Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Computerised Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 14 Computerised Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Computerised Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
n accounting, computer is commonly used in the following areas:
a) Recording of business transactions
b) Payroll accounting
c) Stores accounting
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 2.
Customised accounting software is suitable for ________.
a) Small, conventional business
b) Large, medium business
c) Large, typical business
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Large, medium business

Question 3.
Which one is not a component of computer system?
a) Input unit
b) Output unit
c) Data
d) Central Processing Unit
Answer:
c) Data

Question 4.
An example of output device is ________.
a) Mouse
b) Printer
c) Scanner
d) Keyboard
Answer:
b) Printer

Question 5.
One of the limitations of computerised accounting system is ________.
a) System failure
b) Accuracy
c) Versatility
d) Storage
Answer:
a) System failure

Question 6.
Expand CAS ________.
a) Common Application Software
b) Computerised Accounting System
c) Centralised Accounting System
d) Certified Accounting System
Answer:
b) Computerised Accounting System

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a method of codification of accounts?
a) Access codes
b) Sequential codes
c) Block codes
d) Mnemonic code
Answer:
a) Access codes

Question 8.
TALLY is an example of ________.
a) Tailor-made accounting software
b) Ready-made accounting software
c) In-built accounting software
d) Customised accounting software
Answer:
b) Ready-made accounting software

Question 9.
People who write codes and programmes are called as ________.
a) System analysts
b) System designers
c) System operators
d) System programmers
Answer:
d) System programmers

Question 10.
Accounting software is an example of ________.
a) System software
b) Application software
c) Utility software
d) Operating software
Answer:
b) Application software

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
A computer can be described as an electronic device designed to accept raw data as input, processes them, and produces meaningful information as output. It has the ability to perform arithmetic and logical operations as per the given set of instructions called a program. Today, computers are used all over the world in several areas for different purposes.

Question 2.
What is CAS?
Answer:

1. A computerized accounting system refers to the system of maintaining accounts using computers.
2. It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of hardware and software in order to keep and produce accounting records and reports.
3. Computerized accounting system takes accounting transactions as inputs that are processed through accounting software.

Question 3.
What is hardware?
Answer:
The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. The hardware consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.

Question 4.
What is meant by software?
Answer:
A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

Question 5.
What is accounting software?
Answer:
The main function of CAS is to perform the accounting activities in an organization and generate reports as per the requirements of the users. To obtain the desired results optimally, need-based software or packages are to be installed in the organization.

Question 6.
Name any two accounting packages.
Answer:

1. Readymade software
2. Customized software
3. Tailormade software

Question 7.
Give any two examples of readymade software.
Answer:

1. Tally ERP
2. Profit Books

Question 8.
What is coding?
Answer:

1. Coding refers to creating computer programming code.
2. The process of assigning something for classification or identification is known as coding.

Question 9.
What is a grouping of accounts?
Answer:
In any organization, the main unit of classification is the major head which is further divided, into minor heads. Each minor head may have a number of subheads. After classification of accounts into various groups.

Question 10.
What are mnemonic codes?
Answer:

1. A mnemonic is a term, symbol or name used to define or specify a computing function.
2. Assembly language also uses a mnemonic to represent machine operation, or opcode.
3. Examples are SJ – Sales Journals; HQ – Head Quarters.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various types of accounting software?
Answer:
1. Readymade software:

• These packages are standardized or readymade packages which can be used by the business enterprises immediately on procurement. These packages are used by small and conventional business enterprises.
• The cost of installation and maintenance is very low. The training cost is negligible and sometimes the vendor provides free of cost training.
• This software is used by enterprises where financial transactions are simple, uniform, and routine in nature. Few examples of such type of software are Tally, Busy, Marg, and Profit books.

2. Customised software:

• Many a time, it is not possible that ready-to-use packages suit the requirements of the business enterprise.
• In such circumstances, customized packages may help the business enterprise for fulfilling its requirements. Customized packages can be modified according to the need of the enterprise.
• For example, software can record attendance of the employees and on the requirement of the customer it can also count the absence of employees in a month, etc.

3. Tailor-made software:

• Large enterprises have their own way of functioning.
• For effective management information systems, varied and specific information is frequently required by many users which may not be needed in the case of small or medium scale enterprises.
• In such enterprises, depending upon their functioning, need-based software known as tailored packages are installed.
• The cost of these packages is very high and specific training for using these packages is also required.

Question 2.
Mention any three limitations of a computerized accounting system.
Answer:
1. Heavy cost of installation – Computer hardware needs replacement and software needs to be updated from time to time with the availability of newer versions.

2. Cost of training – To ensure effective and efficient use of computerized system of accounting, newer versions of hardware and software are to be introduced. These require special training and hence, cost is incurred to train the staff personnel.

3. Fear of unemployment – On account of the introduction of computerised accounting system, the employees feel insecure that they may lose employment and show less interest in computer related work.

4. Disruption of work – When computerised system is introduced, the existing process of accounting and other works are interrupted. This results in certain changes in the working environment.

5. System failure – The danger of a system crashing due to some failure in hardware can lead to subsequent interruption of work. This is more when no back-up is made.

Question 3.
State the various types of coding methods.
Answer:
Following are the three methods of codification.
(a) Sequential codes – In sequential code, numbers and/or letters are assigned in consecutive order. These codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc. A sequential code can facilitate document search.
For example:

• Code – Accounts
• CL001 – ABC LTD
• CL002 – XYZ LTD
• CL003 – SCERT

(b) Block codes – In a block code, a range of numbers is partitioned into a desired number of sub-ranges and each sub- range is allotted to a specific group. In most of the cases of block codes, numbers within a sub – range follow sequential coding scheme, i.e., the numbers increase consecutively.
For example:

• Code       – Dealer type
• 100 – 199 – Small pumps
• 200 – 299 – Medium pumps
• 300 – 399 – Pipes
•  400 – 499 – Motors

(c) Mnemonic codes – A mnemonic code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify a piece of information.
For example:

• Code – Information
• SJ – Sales Journals
• HQ – Head Quarters

Question 4.
List out the various reports generated by the computerized accounting systems.
Answer:

1. Liabilities and capital
2. Assets
3. Revenues and
4. Expenses.

Under Liabilities and Capital:
Capital, Non – current liabilities, and current liabilities.

Under Assets:
Non-current assets and Current assets.

Question 5.
Tate the input and output devices of a computer system,
Answer:
1. Input devices – Examples of input devices are keyboard, optical scanner, mouse, joystick, touch screen, and stylus which are used to feed data into the computer.

2. Output devices – Examples Output devices such as monitors and printers are media to get the output from the computer.

11th Accountancy Guide Computerised Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which one is an output device?
(a) Monitor
(b) Keyboard
(c) Mouse
(d) Optical scanner
Answer:
(a) Monitor

Question 2.
The facts and figures that are fed into a computer for further processing are called ________.
a) Procedure
b) Connectivity
c) Data
d) Reliability
Answer:
c) Data

Question 3.
Which one is an operating system?
(a) File manager
(b) COBOL
(c) Windows
(d) PASCAL
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 4.
________ packages c n be modified according to the need of the enterprise.
a) Readymade software
b) Customised software
c) Tailor-made software
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Customised software

Question 5.
There are …………….. methods of codification.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Three

Question 6.
________ is a step by step series of instructions to per! rm a specific function and achieve the desired output.
a) Procedure
b) Connectivity
c) Data
d) Reliability
Answer:
a) Procedure

Question 7.
The physical components of a computer constitute it ________.
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Data
d) Procedure
Answer:
a) Hardware

Question 8.
A set of tools and programs to manage the overall working of a computer using a defined set of hardware components is called an ________.
a) Programming software
b) Utility software
c) Application software
d) Operating system
Answer:
d) Operating system

Question 9.
________ are designed specifically for managing the computer device and its resources.
a) Programming software
b) Utility software
c) Application software
d) Operating system
Answer:
b) Utility software

Question 10.
________ is an identification mark.
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Data
d) Code
Answer:
d) Code

Question 11.
________ codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc.
a) Sequential codes
b) Block codes
c) Mnemonic codes
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Sequential codes

Question 12.
________ code can facilitate document search.
a) Mnemonic codes
b) Block codes
c) Sequential codes
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Sequential codes

Question 13.
________ code, a range of numbers is partitioned into a desired number of sub-ranges and each sub-range is allotted to a specific group.
a) Mnemonic codes
b) Block codes
c) Sequential codes
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Block codes

