy currents in the rails which oppose or resist the movement of the train. This is Eddy current linear brake.

In some cases, the circular disc, connected to the wheel of the train through a common shaft, is made to rotate in between the poles of an electromagnet. When there is a relative motion between the disc and the magnet, eddy currents are induced in the disc which stop the train. This is Eddy current circular brake.

(3) Eddy current testing : It is one of the simple non-destructive testing methods to find defects like surface cracks and air bubbles present in a specimen. A coil of insulated wire is given an alternating electric current so that it produces an alternating magnetic field. When this coil is brought near the test surface, eddy current is induced in the test surface. The presence of defects causes the change in phase and amplitude of the eddy current that can be detected by some other means. In this way, the defects present in the specimen are identified.

(4) Electro magnetic damping : The armature of the galvanometer coil is wound on a soft iron cylinder. Once the armature is deflected, the relative motion between the soft iron cylinder and the radial magnetic field induces eddy current in the cylinder. The damping force due to the flow of eddy current brings the armature to rest immediately and then galvanometer shows a steady deflection. This is called electromagnetic damping.

Question 36.
(a) Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
Properties of electromagnetic waves:

• Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated charge.
• Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-mechanical wave.
• Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. This means that the oscillating electric field vector, oscillating magnetic field vector and propagation vector (gives direction of propagation) are mutually perpendicular to each other.
• Electromagnetic waves travel with speed which is equal to the speed of light in vacuum
  or free space, \(c=\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { \varepsilon _{ 0 }\mu _{ 0 } } } =3\times 10^{ 8 }{ ms }^{ -1 }\)
• The speed of electromagnetic wave is less than speed in free space or vacuum, that is, v < c. In a medium of refractive index,

[OR]

(b) Explain the Young’s double slit experimental setup and obtain the equation for path difference.
Answer:
Experimental setup
Wavefronts from S₁ and S₂ spread out and overlapping takes place to the right side of double slit. When a screen is placed at a distance of about 1 meter from the slits, alternate bright and dark fringes which are equally spaced appear on the screen. These are called interference fringes or bands.

S₁ and S₂ travel equal distances and arrive in-phase. These two waves constructively interfere and bright fringe is observed at O. This is called central bright fringe.

The fringes disappear and there is uniform illumination on the screen when one of the slits is covered. This shows clearly that the bands are due to interference.

Equation for path difference
Let d be the distance between the double slits S₁ and S₂ which act as coherent sources of wavelength λ. A screen is placed parallel to the double slit at a distance D from it. The mid-point of S₁ and S₂ is C and the midpoint of the screen O is equidistant from S₁ and S₂. P is any point at a distance y  from O.

The waves from S₁ and S₂ meet at P either inphase or out-of-phase depending upon the path difference between the two waves. The path difference S between the light waves from S₁ and S₂ to the point P is, δ = S₂P and S₁P
A perpendicular is dropped from the point S₁, to the line S₂P at M to find the path difference more precisely.
δ = S₂P – MP = S₂M
The angular position of the point P from C is θ. ∠OCP = θ.
From the geometry, the angles ∠OCP and ∠S₂S₁ M are equal.
∠OCP = ∠S₂S₁ M = θ
In right angle triangle ΔS₁S₂M, the path difference, S₂M = d sin θ
δ = d sin θ
If the angle θ is small, sin θ ≈ tan θ ≈ θ From the right angle triangle ΔOCP, tan θ = y/D. The path difference, δ =dy/D

Question  37.
(a) Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:
Photo emissive cell:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.

• It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode are fixed.
• The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.
• A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.

Working:

• When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer
• For a given cathode, the magnitude of
  the current depends on the intensity to incident radiation and
  the potential difference between anode and cathode.

[OR]

Question 37.
(b) Explain the J.J. Thomson experiment to determine the specific charge of electron.
Answer:
In 1887, J. J. Thomson made remarkable improvement in the scope of study of gases in discharge tubes. In the presence of electric and magnetic fields, the cathode rays are deflected. By the variation of electric and magnetic fields, mass normalized charge or the specific charge (charge per unit mass) of the cathode rays is measured.

A highly evacuated discharge tube is used and cathode rays (electron beam) produced at cathode are attracted towards anode disc A. Anode disc is made with pin hole in order to allow only a narrow beam of cathode rays. These cathode rays are now allowed to pass through the parallel metal plates, maintained at high voltage. Further, this gas discharge tube is kept in between pole pieces of magnet such that both electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other. When the cathode rays strike the screen, they produce scintillation and hence bright spot is observed. This is achieved by coating the screen with zinc sulphide.

(i) Determination of velocity of cathode rays
For a fixed electric field between the plates, the magnetic field is adjusted such that the cathode rays (electron beam) strike at the original position O. This means that the magnitude of electric force is balanced by the magnitude of force due to magnetic field. Let e be the charge of the cathode rays, then eE = eBv
\(v=\frac{E}{B}\) …………….. (1)

(ii) Determination of specific charge
Since the cathode rays (electron beam) are accelerated from cathode to anode, the potential energy of the electron beam at the cathode is converted into kinetic energy of the electron beam at the anode. Let V be the potential difference between anode and cathode, then the potential energy is eV. Then from law of conservation of energy,
\(e \mathrm{V}=\frac{1}{2} m v^{2} \Rightarrow \frac{e}{m}=\frac{v^{2}}{2 \mathrm{V}}\)
Substituting the value of velocity from equation (1) , we get
\(\frac{e}{m}=\frac{1}{2 \mathrm{V}} \frac{\mathrm{E}^{2}}{\mathrm{B}^{2}}\) ………..(2)
Substituting the value of E ,B and V, the specific charge vam be determined as
\(\frac{e}{m}=1.7 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{Ckg}^{-1}\)

(iii) Deflection of charge only due to uniform electric field
When the magnetic field is turned off, the deflection is only due to electric field. The
deflection in vertical direction is due to the electric force.
F_e = eE ………………….. (3)
Let m be the mass of the electron and by applying Newton’s second law of motion,
acceleration of the electron is
\(a_{e}=\frac{1}{m} \mathrm{F}_{e}\) ………………… (4)
Substituting equation (4) in equation (3),
\(a_{e}=\frac{1}{m} e E=\frac{e}{m} E\)
Let y be the deviation produced from original position on the screen. Let the initial upward velocity of cathode ray be μ = 0 before entering the parallel electric plates. Let l be the time taken by the cathode rays to travel in electric field. Let l be the length of one of the plates, then the time taken is
\(t=\frac{l}{v}\) …………(5)

Hence, the deflection y’ of cathod rays is( note : u = 0 and \(a_{e}=\frac{e}{m} \mathrm{E}\))

Therefore, the deflection y on the screen is
y α y’ ⇒ y = Cy’
where C is proportionality constant which depends on the geometry of the discharge tube and substituting y’ value in equation (6), we get

Substituting the values on RHS, the value of specific charge is calculated as
e/m = 1.7 x 10¹¹Ckg^-1

Question 38.
(a) What is an LED? Give the principle of operation with a diagram.
Answer:
Light Emitting Diode (LED): LED is a p-n junction diode which emits visible or invisible light when it is forward biased. Since, electrical energy is converted into light energy, this process is also called electroluminescence. The cross-sectional view of a commercial LED is shown in figure (b). It consists of a p-layer, n-layer and a substrate. A transparent window is used to allow light to travel in the desired direction. An external resistance in series with the biasing source is required to limit the forward current through the LED. In addition, it has two leads; anode and cathode.

When the p-n junction is forward biased, the conduction band electrons on n-side and valence band holes on p-side diffuse across the junction. When they cross the junction, they become excess minority carriers (electrons in p-side and holes in n-side). These excess minority carriers recombine with oppositely charged majority carriers in the respective regions, i.e. the. electrons in the conduction band recombine with holes in the valence band as shown in the figure (c). During recombination process, energy is released in the form of light (radiative) or heat (non-radiative). For radiative recombination, a photon of energy hv is emitted. For non- radiative recombination, energy is liberated in the form of heat.

The colour of the light is determined by the energy band gap of the material. Therefore, LEDs are available in a wide range of colours such as blue (SiC), green (AlGaP) and red (GaAsP). Now a days, LED which emits white light (GalnN) is also available.

[OR]

(b) Give the applications of ICT in mining and agriculture sectors.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture
The implementation of information and communication technology (ICT) in agriculture sector enhances the productivity, improves the living standards of farmers and overcomes the Challenges and risk factors.

• ICT is widely used in increasing food productivity and farm management.
• It helps to optimize the use of water, seeds and fertilizers etc.
• Sophisticated technologies that include robots, temperature and moisture sensors, aerial images, and GPS technology can be used.
• Geographic information systems are extensively used in farming to decide the suitable place for the species to be planted.

(ii) Mining

• ICT in mining improves operational efficiency, remote monitoring and disaster locating system.
• Information and communication technology provides audio-visual warning to the trapped underground miners.
• It helps to connect remote sites.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Biogenetic law states that:
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 2.
The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Gregor Mendel
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 3.
Paleontologists deal with:
(a) Embryological evidences
(b) Fossil evidences
(c) Vestigial organ evidences
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Embryological evidences

Question 4.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by:
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 5.
The term Ethnobotany was coined by:
(a) Khorana
(b) J.W. Harshberger
(c) Ronald Ross
(d) Hugo de Vries
Answer:
(b) J.W. Harshberger

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called ………..
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called ……….
3. The forelimb of bat and human are examples of ………. organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by ………..

Answer:

1. acquired characters
2. vestigial organs
3. homologous
4. Charles Darwin

III. State true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.

Answer:

1. False – The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.
2. False – The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)
F. (v)

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
Answer:
Homologous organ – as they have inherited from common ancestors with similar developmental pattern in embryos.

Question 2.
Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the fossil bird, found in the Jurassic period.

Question 3.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds as it had wings with feathers like a bird and had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptile.

VI. Short Answers Questions

Question 1.
The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
Answer:
The characters developed by the animals during their life time in response to the environmental changes are called acquired character. The acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

Question 2.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers, like a bird. It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.

Question 3.
Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
Answer:
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.

Question 4.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. The elements may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium. Carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death, and the decaying process of C14 occurs continuously. The time passed since the death of a plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C14 present in their body.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
Survival of the fittest or Natural selection : During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as natural selection.

Question 2.
How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Answer:

Question 3.
How does fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called Fossilization. The common methods of fossilization include:
1. Petrifaction: Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock-like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts mostly bones and wood fossils are petrified.

2. Mould and cast: A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mould. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and form a cast.

3. Preservation: Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

4. Compression: When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

5. Infiltration or Replacement: The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrates the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. Arun is not correct. It is called as Analogous organ. They look similar and perform similar functions, but they have different origin and developmental pattern.

Question 2.
Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution-How?
Answer:
Fossils provide solid evidence that organisms from the past are not the same as those found today. Fossils show a progression of evolution by comparing the anatomical record of fossils with modem and extinct species. Palaeontologist can infer the linkages of their species. For this the body parts such as shell bones or teeth are used. The resulting fossil record tells the story of the part and show the evolution of form over millions of years.

Question 3.
Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, we cannot group these animals together because development of eye is not a point utilised in classification as well as in evolution.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Life originated in:
(a) Air
(b) Earth
(c) Water
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 2.
Believers of spontaneous generation theory believed that:
(a) Life originated from a similar organism
(b) Life originated from the air
(c) Life originated only spontaneously
(d) Life originated from pre-existing life
Answer:
(c) Life originated only spontaneously

Question 3.
Which of the following organ in man is not vestigial?
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Nictitating membrane
(c) Ear muscles
(d) Epiglottis
Answer:
(a) Vermiform appendix

Question 4.
Analogous organs are:
(a) similar in origin
(b) similar in structure
(c) non-functional
(d) similar in function
Answer:
(b) similar in structure

Question 5.
Wings of locust, pigeon and bat are example of:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Evolution
Answer:
(a) Vestigial organs

Question 6.
The distance needs to be neither too hot nor too cold is called ______.
(a) habitable zone
(b) Goldilock zone
(c) Aquatic zone
(d) Terrestrial zone.
Answer:
(c) Aquatic zone

Question 7.
Fossils are dated by:
(a) Amount of calcium residue
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound
(c) Association with other mammals
(d) Structure of bones
Answer:
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound

Question 8.
A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato and tomato. Which of them represent the correct homologous structures?
(a) Carrot and potato
(b) Carrot and tomato
(c) Radish and carrot
(d) Radish and potato
Answer:
(c) Radish and carrot

Question 9.
Most fossil have been found in:
(a) Black soil
(b) Lava flows
(c) Granite
(d) Sedimentary rocks
Answer:
(d) Sedimentary rocks

Question 10.
Birbal sahni was a:
(a) Zoologist
(b) Lounder of Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Ornithologist
(d) Palaeobotanist
Answer:
(d) Palaeobotanist

Question 11.
Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution.
(a) Parasites and Predators as natural enemies
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Struggle for existence
(d) Discontinuous Variation
Answer:
(d) Discontinuous Variation

Question 12.
Fossilizaticn can occur in:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process
(b) Animals are destroyed by scavangers
(c) Animals are eaten by predators
(d) Animals are destroyed by environmental conditions
Answer:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Branch of biology which deals with fossils is …………
2. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and ………..
3. Darwin explained origin of species through …………
4. The ship on which Darwin worked as naturalist was …………
5. The book Origin of Species was published in the year …………
6. Mutation can be artificially induced by ………..
7. Extraterrestrial states that units of life called ………..
8. The idea of chemical evolution of life was developed by …………..
9. Living being able to reproduce more individuals and form the own progeny is called …………..
10. ……….. is the raw material which plays an important role in evolution.
Answer:
1. Palaeontology
2. Birds
3. Natural selection
4. H.M.S. Beagle
5.1859
6. Radiation
7. Panspermia (spores)
8. Oparin and Haldane
9. Over production
10. Variation

III. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. State whether True or false. If false write the correct statement.

1. De Vries is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. NASA is developing the Mars 2020 astrobiology to investigate an astrobiologically details of Mars.
3. Competition among the individual of same species is Interspecific struggle.
4. Abiogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. The Big Bang theory explains the origin of Universe.

Answer:

1. False – Leonardo da vinci is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. True
3. False – Competition among the individual of same species is Intraspecific struggle.
4. False – Biogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Who proposed the theory of Natural selection?
Answer:
Charles Darwin

Question 2.
What do you understand by evolution?
Answer:
Formation of new species due to changes in specific characters over several generations as response to natural selection is called evolution.

Question 3.
How do embryological studies provide evidences for evolution?
Answer:
The embryos from fish to mammals are similar in their early stages of development. The differentiation of their special characters appear in the later stages of development.

Question 4.
Mention three important features of fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are useful in classification of organisms.
2. Fossils are used in the field of descriptive and comparative analoms.
3. Fossils throw light on phylogeny and evolution of organisms.

Question 5.
Who is the Father of Indian Paleobotany? What is his contribution in this field.
Answer:
Birbal Sahani is the Father of Indian Paleobotany. He presented his research on two different areas of Paleobotany.

1. The anatomy and morphology of paleozoic ferns.
2. The fossil plants of the Indian Gondwana formation.

Question 6.
List out the methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction molds and cast, carbonization preservation, compression and infiltration.

Question 7.
What are extremophiles?
Answer:
The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on earth are called extremophiles.

Question 8.
What is Goldilock zone for life. Name the planet in the Goldilock zone.
Answer:
The Goldilock zone for life is the zone having a right mass to retain an atmosphere and have an orbit at the right distance from its star that allows liquid water to exist and the distance need to be neither too hot or cold. In our solar system – Earth is the only planet in the Goldilock zone.