Question 14.
________ code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify a piece of information.
a) Mnemonic codes
b) Block codes
c) Sequential codes
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Mnemonic codes

Question 15.
________ consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Data
d) Code
Answer:
a) Hardware

Question 16.
How many formats are available white exporting a file?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Answer:
b) 3

Question 17.
Tally package was developed by ________.
a) Tally solutions
b) Microsoft
c) Apple Solutions
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Tally solutions

Question 18.
Which device of computer operation dispenses with the use of the keyboard?
a) Joystick
b) Mouse
c) Light Pen
d) Touch pen
Answer:
b) Mouse

Question 19.
Which of the following device primarily used to provide hard copy?
a) CRT
b) Pen drive
c) Printer
d) Card Reader
Answer:
c) Printer

Question 20.
Which of the following produces high-quality output?
a) Impact Printer
b) Non-Impact Printer
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) one of the above
Answer:
b) Non-Impact Printer

Question 21.
Which of the following is not hardware?
a) Printer
b) Scanner
c) Interpreter
d) All of the above
Answer:
c) Interpreter

Question 22.
The copimonly used input device is the ________.
a) Mouse
b) Monitor
c) Keyboard
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Keyboard

Question 23.
The shortcut to use calculator is ________.
a) Ctrl + M
b) Ctrl + N
c) Ctrl + O
d) Ctrl + C
Answer:
b) Ctrl + N

Question 24.
Suspense account is grouped under ________.
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Income
d) Expenses
Answer:
b) Liabilities

Question 25.
________ is a step by step series of instructions to perform a specific function and achieve the desired output.
a) Procedure
b) Data
c) Connectivity
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Procedure

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Expands of MIS and CPU.
Answer:

1. MIS – Management Information System
2. CPU – Central Processing Unit

Question 2.
What is Programming software?
Answer:
Special software to accept data and interpret them in the form of machine/assembly language understandable by a computer.
Example: C, PASCAL, COBOL, etc.

Question 3.
What is Utility software?
Answer:
These are designed specifically for managing the computer device and its resources.
Example: File manager, Anti-virus software, etc.

Question 4.
Give any two examples of Application software?
Answer:

1. General purpose software.
2. Specific purpose software.

Question 5.
Give any two examples of System software?
Answer:

1. Operating system.
2. Programming software.
3. Utility software.

Question 6.
What do you mean by DATA?
Answer:
The facts and figures that are fed into a computer for further processing are called data.

Question 7.
What are sequential codes?
Answer:
In sequential code, numbers and/or letters are assigned in consecutive order. These codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc. A sequential code can facilitate document search.
For example:

Question 8.
What are sequential codes?
Answer:
In a block code, a range of numbers is partitioned into a desired number of sub-ranges and each sub-range is allotted to a specific group. In most of the cases of block codes, numbers within a sub-range follow a sequential coding scheme, i.e., the numbers increase consecutively.
For example:

Question 9.
What is General purpose software?
Answer:
This type of application can be used for a variety of tasks and not limited to one particular function.
Example: MS-Office.

Question 10.
What is Specific purpose software?
Answer:
This software is created to execute one specific task and they are customized to the needs of the user.
Example: Accounting software, payroll software, etc.

Question 11.
Explain the basic features of a computerized accounting system.
Answer:
i) Simple and integrated – CAS is designed to automate and integrate ail the business operations such as purchase, sales, finance, inventory, and manufacturing. The CAS may be integrated with an enhanced Management Information System (MIS), multi-lingual and data organization capabilities to simplify all the business processes of the organization easily and cost-effectively.

ii) Speed – It can perform functions at a much higher speed than doing the same manually.

iii) Accuracy – Computers perform functions with a high degree of accuracy. If hardware, software, and input by people are proper, the computerized accounting system can assure an accurate outcome.

iv) Reliability – Computers are used to process large volumes of data and hence, data provided by it are reliable.

v) Versatility – Computer and accounting software has the ability to perform diverse tasks. For example, by simply recording accounting entries through accounting software, one can get trial balance, trading account, profit and loss account, balance sheet and diverse reports.

vi) Transparency – With computerised accounting, the organisation will have greater transparency of day-to-day business operations and access to the vital information.

vii) Scalability – CAS enables processing of any volume of data in tune with the change in the size of the business.

viii) On-line facility – CAS offers online facility to store and process transaction and data so as to retrieve information to generate and view financial reports in any part of the world.

Question 12.
Discuss the Advantages of Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
i) Faster processing – Computers require far less time than human beings in performing a particular task. Therefore, accounting data are processed faster using a computerised accounting system.

ii) Accurate information – There is less space for error because only one account entry is needed for each transaction unlike repeated posting of the same accounting data in manual system.

iii) Reliability – Computer systems are immune to boredom, tiredness or fatigue. Therefore, these can perform repetitive functions effectively and are highly reliable.

iv) Easy availability of information – The data are easily available and can be communicated to different users at the same time.

v) Up-to-date information – Account balances will always be up to date since the records are automatically updated as and when accounting data are entered or stored.

vi) Efficiency – The computer-based accounting system ensures better use of time and resources.

vii) Storage and retrieval – Computer-based systems require a fractional amount of physical space as compared to the books of accounts in the form of journals, ledgers, and accounting registers.

viii) Works as a motivator to employees – Employees using computer systems feel more valued as they are trained and specialized for the job.

Question 13.
Explain the Components of the Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
i) Hardware – The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. The hardware consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system. Examples of input devices are keyboard, optical scanner, mouse, joystick, touch screen, and stylus which are used to feed data into the computer. Output devices such as monitors and printers are media to get the output from the computer.

ii) Software – A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

iii) People – The most important element of a computer system is its users. They are also called live-ware of the computer system.

iv) Procedure – Procedure is a step-by-step series of instructions to perform a specific function and achieve the desired output.

v) Data – The facts and figures that are fed into a computer for further processing are called data. Data are raw input until the computer system interprets them using machine language, stores them in memory, classifies them for processing, and produces results in conformance with the instructions given to it. Processed and useful data are called information which is used for decision making.

vi) Connectivity – When two or more computers are connected to each other, they can share information and resources such as sharing of files (data/music, etc), sharing of printers, sharing of facilities like the internet. This sharing is possible using wires, cables, satellite, infra-red, Bluetooth, microwave transmission, etc.

Question 14.
Differences between manual and computerized accounting systems.
Answer:

Question 15.
Compare ready-to-use software, customized software, and tailor-made software.
Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I

11th Accountancy Guide Subsidiary Books – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Purchases book is used to record ________.
a) all purchases of goods
b) all credit purchases of assets
c) all credit purchases of goods
d) all purchases of assets
Answer:
c) all credit purchases of goods

Question 2.
A periodic total of the purchases book is posted to the ________.
a) debit side of the purchases account
b) debit side of the sales account
c) credit side of the purchases account
d) credit side of the sales account
Answer:
a) debit side of the purchases account

Question 3.
Sales book is used to record ________.
a) all sales of goods
b) all credit sales of assets
c) all credit sales of goods
d) all sales of assets and goods
Answer:
c) all credit sales of goods

Question 4.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ________.
a) Sales account
b) Cash account
c) Purchases account
d) Journal proper
Answer:
a) Sales account

Question 5.
Purchase returns book is used to record ________.
a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Question 6.
Sales return book is used to record ________.
a) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
c) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
d) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
Answer:
b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately

Question 7.
Purchases of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ________.
a) Purchases book
b) Sales book
c) Purchases returns book
d) Journal proper
Answer:
d) Journal proper

Question 8.
The source document or voucher used for recording entries in sales book is ________.
a) Debit note
b) Credit note
c) Invoice
d) Cash receipt
Answer:
c) Invoice

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a) Cash discount is recorded in the books of accounts
b) Assets purchased on credit are recorded in journal proper
c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts
d) 3 grace days are added while determining the due date of the bill
Answer:
c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts

Question 10.
Closing entries are recorded in ________.
a) Cash Book
b) Journal Proper
c) Ledger
d) Purchases book
Answer:
c) Ledger

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention four types of subsidiary books.
Answer:

1. Purchase Book
2. Sales Book
3. Purchase Return Book
4. Sales Return Book

Question 2.
What is a purchase book?
Answer:

1. A purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded.
2. While recording transactions in the purchases book, it must be ascertained whether the credit purchase is related to the item in which the firm is dealing.
3. Purchases of assets and purchases of goods for cash are not entered in the purchases book.

Question 3.
What are purchases returns books?
Answer:
Purchases returns book is a subsidiary book in which transactions relating to the return of previously purchased goods to the suppliers, for which cash is not immediately received are recorded. Since goods are going out to the suppliers, they are also known as returns outward and the book is called as ‘returns outward book or returns outward journal’.

Question 4.
What is a sales book?
Answer:

1. A sales book is a subsidiary book maintained to record the credit sale of goods. Goods mean the items in which the business is dealing.
2. These are meant for regular sale.
3. Cash sale of goods and sale of property and assets whether for cash or on credit are not recorded in the sales book.
4. This book is also named as sales daybook, sold day book, sales journal, or sale register.

Question 5.
What is a sales returns book?
Answer:
Sales returns book is a subsidiary book, in which, details of the return of goods sold for which cash is not immediately paid are recorded. Just as goods may be returned to suppliers, goods may be returned by customers.

Question 6.
What is a debit note?
Answer:

1. A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned.
   This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned.
2. It contains the description and details of goods returned, name of the party to whom goods are returned and net value of the goods so returned with reason for return.

Question 7.
What is a credit note?
Answer:
A credit note is prepared by the seller and sent to the buyer when goods are returned indicating that the buyer’s account is credited in respect of goods returned. Credit note is a statement prepared by a trader who receives back the goods sold from his customer. It contains details such as the description of goods returned by the buyer, quantity returned, and also their value.

Question 8.
What is journal proper?
Answer:

1. Journal proper is a residuary book which contains a record of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary books such as cashbook, purchases book, and sales book, purchases returns the book, sales returns book, bills receivable book, and bills payable book.
2. Journal proper or general journal is a book in which the residual transactions which cannot be entered in any of the subdivisions of the journal are entered.

Question 9.
Define bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 10.
What is an opening entry?
Answer:

1. At the end of the accounting year, all nominal accounts are closed but the business has to be carried on with the previous year’s assets and liabilities.
2. These accounts are to be brought into the accounts of the current year.
3. Journal entry made at the beginning of the current year with the balances of assets and liabilities of the previous year is opening journal entry.
4. In this entry, asset accounts are debited, liabilities and capital accounts are credited.

Question 11.
What Is an invoice?
Answer:
Entries in the purchases day book are made from invoices which are popularly known as bills. An invoice is a business document or bill or statement, prepared and sent by the seller to the buyer giving the details of goods sold, such as quantity, quality, price, total value, etc. Thus, the invoice is a source document of prime entry both for the buyer and the seller.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the format of purchases book.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the advantages of subsidiary books?
Answer:
The advantages of maintaining subsidiary books are:
1. Proper and systematic record of business transactions: All the business transactions are classified and grouped conveniently as cash and non-cash transactions, which are further classified as credit purchases, credit sales, returns, etc. As separate books are used for each type of transaction, individual transactions are properly and systematically recorded in the subsidiary books.

2. Convenient posting: All the transactions of a particular nature are recorded at one place, i.e., in one of the subsidiary books. For example, all credit purchases of goods are recorded in the purchases book and all credit sales of goods are recorded in the sales book. It facilitates posting to purchases account, sales account, and concerning personal accounts.

3. Division of work: As the journal is sub-divided, the work will be subdivided and different persons can work on different books at the same time and the work can be speedily completed.

4. Efficiency: The sub-division of work gives the advantage of specialization. When the same work is done by a person repeatedly the person becomes efficient in handling it. Thus, specialization leads to efficiency in accounting work.

5. Helpful in decision making: Subsidiary books provide complete details about every type of transaction separately. Hence, the management can use the information as the basis for deciding its future actions. For example, information regarding sales returns from the sales returns book will enable the management to analyze the causes for sales returns and to adopt effective measures to remove deficiencies.

6. Prevents errors and frauds: Internal check becomes more effective as the work can be divided in such a manner that the work of one person is automatically checked by another person. With the use of internal checks, the possibility of the occurrence of errors or fraud may be avoided or minimized.

7. Availability of requisite information at a glance: When all transactions are entered in one journal, it is difficult to locate information about a particular item. When subsidiary books are maintained, details about a particular type of transaction can be obtained from subsidiary books. The maintenance of subsidiary books helps in obtaining the necessary information at a glance.

8. Detailed information available: As all transactions relating to a particular item are entered in a subsidiary book, it gives detailed information. It is easy to arrive at monthly or quarterly totals.

9. Saving in time: As there are many subsidiary books, the work of entering can be done simultaneously by many persons. Thus, it saves time and accounting work can be completed quickly.

10. Labour of posting is reduced: Labour of posting is reduced as posting is made in periodical totals to the impersonal account, for example, the Purchases account.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:
Answer:
a) Endorsement of a bill:

• Endorsement means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person.
• The person who endorses is called the “Endorser”.
• The person to whom a bill is endorsed is called the “Endorsee”.
• The endorsee is entitled to collect the money.

b) Discounting of a bill:

• When the holder of a bill is in need of money before the due date of a bill, cash can be received by discounting the bill with the banker.
• This process is referred to as the discounting of bills.
• The banker deducts a small amount of the bill which is called a discount and pays the balance in cash immediately to the holder of the bill.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods?

Solution:

Question 2.
Enter the following credit transactions in the purchases book of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant.
2017
May 2 – Bought from Vasu 100 bags of rice @ ₹ 800 per bag
May 8 – Bought from Cheyyar Sugar Mills Ltd., 20 bags of sugar @ ₹ 2,600 per bag
May 10 – Bought from Ram Flour Mill, Coimbatore, 10 bags of wheat flour @ ₹ 750 per bag
May 15 – Bought from Nilgiri Tea Co., Nilgiris, 15 cases of tea @ ₹ 900 per case
May 25 – Bought from Sairam Coffee Works Ltd., 100 kgs of Coffee @ ₹ 190 per kg.
May 29 – Bought from X & Co. furniture worth ₹ 2,000
Solution:
In the books of Manoharan Provisional Merchant Purchases as book.

Question 3.
From the following transactions write up the Sales daybook of M/s. Ram & Co., stationery. merchant.
2017
Jan. 1 – Sold to Anbu & Co., on credit 20 reams of white paper @ ₹ 150 per ream
Jan. 2 – Sold to Jagadish & Sons on credit 6 dozen pens @ ₹ 360 per dozen
Jan. 10 – Sold old newspapers for cash @ ₹ 620
Jan. 15 – Sold on credit M/s. Elango & Co., 10 drawing boards @ ₹ 170 per piece
Jan. 20 Sold to Kani & Co., 4 writing tables at ₹ 1,520 per table for cash
Solution:
In the books of M/s. Ram & Co. a Stationary Merchant
Sales Book

Question 4.
Enter the following transactions in the Sales book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop.
2017
May 2 – Sold to Naveen Stores, Trichy on credit 5 computer tables @ ₹ 1,750 per table
May 9 – Sold to Deepa & Co., Madurai on credit 6 dining tables @ ₹ 1,900 per dining table
May 15 – Sold to Rajesh 10 dressing tables @ ₹ 2,750 each on credit
May 24 – Sold to Anil 5 wooden tables @ ₹ 1,250 per table on credit
May 27 – Sold to Gopi 3 old computers @ ₹ 3,500 each
May 29 – Sold 50 chairs to Anil @ ₹ 275 each for cash
Solution:
In the books of Kamala Stores a Furniture’s Shop
Sales book

Question 5.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases and sales books of Kannan, an automobile dealer, for the month of December 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Kannan
Purchase book

In the books of Kannan
Sales book

Question 6.
Prepare Purchases book and Sales book in the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd., from the following transactions given for April 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Santhosh Textile Ltd,
Purchase Book

In the books of Santhosh Textile Ltd,
Sales Book

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare purchase day book and purchases returns book for the month of June 2017 and post them into ledger accounts in the books of Robert Furniture Mart.

Solution:
In the books of Robert Furniture Mart.
Purchases Book

In the books of Robert Furniture Mart.
Purchase return A/C

Ledger Account
Purchases Account

Balu Traders

Subash & Co.

Sunrise Furniture

Mouli Traders

Purchase Return Account

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Suman

In the books of Suman
Purchase Returns Book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Guhan & Sons, who is a textile dealer.