Question 9.
What are the three types of struggle for existence?
Answer:

1. Intra specific struggle
2. Inter specific struggle
3. Environmental struggle

Question 10.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The appearance of the ancestral character in some individuals is called Atavism. Eg: Presence of rudimentary tail in newborn babies.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between acquired and inherited trait with example.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the aspects of ethnobotany?
Answer:
Ethnobotany has relevance with problems of nutrition, health care and life support system, faith in plants, cottage industries, economic upliftment, conservation of biodiversity and sustainable use of plant resources.

Question 3.
What is the Geological Time Scale?
Answer:
The geological time scale is a system of chronological dating that relates geological rock strata to time and is used by geologists, palaeontologists and other Earth scientists to describe the timing and relationships of events that have occurred during Earth’s history.

Question 4.
Write a note on types of Germinal Variation.
Answer:
Germinal variation are classified into two types:

1. Continuous variation,
2. Discontinuous variation

1. Continuous variation : These are small variations which occur among individuals of a population. They are also called as fluctuating variations. They occur by gradual accumulation in a population, e.g. skin colour, height and weight of an individual, colour of eye, etc.

2. Discontinuous variation : These are sudden changes which occur in an organism due to mutations. They do not have any intermediate forms. These large variations are not useful for evolution, e.g. short legged Ancon sheep, six or more digits (fingers) in human, etc.

Question 5.
Explain the existence for astro biology.
Answer:
The theory explains that any planets can support the existence of life, if it fulfills two important criteria.

1. It must have a right mass to retain an atmosphere.
2. It must have an orbit at just the right distance from its star (Sun) that it allows liquid water to exist. Thus, the distance need to be neither too hot or not too cold and is often referred as Goldilock Zone for life.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain the various methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction, molds and cast, carbonization, preservation, compression and infiltration.
Petrifaction : Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts. Most bones and wood fossils are petrified.

Mold and Cast : A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mold. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

Preservation : Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

Compression : When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

Infiltration or Replacement : The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrate the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

Question 2.
Explain the principles of Lamarckism.
Answer:
Principles of Lamarckism:
(i) Internal vital force : Living organisms or their component parts tend to increase in size continuously. This increase in size is due to the inherent ability of the organisms.

(ii) Environment and new needs : A change in the environment brings about changes in the need of the organisms. In response to the changing environment, the organisms develop certain adaptive characters. The adaptations of the organisms may be in the form of development of new parts of the body.

(iii) Use and disuse theory : Lamarck’s use and disuse theory states that if an organ is used constantly, the organ develops well and gets strengthened. When an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually degenerates.

The ancestors of giraffe were provided with short neck and short – forelimbs. Due to shortage of grass, they were forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimbs resulted in the development of long neck and long forelimbs which is an example for constant use of an organ. The degenerated wing of Kiwi is an example for organ of disuse.

(iv) Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters : When there is a change in the environment, the animals respond to the change. They develop adaptive structures. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called acquired characters. According to Lamarck, the acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
What is the relationship between mutation and variation?
Answer:
Mutation and variation are the two events involved in the process of evolution. Mutation arises due to errors occurring in DNA during replication or exposure to ultraviolet rays or chemicals. The mutation leads to variation. It brings about changes in a single individual.

Question 2.
Picture of the newborn baby to be given.

(i) Name the phenomenon responsible for the structure marked (a) in the Figure.
Answer:
Atavism

(ii) Give the definition of the phenomenon responsible for the development for the structure marked.
Answer:
The reappearance, ancestral character in some individuals.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four
  alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in detaiL Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Two points A and B are maintained at a potential of 7 V and -4 V respectively. The work done in moving 50 electrons from A to B is …………….
(a) 80 x 10^-17 J
(b) -8.80 x 10^-17 J
(c) 4.40 x 10^-17 J
(d) 5.80 x 10^-17 J
Answer:
(a) 80 x 10^-17 J

Question 2.
The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some unknown conductor. What is the resistance of this conductor?

(a) 2 ohm
(b) 4 ohm
(c) 8 ohm
(d) 1 ohm
Answer:
(a) 2 ohm

Question 3.
Two identical coils, each with N turns and radius R are placed coaxially at a distance R as shown in the figure. If I is the current passing through the loops in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point P which is at exactly at  R/2 distance between two coils is …………..

Answer:

Question 4.
An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown in the figure. The coil abed is adjacent to the path of the electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil?

(a) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(b) No current will be induced
(c) abcd
(d) adcb
Answer:
(a) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil

Question 5.
The resistance of an ideal ammeter is ……………
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) high
(d) infinite
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 6.
In a step-down transformer the input voltage is 22 kV and the output voltage is 550 V. The ratio of the number of turns in the secondary to that in the primary is ……………
(a) 1 : 20
(b) 20 : 1
(c) 1 : 40
(d) 40 : 1
Answer:
(c) 1 : 40

Question 7.
If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be modified?

Answer
\(\oint \overrightarrow { { E } } \cdot d\overrightarrow { { A } } =0\)

Question 8.
An air bubble in glass slab of refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of the slab is,
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 16 cm
Answer:
(c) 12 cm
Hint. Let d₁ = 5 cm and d₂ = 3 cm ; n = 1.5
Actual width is the sum of real depth from 2 sides
Thickness of slab = d₁n + d₂n
= (5 x 1.5) +(3 x 1.5)= 12 cm

Question 9.
When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air
(a) its wavelength decreases
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency increases
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes
Answer:
(a) its wavelength decreases
Hint: \(Wavelength,\lambda =\frac { { Velocity } }{ { Frequency } } =\frac { u }{ v } \)
When light travels from air to glass, frequency ν remains unchanged, velocity u decreases and hence wave length λ also decreses

Question 10.
A particle of mass 3 x 10^-6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity
6 x 10⁶ m s^-1. The velocity of the particle is…………………………………………
(a) 1.82 x 10^-18 ms^-1
(b) 9 x 10^-2 ms^-1
(c) 3 x 10^-31 ms^-1
(d) 1.82 x 10¹⁵ ms^-1
Answer:
(d) 1.82 x 10¹⁵ ms^-1
Hint: de – Broglie wavelength of electron

Question 11.
If the nuclear radius of ²⁷A1 is 3.6 fermi, the approximate unclear radius of ⁶⁴Cu is
(a) 2.4
(b) 1.2
(c) 4.8
(d) 3.6
Answer:
(c) 4.8
Hint :

Question 12.
Energy of characteristic X-ray is a consequence of ………….
(a) energy of projectile electron
(b) thermal energy of target
(c) transition in target atoms
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) transition in target atoms

Question 13.
The specific characteristic of a common emitter amplifier is ……………
(a) High input resistance
(b) Low power gain
(c) Signal phase reversal
(d) Low current gain
Answer:
(c) Signal phase reversal

Question 14.
The variation of frequency of carrier wave with respect to the amplitude of the modulating signal is called ………………
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Frequency modulation
(c) Phase modulation
(d) Pulse width modulation
Answer:
(b) Frequency modulation

Question 15.
The particle size of ZnO material is 30 nm. Based on the dimension it is classified as ……………..
(a) Bulk material
(b) Nanomaterial
(c) Soft material
(d) Magnetic material
Answer:
(b) Nanomaterial

Part – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 17 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write a short note on the superposition principle.
Answer:
According to this superposition principle, the total force acting on a given charge is equal to the vector sum of forces exerted on it by all the other charges.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}^{\mathrm{tot}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{13}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{14}+\cdots+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1 n}\)

Question 17.
If an electric field of magnitude 570 N C^-1, is applied in the copper wire, find the acceleration experienced by the electron.
Answer:

Question 18.
State Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
The line integral of magnetic field over a closed loop is p0 times net current enclosed by the loop.
\(\oint_{C} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\text {enclosed }}\)

Question 19.
Write down the equation for a sinusoidal voltage of §0 Hz and its peak value is 20 V. Draw the corresponding voltage versus time graph.
Answer:

Question 20.
What is displacement current?
Answer:
The displacement current can be defined as the current which comes into play in the region in which the electric field and the electric flux are changing with time.

Question 21.
Why do clouds appear white?
Answer:
Clouds have large particles like dust and water droplets which scatter light of all colours almost equally. Hence clouds generally appear white.

Question 22.
How many photons per second emanate from a 50 mW laser of 640 nm?
Answer:

Question 23.
An ideal diode and a 5 Ω resistor are connected in series with a 15 V power supply as shown in figure below. Calculate the current that flows through the diode.
Answer:
The diode is forward biased and it is an ideal one. Hence, it acts like a closed switch with no barrier voltage.Therefore, current that flows through the diode can be calculated using Ohm’s law.

V = IR
\(I=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{15}{5}=3 \mathrm{A}\)

Question 24.
What do you mean by Internet of Things?
Answer:
Internet of Things (IoT), it is made possible to control various devices from a single device. Example: home automation using a mobile phone.

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 26 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Define electrostatic potential energy?
Answer:
The potential energy of a system of point charges may be defined as the amount of work done in assembling the charges at their locations by bringing them in from infinity.

Question 26.
If the resistance of coil is 3 Ω at 20°C and a = 0.004/°C then determine its resistance at 100°C.
Answer:
R₀ =3Ω = 100°C, T₀ = 20°C
α = 0.004/°C, R_T = ?
Rr= R₀(1+∝ (T-T₀))
R₁₀₀ = 3(1 + 0.004 x 80)
⇒ R₁₀₀ = 3(1 + 0.32)
R₁₀₀= 3(1.32)
⇒ R₁₀₀ = 3.96 Ω

Question 27.
State ‘Tangent Law’.
Answer:
When a magnetic needle or magnet is freely suspended in two mutually perpendicular uniform magnetic fields, it will come to rest in the direction of the resultant of the two fields.

Question 28.
What are step-up and step-down transformers?
Answer:
If the transformer converts an alternating current with low voltage into an alternating current with high voltage, it is called step-up transformer. On the contrary, if the transformer converts alternating current with high voltage into an alternating current with low voltage, then it is called step-down transformer.

Question 29.
One type of transparent glass has refractive index 1.5. What is the speed of light through this glass?
Answer:

Question 30.
What is a photo cell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
Photocells: Photo electric cell or photo cell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of photo electric effect.
Types:

• Photo emissive cell
• Photo voltaic cell
• Photo conductive cell

Question 31.
Half lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. Calculate the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei after 80 minutes.
Answer:
80 minutes = 4 half lives of A = 2 half live of B
Let the initial number of nuclei in each sample be N.

Question 32.
Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
Answer:

Intrinsic	Extrinsic
These are pure semiconducting tetravalent crystals.	These are semiconducting tetravalent crystals doped with impurity atoms group III (or) V
Their electrical conductivity is low.	Their electrical conductivity is high.
There is no permitted energy state between valence and conduction band.	There is no permitted energy state of the impurity atom between valence and conduction band.
Their electrical conductivity depends on temperature.	Their electrical conductivity depends on temperature as well as dopant concentration.

Question 33.
Distinguish between Nanoscience and Nanotechnology.
Answer:

Nanoscience	Nanotechnology
Nanoscience is the science of objects with typical sizes of 1-100 nm. Nano means one- billionth of a metre that is 10-9 m. If matter is divided into such small objects the mechanical, electrical, optical, magnetic and other properties change.	Nanotechnology is a technology involv­ing the design, production, characteriza­tion, and applications of nano structured materials.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Obtain the expression for electric field due to an uniformly charged spherical shell. Electric field due to a uniformly charged
Answer:
spherical shell: Consider a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and total charge Q. The electric field at points outside and inside the sphere is found using Gauss law.

Case (a) At a point outside the shell (r > R): Let us choose a point P outside the shell at a distance r from the center as shown in figure (a). The charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of the sphere (spherical symmetry). Hence the electric field must point radially
outward if Q > 0 and point radially inward if Q < 0. So we choose a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r and the total charge enclosed by this Gaussian surface is Q. Applying Gauss law,

The electric field \(\overrightarrow { { E } } { and }\quad d\overrightarrow { { A } } \) point in the same direction (outward normal) at all the points on the Gaussian surface. The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow { { E } } \) is also the same at all points due to the spherical symmetry of the charge distribution.

But = total area of Gaussian surface  = 4πr² Substituting this value in equation (2)

 

The electric field is radially outward if Q > 0 and radially inward if Q < 0. From equation (3), we infer that the electric field at a point outside the shell will be same as if the entire charge Q is concentrated at the center of the spherical shell. (A similar result is observed in gravitation, for gravitational force due to a spherical shell with mass M)

Case (b): At a point on the surface of the spherical shell (r = R): The electrical field at points on the spherical shell (r = R) is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} R^{2}} \hat{r}\) ………. (4)

Case (c) At a point inside the spherical shell (r < R): Consider a point P inside the shell at a distance r from the center. A Gaussian sphere of radius r is constructed as shown in the figure (b). Applying Gauss law.

Since Gaussian surface encloses no charge, So Q = 0. The equation (5) becomes
E = 0    (r < R)  ………….. (6)
The electric field due to the uniformly charged spherical shell is zero at all points inside the shell.

[OR]

(b) Obtain the condition for bridge balance in Wheatstone’s bridge.
Answer:

An important application of Kirchhoff’s rules is the Wheatstone’s bridge. It is used to compare resistances and also helps in determining the unknown resistance in electrical network. The bridge consists of four resistances P, Q, R and S connected. A galvanometer G is connected between the points B and D. The battery is connected between the points A and C. The current through the galvanometer is I_G and its resistance is G.
Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction B.
I₁ – I_G – I₃ = 0   ………….. (1)
Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction D.
I₂ + I_G – I₄ = 0   ………….. (2)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABDA,
I₁P + I_GG – I₂R = 0  ………….. (3)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABCDA,
I₁P + I₃Q – I₄S – I₂R = 0  ………….. (4)
When the points B and D are at the same potential, the bridge is said to be balanced. As there is no potential difference between B through galvanometer (I_Q = 0). Substituting I_G = 0 in equation, (1), (2) and (3), we get
I₁ = I₃  ………………….. (5)
I₁ = I₄ ……………………. (6)
I₁P =I₂R ……………….(7)
Substituting the equation (5) and (6) in equation (4)
I₁P + I₁Q – I₁S – I₁R = 0
I₁( P + Q) = I₂( P + S) …………………(8)
Dividing equation (7)

This is the bridge balance condition. Only under this condition, galvanometer shows null deflection. Suppose we know the values of two adjacent resistances, the other two resistances can be compared. If three of the resistances are known, the value of unknown resistance  (fourth one) can be determined.

Question 35.
(a) Obtain the magnetic induction at a point on the equatorial line of a bar magnet. Magnetic field at a point along the equatorial line due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet)
Answer:
Consider a bar magnet NS. Let N be the north pole and S be the south pole of the bar magnet, each with pole strength q_m and separated by a distance of 21. The magnetic field at a point C (lies along the equatorial line) at a distance r from the geometrical center O of the bar magnet can be computed by keeping unit north pole (q_mC = 1 A m) at C. The force experienced by the unit north pole at C due to pole strength N-S can be computed using Coulomb’s law of magnetism as follows:

The force of repulsion between North Pole of the bar magnet and unit north pole at point C (in free space) is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}=-\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \cos \theta \hat{i}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \sin \theta \hat{j}\) ……………. (1)
Where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{S}}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{q_{m}}{r^{\prime 2}}\) . The force of attraction (in free space) between south pole of the bar magnet and unit north pole at point C is

From equation (1) and equation (2), the net force at point C is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{S}}\). This net force is equal to the magnetic field at the point C.