Solution:
In the books of Guhan & Sons
Sales Books

In the books of Guhan & Sons
Sales Return Book

Question 10.
Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Ponni & Co., and post them to the ledger.
2017
Aug 1 – Sold goods to Senthii as per Invoice No. 68 for ₹ 20,500 on credit
Aug 4 – Sold goods to Madhavan as per Invoice No. 74 for ₹ 12,800 on credit
Aug 7 – Sold goods to Kanagasabai as per Invoice No. 78 for 17,500 on credit
Aug 15 – Returns inward by Senthii as per Credit Note no. 7 for ₹ 1,500 for which cash is not paid
Aug 20 – Sold goods to Selvarn for ₹ 13,300 for cash
Aug 25 – Sales returns of 11,800 by Madhavan as per Credit Note No. 11 for which cash is not paid
Solution:
In the books of Ponni & Co
Sales Book

In the books of Ponni & Co.
Sales Return Book

Ledger A/C
Sales Account

Senthil Account

Madhavan Account
Kanagasabai Account

Sales Return Account

Question 11.
Prepare necessary subsidiary books in the books of Niranjan and aiso Sachin account and Mukil account from the following transactions for the month of February 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Sachin account and Mukil account.
Purchase Book (Mukil Account)

Sales Book

Purchase Return Book

Sales return Book

Ledger
Sachin Account

Mukil Account

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book Stores.

Solution:
In the books of Nalanda Book Stores
Purchase Book

In the books of Nalanda Book Stores
Sales Book

Purchase return books

11th Accountancy Guide Subsidiary Books – I Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
If goods are sold but not delivered to the customer, they will be included in _______.
a) Closing Inventory
b) Goods in transit
c) Sales
d) Sales in returns
Answer:
b) Goods in transit

Question 2.
Goods Of Rs.800 (sales price) sent on sale on an approval basis were included In the sales book. The profit included in the sales was 25% on cost. Inventory with the party will increase our closing inventory by _______.
a) Rs. 600
b) Rs. 640
c) Rs. 680
d) Rs. 700
Answer:
b) Rs. 640

Question 3.
List price of the goods purchased is Rs. 60,000 cash paid is Rs. 45,000 (After receiving a cash discount of Rs. 9,000) the trade discount will be?
a) 10 %
b) 7.5 %
c) 15 %
d) 25 %
Answer:
a) 10 %

Question 4.
A trader purchased goods for Rs. 4,000 at a discount of 5%. As he paid the amount immediately, a cash discount of Rs.100 was also allowed. In this case, Purchases A/c is debited by:
a) Rs. 4,000
b) Rs. 3,800
c) Rs. 3,700
d) Rs. 3,900
Answer:
b) Rs. 3,800

Question 5.
The periodical total of the Sales Return Book is posted to the _______.
a) Debit side of Sales Account
b) Debit side of Sales Return Account
c) Credit side of Sales Return Account
d) Debit side of Debtors Return Account
Answer:
b) Debit side of Sales Return Account

Question 6.
Debit notes issued are used to prepare _______.
a) Sales returns book
b) Puchases returns book
c) Journal proper
d) Puchases book
Answer:
b) Puchases returns book

Question 7.
Trade discount allowed at the time of sale of goods is _______.
a) Recorded in Sales Book
b) Recorded in Cash Book
c) Recorded in Journal
d) Not recorded in Books of Accounts
Answer:
d) Not recorded in Books of Accounts

Question 8.
Subsidiary books are maintained in _______.
a) Big business concerns
b) Small business concerns
c) Banks
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Big business concerns

Question 9.
Journal Proper is used to record _______.
a) Ail cash and credit transaction
b) cash and credit sales
c) Cash and credit purchases
d) adjusting and closing entries
Answer:
d) adjusting and closing entries

Question 10.
Cash discount is recorded in the _______.
a) Cash book
b) Sales Book
c) Purchases book
d) Journal
Answer:
a) Cashbook

Question 11.
The cash discount allowed to a debtor should be credited to _______.
a) Discount Account
b) Customer’s Account
c) Sales account
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Customer’s Account

Question 12.
Which of the following books should be used to record the purchase of furniture on credit?
a) Petty Cash Book
b) Journal Proper
c) Cash Book
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Journal Proper

Question 13.
The return of goods to a supplier should be credited to _______.
a) Supplier Account
b) Goods Account
c) Purchase Return Account
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Purchase Return Account

Question 14.
The other name of the Sales Returns book is _______.
a) Returns Inwards Book
b) Sales Returns Journal
c) both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) both (a) & (b)

Question 15.
The statement sent to the suppliers on account of the return of goods is known as _______.
a) Debit Note
b) Credit Note
c) Journal Proper
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Debit Note

Question 16.
On 1st January 2918, pugazh draws a bill on Sundar for 3 months, Its due date is _______.
a) 31st March 2018
b) 1st April 2018
c) 4th April 2018
d) 4th April 2018
Answer:
c) 4th April 2018

Question 17.
Goods returned by customers are recorded in _______.
a) Sales book
b) sales return book
c) Purchases book
d) purchases return the book
Answer:
b) sales return book

Question 18.
Goods returned by suppliers are recorded in _______.
a) Sales book
b) sales return book
c) Purchases book
d) purchases return the book
Answer:
d) purchases return the book

Question 19.
Days of grace are _______ in number.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer:
c) three

Question 20.
The person who prepares a bill is called the _______.
a) Drawer
b) Drawee
c) Payee
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Drawer

Question 21.
The person who has to make the payment or who accepts to make the payment is called _______.
a) Drawer
b) Drawee
c) Payee
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Drawee

Question 22.
The person who receives the payment is payee _______.
a) Drawer
b) Drawee
c) Payee
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 23.
_______ means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person.
a) Endorsement
b) Discounting
c) Retiring of bill
d) Renewal
Answer:
a) Endorsement

Question 24.
_______ is the statement prepared by the seller of goods.
a) Voucher
b) Receipt
c) Invoice
d) Ledger
Answer:
c) Invoice

Question 25.
Puchases book does not keep record of purchases of _______.
a) Purchases book
b) sales book
c) Purchases returns book
d) sales returns book
Answer:
a) Purchases book

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Prepare Sales Book of M/S A :
i. 2016, Feb, 1 – Sold goods to prince Rs. 2,500
i. 2016, Feb 10 – Sold to Kannan 100 shirts @ Rs. 55 per shirt, Trade discount 10%
ii. 2016, Feb 26 – Sold old furniture to Rasi & sons Rs. 2,400 on credit.
Solution:
Sales Book

Question 2.
Record the following transactions in the returns inwards book of Mr. A.
1. Dharani returned goods worth Rs. 700
2. Malaini returned goods worth Rs. 800
Answer:
Sales Returns Book

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a deduction given by the supplier to the buyer on the list price or catalogue price of the goods. It is given as a trade practice or when goods are purchased in large quantities. It is shown as a deduction in the invoice. Trade discount is not recorded in the books of accounts. Only the net amount is recorded.

Example : Suppose the sale of goods for ₹ 10,000 was made and 10% was allowed as trade discount, the entry regarding sales will be made for Rs 9,000 (10,000 – 10 per cent of 10,000). In the same way, purchaser of goods will also record purchases as Rs 9,000).

Question 2.
Write notes on parties involved in a bill of exchange.
Answer:
There are three parties to a bill of exchange as under:

1. Drawer: The person who prepares the bill is called the drawer, i.e., a creditor.
2. Drawee: The person who has to make the payment or who accepts to make the payment is called the drawee, i.e., a debtor.
3. Payee: The person who receives the payment is the payee. He may be a third party or the drawer of the bill.

Question 3.
What are the features of bills of exchange?
Answer:

1. It is a written document.
2. It is an unconditional order.
3. It is an order to pay a certain sum of money.
4. It is signed by the drawer.
5. It bears a stamp or it is drafted on stamp paper.
6. It is to be accepted by the acceptor.

Question 4.
What is Due date?
Answer:
When a bill is drawn payable after a specified period, the date on which the payment should be made is called ‘Due date’.

Question 5.
What are Days of grace?
Answer:
In the calculation of the due date, three extra days are added to the specified period of the bills called ‘Days of grace’. If the date of maturity falls on a holiday, the bill will be due for payment on a preceding day.

Question 6.
Write notes on retiring of a bill.
Answer:
An acceptor may make the payment of a bill before its due date and may discharge the liability on the bill. It is called the retirement of a bill. Usually, the holder of the bill allows a concession called rebate to the drawee for the unexpired period of the bill.

Question 7.
Write notes on the renewal of a bill of exchange.
Answer:
When the acceptor of a bill knows in advance that he/she will not be able to meet the bill on its due date, he/she may request the drawer for an extension of time for payment. The drawer of the bill may agree to cancel the original bill and draw a new bill for the amount due with interest thereon. This is referred to as renewal.

Question 8.
Write notes on closing entries.
Answer:
At the end of the accounting period, all the ledger accounts relating to purchases, sales, purchases returns, sales returns, stock, and other accounts concerning expenses, losses, incomes, and gains are closed by transfer to trading and profit and loss account so that financial statements can be prepared. It should be noted that closing entries are made for nominal accounts only.

Question 9.
Write notes on rectifying entries.
Answer:
Rectifying entries are passed for rectifying errors which are committed in the books of accounts.

Example: Purchase of furniture by a stationery dealer for Rs 10,000 was debited to the purchase account. Pass rectifying entry on December 31, 2017.
Rectifying Entry

Question 10.
What is Endorsement?
Answer:
Endorsement means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person. The person who endorses is called the “Endorser”. The person to whom a bill is endorsed is called the “Endorsee”. The endorsee is entitled to collect the money.

Question 11.
What is discounting?
Answer:
When the holder of a bill is in need of money before the due date of a bill, cash can be received by discounting the bill with the banker. This process is referred to as the discounting of bills. The banker deducts a small amount of the bill which is called a discount and pays the balance in cash immediately to the holder of the bill.

Question 12.
State the reasons for returning the goods?
Answer:

1. not according to the order placed.
2. not upto the samples which were already shown.
3. due to damage condition.
4. due to price difference.
5. undue delay in the delivery of the goods.

Question 13.
What are the kinds of returns books?
Answer:

1. Purchases Return or Return outward book.
2. Sales Return or Return inward book.

Question 14.
What is Bills payable book?
Answer:
Details recorded in the bills payable book are the names of the parties whose bills are accepted, date of the bills payable, due date, amount, etc. The individual accounts of the parties whose bills are accepted will be debited with the corresponding amount in the bills payable book.

Question 15.
What is Bills receivable book?
Answer:
Bills receivable refers to bills drawn, the payment for which has to be received. In the case of credit sales of goods, the entity may draw a bill on the buyer (debtor), for a certain period. This is called bills receivable for the business entity and bills payable for the debtor who has accepted the bill.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
From the following transactions of Ram Home appliances for July 2017 prepare pui books and ledger accounts connected with his book.

Solution:
In the books of ram home appliances
Purchase book

Question 2.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases returns book of Hair who leading in automobiles and post them into 2017.
2017
Jan 5 – Returned to Anand 10 dutch plates @ ₹ 200 each not in accordance with the order.
Jan 14 – Returned to Chardran 5 brake shoes @ ₹ 200 each and 20 rearview Mirrors @ ₹ 350, each due to inferior quality
Solution:
In the books of Hari
Purchases Return book

Question 3.
From the transactions given below, Prepare the sales book of Kumar Stationery of July 2017,

Solution:
Sales account

Ledger Accounts
Sales Account

Yogesh Traders A/c

Kumaran & Co, A/c

Question 4.
Enter the following transaction in the returns inward book of Magesh a textile dealer.
2017
April 6 – Returned by Naren 40 shirts each costing ₹ 150 due to top inferior Quality.
April 8 – Amar Tailors returned 10 T-shirts, each costing ₹ 100 on accounts Of being not in accordance with their order.
April 21 – Prema stars returned 20 salwar sets each costing ₹ 200, being not in accordance with the order.
Solution:
In the books of Magesh
Sales Return book

Question 5.
Enter the following transactions in proper subsidiary books.

Solution:
Purchase Book

Sales book

Question 6.
Record the following transaction in the proper subsidiary books of M/S Ram & Co.
April
1 – Goods sold to Ramesh Rs. 1000
3 – Sold goods to Kumar Rs. 2,200.
8 – Sold goods to Shankar Rs. 300
10 – Goods returned by Kumar Rs. 600.
15 – Credit note sent to Shankar For Rs. 200
Solution:
In the books of Ram & Co.
Sales book

Sales Return Book

Question 7.
Write the following transaction in proper subsidiary books of Mr. Pugazh.

In the books of Mr. Pugazh
Purchased book

In the books of Mr. Pugazh
Purchased return book

Question 8.
Enter the following transaction in the proper subsidiary books of Mr. Somu.

Solution:
In the books of Mr. Somu
Purchase book

In the books of Mr. Somu
Purchased return book

In the books of Mr. Somu
Sales book

In the books of Mr. Somu
Sales return book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions in the appropriate special M/s Padmini & Co.

Solution:
In the books of M/S Padmini
Purchase book

In the books of M/S Padmini
Sales book

In the books of M/S Padmini
Purchase return book

In the books of M/S Padmini
Sale return book

Question 10.
Enter the following transactions in the subsidiary books:

Solution:
Purchases Book

Question 11.
Enter the following transactions in the purchase book of M/S Arun and post them in the ledger:
2016,
Jan.
9 – Purchased from Joseph stores, 15 boxes of pencil @ Rs.6 per box 15 Purchased for cash 10 Exercise book @ Rs.5 per book
18 – Bought Furniture from Fancy Furniture Mart for Rs.2,000, Trade discount @ 10%
21 – Purchased 25 bags of tea dust from Subam Traders @ Rs.20 per bag, Trade discount 5%
Solution:
Purchases Book

Question 12.
From the particulars given below, write up the Purchases Day Book of M/s Hilton Electric Co, which deals in electrical goods:
2017,
Dec.
5 – Purchased on Credit from H Electric Co. – 10 Electric Iron @ Rs. 7,000 each; 5 – Electric Stoves @ Rs. 6,000 each;
16 – Purchased on credit from Khaitan Electric Co – 30 Electric Heater @ Rs. 12,000 each; 20 Electric Kettles @ Rs. 6,000 each;
21 – Purchased from Solar Electric Co. on credit – 10 Toasters @ Rs. 4,000 each; 5 – Electric Heater @ Rs. 12,000 each;
30 – Purchased from Bombay Electric Stores on Credit – 20 Electric Stoves @ Rs. 4,000 each; Electric Fans @ Rs. 3,000 each;
Solution:
Purchases Day Book

Question 13.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book of Arun and post them into ledger.
2016,
Jan.
1 – Sold goods to Prince Rs. 2500
10 – Sold to Kannan 100 Shirts @ Rs. 45 per shirt, Trade discount 10%
21 – Sold old furniture to Kumar & Sons Rs. 1,200 on credit
Solution:
Sales Day Book

Question 14.
From the following transactions write up the sales daybook of M/s Rajesh & Co.
Jan.
1 – Sold to S 100 bags of sugar @ Rs. 7,000 per bag, less trade discount @ 5%
10 – Sold to D 20 bags of milk powder @ Rs. 6,000 per bag, less trade disc. @ 10%
20 – Sold to F 10 boxes of Tea @ Rs. 2,500 per box, less trade discount @ 10%
29 – Sold old office furniture on credit to Rainbow furniture mart for Rs. 64,000
Solution:
Sales Day Book

Question 15.
Enter the following information in the proper subsidiary books:
Mar.
1 – Returned to Onida Co. Ltd 4 colour TVs @ Rs. 24,000 each
2 – Returned by Metro Electronics Ltd 4 pieces of Fridge costing Rs. 20,000 each
15 – Returned to Venus Electricals 2 pieces of electric heater @ Rs. 6,500 each
24 – Returned by Swasthica & Co , 4 pieces of Speakers costing Rs. 9,000 each
29 – Returned to LG ltd 3 pieces of Computer @ Rs. 40,000 each which was purchased for cash.
Solution:
Purchase Returns Book

Sales Return Book

Question 16.
Record the following transactions in the bills receivable and the bills payable books of a trader:
2017
January
1 – Received from Narayan an acceptance of 3 months for Rs. 15,000
5 – Our acceptance to Rani at 4 months for Rs. 16,000
15 – Received from D & Co an acceptance for 2 months for Rs. 12,000
18 – Discount Narayan acceptance for Rs. 9,800
19 – Received from Giri an acceptance for 3 months for Rs. 16,000
20 – Our acceptance to Raja at 4 months for Rs. 15,000
21 – Kumar Renewed our acceptance to Rani by paying him cash Rs. 12,000 and accepted a fresh bill of Rs. 12,200 at 4 months, Rs. 200 has being interest charged
22 – D & Co acceptance endorsed in favour of G in full settlement of a debt of Rs. 2,250
Solution:
Bills Receivable Book