If the distance between two poles in a bar magnet are small (looks like short magnet) when compared to the distance between geometrical center O of bar magnet and the location of point C i.e., r>> l, then,

Therefore , using equation (7) in equation (6) ,we get
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\text {equatorial }}=-\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{p_{m}}{r^{3}} \hat{i}\)
Since in genaral , the magnetic filed at equatorial points is given by

Note that magnitude of B_axial is twice that of magnitude of B_equatoral and the direction of B_axial and B_equatoral are opposite.

[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Give the advantage of AC in long distance power transmission with an example.
Answer:
Advantages of AC in long distance power transmission: Electric power is produced in a large scale at electric power stations with the help of AC generators. These power stations are classified based on the type of fuel used as thermal, hydro electric and nuclear power stations. Most of these stations are located at remote places. Hence the electric power generated is transmitted over long distances through transmission lines to reach towns or cities where it is actually consumed. This process is called power transmission.

But there is a difficulty during power transmission. A sizable fraction of electric power is lost due to Joule heating (i²R) in the transmission lines which are hundreds of kilometer long. This power loss can be tackled either by reducing current I or by reducing resistance R of the transmission lines. The resistance R can be reduced with thick wires of copper or aluminium. But this increases die cost of production of transmission lines and other related expenses. So this way of reducing power loss is not economically viable.

Since power produced is alternating in nature, there is a way out. The most important property of alternating voltage is that it can be stepped up and stepped down by using transformers could be exploited in reducing current and thereby reducing power losses to a greater extent. At the transmitting point, the voltage is increased and the corresponding current is decreased by using step-up transformer.

Then it is transmitted through transmission lines. This reduced current at high voltage reaches the destination without any appreciable loss. At the receiving point, the voltage is decreased and the current is increased to appropriate values by using step-down transformer and then it is given to consumers. Thus power transmission is done efficiently and economically.

Illustration: An electric power of 2 MW is transmitted to a place through transmission lines of total resistance, say R = 40 Ω, at two different voltages. One is lower voltage (10 kV) and the other is higher (100 kV). Let us now calculate and compare power losses in these two cases.

Case (i) : P = 2 MW; R = 40 Ω; V = 10 kV
Power, P= VI
Power loss = Heat produced = I²R = (200)² x 40 = 1.6 x 10⁶ W
% of power loss = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{6}}{2 \times 10^{6}} \times 100 \%\) = 0.8 x 100% = 80%

Case (ii): P = 2 MW; R = 40 Ω; V = 100 kV
∴ Current, \(I=\frac{P}{V}=\frac{2 \times 10^{6}}{100 \times 10^{3}}=20 \mathrm{A}\)
Power loss = Heat produced = I²R = (20)² x 40 = 0.016 x 10⁶ W
% of power loss = \(\frac{0.016 \times 10^{6}}{2 \times 10^{6}} \times 100 \%=\) = 0.008 x 100% = 0.8%

Question 36.
(a) What is emission spectra? Give their types.
Answer:
Emission spectra: When the spectrum of self luminous source is taken, we get emission spectrum. Each source has its own characteristic emission spectrum. The emission spectrum can be divided into three types:

(i) Continuous emission spectra (or continuous spectra): If the light from incandescent lamp (filament bulb) is allowed to pass through prism (simplest spectroscope), it splits into seven colours. Thus, it consists of wavelengths containing all the visible colours ranging from violet to red. Examples: spectrum obtained from carbon arc, incandescent solids, liquids gives continuous spectra.

(ii) Line emission spectrum (or line spectrum): Suppose light from hot gas is allowed to pass through prism, line spectrum is observed. Line spectra are also known as discontinuous spectra. The line spectra are sharp lines of definite wavelengths or frequencies. Such spectra arise due to excited atoms of elements. These lines are the characteristics of the element which means it is different for different elements. Examples: spectra of atomic hydrogen, helium, etc

(iii) Band emission spectrum (or band spectrum): Band spectrum consists of several number of very closely spaced spectral lines which overlapped together forming specific bands which are separated by dark spaces, known as band spectra. This spectrum has a sharp edge at one end and fades out at the other end. Such spectra arise when the molecules are excited. Band spectrum is the characteristic of the molecule hence, the structure of the molecules can be studied using their band spectra. Examples, spectra of hydrogen gas, ammonia gas in the discharge tube etc.

[OR]

(b) Obtain the equation for radius of illumination (or) Snell’s window.
Answer:
The radius of Snell’s window can be deduced with the illustration as shown in figure. Light is seen from a point A at a depth d. The Snell’s law in product form, equation n₂ sin i = n₂ sin r for the refraction happening at the point B on the boundary between the two media is,
n₁ sin i_c = n₂ sin 90° ………………. (1)
n₁ sin i_c = n₂
∵ sin 90° = 1
sin i_c = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\) ………………….(2)
From the right angle triangle ΔABC,

Question 37.
(a) Explain why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.
Failures of classical wave theory:
Answer:
From Maxwell’s theory, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of coupled electric and magnetic oscillations that move with the speed of light and exhibit typical wave behaviour. Let us try to explain the experimental observations of photoelectric effect using wave picture of light.

When light is incident on the target, there is a continuous supply of energy to the electrons. According to wave theory, light of greater intensity should impart greater kinetic energy to the liberated electrons (Here, Intensity of light is the energy delivered per unit area per unit time). But this does not happen. The experiments show that maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons does not depend on the intensity of the incident light.

According to wave theory, if a sufficiently intense beam of light is incident on the surface, electrons will be liberated from the surface of the target, however low the frequency of the radiation is. From the experiments, we know that photoelectric emission is not possible below a certain minimum frequency. Therefore, the wave theory fails to explain the existence of threshold frequency.

Since the energy of light is spread across the wavefront, the electrons which receive energy from it are large in number. Each electron needs considerable amount of time (a few hours) to get energy sufficient to overcome the work function and to get liberated from the surface. But experiments show that photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous process (the time lag is less than 10^-9 s after the surface is illuminated) which could not be explained by wave theory.

[or]

(b) Obtain the law of radioactivity.
Answer:
Law of radioactive decay:
At any instant t, the number of decays per unit time, called rate of decay \(\left(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}\right) \) to the number of nuclei at the same instant.
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t} \propto \mathrm{N}\)

By introducing a proportionality constant, the relation can be written as
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}=-\lambda \mathrm{N}\) ……………………. (1)

Here proportionality constant X is called decay constant which is different for different radioactive sample and the negative sign in the equation implies that the N is decreasing with time. By rewriting the equation (1), we get
dN = -XNdt …………… (2)

Here dN represents the number of nuclei decaying in the time interval dt. Let us assume that at time t = 0 s, the number of nuclei present in the radioactive sample is N_o. By integrating the equation (2), we can calculate the number of undecayed nuclei N at any time t.
From equation (2), we get

N = N_o e^-λt …………… (4)
[Note: e^lnx = e^y ⇒ x = e^y ]
Equation (4) is called the law of radioactive decay. Here N denotes the number of undecayed nuelei present at any time t and N₀ denotes the number of nuclei at initial time t = 0. Note that the number of atoms is decreasing exponentially over the time. This implies that the time taken for all the radioactive nuclei to decay will be infinite. Equation (4) is plotted.

We can also define another useful quantity called activity (R) or decay rate which is the number of nuclei decayed per second and it is denoted as R = \(R=\left| \frac { dN }{ dt } \right| \)

Note : That activity R is a positive quantity. From equation (4), we get.

The equation (6) is also equivalent to radioactive law of decay. Here R₀ is the activity of the sample at t = 0 and R is the activity of the sample at any time t. From equation (6), activity also shows exponential decay behavior. The activity R also can be expressed in terms of number of undecayed atoms present at any time t. From equation (6), since N = N₀ e ^-λt we write
R = λN    ………………… (7)
Equation (4) implies that the activity at any time t is equal to the product of decay constant and number of undecayed nuclei at the same time t. Since N decreases over time, R also decreases.

Question 38.
(a) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a center tapped transformer, and a load resistor (R_L). The centre is usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point. Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.

During positive half cycle:
When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G is at zero potential and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₁ and reverse biases diode D₂. Hence, being forward biased, diode D₁ conducts and current flows along the path MD₁ AGC As a result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the direction G to C.

During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D, and reverse biases diode D_r Hence, being forward biased, diode D₂ conducts and current flows along the path ND₂ BGC. As a result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the same direction from G to C

Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same direction as shown in figure Though both positive and negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still pulsating in nature. The efficiency (r|) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are rectified.

[OR]

(b) Explain the three modes of propagation of electromagnetic waves through space. Propagation of electromagnetic waves:
Answer:
The electromagnetic wave transmitted by the transmitter travels in three different modes to reach the receiver-according to its frequency range:
(i) Ground wave propagation (or) surface wave propagation (nearly 2 kHz to 2 MHz)
(ii) Sky wave propagation (or) ionospheric propagation (nearly 3 MHz to 30 MHz)
(iii) Space wave propagation (nearly 30 MHz to 400 GHz)

(i) Ground wave propagation
If the electromagnetic waves transmitted by the transmitter glide over the surface of the earth to reach the receiver, then the propagation is called ground wave propagation. The corresponding waves are called ground waves or surface waves.

 

Increasing distance: The attenuation of the signal depends on

• power of the transmitter
• frequency of the transmitter, and
• condition of the earth surface.

Absorption of energy by the Earth: When the transmitted signal in the form of EM wave is in contact with the Earth, it induces charges in the Earth and constitutes a current. Due to this, the earth behaves like a leaky capacitor which leads to the attenuation of the wave.

Tilting of the wave: As the wave progresses, the wavefront starts gradually tilting according to the curvature of the Earth. This increase in the tilt decreases the electric field strength of the wave. Finally, at some distance, the surface wave dies out due to energy loss.

The frequency of the ground waves is mostly less than 2 MHz as high frequency waves undergo more absorption of energy at the earth’s atmosphere. The medium wave signals received during the day time use surface wave propagation.

It is mainly used in local broadcasting, radio navigation, for ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore communication and mobile communication.

(ii) Sky Wave Propagation:
The mode of propagation in which the electromagnetic waves radiated from an antenna, directed upwards at large angles gets reflected by the ionosphere back to earth is called sky wave propagation or ionospheric propagation. The corresponding waves are called sky waves.

The frequency range of EM waves in this mode of propagation is 3 to 30 MHz. EM waves of frequency more than 30 MHz can easily penetrate through the ionosphere and does not undergo reflection. It is used for short wave broadcast services. Medium and high frequencies are for long-distance radio communication. Extremely long distance communication, is also possible as the radio waves can undergo multiple reflections between the earth and the ionosphere. A single reflection helps the radio waves to travel a distance of approximately 4000 km.

Ionosphere acts as a reflecting surface. It is at a distance of approximately 50 km and spreads up to 400 km above the Earth surface. Due to the absorption of ultraviolet rays, cosmic ray, and other high energy radiations like a, (3 rays from sun, the air molecules in the ionosphere get ionized. This produces charged ions and these ions provide a reflecting medium for the reflection of radio waves or communication waves back to earth within the permitted frequency range. The phenomenon of bending the radio waves back to earth is nothing but the total internal reflection.

(iii) Space wave propagation:
The process of seeding and receiving information signal through space is called space wave communication. The electromagnetic waves of very high frequencies above 30 MHz are called as space waves. These waves travel in a straight line from the transmitter to the receiver. Hence, it is used for a line of sight communication (LOS).

For high frequencies, the transmission towers must be high enough so that the transmitted and received signals (direct waves) will not encounter the curvature of the earth and hence travel with less attenuation and loss of signal strength. Certain waves reach the receiver after getting reflected from the ground.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 11 Carbon and its Compounds Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 11 Carbon and its Compounds

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Carbon and its Compounds Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The molecular formula of an open-chain organic compound is C₃H₆. The class of the compound is:
(a) alkane
(b) alkene
(c) alkyne
(d) alcohol
Answer:
(b) alkene

Question 2.
The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type of compound it is?
(a) Aldehyde
(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ketone
(d) Alcohol
Answer:
(d) Alcohol

Question 3.
The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is:
(a) – ol
(b) – oic acid
(c) – al
(d) – one
Answer:
(c) – al

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
(a) C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀
(b) C₂H₂ and C₂H₄
(c) CH₄ and C₃H₆
(d) C₂H₅OH and C₄H₈OH.
Answer:
(a) C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀
Hint: Two successive members of a homologous series must have a difference of -CH₂ in the molecular formula.
\(\mathrm{C}_{3} \mathrm{H}_{8} \stackrel{+\mathrm{CH}_{2}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{C}_{4} \mathrm{H}_{10}\).

Question 5.
C₂H₅OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O is a:
(a) Reduction of ethanol
(b) Combustion of ethanol
(c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid
(d) Oxidation of ethanal
Answer:
(b) Combustion of ethanol

Question 6.
Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about ______ of ethanol.
(a) 95.5 %
(b) 75.5 %
(c) 55.5 %
(d) 45.5 %.
Answer:
(a) 95.5 %
Rectified spirit is a mixture of 95.5 % of ethanol and 4.5 % of water.

Question 7.
Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
(a) Carboxylic acids
(b) Ethers
(c) Esters
(d) Aldehydes
Answer:
(b) Ethers

Question 8.
TFM in soaps represents _____ content in soap.
(a) mineral
(b) vitamin
(c) fatty acid
(d) carbohydrate.
Answer:
(c) fatty acid
Hint: TFM – Total Fatty Matter. It corresponds the fatty acid (oil).

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
(a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids
(b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
(c) The ionic part in a detergent is – SO₃ ^–Na⁺
(d) It is effective even in hard water.
Answer:
(a) It is a sodium salt of long-chain fatty acids

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an organic compound is called …………
2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is ………..
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by ………. (root word / prefix / suffix)
4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) ……….. compounds decolourize bromine water.
5. Dehydration of ethanol by cone. Sulphuric acid forms ………. (ethene/ ethane)
6. 100 % pure ethanol is called ………..
7. Ethanoic acid turns ………… litmus to …………
8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as …………
9. Biodegradable detergents are made of …………. (branched / straight) chain hydrocarbons.
Answer:
1. Functional group
2- C_nH_2n-2
3. root word
4. unsaturated
5. ethene
6. absolute alcohol
7. Blue, red
8. Saponification
9. straight

III Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I and Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

IV. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: Detergents are more effective cleansing agents than soaps in hard water.
Reason: Calcium and magnesium salts of detergents are water soluble.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Alkanes are saturated hydrocrabons.
Reason: Hydrocarbons consits of covalnet bonds.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion .
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
Answer:
The simplest ketone is Propanone.
It’s structural formula:

Question 2.
Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give their structural formula:
(i) Propane
(ii) Benzene
(iii) Cyclo butane
(iv) Furan.
Answer:

Question 3.
How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
Answer:
Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid with alkaline KMnO₄ or acidified K₂Cr₂O₇.

Question 4.
How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution?
Answer:

• Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by microorganisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
• They have straight hydrocarbon chains, in biodegradable detergents, which can be easily degraded by bacteria.

Question 5.
Differentiate soaps and detergents.
Answer:

VI. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
What is called a homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
Answer:
A homologous series is a group or a class of organic compounds having the same general formula and similar chemical properties in which the successive members differ by a – CH₂ group.
Characteristics of homologous series:

• All members of a homologous series contain the same elements and functional group.
• All members of a homologous series can be prepared by a common method.
• Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar.