Bills Payable Book

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Capital and Revenue Transactions Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 11 Capital and Revenue Transactions

11th Accountancy Guide Capital and Revenue Transactions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is _______.
a) Capital expenditure
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Deferred revenue expenditure
d) None of the above.
Answer:
a) Capital expenditure

Question 2.
Expenditure incurred ₹ 20,000 for trial run of a newly installed machinery will be _______.
a) Preliminary expense
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Capital expenditure
d) Deferred revenue expenditure
Answer:
c) Capital expenditure

Question 3.
Interest on bank deposits is _______.
a) Capital receipt
b) Revenue receipt
c) Capital expenditures
d) Revenue expenditures
Answer:
b) Revenue receipt

Question 4.
Amount received from IDBI as a medium term loan for augmenting working capital _______.
a) Capital expenditures
b) Revenue expenditures
c) Revenue receipts
d) Capital receipt
Answer:
d) Capital receipt

Question 5.
Revenue expenditure is intended to benefit _______.
a) Past period
b) Future period
c) Current period
d) Any period
Answer:
c) Current period

Question 6.
Pre – operative expenses are _______.
a) Revenue expenditure
b) Prepaid revenue expenditure
c) Deferred revenue expenditure
d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
d) Capital expenditure

II. Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is meant by revenue Expenditure?
Answer:
The expenditure incurred for day to day running of the business or for maintaining the earning capacity of the business is known as revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. It is incurred to generate revenue for a particular accounting period. The revenue expenditure may be incurred in relation to revenue or in relation to a particular accounting period.

Question 2.
What is capital expenditure?
Answer:

1. It is an expenditure incurred during an accounting period, the benefits of which will be available for more than one accounting period.
2. It includes any expenditure resulting in the acquisition of any fixed asset or contributes to the revenue earning capacity of the business. It is non-recurring in nature.

Question 3.
What is capital profit?
Answer:
Capital profit is the profit which arises not from the normal course of the business. Profit on sale of fixed assets is an example of capital profit.

Question 4.
Write a short note on revenue receipt.
Answer:
Receipts which are obtained in the normal course of business are called revenue receipts. It is recurring in nature. The amount received is generally small.

Examples:

• Proceeds from the sale of goods
• Interest on investments received
• Respect Received
• Dividend from investment in shares.

Question 5.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure.
Answer:

Question 2.
Distinguish between capital receipt and revenue receipt.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is deferred revenue expenditure? Give two examples.
Answer:
An expenditure, which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure. The benefit usually accrues for a period of two or more years. It is, for the time being, deferred from being charged against income. It is charged against income over a period of certain years. Examples: Considerable amount spent on advertising and major repairs to plant and machinery.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
State whether the following expenditures are capital, revenue, or deferred revenue.

1. Advertising expenditure, the benefits of which will last for three years.
2. Registration fees paid at the time of registration of a building.
3. Expenditure incurred on repairs and whitewashing at the time of purchase of an old building in order to make it usable.

Solution:

1. Deferred revenue expenditure
2. Capital Expenditure
3. Capital Expenditure

Question 2.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue.

1. Registration expenses incurred for the purchase of land.
2. Repairing charges paid for remodeling the old building purchased.
3. Carriage paid on goods purchased.
4. Legal expenses paid for raising of loans

Solution:

1. Capital
2. Capital
3. Revenue
4. Capital

Question 3.
State whether they are capital and revenue.
Answer:

1. Construction of building ₹ 10,00,000.
2. Repairs to furniture ₹ 50,000.
3. White-washing the building ₹ 80,000
4. Pulling down the old building and rebuilding ₹ 4,00,000

Solution:

1. Capital
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital

Question 4.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue.

1. ₹ 50,000 spent on a railway siding.
2. Loss on sale of old furniture
3. Carriage paid on goods sold.

Solution:

1. Capital
2. Revenue
3. Revenue

Question 5.
State whether the following are capital, revenue, and deferred revenue.

1. Legal fees paid to the lawyer for acquiring land ₹ 20,000.
2. Heavy advertising cost of ₹ 12,00,000 spent on introducing a new product.
3. Renewal of factory license ₹ 12,000.
4. A sum of ₹ 4,000 was spent on painting the factory.

Solution:

1. Capital
2. Deferred Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Revenue

Question 6.
Classify the following receipts into capital and revenue.

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹ 75,000.
2. Loan borrowed from bank ₹ 2,50,000
3. Sale of investment ₹ 1,20,000.
4. The commission received ₹ 30,000.
5. ₹ 1,400 wages paid in connection with the erection of new machinery.

Solution:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital
4. Revenue
5. Capital

Question 7.
Identify the following items into capital or revenue.

1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
3. ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second-hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000

Solution:

1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

11th Accountancy Guide Capital and Revenue Transactions Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Cost of acquisition of land and building is an example of ………………
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital receipts
(d) Revenue receipts
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 2.
Depreciation on fixed asset is a _______ expenditure.
a) Capital expenditure
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Deferred revenue expenditure
d) None of the above.
Answer:
b) Revenue expenditure

Question 3.
……………… expenditure is recurring in nature.
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital loss
(d) Capital profit
Answer:
(b) Revenue expenditure

Question 4.
An plant worth ₹ 8,000 is sold for ₹ 8,500 the capital receipt amounts to _______.
a) ₹ 8,000
b) ₹ 8,500
c) ₹ 500
d) ₹ 165
Answer:
c) ₹ 500

Question 5.
Considerable amount spent on advertising is an example of ……………… expenditure.
(a) capital
(b) revenue
(c) deferred
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) deferred

Question 6.
An asset worth ₹ 1,00,000 is sold for ₹ 75,000 the capital loss amounts to
a) ₹ 1,75,000
b) ₹ 1,00,000
c) ₹ 75,000
d) ₹ 25,000
Answer:
c) ₹ 75,000

Question 7.
The transaction which provides benefit to*the business for more than one year is called as _______.
a) Capital expenditure
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Deferred revenue expenditure
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 8.
Revenue expenditure is intended to benefit.
a) Subsequent year
b) previous year
c) current year
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) current year

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the capital receipt?
Answer:
The receipt which is not revenue in nature is called a capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature. The amount received is normally substantial. It is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Capital receipt.
Answer:
The receipt which is not revenue in nature is called a capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature. The amount received is normally substantial. It is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Question 3.
Write the Features of capital expenditure?
Answer:

1. It gives benefits for more than one accounting period.
2. It includes the acquisition of fixed assets and all expenditure incurred upto the point an asset is ready for use.
3. It contributes to the revenue-earning capacity of the business.
4. It is non-recurring in nature.
5. It is shown on the assets side of the balance sheet.

Question 4.
Write the Features of revenue expenditure?
Answer:

1. It is recurring in nature.
2. It is incurred for maintaining the earning capacity of the business.
3. Its benefit expires in the same accounting period.
4. It is shown on the debit side of the trading and profit and loss account.

Question 5.
Write the Features of deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:

1. It is a revenue expenditure, the benefit of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods.
2. It is not fully written off in the year of actual expenditure. It is written off over a period of certain years.
3. The balance available after writing off (i.e., Actual expenditure – Amount wrote off) is shown on the assets side balance sheet.

Question 6.
Distinguish Capital, Revenue 8i Deferred revenue expenditure.
Answer:

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Classify the following expenditures and receipts as capital or revenue

1. ₹ 10,000 spent as traveling expenses of the directors on trips abroad for the purchase of fixed assets.
2. Amount received from trade receivables during the year.
3. Amount spent on the demolition of building to construct a large building on the same site.
4. Insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged by fire.

Solution:

1. Capital expenditure
2. Revenue receipt
3. Capital expenditure
4. Capital receipt.

Question 2.
Classify the following expenses as capital or revenue.
(i) The sum of ₹ 3,200 has been spent on a machine as follows:

• ₹ 2,000 for additions to double the output.
• ₹ 1,200 for repairs necessitated by negligence.

(ii) Overhauling expenses of ₹ 25,000 for the engine of a motor car to get better fuel efficiency.
Solution:
(i) a. capital expenditure
b. revenue expenditure

(ii) capital expenditure.

Question 3.
State whether the following are capital or revenue items.

1. ₹ 5,000 spent towards additions to buildings.
2. Second-hand motor car purchased for ₹ 30,000 and paid ₹ 2,000 as repairs immediately.
3. ₹ 10,000 was spent on painting the new factory.
4. Freight and cartage on the new machine ₹ 150, erection charges ₹ 200.
5. ₹ 150 spent on repairs before using a second-hand car purchased recently.

Solution:

1. Capital expenditure.
2. Capital expenditure.
3. Capital expenditure.
4. Capital expenditures.
5. Capital expenditure.

Question 4.
State whether the following are capital, revenue or deferred revenue expenditure.

1. Carriage of ₹ 1,000 spent on machinery purchased and installed.
2. Office rent paid ₹ 2,000.
3. Wages of ₹ 5,000 paid to machine operators.
4. Hire charges for the use of motor vehicle, hired for five years, but paid yearly.

Solution:

1. Capital expenditure.
2. Revenue expenditure.
3. Revenue expenditure.
4. Revenue expenditure.

Question 5.
State with reasons whether the following are capital or revenue expenditure

1. Expenses incurred in connection with obtaining a license for starting the factory for ₹ 25,000.
2. A factory shed was constructed at a cost of ₹ 2,00,000. A sum of ₹ 10,000 had been incurred in the construction of temporary huts for storing building material.
3. Overhaul expenses of second-hand machinery purchased amounted to ₹ 5,000.

Solution:

1. Capital expenditure.
2. Capital expenditure.
3. Capital expenditure.

Question 6.
State with reasons whether the following are capital or revenue or deferred revenue expenditure

1. Advertisement expenses amounted to ₹ 10 crores to introduce a new product.
2. Expenses on freight for purchasing new machinery.
3. Freight and insurance on the new machinery and cartage paid to bring the new machinery to the factory.

Solution:

1. Deferred revenue expenditure.
2. Capital expenditure.
3. Capital expenditure.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 12 Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I

11th Accountancy Guide Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Closing Stock is an item of ________.
a) Fixed Asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious Asset
d) Intangible asset
Answer:
b) Current asset

Question 2.
Balance sheet is ________.
a) An account
b) A statement
c) Neither a statement nor an account
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) A statement

Question 3.
Net profit of the business increases the ________.
a) Drawings
b) Receivables
c) Debts
d) Capital
Answer:
d) Capital

Question 4.
Carriage inwards will be shown ________ .
a) In the trading account
b) In the profit and loss account
c) On the liabilities side
d) On the assets side
Answer:
a) In the trading account

Question 5.
Bank overdraft should be shown ________.
a) In the trading account
b) Profit and loss account
c) On the liabilities side
d) On the assets side
Answer:
c) On the liabilities side

Question 6.
Balance sheet shows of the business ________.
a) Profitability
b) Financial position
c) Sales
d) Purchases
Answer:
b) Financial position

Question 7.
Drawings appearing in the trial balance is ________.
a) Added to the purchases
b) Subtracted from the purchases
c) Added to the capital
d) Subtracted from the capital
Answer:
d) Subtracted from the capital

Question 8.
Salaries appearing in the trial balance is shown on the ________.
a) Debit side of trading account
b) Debit side of profit and loss account
c) Liabilities side of the balance sheet
d) Assets side of the balance sheet
Answer:
b) Debit side of profit and loss account

Question 9.
Current assets does not include ________.
a) Cash
b) Stock
c) Furniture
d) Prepaid expenses
Answer:
c) Furniture

Question 10.
Goodwill is classified as ________.
a) A current asset
b) A liquid asset
c) A tangible asset
d) An intangible asset
Answer:
d) An intangible asset

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the trading account.
Answer:
Trading refers to buying and selling of goods with the intention of making a profit. The trading account is a nominal account which shows the result of buying and selling goods for an accounting period. A trading account is prepared to find out the difference between the revenue from sales and the cost of goods sold.

Question 2.
What are wasting assets?
Answer:

1. When the asset is used regularly, it depreciates, eventually having little or no residual value.
2. During the period of depreciation, the asset is called a “wasting asset”.
3. For example, natural resources, such as gas and timber, are wasting assets that eventually are used and then have no remaining value.

Question 3.
What are fixed assets?
Answer:
Fixed assets are those assets which are acquired or constructed for continued use in the business and last for many years such as land and building, plant and machinery, motor vehicles, furniture, etc.

Question 4.
What is meant by purchase returns?
Answer:

1. Purchases returns or returns outwards are a normal part of the business.
2. Goods may be returned to the supplier if they carry defects or if they are not according to the specifications of the buyer.

Question 5.
Name any two direct expenses and indirect expenses.
Answer:
Direct expenses:

• Carriage inwards or freight inwards
• Wages Indirect expenses:

Indirect expenses:

• Office and administrative expenses
• Selling and distribution expenses

Question 6.
Mention any two differences between trial balance and balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 7.
What are the objectives of preparing a trading account?
Answer:

1. Provides information about gross profit or gross loss.
2. Provides an opportunity to safeguard against possible losses.

Question 8.
What is the need for preparing a profit and loss account?
Answer:

1. Ascertainment of net profit and net loss
2. To compare the profits
3. To have control over expenses
4. It is used to prepare the balance sheet

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are final accounts? What are its constituents?
Answer:
Businessmen want to know the profitability and the financial position of the business. These can be ascertained by preparing the final accounts or financial statements. The final accounts or financial statements include the following:

1. Income statement or trading and profit and loss account; and
2. Position statement or Balance sheet.

Question 2.
What is meant by closing entries? Why are they passed?
Answer:

1. Balances of all the nominal accounts are required to be closed on the last day of the accounting year to facilitate the preparation of trading and profit and loss accounts.
2. It is done by passing necessary closing entries in the journal properly.
3. Purchases have a debit balance and a purchase return have a credit balance.
4. At the end of the accounting year, the balance in the purchases returns account is closed by transferring to the purchases account.
5. Similarly, sales account has a credit balance and sales returns have a debit balance.
6. At the end of the accounting year, the balance in the sales returns account is closed by transferring to the sales account.
7. The various closing entries are as follows:
   (e.g.) for closing purchases returns account
   

Question 3.
What is meant by gross profit and net profit?
Answer:
Gross profit:

1. The difference between the totals of two sides of the trading account indicates either gross profit or gross loss.
2. If the total of the credit side is more, the difference represents gross profit.
3. On the other hand, if the total of the debit side is higher, the difference represents gross loss.
4. The gross profit or gross loss is transferred to profit and loss account.

Net profit:

1. After debiting indirect expenses and losses and crediting all indirect incomes and gains, if the total of the credit side of the profit and loss account exceeds the debit side, the difference is termed as net.
2. profit.
3. On the other hand, if the total in the debit side exceeds the credit side, the difference is termed as net loss. Net profit or net loss is transferred to the capital account.

Question 4.
“Balance sheet is not an account”- Explain.
Answer:
A balance sheet is a part of the final accounts. However, the balance sheet is a statement and not an account. It has no debit or credit sides and as such the words ‘To’ and ‘By’ are not used before the names of the accounts shown therein.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of preparing a balance sheet?
Answer:
1. The main purpose of preparing a balance sheet is to ascertain the true financial position of the business at a particular point of time.

2. It helps in comparing the cost of various assets of the business such as the amount of closing stock, amount due from debtors, amount of fictitious assets, etc.

Moreover, as assets and liabilities of similar nature are grouped and presented in the balance sheet, a comparative study of these assets and liabilities is facilitated. It helps in comparing the various liabilities of the business.

3. It helps in finding out the solvency position of the firm. The firm’s solvency position is favorable if the assets exceed the external liabilities. The firm’s solvency position is not favorable if the external liabilities exceed the assets.

Question 6.
What is meant by grouping and Marshalling assets and liabilities?
Answer:
1. The term ‘grouping’ means showing the items of similar nature under a common heading. For example, the amount due from various customers will be shown under the head Sunday debtors’.

2. ‘Marshalling’ is the arrangement of various assets and liabilities in proper order. Marshaling can be made in one of the following two ways:

• In the order of liquidity
• In the order of permanence

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Prepare trading account in the books of Sivashankar from the following figures

Solution:
Trading account

Question 2.
Prepare trading account in the books of Mr. Sanjay for the year ended 31^st December 2017

Solution:
Trading account as on 31^st Dec 2017

Question 3.
From the following balances taken from the books of Saravanan, calculate gross profit for the year ended December 31, 2017

Solution:
Trading account as on 31^st Dec 2017

Question 4.
From the following details for the year ended 31^st March 2018, prepare a trading account.