Question 2.
Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH₃-CH₂– CH₂-OH.
Answer:
Step 1: The parent chain consists of 3 carbon atoms. The root word is ‘Prop’.
Step 2: There are single bonds between the carbon atoms of the chain. So, the primary suffix is ‘ane’.
Step 3: Since, the compound contains – OH group, it is an alcohol. The carbon chain is numbered from the end which is closest to – OH group. (Rule 3)

Step 4: The locant number of – OH group is l and thus the secondary suffix is ‘l-ol’.
The name of the compound is Prop + ane + (l – ol) = Propan-l-ol

Question 3.
How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
Answer:
Ethanol is manufactured in industries by the fermentation of molasses, which is a by-product obtained during the manufacture of sugar from sugarcane. Molasses is a dark coloured syrupy liquid left after the crystallization of sugar from the concentrated sugarcane juice. Molasses contain about 30% of sucrose, which cannot be separated by crystallization. It is converted into ethanol by the following steps:
(i) Dilution of molasses : Molasses is first diluted with water to bring down the concentration of sugar to about 8 to 10 percent.

(ii) Addition of Nitrogen source : Molasses usually contains enough nitrogenous matter to act as food for yeast during the fermentation process. If the nitrogen content of the molasses is poor, it may be fortified by the addition of ammonium sulphate or ammonium phosphate.

(iii) Addition of YeastrThe solution obtained in step (ii) is collected in large ‘fermentation tanks’ and yeast is added to it. The mixture is kept at about 303K for a few days. During this period, the enzymes invertase and zymase present in yeast, bring about the conversion of sucrose into ethanol.

The fermented liquid is technically called wash.

(iv) Distillation of ‘Wash’: The fermented liquid (i.e., wash), containing 15 to 18 percent alcohol, is now subjected to fractional distillation. The main fraction drawn is an aqueous solution of ethanol which contains 95.5% of ethanol and 4.5% of water. This is called rectified spirit. This mixture is then refluxed over quicklime for about 5 to 6 hours and then allowed to stand for 12 hours. On distillation of this mixture, pure alcohol (100%) is obtained. This is called absolute alcohol.

Question 4.
Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions:
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
Answer:

(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with NaHCO₃.
Answer:

(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer:

(iv) Combustion of ethanol.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one non – polar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water-loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards the water. The non – polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards the water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

VII. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
The molecular formula of an alcohol is C₄H₁₀O. The locant number of its -OH group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula.
Answer:

(ii) Give its IUPAC name.
Answer:
Butan-2-ol

(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated?
Answer:
Saturated

Question 2.
An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’.
Answer:
Organic Compound ‘A’ with the molecules formula C₂ H₄ O₂ which is a preservative is acetic acid (or) ethanoic acid.
A – CH₃COOH

(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
Answer:

B – Ethyl ethanoate (ester – sweet smelling)

(iii) Name the process.
Answer:
Esterification

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Carbon and its Compounds Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The general formula of alkane series is:
(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n-1
(C) C_nH_2n+2
(d) C_nH_2n-2
Answer:
(C) C_nH_2n+2

Question 2.
Organic compounds are _____ in nature.
(a) flammable
(b) inflammable
(c) heavy
(d) light.
Answer:
(b) inflammable

Question 3.
The Heterocyclic compound is:
(a) Benzene
(b) Pyridine
(c) Naphthalene
(d) Camphor
Answer:
(b) Pyridine

Question 4.
Pick out the unsaturated compound from the following ______.
(a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃
(b) CH₃ – CH = CH₂
(c) \(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).

Question 5.
……….. will decolourise Br₂/H₂O.
(a) Methane
(b) Pent-2-ene
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(b) Pent-2-ene

Question 6.
The simplest alkane is ______.
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyne
(c) Propane
(d) Methane.
Answer:
(d) Methane.

Question 7.
……….. is the prefix used for -NH₂ Group.
(a) Fluoro
(b) Methyl
(c) Amino
(d) Nitro
Answer:
(c) Amino

Question 8.
The IUPAC name of an organic compound is Pentan-2-one. The secondary suffix is:
(a) Pentan
(b) an
(c) -one
(d) -2-
Answer:
(c) -one

Question 9.
Molasses is fortified with ………… to increase the nitrogen content.
(a) (NH₄)₂SO₄ (or) (NH₄)₃PO₄
(b) (NH₄)₂CO₃ (or) NH₄Cl
(c) (NH₄)₂CO₃ (or) NH₄OH
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) (NH₄)₂SO₄ (or) (NH₄)₃PO₄

Question 10.
Which one of the following is a general formula for alkyne?
(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n+2
(c) C_nH_2n-2
(d) C_nH_n
Answer:
(c) C_nH_2n-2

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The common difference between the successive member of the homologous series if ……….. group.
2. Denatured spirit is a mixture of ethanol and …………
3. Methane gas is produced when the sodium salt of ethanoic acid is ………… with soda lime.
4. For coagulating rubber from latex ………… is used.
5. ………… is added to prevent the caking of the detergent powder.
6. When a soap or detergent is added to water the moleculer cluster together to form ……….
7. The terminal functional group among aldehydes and ketones is ………..
8. On dehydrogenation of ethanol with Cu/573 K it gives ………… gas.
9. ……… converts glucose into ethanol and carbondi-oxide.
10. The structural formula of Pentanoic acid is …………
Answer:
1. -CH₂
2. pyridine
3. decarboxylated
4. ethanoic acid
5. Na₂SO₄ or Sodium sulphate
6. micelles
7. aldehyde
8. H₂
9. Zymase
10. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂COOH

III Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the column I and column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the column I and column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

IV Assertion and Reason.

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: Alkynes decolourise bromine water.
Reason: Alkynes are unsaturated compounds.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Denaturation of ethanol makes it unfit for drinking purpose.
Reason: Ethanol is mixed with Pyridine for denaturation.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Organic compounds contains covalent bond.
Reason: Organic compounds have low melting and boiling points.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Due to catenation a large number of carbon compounds are formed.
Reason: Carbon compounds show the property of allotropy.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define isomerism with an example.
Answer:
Isomerism is a phenomenon in which organic compounds having the same molecular formula will have different structural formula.
Eg: for the molecular formula C₂H₆O we can write
CH₃CH₂OH – ethanol
CH₄O CH₃ – Methoxy methane

Question 2.
What are root words?
Answer:
Root words are the basic unit which describes the carbon skeleton. It gives the number of carbon atoms present in the parent chain of the compound and the pattern of their arrangement.

Question 3.
Write The functional group and the secondary suffix of the following compounds.
Answer:

Question 4.
What happens when ethanol is dehydrated with con.H₂SO₄ at 443K?
Answer:
Dehydration (Loss of water): When ethanol is heated with cone. H₂SO₄ at 443K, it loses a water molecule i.e., dehydrated to form ethene.

Question 5.
Write a note on esterification.
Answer:
The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid gives a compound having fruity odour. This compound is called an ester and the reaction is called esterification. Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ to form ethyl ethanoate, an ester.

Question 6.
Write tests to identify the presence of ethanoic acid.
Answer:

1. Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus paper to red.
2. Ethanoic acid gives brisk effervescence when treated with Na₂CO₃
3. Ethanoic acid gives a sweet-smelling compound called ester when treated with ethanol.

Question 7.
Write a note on decarboxylation reaction.
Answer:
Decarboxylation (Removal of CO₂): When a sodium salt of ethanoic acid is heated with soda lime (solid mixure of 3 parts of NaOH and 1 part of CaO), methane gas is formed.

Question 8.
What is hard soap?
Answer:
Soaps, which are prepared by the saponification of oils or fats with caustic soda (sodium hydroxide), are known as hard soaps. They are usually used for washing purposes.

Question 9.
Why ordinary soap is not suitable for using with hard water?
Answer:
Ordinary soaps when treated with hard water, precipitate as salts of calcium and magnesium. They appear at the surface of the cloth as sticky grey scum. Thus, the soaps cannot be used conveniently in hard water.

Question 10.
What are the advantages of detergents over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are better than soaps because of they:

1. can be used in both hard and soft water and can clean more effectively in hard water than soap.
2. can also be used in saline and acidic water.
3. do not leave any soap scum on the tub or clothes.
4. dissolve freely even in cool water and rinse freely in hard water.
5. can be used for washing woollen garments, whereas soap cannot be used.
6. have a linear hydrocarbon chain, which is biodegradable.
7. are active emulsifiers of motor grease.
8. do an effective and safe cleaning, keeping even synthetic fabrics brighter and whiter.

VI. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of organic compounds.
Answer:

1. Organic compounds have a high molecular weight and a complex structure.
2. They are mostly insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents such as ether, carbon tetrachloride, toluene, etc.
3. They are highly inflammable in nature.
4. Organic compounds are less reactive compared to inorganic compounds. Hence, the reactions involving organic compounds proceed at slower rates.
5. Mostly organic compounds form covalent bonds in nature.
6. They have a lower melting point and boiling point when compared to inorganic compounds
7. They exhibit the phenomenon of isomerism, in which a single molecular formula represents several organic compounds that differ in their physical and chemical properties
8. They are volatile in nature.
9. Organic compounds can be prepared in the laboratory.

Question 3.
List the advantages of detergents over soaps.
Answer:

1. Can be used in both hard and soft water and can clean more effectively in hard water than soap.
2. Can also be used in saline and acidic water.
3. Do not leave any soap scum on the tub or clothes.
4. Dissolve freely even in cool water and rinse freely in hard water.
5. Can be used for washing woollen garments, where as soap cannot be used.
6. Have a linear hydrocarbon chain, which is biodegradable.
7. Are active emulsifiers of motor grease.
8. Do an effective and safe cleansing, keeping even synthetic fabrics brighter and whiter.

Question 4.
Draw the schematic diagram for the classification of organic compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain with example.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the manufacture of soap.
Answer:
Manufacture of soap by Kettle Process This is the oldest method. But, it is still widely used in the small scale preparation of soap. There are mainly, two steps to be followed in this process.

1. Saponification of oil: The oil, which is used in this process, is taken in an iron tank (kettle). The alkaline solution (10%) is added into the kettle, a little in excess. The mixture is boiled by passing steam through it. The oil gets hydrolysed after several hours of boiling. This process is called Saponification.

2. Salting out of soap: Common salt is then added to the boiling mixture. Soap is finally precipitated in the tank. After several hours the soap rises to the top of the liquid as a ‘curdy mass’. The neat soap is taken off from the top. It is then allowed to cool down.

Question 6.
Ethanol is heated with excess con.H₂SO₄ at 443K.
(a) Name the reaction that occurs and explain it.
Answer:
Dehydration (Loss of water).
When ethanol is heated with conc.H₂SO₄ at 443K, it loses a water molecule i.e., dehydrated to form ethene.

Answer:

(c) What is the product formed? What happen when this gas is passed through Br₂/H₂O.
Answer:
Ethene gas.
When it is passed through Br₂/H₂O it gets decolourised because it is an unsaturated compound.

(d) Why does no decolonization occurs when ethanol is treated with Br₂/H₂O?
Answer:
Ethanol is a saturated compound. Therefore no decolourisation occurs.

VII. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
Organic compounds A and B are isomers with the molecular formula C₂H₆O (A) liberates H2 gas when it reacts with metallic sodium whereas (B) does not. Compound (A) reacts with ethanoic acid and forms a fruity smelling compound (C). Identify A, B and C and explain the reactions.
Answer:
(A) and (B) are compounds with same molecular formula C₂H₆O.
(A) reacts with metallic Na and liberates H₂↑
∴ (A) is ethanol [CH₃CH₂OH]
(B) is methoxy methane [CH₃OCH₃]

(A) reacts with ethanoic acid and forms ester.

(A) Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH
(B) Methoxy methane, CH₃OCH₃
(C) Ethyl ethanoate, CH₃COOC₂H₅

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was arrested during the anti*Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew

Question 2.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Nagpur

Question 3.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(a) 26th January 1930

Question 4.
When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 5.
On 8 January 1933 which day was observed
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
Answer:
(a) Temple Entry Day

Question 6.
Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Question 7.
Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress in 1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer:
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose

Question 8.
Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Wardha
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in ………………… station.
2. Gandhi regarded ………………… as his political guru.
3. Khilafat Movement was led by …………………
4. Government of India Act 1919 introduced ………………… in the provinces.
5. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by …………………
6. Ramsay Macdonald announced ………………… which provided separate electorates to the minorities and the depressed classes.
7. ………………… established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
8. ………………… coined the term ‘Pakistan’.

Answers:

1. pietermaritzburg
2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. Ali brothers
4. dyarchy
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. Communal award
7. Ushamehta
8. RahmatAli

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayah, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference. Reason: Gandhi-lrwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 4.
Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress ministries.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Answer:
On 13 April 1919, a public meeting was organised at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in defiance of the Rowlatt Act. As it happened to be Baisaki Day, thousands of villagers had gathered there to enjoy the day together. General Reginald Dyer, on hearing the assemblage, surrounded the place with his troops and an armoured vehicle. He blocked the only entrance to the park and ordered his troops to fire without any warning. The firing continued for ten minutes in which about 370 were killed and more than thousand injured. However, an unofficial estimates put the death toll at more than thousand. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre is a big scar on the British Indian history.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:

1. After the end of first World war in 1918 Caliph the Muslim head in Turkey was ill treated.
2. A movement was started his support Khilafat movement led by the Ali brothers, Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
3. It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate.
4. Gandhiji saw Khilafat movement as an opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims.
5. On 9th June 1920 the Khilafat committee in Allahabad adopted Gandhi’s non – violent, non – co-operation programme.

Question 3.
Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The Non-cooperation Movement started in 1920. It soon became a nation-wide movement because it got support from the people across the country. But in February 1922, a violent incident occurred at Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh. In this incident a procession of nationalists provoked by the police turned violent. The police finding themselves outnumbered shut themselves inside the police station. The mob burnt the police station in which 22 policemen lost their lives. The incident hurt Gandhiji too much and he immediately withdrew the movement.

Question 4.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
The pro – changers (Swarajis) led by motilal Nehru and C.R. Das were the congressmen who wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the legislative councils under Dyarchy and the colonial Government could be wrecked within.

But on the other hand the followers of Gandhiji (no – changers) like Patel and C. Rajaji wanted to continue Non – Cooperation with the Government.

This was the conflict between the Swarajis and the no – changers.

Question 5.
Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
Answer:
On 8 November 1927, the British Government announced the appointment of the Indian Statutory Commission. It was composed of seven members headed by Sir John Simon which came to be known as the Simon Commission. When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, millions of Indians were infuriated with the idea of an all- British committee writing proposals for Indian constitutional reforms without any member or consultations with the people of India. The Commission was, therefore, boycotted everywhere. Holding black flag in their hands the protesters shouted, “Go back Simon”.

Question 6.
What is Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:

1. In the congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the president declared “Poorna Swaraj” (complete independence) as the goal.
2. To attain Poorna Swaraj it was decided to boycott the round Table conference and launch a Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. 26^th January 1930 was declared as Independence Day.
4. A pledge was taken all over the country to attain ‘Poorna Swaraj’ non – violently.

Question 7.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:
Bhagat Singh was an Indian socialist revolutionary whose two acts of dramatic violence against the British in India and the execution at the age of 23 made him a folk hero of the Indian Independence Movement. Bhagat Singh along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929.

It was not intended to hurt anyone. They threw pamphlets and shouted ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ and ‘Long Live the Proletariat’. He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh’s daring act fired the imagination of the youth across India and he became popular.

Question 8.
What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
Answer:
An agreement arrived between Gandhiji and Ambedkar came to be known as ‘Poona pact’. It’s main terms were.

1. Principle of joint electorate was accepted with reservation of seats for the depressed classes.
2. Number of seats allotted has increased from 71 to 148.
3. In the central legislature 18% of the seats were reserved for the depressed classes.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Gandhi and Mass nationalism.
(a) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
Answer:
On his journey from Durban to Pretoria, at the Pietermaritzburg railway station, he was physically thrown out of the first-class compartment in which he was travelling despite having a first class ticket. This incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi.

(b) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
Answer:
Tolstoy’s The Kingdom of God is Within You, Ruskin’s Unto This Last and Thoreau’s Civil Disobedience.

(c) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
Answer:
Gandhi developed satyagraha (truth-force) as a strategy, in which campaigners went on peaceful marches and presented themselves for arrest in protest against unjust laws.

(d) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1916 was the first satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period.

Question 2.
Constructive Programme of Gandhi

(a) What is constructive programme?
Answer:
After the chauri chaura incident, Gandhiji felt that the volunteers and the people had to be trained for a non – violent struggle, and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj. This is the constructive programme, Gandhiji wanted to implement. More over he focussed on promoting khadhi, Hindu – Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability.

(b) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
Answer:
He exhorted the congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, Hindu – Muslim unity and anti – untouchability.

(c) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
Answer:
Gandhiji undertook a 21 days fast in between 1924 to appeal to the hearts of the Hindus and Muslims involved in communal politics.

(d) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
Gandhiji made his life’s mission to wipe out untouchability. He sought to abolish the pernicious custom of untouchability not the caste system. He undertook an all India tour called the Harijan (Children of God) Tour.

1. He started the “Harijan Sevak Sangh’ to work for the removal of discrimination.
2. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquour among the depressed class.
3. He also undertook two fasts in 1933 for this cause.
4. An important part of his campaign was the ‘Temple Entry Movement”.
5. He took the message of Nationalism to the grass roots by his work among the depressed classes and tribals.

Question 3.
Subash Chandra Bose and INA

(a) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
Answer:
First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.

(b) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
Answer:
Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.

(c) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
Answer:
Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.

(d) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
Answer:
The factors that led to the transformation of Gandhiji into a mass leader are given below:
(i) Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa after fighting for the civil rights of the Indians therefor about twenty years. He brought with him a new impulse to Indian politics.

(ii) He introduced a new instrument Satyagraha, which he had perfected in South Africa, that could be practiced by men and women, young and old. As a person dedicated to the cause of the poorest of the poor, he instantly gained the goodwill of the masses.

(iii) Unlike the constitutionalists who appealed to the British sense of justice and the militants who confronted the repression of the colonial state violently, Gandhiji adopted non-violent methods to mobilize the masses and mount pressure on the British.

(iv His Champaran Satyagraha of 1916 earned immense success. This followed by his fruitful intervention in the Ahmedabad mill strike and the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918. These factors helped Gandhiji establish as a leader of mass struggle.

(v) The people from across the country began to support him whole-heartedly. They found in him all the qualities of a mass leader. So, they loved him and were ready to do what he said. They showed immense faith in him because they were sure Gandhiji would bring freedom for them.

Question 2.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement,
Answer:

1. The congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 declared Pooma Swaraj-was declared as the goal,
2. Gandhi launched the civil Disobedience movement on 12th March 1930. Defying salt tax was a brilliant tactical’ decision taken by him.
3. It transformed civil disobedience movement into a mass movement drawing all sections of society including women to the streets.
4. To break the salt law he undertook a long March from Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi covered nearly 24 miles in 24 days at the age 61.
5. He set out from Sabarmathi Ashram with 78 followers.
6. The procession became larger and larger when hundreds joined them along the March.
7. Gandhi reached Dandi on 5th April 1930.
8. He took a lump of salt breaking to salt law.
9. All over India many prominent leaders led the salt marches at different locations.
10. It was the biggest mass movement India had never witnessed.

Thus the Civil Disobedience Movement is a typical example of Gandhian Movement.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
Answer:
While the Indian National Congress was calling for Britain to quit India, in 1943, the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the British to divide and quit. There were several reasons for the separate Muslim homeland in the sub-continent:
(i) As colonizers, the British had followed a divide-and-rule policy in India. In the census, they categorized people according to religion and viewed and treated them as separate from each other.

(ii) The British based their knowledge of the people of India on religious texts and the intrinsic differences they found in them, instead of examining how people of different religions coexisted.

(iii) As soon as the Muslim League was formed. Muslims were placed on a separate electorate.
Thus, the separateness of Muslims in India was built into the Indian electoral process,

(iv) There was also an ideological divide between the Muslims and the Hindus of India. While there were strong feelings of nationalism in India, by the late 19th century there were also communal conflicts and movements in the country that were based on religious identities rather than class or regional ones.

(v) Both Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim League claimed that the interests of the Hindus and Muslims were different and hostile to each other.

(vi) The British policy of divide and rule, through measures such as Partition of Bengal, Communal Award, had encouraged the vested interests out to exploit the religious differences.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to mark the important places of Gandhian Movement in a map and write a sentence or two about what happened there.

Answer:
Map: Indian National Movement (1900 – 1947)

1. Champaran: A Satyagraha campaign conducted against the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters.
2. Kheda: Gandhi helped to conduct kheda Satyagraha (1918) No – tax provincial struggle by the peasants ended successfully.
3. Jallianwala Bagh: Massacre of thousands of people. Nation wide Satyagraha and Vigourously Gandhi enter in to the Indian National Movement.
4. Chauri – Chaura: A preocession was conducted as a part of non – cooperation movement. Gandhi advised the participants not to indulge in violence. Violence brokeout Gandhi immediately suspended the movement.
5. Calcutta: In a special session the Indian National Congress approved the Non – cooperation movement worked to control Hindu Muslim conflict after the announcement of partition of India, (communal violence)
6. Nagpur: Non – Cooperation movement was adopted in the congress session chaired by Salem C. Vijayaraghawachariar.
7. Delhi: Gandhi gave his support or khilafat movement by Ali brothers for the cause of Hindu – Muslim unity.
8. Allahabad: Khilafat committee adopted Gandhi’s non – violence and non – cooperation programme.
9. Madras: Gandhi visited more than 20 times. During his Harijan Tour in Madurai he discard his following robes and wear a simple Dhoti.
10. Poona: Gandhi underwent fasting unconditionally against the separate electorates for the depressed classes, (a campaign against untouchability).
11. Sabarmathi Ashram: Gandhi set out from Sabarmathi Ashram with 78 followers as a part of Civil Disobedience movement undertook Salt March to defy the levy of tax on salt.
12. Lahore: In the All India Congress Session authorised Gandhi to launch the civil disobedience movement.
13. Dandi: Gandhi break the salt law by picking up salt from the coast at Dandi. (Dandi March)
14. Wardha: Undertook as the Headquarters of Satyagraha. All India villages Industries Association formed Idea of Quit India originated.
15. Bombay: Quit India Resolution was passed to end the British rule in India.

Question 2.
Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of Gandhi, Jinnah, B.R. Ambedkar, Revolutionaries and Communists.
Answer:
(A debate for 5 to 7 minutes)
Step1: Class will be divided in to different groups representing the views of

1. Gandhi
2. Jinnah
3. B.R.Ambedkar
4. Revolutionaries
5. Communists.

Step 2: From each group one person will be asked to prepare the debate.

Step 3: Debate can be between Gandhi and Jinnah, Gandhi and Ambedkar. Revolutionaries and communists.

Step 4: The students can selects the Character of each (Revolutionary, communist) of their own choice.

Step 5 : The final conclusion on the debate will be compiled and declared by the students as audience.

Step 6: Concluding part can be given by the teacher concerned.

Revolutionaries: Bhaghat singh, Rajguru, Sukhdev, Subhas Chandra Bose, R.K.Dutt.

Communist: Singaravelar, S.A.Dange, P.G. Joshi events for debate points can be taken from Jinnah.

1. Boycott of Simon commission Nehru’s report and Jinnah’s response.
2. Resignation of Congress Ministries
3. Negotiating Independence Simla conference.
4. Cabinet mission
5. Direct Action day call
6. Partition of India.

Gandhi:

1. Rowlatt Satyagraha
2. Khilafat movement
3. Chauri chaura no- tax campaign
4. Constructive programme
5. Civil Disobedience movement
6. Dandi march, left movement in 1930’s
7. Partition of India
8. Campaign against untouchability

Ambedkar:

1. Communal award and poona pact
2. Campaign against untouchability

Revolutionaries: Revolutionary Activities
Communists: Left movement in 1930’s.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born on:
(a) 30^th October 1896
(b) 26^th January 1869
(c) 2^nd October 1869
(d) 31^st December 1869
Answer:
(c) 2^nd October 1869

Question 2.
The language of the educated Indian was ……………
(a) French
(b) English
(c) Hindi
Answer:
(b) English

Question 3.
Gandhi’s experiences in London had not prepared him for:
(a) Injustice
(b) Satyagraha
(c) Services
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(d) Racial discrimination

Question 4.
The Minto-Morley reforms introduced separate electorate for the …………..
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Sikhs
Answer:
(b) Muslims

Question 5.
After the outbreak of the ……………… Gandhi returned to India.
(a) First world war
(b) Russian revolution
(c) Anglo – Mysore war
(d) Second world war
Answer:
(a) First world war

Question 6.
Bengal was partitioned in ……………….
(a) 1917
(b) 1912
(c) 1905
Answer:
(c) 1905

Question 7.
The real power was not transferred to the Indians as promised by ……………… 1919.
(a) tinkathiya system
(b) Government of India Act
(c) Dyarchy system
(d) Indian council act
Answer:
(b) Government of India Act

Question 8.
Bengal was partitioned by …………..
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Litton
(c) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(c) Lord Curzon

Question 9
………………… incident made Gandhi to withdraw the no – tax campaign Non – co-operation movement at once.
(a) Bardoli
(b) Champaran
(c) Chauri – chaura
(d) Kheda
Answer:
(c) Chauri – chaura

Question 10.
Home Rule League in Chennai was started by …………..
(a) Tilak
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Nehru
Answer:
(b) Annie Besant

Question 11.
Swarajya party was formed by ………………… and motilal Nehru in 1923.
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) C. R. Das
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C. Rajaji
Answer:
(b) C. R. Das

Question 12.
Dyarchy was introduced by ………….
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms Act
(b) The Charter Act of 1833
(c) 1878 – The Indians Arms Act
Answer:
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms Act

Question 13.
The Indian Forest Act of ………………… claimed the original ownership of forests was with the state.
(a) 1878
(b) 1865
(c) 1927
(d) 1972
Answer:
(a) 1878

Question 14.
Gandhiji advocated a new technique in our freedom struggle …………….
(a) Satyagraha
(b) Long march
(c) Violence
Answer:
(a) Satyagraha

Question 15.
Gandhi called the proposals of ………………… as a post dated cheque on a crashing bank.
(a) Simon commission
(b) Cripps mission
(c) Cabinet mission
(d) Mount Batten plan
Answer:
(b) Cripps mission

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The interim Government was headed by :
2. ……………….. was sent as viceroy of India with the specific task of transfer of power.
3. ……………….. joined the interim Government with some hesitation.
4. The mount batten plan was given effect by the enactment of ……………….. by the British parliament.
5. ……………….. declared 16th August 1946 as the Direct Action Day.
6. The worst affected district in Bengal was ……………….. by communal riots in 1946.
7. The Muslim League representative ……………….. was made as the Finance Minister in the Interim Government cabinet.
8. According to the mount batten plan boundary commission was set up under ………………..
9. Prime Minister of Britain ……………….. wanted to transfer power at the earliest.
10. The British surrender in South East Asia to the ……………….. was a big blow to imperial prestige.
11. The/British Government arrested the INA officers and put them on trial in the ………………..
12. ……………….. formed the provisional Government of free India at Singapore.
13. Azad Hindu Faug was organized by ……………….. with Indian prisoners of war with the support of Japanese in Malaya and Burma.
14. The Slogan of Quit India Movement given by Gandhiji was ………………..
15. ……………….. was the first individual to offer Satyagraha when Gandhi declared limited Satyagraha by individuals.
16. The party ……………….. was started by Subhash Chandra Bose after resigned from congress as president.
17. In the elections for the provinces in 1937 congress won in ……………….. provinces out of eleven.
18. Assam valley Muslim party was led by ……………….. with whom congress formed coalition Government.
19. By the Government of India Act of 1935 ……………….. was separated from India.
20. In the year ……………….. the ban on the communist party was lifted.
21. In 1934 ……………….. was formed by Jaya Prakash Narayan.
22. The sudden withdrawal of ……………….. by Gandhi took to violence.
23. The communist party established the party in 1928.
24. Gandhi started the to work for the removal of discrimination of Harijans.
25. The communists used their party as a platform to expose the ………………..
26. ……………….. and ……………….. were the leaders of the depressed classes.
27. The British Prime Minister ……………….. proposed a federal Government with provincial autonomy.
28. ……………….. was the forest area where the police forest and revenue officials harassed the Rampa tribals.
29. ……………….. organised the Rampa tribals to fight for their rights.
30. A special ……………….. team was sent to quell the uprisings of Rampa Adivasis in 1922-24.
31. The soldiers of ……………….. regiment refused to fire on unarmed Satyagraha.
32. For defying the salt tax and breaking the salt law Gandhi was arrested at mid night and sent to ……………….. jail.
33. The ……………….. event united the different political parties in India.
34. As a part of constructive programme Gandhi focussed on promoting ……………….. and made it compulsory for congress man to wear khaddar.
35. The prochangers of congress used the ……………….. as a platform for propagation of ………………..

Answers:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lord Mount batten
3. The Muslim League
4. Indian Independence Act
5. Jinnah
6. Noakhali
7. Liaqut Ali Khan
8. RadclifFe brown
9. Clement Atlee
10. Japanese
11. Redfort
12. Subhas Chandra Bose
13. General Mohan Singh
14. Do or Die in the attempt of free India
15. Vinobha Bhave
16. Forward Bloc
17. seven
18. Sir Muhammad Sadullah
19. Burma
20. 1942
21. Congress Socialist Party
22. Non – cooperation movement
23. All India Worker’s and Peasants
24. Harijan Sevak Sangh
25. True colour British rule in India
26. B.R.Ambedkar and M.C Rajah
27. Ramsay Macdonald
28. Many am
29. Alluri Sitarama Raju
30. Malabar police
31. Gharwali
32. Yeravada
33. Simon boycott
34. khadi
35. Legislature, nationalist idea

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Prochangers refused to take charge of transferred subjects.
(ii) They did not want to cooperate with the Government.
(iii) They were the staunch followers of Gandhi.
(iv) Some of the Swaraj party members began to accept Government jobs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii), and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In February 1922 Gandhi announced a non – tax campaign in Bengal.
(ii) The nationalist procession at chauri -chaura was provoked by policemen.
(iii) The young leaders of congress thought that the non – cooperation movement was gaining momentum.
(iv) Gandhi continued to conduct the movement at chauri – chaura.
(a) (i) md (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Public meeting was organised at Jailianwala bagh on Baisaki day.
(ii) The only entrance to the park was opened.
(iii) Martial law was imposed in Amritsar after the incident.
(iv) Leaders renounced their titles and honours.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India became independent on 15th August 1947.
Reason (R): The British parliament passed Indian Independence Act abolishing the sovereignity of British rule over India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Cabinet mission suggested a Federal Government and the provinces were divided in to three major groups.
Reason (R): Transfer of power, to elect a constituent Assembly and an Interim Government with representation from ail communities.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) R is correct A is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The British hegemonic control ceased even in the armed forces.
Reason (R): All the political leaders were released and the ban on congress was lifted.
(a) Both A and R is wrong
(b) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the colum I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
What were the aims of Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Greater representation and expansion of legislative councils.
2. More facilities for the spread of education.
3. Freedom of press
4. Holding of India Civil Service Examination in India
5. Reduction of military expenditure
6. Taxation should be made lighter.
7. More Indians should be employed on higher posts.
8. Indian council at London should be abolished

Question 2.
What made Gandhi to fight for the rights of the Indians in south Africa?
Answer:

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment physically on his journey from the Durban to Pretoria, at pietermaritzburg railway station in April 1893.
2. Gandhi faced racial discrimination and understood Indians were treated only as coolies.
3. He called a meeting of the Indians in Transvaal to form an association to seek redress of their grievances.
4. He petitioned to the authorities about the injustices in violation of their own laws.
5. Indians had to pay poll tax except in areas marked for them.
6. Without permit they could not allowed outdoor after 9 pm.
7. These unjust laws made him to fought for the rights of Indians in South Africa.

Question 3.
Mention the importance of Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress
Answer:

1. The moderates and the extremists joined together.
2. The Congress and the Muslim League signed a pact agreeing to co-operate with earn “her in order to achieve self government.
3. It was at this session Jawaharlal Nehru met Gandhiji for the first time.

Question 4.
What were the programmes included in non – cooperation?
Answer:
The non – cooperation included the following programme.

1. Surrender of all titles of honours and honorary offices.
2. Non – participation in Government functions.
3. Boycott of Government schools, colleges legislature, foreign goods.
4. Spreading the doctrine of Swadeshi.
5. Suspension of practice by lawyers and settlement of court disputes by private arbitration.
6. Refusal to accept any civil or military port.
7. Non – participation in Government parties and after official functions.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Aims of Muslim league:

• To protect the rights of the Muslims.
• To remain loyal to the British Government
• To make a demand for a separate electorate

Question 6.
What were the provisions of Gandhi – Irwin pact?
Answer:
Provisions of Gandhi – Irwin pact:
Gandhi – Irwin pact was signed on 5th March 1931. According to this.

1. The British agreed to the demand of all political prisoners not involved in violence.
2. Return of confiscated land and lenient treatment of Government employees who had resigned.
3. It also permitted the people of coastal villages to make salt for consumption and non – violent picking.
4. To suspend the Civil Disobedience movement and attend the second round-table conference.

Question 7.
What were the changes introduced by the Government of India Act of 1935?
Answer:

1. It introduced provincial autonomy.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces.
3. It established federal government at the centre.
4. It provided for the establishment of a federal court to decide the conflicts between the provinces and the centre.
5. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Reserve Bank.

VI. Answer all the question given under each caption

Question 1.
Mount Batten Plan

(a) Who was sent as viceroy to India with what task?
Answer:
Mount batten was sent as viceroy to India with the specific task of transfer of power.

(b) When was Mount batten plan announced?
Answer:
Mount batten plan was announced on 3rd June 1947.

(c) On what basis it was planned to transfer power?
Answer:
It was planned to transfer power on the basis of dominion status to India and Pakistan.

(d) What was set up under Raddiffe Brown?
Answer:
Boundary commission was set up under Radcliffe Brown.

Question 2.
The Indian National Congress

(a) When was the Indian National Congress founded?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.

(b) On whose advice was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded on the advice of a retired British Civil Servant Allan Octavian Hume.

(c) Where was the first session of the congress held? Who was the chairperson?
Answer:

• The first session of the congress was held at Bombay.
• W. C. Bannerjee was the chairperson.

(d) Name some of the leaders who attended the first session of the congress.
Answer:

• G. Subramaniam
• Dadabai Naoroji
• Surrendranath Banerjee
• Madan Mohan
• M.G. Ranad
• Gopala Krishna Gokhale

Question 3.
Cabinet Mission

(a) Who sent a Cabinet Mission to India?
Answer:
The British Prime Minister Clement Atlee – (labour party) sent a Cabinet Mission to India.

(b) Who were the members of the Cabinet Mission?
Answer:
Cabinet Mission comprised pethick lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V Alexander.

(c) What did the mission reject?
Answer:
The Cabinet mission rejected the demand for Pakistan.

(d) What was the suggested given for transfer of power?
Answer:
It suggested to elect a Constituent Assembly and an Interim Government to be set up with representation for all the communities.

Question 4.
Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(a) Who were the prominent leaders Arrested?
Answer:
Dr. Satyapal, and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.

(b) Where did the people gather?
Answer:
The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh at Amritsar in Punjab.

(c) Who was the British military commander of Amirtsar?
Answer:
General Dyer was the British military commander of Amirtsar.

(d) What did Rabindranath Tagore do?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood.

Question 5.
Congress Ministries and Their Work (1937)

(a) What was the announcement made by the Government of India Act of 1935?
Answer:
The implementation of Government of India Act 1935 announced the elections in 1937.

(b) Who was benefited immensely? How?
Answer:
The congress was benefitted because of the Civil Disobedience movement.

(c) What was the response of congress?
Answer:
The congress called off its programme of boycott of legislature and contested election.

(d) Name some of the measures taken by the congress after forming ministry.
Answer:
Congress ministries responded to the needs of the people. Legislative measures were adopted for reducing the indebtedness of the peasantry and improving the working conditions of the industrial labour.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the Partition of Bengal.
Answer:

1. Bengal was partitioned by Curzon in 1905.
2. Bengal was partitioned into two parts as East Bengal and West Bengal.
3. Curzon made a statement that the partition was purely on administrative grounds.
4. But the people of India thought that it was to break the unity of the people and to divide the Muslims from the Hindus.
5. The partition angered both the moderates and the extremists.
6. They called it as an introduction of the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ and agitated against it.
7. Due to violent criticism and agitation, the partition was revoked in 1911.
8. It paved the way for the birth of the Swadeshi movement, an economic boycott.

Question 2.
What were the movement led by Gandhi towards the struggle for freedom.
Answer:
Gandhi’s Principles was based on Truth and Non – violence.

1. He organised the movements adopting the technique of Satyagraha.
2. A true Satyagraha will have strong determination and won’t giveup his protest in Ahimsa way and ready to sacrifice his life.
3. Three important movements were led by Gandhiji.
4. Non – cooperation movement
5. Civil Disobedience movement
6. Quit India Movement

Non – Cooperation Movement:
Resolution was passed in the Calcutta session of Indian National Congress on September 1920.

No – tax campaign and boycott of foreign goods and institutions were effective.

1. At Bardoli in 1922 Gandhi announced no – tax campaign. He made nation – wide tour.
2. Thousands joined the movement left their Government jobs. Trade unions and workers actively participated.
3. Peasants enhanced Gandhi as a national leader.
4. A mass procession was conducted by the peasants at Chauri chaura a village near Gorakhpur (Uttarpradesh) provoked by the police turned in to violence, burnt police station killing 22 policemen.
5. Gandhi was upset and suspended non – cooperation movement and abstain himself from the activities of congress for two years.

Civil Disobedience Movement:

Pooma Swaraj was declared by Nehru at Lahore session of congress in 1930.

1. 26^th January 1930 was declared as Independence day and pledge was taken to attain Pooma Swaraj Non – violently through Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. The Indian National Congress authorised Gandhi to launch the movement.
3. A charter of demands presented to the viceroy Lord Irwin comply by 31 January 1930, One of the demand was Abolition of Salt tax.
4. The viceroy did not respond to the demands Gandhi launched the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement”.
5. The inclusion of abolition of salt tax was an tactful brilliant decision.
6. Tax on salt affected every section of the society.
7. With 78 of his followers Gandhi left Sabarmathi Ashram on 12th March 1930 to Dandi a coastal town to defy salt law.
8. Hundreds of people joined the procession .
9. At the age of 61 Gandhi covered a distance of 241 miles by foot to reach Dandi in 24 days.
10. Reached Dandi on 5th April 1930 at sunset.
11. Gandhi took handful of salt from the coast thus breaking the salt law.
12. This March was famously known as Dandi March. Gandhi was arrested.

Quit India Movement:

1. The all India congress committee met at Bombay on 8th April 1942 passed famous ‘Quit India Resolution’
2. Main reason regarding: transfer of power to Indians failure of cripps mission war* time shortages, price rise,

Gandhi gave a call “Do (or) Die”.

Gandhi said ‘‘We shalTeither .free India or die in the cause attempt: We shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery?’.

“Gandhi and other congress leaders were arrested”.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He failed to muster up courage to take that plunge.
(a) dust
(b) gather
(c) strength
(d) marvel
Answer:
(b) gather

Question 2.
‘What’s that?’ snapped Joe.
(a) retorted
(b) smiled
(c) mocked
(d) photographed
Answer:
(a) retorted

Question 3.
Aditya’s ancestors were once the zamindars.
(a) aunties
(b) elders
(c) lineages
(d) destroyers
Answer:
(c) lineages

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
So my contention was to go by the rules of circumnavigation.
(a) disagreement
(b) agreement
(c) dispute
(d) deputation
Answer:
(b) agreement

Question 5.
Your refrigerator can directly link to the ecommerce site.
(a) indirectly
(b) unswervingly
(c) openly
(d) strightly
Answer:
(a) indirectly

Question 6.
The birds were chirping in the open field back of the saw mill.
(a) enrolled
(b) built-up
(c) enclosed
(d) vulnerable
Answer:
(c) enclosed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘loss’.
(a) losses
(b) lossess
(c) loses
(d) loss
Answer:
(d) loss

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘half-year ’.
(a) ion
(b) ly
(c) ness
(d) ment
Answer:
(b) ly

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IVP.
(a) Intravenous Push
(b) Intravenous Pyelogram
(c) International Vehicular Person
(d) Intelligence via Penalty
Answer:
(b) Intravenous Pyelogram

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Teena could not ………….. the meaning of ‘Palindrome’.
(a) make up
(b) make out
(c) make over
(d) make off
Answer:
(b) make out

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘dining’ to form a compound word.
(a) out
(b) in
(c) room
(d) door
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The wind rushed ……………… his breast feathers.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) with
(d) against
Answer:
(d) against

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
We ……………. Elagiri last summer.
(a) visit
(b) visited
(c) will visit
(d) had visited
Answer:
(b) visited

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
A leader died and ………… the match was postponed.
(a) so
(b) while
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(a) so

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What devices help David to move from one place to another?
Answer:
David moves from one place to another in his electric chair with head switches. He uses ECO point Eye Gaze system to communicate and access the computer. He also checks Chelsea football team’s performance.

Question 16.
What did Holmes ask Watson to do before leaving his room?
Answer:
Holmes instructed Dr. Watson to keep all half-crowns in his watch pocket and the rest of the coins in his trouser pocket. He must light the gas lamp, but it must be half on only. He must place some letters and paper on his table within his reach. He should place the ivory box on the table. Slide the lid a bit with tongs and place the tongs also on the table.

Question 17.
When did the crew witness the brilliant southern lights from the sea? How did the sky appear there?
Answer:
When the crew was crossing the Tasman Sea, they witnessed the brilliant Southern Lights from sea. It was rare to watch that in those months, that too from sea. The entire sky was lit up in green light. There was bioluminescence, dolphins swimming in the wake of the boat like our neighbours and a variety of sea creatures.

Question 18.
What did Sanyal tell about Aditya Narayan Chowdury?
Answer:
Sanyal said that Aditya Narayan Chowdhury was the spoilt child of affluent parents. He was a fairly good student but could never beat him in studies. He also said that he was extremely jealous of him and used to tell lies.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Not hurrying to, nor turning front the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear”

(a) Why do you think the poet is not in a hurry?
Answer:
The poet does not want to do anything in haste as he is determined to work towards reaching his goal.

(b) What should one not mourn for?
Answer:
One should not mourn for the things that disappear.

Question 20.
“Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”

(a) What is the opinion about the folks you meet down the street?
Answer:
The folks you meet down the street are always in trouble and are complaining.

(b) What does the word ‘gloomy’ mean here?
Answer:
Here‘gloomy’means‘depressing’.

Question 21.
“Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.”

(a) What is found beneath all uniforms?
Answer:
Though the outward appearance of people may change because of the difference in their attire, there is an inherent similarity between all human beings. All people live and breathe in a similar fashion. Militaries in the world may don different uniforms but they comprise of human beings who essentially are the same anywhere in the world.

(b) What is same for every one of us?
Answer:
When we die, we all shall meet this same earth in the end where we shall be buried in it the same way.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”

(а) What plays with your mind?
Answer:
The thought about the house plays with your mind.

(b) How often does the poetess see this house?
Answer:
The poetess sees this house almost every day.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
Somebody stole my new mobile phone.
My new mobile phone was stolen by someone.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
Rohit asked me, ‘Did you see the cricket match on TV last night?’
Rohit asked me if I had seen the cricket match on TV the previous night.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Calm down dear Im leaving for my clinic now
Answer:
‘Calm down , dear. I’m leaving for my clinic now.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
His father is poor but he is a contended man.
Answer:
His father in spite of being poor is a contended man.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) the theme/ youtube/ this/ recording/ He is/ for promoting/ a new song/ on/ weekend.
(b) do/1/ not/ Mondays/ like/ especially/ it/ when/ is/ second/ after/ Saturday.
Answer:
(a) He is recording a new song this weekend for promoting the theme on youtube. .
(b) I do not like Mondays especially when it is after second Saturday.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
You need to meet your friend at Shansi Chinese restaurant. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• Go straight on Sadasivam street and take the right on R.S.K Salai.
• Proceed further and take the second left on C.V. Road which takes a natural turn to the right.
• You will find Shansi Restaurant on the right side.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
“Order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school.” Comment.
Answer:
The order from Berlin brought a sense of shock and surprise in the class. They were all dumbstruck. As per the order, this was the last French class. Alsace and Lorraine had been captured by the Prussians. So only German was to be taught in the schools. Hamel had to leave the next day. Now they all felt passionate about their mother tongue. All the eminent village elders felt guilty for neglecting their mother tongue.

Now they came to the class and showed their love and respect for their mother tongue. They were in awe for their French teacher M. Hamel. The entire school was filled with an air of repentance and guilt. There was complete quietness. The teacher, M. Hamel, was dressed at his best and was full of emotions. Even the students in the class, including little Franz, felt remorse for their indifference to their mother tongue. There was an atmosphere of stillness and quietness in the class.
“Education prepares you for the future.”

Question 30.
Describe the struggles underwent by the young seagull to overcome its fear of flying.
Answer:
The Young Seagull was afraid to fly and was alone on his ledge. He was more frightened than his siblings. His attempts failed. He had taken a little run forward and tried to flap his wings. But that was all he could do. He felt that his wings would not support him. He failed to muster up the courage and fly. His parents taunted, scolded and threatened him to leave him starving at the ledge unless he flew away. But nothing could make him fly. The seagull helplessly watched his parents flying with his brothers and sisters. The whole family went on taunting him for his cowardice.

Only his mother was looking at him. She had picked a piece of fish and was flying across to him with it. He leaned out eagerly. The mother was very near to him with the fish in her beak. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream, he fell outwards and downwards into space. A terror seized him. His heart stood still. His mother swooped past him. He answered her with another scream. He saw his two brothers and sister flying around him.

The seagull completely forgot that he was not able to fly. He let himself free to dive, soar and curve at will. He was shrieking shrilly. He saw a green sea beneath him. He was tired and weak with hunger. His feet sank into the green sea and his belly touched it. He sank no farther. Now, his family was praising him and their beaks were offering him scraps of fish. He had made his first flight.
“Flying is learning how to throw yourself to the ground and miss”

Question 31.
Describe the challenge they faced with the weather condition.
Answer:
One day they were hit by a storm – it was scary to see very high waves, around 9-10 metres high surging the boat at a wind speed of 60 to 70 knots. Though they were prepared for the storm, it was quite challenging. Mountainous waves were surging from behind, pushing them forward. They were in the South Pacific. Luckily, they were sailing downwind. They took turns in steering the boat. When three of them were doing the watch at a time the other three rested.

It was so cold that it was difficult to stand outside for more than an hour. They watched enormous waves break over the top of the boat and sweep across the deck. One can imagine that a blast of saltwater soaking them completely. Sometimes the water would have gushed inside their living space, soaking all their clothes in sea water. The place would have been a mess.
“Accept the challenges so that you can feel the exhilaration of victory.”

Question 32.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural.

For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected do have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
From the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’ what kind of behaviour does the poet want the readers to possess?
Answer:
L.M. Montgomery, from the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’ wants the readers to possess optimistic behaviour. The poet wants us to focus on the bright side of life and avoid the negativity around us, She wants us to learn to appreciate the beauty around us and avoid criticism. The poetess wants us to always try our best to be an optimist who sees the good and not the bad. Hence, she opines that it is wise to keep our feet from roaming into the Complaining Street and never growl at anything we do even if we are mistaken to be a complainer. Therefore, the poetess wants us to learn to walk with a smile and a song even when things go against our likes.
“A complainer is just an explainer of problems.”

Question 34.
Describe in your own words how the poem, The Secret of the Machines’ by Rudyard Kipling has an importance to current life.
Answer:
This poem written at the beginning of the twentieth century is about Industrialization. The poet starts by describing how the machines are created, wrought and taken from the ore-bed and mines. The only requirement for the machines is water, coal and oil. Further, Kipling enumerates the various skills of machines, such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing. Machines do exactly as it is programmed.

These machines have no feelings and any wrong handling can be dangerous for they are just machines with power invented by humans. The first intention of the poem reveals the progress of machines which is indeed a good thing for mankind. They make many things easier and facilitate the work of the humans.

The second purpose is to express that a machine can never replace a human-being, because a machine is devoid of feelings being the child of human brain. Hence man has full control over it, dependent on humans. By choosing the headline, “The secret of the machines” the poet wants to simplify that machines also have secret flaws where they don’t possess feelings nor identify a lie.

Any slip in handling it means instant death. At the time of mechanization, people gave importance to machines. So Rudyard Kipling wanted to make known the advantages and disadvantages of machines. I have come to the conclusion that the poem by Rudyard Kipling still has a current importance today and that for all advantages there are also disadvantages while using machines. “Industrialisation based on machinery, is a revolution wrought by technology.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“Strong is she in her faith and beliefs.
‘Persistence is the key to everything,’says she.
Despite the sighs and groans and moans She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!”
(i) What kind of a faith and belief does the woman portray?
(if) Mention the poetic device employed in the third line.
(iii) Write the rhyme scheme of this stanza.
(iv) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza.
Answer:
(i) The woman portrays a strong faith and firm belief.
(ii) The poetic device employed in the third line is assonance.
(iii) The rhyme scheme of this stanza is ‘abca’.
(iv) Alliteration is the figure of speech in the fourth line of the given stanza.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring,
Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.
Answer:
There was a cricket who loved singing. The poet says the cricket was young and silly because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world. But when winter arrived, he began to complain. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread was there to eat.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) After that last battle, no one cared anymore that Mulan was a woman.
(ii) He wanted Mulan, to stay with him in the palace and be his fine royal adviser.
(iii) The battle was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last.
(iv) The Emperor was so glad that Mulan had ended the long war.
(v) The war was over, and China was saved!
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (iv), (ii)
(iii) The battle was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last.
(v) The war was over, and China was saved!
(i) After that last battle, no one cared anymore that Mulan was a woman.
(iv) The Emperor was so glad that Mulan had ended the long war.
(ii) He wanted Mulan, to stay with him in the palace and be his fine royal adviser.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow’.
Worst of all, my salary was reduced, and I saw that marriage was out of the question. In my despair I consulted Professor Clinch about my dilemma, and as to some safe way of getting at the rubies. He said that, if my uncle had not lied, there was none that would not ruin the stones, especially the pearls, but that it was a silly tale and altogether incredible.

I offered him the biggest ruby if he wished to test his opinion. He did not desire to do so. Dr. Schaff, my uncle’s doctor, believed the old man’s letter, and added a caution, which was entirely useless, for by this time I was afraid to be in the room with that terrible box. At last the doctor kindly warned me that I was in danger of losing my mind with too much thought about my rubies. In fact, I did nothing else but contrive wild plans to get at them safely. I spent all my spare hours at one of the great libraries reading about dynamite.

Question.
(i) Why was the marriage not possible?
(ii) Who did he contact in his despair?
(iii) What was the offer made to Professor Clinch?
(iv) Who was Dr. Schaff?
(v) What did he do at one of the greatest libraries?
Answer:
(i) The marriage wasn’t possible as his salary was reduced.
(ii) He contacted Professor Clinch about his dilemma.
(iii) He offered the biggest Ruby to Professor Clinch.
(iv) Dr. Schaff was uncle’s doctor.
(v) He spent all his spare hours in the greatest libraries.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
You are Sneha/Gopinath of Vivekananda School. Recently you had the honour of having participated as the contingent leader of your school team in the Republic Day parade in Delhi, in which your school was adjudged the best participating team. Write a report in about 100-150 words about the memorable event for publication in your school magazine.
Answer:
Republic Day Honours
[by Sneha/Gopinath, X S]
This year’s Republic Day will ever be cherished as a red letter day by Vivekananda school. On this historic occasion our school team had the good fortune to participate in the Republic Day parade at Vijay Chowk in New Delhi. More than fifty teams representing different parts of India displayed their varied, colourful and romantic items of songs, dances and aerobics.

Their feats made people glued to their feet. The enthusiasm and cheerfulness of the participants was beyond description. The celebrations were also a test of performance of the participating teams. When the name of our school was announced as the best participating team, I felt overjoyed. For a moment, disbelief overpowered me. Then I as contingent leader went forward to receive the shield. I dedicated this award to our Principal and the Physical Instructor who had provided us such an excellent training.

Question 40.
You are Nirmal/Nirmala, a student of Government High School, Dharmapuri. Write an application to the Principal of your school requesting him to allow you full fee concession.
Answer:
Nirmal/Nirmala
VIII-A
Government High School Dharmapuri 14th April, 2020 The Principal
Government High School
Dharmapuri
Sir
Sub: Requesting for full fee concession
Most humbly I beg to say that I am not able to pay my monthly fee to the school. I am a student of class VIII. My father is a clerk in a private firm. His salary is too meagre to support a family of five. Two of my sisters are also studying in school. I am not in a position to pay my monthly fees. This is for your kind information that I have been a good student throughout. I am also in the school hockey team. Therefore, I request you to kindly consider my case and grant me full fee concession. Only then I will be able to continue my studies. I assure you that I will give you good results. I want to study, so please support me.
Thanking you
Yours obediently
Nirmal/Nirmala
Class VIII-A

Address on the envelope
To
The Principal
Government High School
Dharmapuri

Question 41.
As librarian of Unity Public School, Chennai, draft a notice in not more than 50 words asking all students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed, two days before the commencement of the examination.
Answer:
Unity Public School, Chennai
Notice
Return the Library Books Before Exam
20th Feb., 20XX
The annual examinations for the class VIII will start on 3rd March. So all students and teachers are advised to return the library books that they borrowed to the undersigned latest by the 1st March.
Ranjan
Librarian

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
A mother and daughter relationship is something very special. This picture portrays a mother and daughter spending their free time together. The daughter has asked her mother to prepare a special dish. She has the recipe book with her. She explains the procedure for baking some nice biscuits. Her mother joyfully does it for her. Both of them are enjoying their time together. The daughter relishes the smell of the cookie that is going to be baked.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
The epidemic of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. To contain and control the increasing death and disability from heart attacks and to focus on public awareness and their involvement at global level, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the World Heart Federation observed September 24th as the World Heart Day.

What causes heart attacks? Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle. The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be underestimated. “Physical exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life in general and prevention of heart attacks in particular.” There are several studies showing that physically active people have higher longevity than those sedentary or physically inactive.
Notes
Title: Having a Healthy Heart

1. World Heart Day: 24 September.
(a) to control death & disability
(b) to increase awareness

2. Causes of Heart Attacks
(a) lack of physical exercise
(b) wrong eating habits
(c) smoking & alcohol
(d) stressful lifestyle

3. Role of Physical Exercise.
(a) prevents heart attacks—longer life
(b) isotonic-beneficial; isometric—harmful
(c) walking: best exercise

• 30 to 60 meters brisk walk
• no equipment, money, material or membership of club
• early morning: ideal for walking.

4. Consult cardiologist before beginning an exercise programme.

Summary

Title: Having a Healthy Heart
Rough Draft
In regent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fratemity . To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical ReseatchCentre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exeicise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle . The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

Fair Draft:
Title: Having a Healthy Heart
In recent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness.

According to health experts, there are four main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking. No. of words in the summary: 100

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) It is high time that we leaved this place.
(b) If I had known it, I will have helped him.
(c) I saw two females.
(d) One of the boys have a car.
(e) Riya persisted to do it in spite of my advice.
Answer:
(a) It is high time that we left this place.
(b) If I had known it, I would have helped him.
(c) I saw two women.
(d) One of the boys has a car.
(e) Riya persisted in doing it in spite of my advice.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, we …………. countries strange.
Answer:
Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.

Part-IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Peter – cakes – his blind friend – dikes – people of Holland – keep the walls strong – safe and dry children know the danger – Peter’s father – mother’s errand – happy to see his friend sun was setting sound of trickling water – the danger realised – thrust his finger – tiny hole – nature protected – eyes closed – not asleep – the brave little hero of Holland.
Answer:
Peter is a little boy who lived in Holland. His father took care of the dikes called sluices so that ships could pass out of Holland’s canals into the sea. On a beautiful day in Autumn, Peter was asked to go and give cakes to his blind friend who lived on the other side of the dike by his mother.

After about an hour he returned home, but the climate had changed. It was raining and the water in the channel was rising. All of a sudden he heard the sound of dribbling water and he wondered from where the sound came, He then saw a small hole in the dike. He knew what that meant and due to the pressure of the water the hole would not stay the same. He feared danger. He climbed onto the dike and put his finger in the hole and hoped for someone to come to his help and cried out aloud. His mother mistook him to have stayed back with his blind friend and retired to bed.

The boy was sure that he had to stay awake the entire night and keep his finger in the hole to arrest the water from flooding Holland. The water in the canal was rising and if he would remove his finger from the hole in the sluice, the water would gush through and make the hole bigger and bigger. The town would obviously flood. When dawn broke, a man going to work heard the sound of Peter groaning and wondered what the little boy was up to. He was shocked at his reply but understood the danger and called for help. People came in with shovel and mended the hole. Peter was carried home and they all hailed him as the brave boy who saved Holland from drowning.

[OR]

(b) Describe the entry of ZigZag and his behaviour thereafter as soon as he entered the residence of Krishnan by developing the given hints.
Krishnan’s residence – tottered ZigZag – Somu’s cook, Visu – tall -crown of shocking pink feathers – plumage – beak – eyes – Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga – talks f rench Poetry – human grumpiness – Arvind’s effort – Bored eyes brightened – picked a walnut – wrinkled eyelid solemn wink – flew clumsily – chandelier fruit transferred – ceiling fan – Visu left – Zigzag slept.
Answer:
Into Krishnan’s residence tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird, ZigZag. He was brought in by Somu’s cook, Visu. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest and sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. Visu introduced ZigZag as Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga and that he talks very beautifully.

He even added that he could recite French Poetry! In spite of all the praise showered on him, he stood cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes. Arvind, tried his best to make ZigZag speak. He dashed into the kitchen and brought a plate with juicy fruit slices and some nuts. Bored eyes brightened as Zigzag picked up a walnut.

It refused to speak, dropped one wrinkled eyelid in a solemn wink and flew clumsily to deposit the nut on the enormous chandelier hanging from the ceiling. Silently and slowly, all the fruit on the plate was transferred to the chandelier and the blades of the ceiling fan. As soon as the cook Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Housed in an 18th century style Heritage building with wooden panelling running through the thirty seat dining area, “Lean and Lovely” is the latest attraction in Siddhapuram Nagar. Says the owner Chef Virina, “People come to us for the unusual feast that we serve. Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour. There is harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition. Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour are used. We use the freshest of ingredients that are cut and cooked so as to display their colour and individual texture.

Questions.
(a) What is special about the vegetables and flour used by “Lean and Lovely”?
(b) Where is “Lean and Lovely” located?
(c) Who is a ‘Chef’?
(d) How do the people in “Lean and Lovely” make the ordinary Indian recipes more attractive?
Answer:
(a) Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour is the speciality of “Lean and Lovely’.
(b) “Lean and Lovely” is located in Siddhapuram Nagar.
(c) A chef is a skilled cook, who prepares a variety of dishes in a restaurant and manages them.
(d) Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour in
“Lean and Lovely”. There is also harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition attracting the people.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Rough Boys
My parents kept me from children who were rough
And who threw words like stones and who wore torn clothes.
Their thighs showed through rags; they ran in the street And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams.
I feared more than tigers their muscles like iron
And their jerking hands and their knees tight on my arms.
I feared the salt coarse pointing of those boys Who copied my lisp behind me on the road.
They were lithe, they sprang out behind hedges Like dogs to bark at our world. They threw mud And I looked another way, pretending to smile,
I longed to forgive them, yet they never smiled.

Questions.
(a) Why were the children said to be rough?
(b) Describe the appearance of the rough children as portrayed by the poet.
(c) What physical nature of the rough children did the poet fear?
(d) Identify the comparison in the last stanza.
Answer:
(a) The children were said to be rough because they spoke rudely.
(b) The rough children wore tom clothes with their thighs seen through the rags.
(c) The poet feared the muscles in hands and knees of the rough children that appeared like iron.
(d) The rough boys are compared to the dogs that are supple and agile and come out hiding behind the shrubs to attack.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Drucker stresses jobs of management.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 2.
Choose the odd one out?
(a) Directing
(b) Motivating
(c) Innovation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Innovation

Question 3.
…………… harmonises the goal of an individual with the organisation’s goal.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBA
(d) MBM
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 4.
Indian organised financial system consist of sectors.
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(b) Four

Question 5.
Capital market otherwise called as …………..
(a) Securities market
(b) Share market
(c) Debenture market
(d) Money market
Answer:
(a) Securities market

Question 6.
……………………. deals with the financial assets and securities whose maturity period does not exceed one year.
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Stock exchange
(d) Government bonds
Answer:
(a) Money market

Question 7.
The consumer is to be protected against any ……………..
(a) unfair practices of trade
(b) family functions
(c) profit making firm
(d) loss in business
Answer:
(a) unfair practices of trade

Question 8.
The National Commission should have members.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

Question 9.
………………. is the latest outcome of liberalization.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Foreign collaboration
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Foreign collaboration

Question 10.
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker is ……………
(a) promissory note
(b) cheque
(c) hundi
(d) share
Answer:
(b) cheque

Question 11.
The entrepreneurs classified on the basis of types of business are …………….
(i) Industrial entrepreneur
(ii) Technical entrepreneur
(iii) Professional entrepreneur
(iv) Business entrepreneur
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 12.
Board meetings to be conducted minimum times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 13.
A public company shall have a minimum of ……………. directors.
(a) Twelve
(b) Seven
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 14.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to rains capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity shares
(b) Rights shares
(c) Preference shares
(d) Bonus shares
Answer:
(b) Rights shares

Question 15
should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of labours and raw material, market potential and profitability.
(a) Technical Report
(b) Finance Report
(c) Project Report
(d) Progress Report
Answer:
(c) Project Report

Question 16.
Find the odd one out is context of Trading Entrepreneur.
(a) Selling
(b) Commission
(c) Buying
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
(d) Manufacturing

Question 17.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial function.
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Question 18.
Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 deals with ……………
(a) Promissory Note
(b) Bills of exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cheque

Question 19.
……………… results from the removal of barriers between national economics to encourage the flow of goods, services, capital and labour.
(a) privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Foreign Trade
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 20.
The state commission can entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services and the compensation, if any claimed exceed.
(a) ₹ 2 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 5 lakhs
(b) ₹ 20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 1 crore
(c) ₹3 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) ₹ 4 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs
Answer:
(d) ₹ 4 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs

PART – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of Authority.
Answer:
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates. This is the issue of commands followed responsibility for their consequences.

Question 22.
How is price decided in a secondary market?
Answer:
Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers. They provide a signal for the allocation of funds in the economy, based on the demand and supply, through the mechanism called price discovery processes.

Question 23.
What is meant by Remiser?
Answer:
Remiser is an agent of a member of a stock exchange. He obtains business for his principal i.e. the member.

Question 24.
What is Human Resource Management ?
Answer:
Human Resource Management is a function of management concerned with hiring, motivating and maintaining people in an organisation. It focuses on people in an organisation.

Question 25.
Define Marketer.
Answer:
“A person whose duties include the identification of the goods and services desired by a set of consumers, as well as the marketing of those goods and services on behalf of a company”.

Question 26.
What is Caveat Emptor?
Answer:
‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term that means “let the buyer beware.” Similar to the phrase “sold as is,” this term means that the buyer assumes the risk that a product fails to meet expectations or have defects.

Question 27.
Expand VUCA.
Answer:
VUCA – volatility, uncertainty, complexity and ambiguity.

Question 28.
What is meant by goods?
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.

Question 29.
List down the managerial functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer:

• Planning
• Organising
• Directing
• Controlling
• Coordination

Question 30.
What do you mean by Equity Share?
Answer:
The share of a company which do not have any preferential rights with regard to dividend and repayment of share capital at the time of liquidation of a company, is called as equity share or ordinary share.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the principles of Taylor?
Answer:
Principles of scientific management propounded by Taylor are:

• Science, Not Rule of Thumb
• Harmony, Not Discord
• Mental Revolution
• Cooperation, Not individualism
• Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity.

Question 32.
Write a note on Secondary Market.
Answer:
Secondary Market is the market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

Question 33.
Explain National Stock Market System. (NSMS)
Answer:
National stock market system was advocated by the High Powered Group. It is headed by Shri. Pherwani (popularly known as Pherwani Committee). At present the National Stock Market comprises the following:

• National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE)
• Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
• Securities Trading Corporation of India (STCI)

Question 34.
Marketer is an innovator? Do you agree?
Answer:
Marketer seeks to distinguish his products/services by adding additional features or functionalities to the existing product, modifying the pricing structure, introducing new delivery pattern, creating new business models, introducing change in production process and so on.

Question 35.
What is meant by artificial scarcity?
Answer:
There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock” in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store. In such situations consumers who are desperate to buy such goods have to pay hefty price to buy those goods and thus earning more profit unconscientiously.

Question 36.
State the framework of Corporate Governance in India.
Answer:
The Indian Corporate Governance framework requires listed companies

• To have independent directors on the board; At least one third of the directors have to be independent directors.
• To have at least one independent woman director,
• To disclose all deals and payments to related parties.
• To disclose details of managerial compensation.

Question 37.
Discuss the implied conditions and warranties in sale of goods contract.
Answer:
In every contract of sale, there are certain expressed and implied conditions and warranties. The term implied conditions means conditions which can be inferred from or guessed from the context of the contract.Following are the implied conditions:

• Conditions as to Title
• Conditions as to Description
• Sale by Sample
• Conditions as to Quality or Fitness
• Conditions as to Merchantability
• Condition as to Wholesomeness
• Condition Implied by Trade Usage Following are the implied warranties:
• Quiet Possession
• Free from Any Encumbrances
• Warranty in the case of Dangerous Goods

Question 38.
List the commercial functions of Entrepreneur and explain them shortly.
Answer:
Commercial Functions of Entrepreneur:
Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion etc.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day.

Finance: In the sphere of financial function, an entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framipg the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly decide the size of manpower required for various slots of organisational structure.

Question 39.
What is issue of shares at discount? What conditions should be fulfilled?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price below the face value they are said to be issued at a discount. For example, a share having the face value of Rs 10 is issued at Rs 8. The companies act 2013, prohibits the issue of shares at discount (Section 53), except sweat Equity share.

Question 40.
What do you understand by ‘Poll’?
Answer:
Poll means tendering or offering vote by ballot to a specially appointed officer, called the polling officer. Under the Companies Act, poll means exercising voting right in proportion to shareholder’s contribution to the paid-up capital of a limited company having a share capital.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the implications of span of management.
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:
(i) Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
(ii) Determine the shape or configuration of the Organisation.
The span of management is related to the horizontal levels of the organisation structure. There is a wide and a narrow span of management. With the wider, span, there will be less hierarchical levels, and thus, the organisational structure would be flatter. Whereas, with the narrow span, the hierarchical levels increases, hence the organisational structure would be tall.

• Both these organisational structures have their advantages and the disadvantages. But however the tall organisational structure imposes more challenges.
• Since the span is narrow, which means less number of subordinates under one superior, requires more managers to be employed in the organisation. Thus, it would be very expensive in terms of the salaries to be paid to each senior.
• With more levels in the hierarchy, the communication suffers drastically. It takes a lot of time to reach the appropriate points, and hence the actions get delayed.
• Lack of coordination and control because the operating staff is far away from the top management.

[OR]

(b) What are the functions of Financial Markets?
Answer:
Intermediary Functions
(i) Transfer of Resources: Financial markets facilitate the transfer of real economic resource from lenders to ultimate borrowers.

(ii) Enhancing Income: Financial markets allow lenders earn interest/dividend on their surplus
investible funds and thus contributing to the enhancement of the individual and the national income.

(iiI) Productive Usage: Financial markets allow for the productive use of the funds borrowed and thus enhancing the income and the gross national production.

(iv) Capital Formation: Financial markets provide a channel through which new savings flow to aid capital formation of a country.

(v) Price Determination: Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers.

(vi) Sale Mechanism: Financial market provides a mechanism for selling of a financial
asset by an investor so as to offer the benefits of marketability and liquidity of such assets.

(vii) Information: The activities of the participants in the financial market result in the generation and the consequent dissemination of information to the various segments of the markets, so as to reduce the cost of transaction of financial assets.

Financial Functions

• Providing the borrowers with funds so as to enable them to carry out their investment plans.
• Providing the lenders with earning assets so as to enable them to earn wealth by deploying the assets in productive ventures.
• Providing liquidity in the market so as to facilitate trading of funds

Question 42.
(a) Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions.
Answer:
(i) Venture Fund Institutions: Venture capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas. Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are converted into commercial  production.

(ii) Mutual Funds: Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’.

(iii) Factoring Institutions: “Factoring” is an arrangement whereby a financial institution provides financial accommodation on the basis of assignment/sale of account receivables.

(iv) Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI): The OTCEI was set up by a premier
financial institution to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.

(v) National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSEI): NSEI was established in 1992 to function as a model stock exchange. The Exchange aims at providing the advantage of nation-wide electronic screen based “scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.

(vi) National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS): Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry.

(vii) National Securities Depositories Limited: The NSDL was set up in the year 1996 for achieving a time bound dematerialization as well as rematerialization of shares.

(viii) Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL): Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL) aims at serving as a central securities depository in respect of transactions on stock exchanges. The Corporation also takes up the administration of clearing functions at a national level.

[OR]

(b) What are the features of Government Securities?
Answer:
(i) Agencies: Government securities are issued by agencies such as Central Government, State Governments, semi-government authorities like local Government authorities.
(ii) RBI Special Role: RBI takes a special and an active role in the purchase and sale of these securities as part of its monetary management exercise.
(iii) Nature of Securities: Securities offer a safe avenue of investment through guaranteed payment of interest and repayment of principal by the Government.
(iv) Liquidity Profile: The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly liquidity profile of securities issued by Central Government is high.
(v) Tax Rebate: A striking feature of these securities is that they offer wide-range of tax incentives to investors.

(vi) Market: As each sale and purchase has to be negotiated separately, the Gilt-Edged Market is an Over-The-Counter Market.
(vii) Forms: The securities of Central and State Government take such forms as inscribed stock or stock certificate, promissory note and bearer bond.
(viii) Participants: The participants in Government securities market include the Government sector comprising Central and State Governments
(ix) Trading: Small and less active, banks and corporate holders who purchase and sell Government securities on the stock exchanges participate in trading.
(x) Issue Mechanism: The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the RBI undertakes to issue government securities.
(xi) Issue opening: A notification for the issue of the securities is made a few days before the public subscription is open.
(xii) Grooming Gradual: It is the acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI.
(xiii) Switching: It is the purchase of one security against the sale of another security carried out by the RBI in the secondary market as part of its open market operations.
(xiv) Auctioning: A method of trading whereby merchants bid against one another and where the securities are sold to the highest bidder.

Question 43.
(a) Distinguish between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.
Differences between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.

	Stock Exchange	Commodity Exchange
(0	Meaning: Stock Exchange is an organised market for purchase and sale of industrial and financial securities.	A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. E.g.: Gold, Silver, Rice, Wheat
(ii)	Function: Providing easy marketability.	Offering hedging or price insurance services.
(Hi)	Object: It is facilitating capital formation.	It will facilitate goods flow through risk reduction.
(iv)	Participants: Investors and Speculators are participating in stock exchange.	Producers, dealers, traders are involved in the commodity exchange.
(v)	Articles traded: Industrial securities such as stocks and bonds and government securities.	Only durable and graded goods are traded in this.

[OR]

(b) Differentiate HR from HRM.

S.No.	Human Resource (HR)	Human Resource Management (HRM)
1.	Meaning: Human resource, i.e., the employees create other sources.	Managing the human resource is known as human resource management.
2.	Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.	Human resource management has universal relevance.
3.	Human resource alone can think, act and analyse.	The accomplishment of organisational goal is made possible through human resource in an organisation.
4.	Human resources are movable.	Human resource management is intangible function.
5.	Human resource can work as team.	Human resource management focuses on the development of manpower through training . and development programmes.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the important methods of interview.
Answer:
Interview means a face to face interaction between the interviewer and interviewee.
Interview may be of various types:-

• Preliminary Interview: It is conducted to know the general suitability of the candidates who have applied for the job.
• Structured Interview: In this method, a series of questions is to be asked by the interviewer. The questions may be pre-prepared.
• In depth Interview: This interview is conducted to test the level of knowledge of the interviewee in a particular field.
• Panel Interview: Where a group of people interview the candidate. The panel usually comprises the chair person, subject expert, psychological experts and so on.
• Stress Interview: This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate.
• Online Interview: Due to tremendous growth in information and communication technology, interviews are conducted by means of internet via Skype, Google duo, Whatsapp.

[OR]

(b) What is your contribution to promote the market in the modern society?
Answer:
Market is a place where buyers and sellers gather for purchase and sale.
Market may be of Local market, national market and international or Global market.
To develop and promote the market the following are needed:

• Eligible and satisfied and customer is needed.
• Quality and durable goods are to be marketed.
• Recent trends like E-marketing, online marketing are to be encouraged.
• After sales service are to be provided to durable goods.
• Customers are to be financed for buying costly articles.
• New Innovations and marketing research are to be introduced to develop the market.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss any two new methods of marketing with its advantages.
Answer:
Rural Marketing: Rural marketing is a process of developing pricing, promoting and distributing rural specific goods and serv ices leading to exchange with rural customers.There is inflow of goods into rural markets for production and consumption and there is also outflow of products to urban areas.
The rural to urban flow consists of agricultural products like rice, wheat and sugar etc.

Service Marketing: Service marketing is a special branch of marketing. It denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, healthcare, tourism and professional services. The service products are mostly intangible. The unique feature of services marketing warrant different strategies compared with the marketing of physical goods.

[OR]

(b) Write about five important consumer legislations.
Answer:
To protect the consumers from the unfair traders, the government passed various legislative Acts – They are follows:

• The Indian Contract Act, 1982 was passed to bind the people on the promise made in the contract.
•  The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 protects the consumers against artificial shortages created by the sellers by hoarding the goods.
• The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 checks the adulteration of food articles and ensures purity of goods supplied.
•  Weights and Measures Act, 1958 protects the consumer against malpractices of underweight dr under measurement.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the term District Forum and explain the functions of District Forum.
Answer:
As per the Consumer Protection Act 1986, a district forum is established in each and every district to solve the problems in the concerned district. Present or Retired district judge is the president of District forum

Functions:

• The complaints relating to the district can be solved by district forum.
• Compensation that can be claimed is less than Rs. 20 lakhs.
• Sometimes the district forum also may pass orders against traders.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between Condition and Warranty.

Basis for Difference	Condition	Warranty
1. Meaning	It is a stipulation which is essential to the main purpose of the contract of sale.	It is a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of contract.
2. Significance	Condition is necessary to the contract that the breaking of which cancels out the contract.	The violation of warranty will not revoke the contract.
3. Transfer of Ownership	Ownership on goods cannot be transferred without fulfilling the conditions.	Ownership on goods can be transferred on the buyer without fulfilling the warranty.
4. Remedy	In case of breach of contract, the affected party can cancel the contract and claim damages.	In the case of breach of warranty, the affected party cannot cancel the contract but can claim damages only.
5. Treatment	Breach of condition may be treated as breach of warranty.	Breach of warranty cannot be treated as breach of condition.

Question 47.
(a) Explain the different kinds of endorsements.
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsement are of various types:

(i) Blank or general endorsement : When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement

(ii) Endorsement in full or special endorsement: If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.

(iii) Conditional endorsement: When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement.

(iv) Restrictive endorsement : When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is, called Restrictive Endorsement.

(v) Partial Endorsement :Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

[OR]

(b) Write the difference between Share Certificate and Share Warrant.
Answer:

S.No.	Share Certificate	Share Warrant
1.	A share certificate is an instrument in writing for the legal proof of the ownership.	A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued against fully paid up shares.
2.	Every company must issue share certificate to its shareholders.	There is no compulsion of the issue of share warrants by the company.
3.	Normally, the holder of the share certificate is to be the member of the company.	Generally, the holder of the share warrant is not the member of the company.
4.	The share certificate is issued by the company within three months of the allotment of shares.	Shares warrant can be issued only when the shares are fully paid up.
5.	No need to authorized in the Articles of Association to issue share certificate.	The issue of a share warrant must be authorized in the Articles of Association of the company.