Solution:
Trading account as of 31^st Mar 2018

Question 5.
Ascertain gross profit or gross loss from the following:

Solution:
Trading account

Question 6.
From the following balances taken from the books of Victor, prepare a trading account for the 1st year ended December 31, 2017:

Solution:
Trading account as on 31^st Dec 2017

Question 7.
Compute cost of goods sold from the following information

Solution:
Compute cost of goods sold from the following information.
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 10,000 + 80,000 + 7,000 -15,000 .
= ₹ 82,000

Question 8.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:

Solution:
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases – Closing stock
= 30,000 + 2,00,000 – 20,000
= ₹ 2,10,000
Let the sales be = 100
Less: Gross profit (30% on sales i.e,100) = 30
Cost of goods sold = ₹ 70
Therefore percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is \(\frac { 30 }{ 70 }\) x 100
= 42.86%
Gross profit = 42.86% on ₹ 2,10,000
i.e = \(\frac { 42.86 }{ 100 }\) x 2,10,000
= 90,000
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit
= 2,10,000 + 90,000
Sales = ₹ 3,00,000

Question 9.
Prepare profit and loss account in the books of Kirubavathi for the year ended 31^st December, 2016 from the following information:

Solution:
Trading account as on 31^st Dec 2016

Question 10.
Ascertain net profit or net loss from the following:

Solution:
Trading account

Question 11.
From the following details, prepare a profit and loss account.

Solution:
Trading account

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare a profit and loss accounts for the year ending 31^st December 2016.

Solution:
Trading account as of 31^st Dec 2016

Question 13.
From the following balances obtained from the books of Mr. Ganesh, prepare trading and profit and loss accounts.

Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss account

Question 14.
From the following balances extracted from the books of a trader, ascertain gross profit and net profit for the year ended March 31^st, 2017.

Closing stock on December 31.12.2017 was ₹ 4,500
Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c for the year ended 31^st Mar 2017

Question 15.
From the following particulars, prepare a balance sheet in the books of Bragathish as of 31^st December 2017

Solution:
Balance Sheet as of 31^st Dec 2017

Question 16.
Prepare trading and profit and loss account in the books of Ramasundari for the year ended 31^st December 2017 and balance sheet as on that date from the following information:

Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c for the year ended 31^st Dec 2017

Balance Sheet as on Ramasundari on 31^st  December 2017

Question 17.
From the Trial balance, given by Saif, prepare final accounts for the year ended 31^st March 2018 in his books.

Closing stock (31-12-2017) ₹ 14,500
Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c for the year ended 31^st Mar 2018

The balance sheet of saif on 31^st Mar 2018

Question 18.
Prepare trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet in the books of Deri, a trader, from the following balances as on March 31, 2018.

Closing stock (31^st March 2018) ₹ 8,000
Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c for the year ended 31^st Mar 2018

Balance sheet of Deri as of 31^st March 2018.

11th Accountancy Guide Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The income statement is divided into ……………….. parts.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 2.
Opening stock is ________.
a) Debited in the trading account
b) Credited in the trading account
c) Credit ¡n profit and loss account
d) Debited in profit and loss account
Answer:
a) Debited in the trading account

Question 3.
Balances of all ……………….. accounts are required to be closed on the last day of the accounting year.
(a) Nominal
(b) Personal
(c) Real
(d) Representative personal
Answer:
(a) Nominal

Question 4.
__________ account enables the trader to find out Net profit or loss.
a) Trading Account
b) Profit and loss Account
c) Balance sheet
d) Trial balance
Answer:
b) Profit and loss Account

Question 5.
Sales – Gross Profit = ………………..
(a) Sales
(b) Cost of goods sold
(c) Gross profit
(d) Gross loss
Answer:
(b) Cost of goods sold

Question 6.
Current Liabilities does not include ________.
a) Sundry Creditors
b) Bills Payable
c) Debentures
d) Outstanding Expenses
Answer:
c) Debentures

Question 7.
Which one is correctly matched?
(a) Bad debts – Indirect expense
(b) Wages – Asset
(c) Salary – Trading account
(d) Net Profit – Asset
Answer:
(a) Bad debts – Indirect expense

Question 8.
Bad debt is a ________ expense.
a) Office expenses
b) Administrative expenses
c) Selling expenses
d) Distribution expenses
Answer:
c) Selling expenses

Question 9.
A balance sheet is a part of the ……………….. account.
(a) Trading
(b) Profit and Loss
(c) Income statement
(d) Final
Answer:
(d) Final

Question 10.
Fixed assets have ________.
a) Short life
b) long life
c) no life
d) All of these
Answer:
b) long life

Question 11.
The balance sheet of business concern can be presented in the ……………….. forms.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 12.
The goods remaining unsold at the end of the accounting period are known as _________
a) Opening stock
b) Closing stock
c) Average stock
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Closing stock

Question 13.
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation.
(a) Wasting assets
(b) Nominal assets
(c) Liquid assets
(d) Current assets
Answer:
(a) Wasting assets

Question 14.
Net profit or Net loss ¡s transferred to the ________ account.
a) Trading
b) Profit and loss
c) Capital
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Capital

Question 15.
Gross profit or Grosš loss is transferred to the _______ account.
a) Trading
b) Profit and loss
c) Capital
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Profit and loss

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Definition of trading accounting?
Answer:
According to J. R. Batliboi, “The trading account shows the results of buying and selling of goods. In preparing this account, the general establishment charges are ignored and only the transactions in goods are included.”

Question 2.
What is opening stock?
Answer:
The stock of goods remaining unsold at the end of the previous year is the opening stock of the current year. This item will not be there in a newly started business. It will not appear if it is adjusted with purchases. As opening stock would have been sold during the year, the cost of opening stock is included in the trading account.

Question 3.
What do you mean by direct expenses?
Answer:
All the expenses incurred on the purchase of goods and for bringing the goods to the godown or place of business and to make them to the saleable condition are known as direct expenses.

Question 4.
What is Carriage inwards or Freight inwards?
Answer:
Amount paid for transporting the goods purchased to the godown or business premises is called carriage inwards or carriage on purchases or freight inwards.

Question 5.
What are Wages?
Answer:
Amount paid to workers who are directly engaged in loading, unloading, and handling of goods purchased is known as wages.

Question 6.
What are Dock Charges?
Answer:
These are the charges levied for shipping the cargo while entering or leaving docks. When they are paid for the import of goods, they are treated as direct expenses.

Question 7.
What do you mean by direct expenses?
Answer:
The goods remaining unsold at the end of the accounting period are known as closing stock. They are valued at cost price or net realizable value (market price) whichever is lower.

Question 8.
Definition of Profit and Loss?
Answer:
According to Prof. Carter, “A Profit and Loss Account is an account into which all gains and losses are collected, in order to ascertain the excess of gains over the losses or vice-versa”.

Question 9.
Definition of Balance Sheet?
Answer:
According to J.R. Batliboi, “A Balance Sheet is a statement prepared with a view to measure the exact financial position of a business on a certain fixed date.”

Question 10.
State Methods of drafting a balance sheet.
Answer:
The balance sheet of business concern can be presented in the following two forms.

1. Horizontal form
2. Vertical form

Question 11.
Explain the Tangible fixed assets?
Answer:
Tangible fixed assets are those which have physical existence or which can be seen and felt. Examples: plant and machinery, building and furniture.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by current assets?
Answer:

1. Current assets are those assets that are either in the form of cash or can be easily converted into cash in the normal course of business or within one year.
2. In the words of Howard and Upton, “The current assets are usually defined as those assets which are convertible into cash through the normal course of business within a short time, ordinarily in a year.”
3. Current assets include cash in hand, cash at the bank, short-term investments, bills receivable, debtors, prepaid expenses, accrued income, closing stock, etc.
4. Among these, the closing stock is valued at cost or realizable value whichever is lower, and debtors are shown after deducting a reasonable provision for bad and doubtful debts.

Question 2.
Explain the Intangible fixed assets?
Answer:

1. Intangible fixed assets are those which do not have any physical existence or cannot be seen or touched.
2. Examples: goodwill, trade-marks, copyrights, and patents. Intangible assets are as much valuable as tangible assets because they also help the firm in earning profits.
3. For example, goodwill helps in attracting customers and patents represent the know-how that helps in producing the goods.

Question 3.
What is the Need for the preparation of a trading account?
Answer:
i) Provides information about gross profit or gross loss:

• It shows the gross profit or gross loss of the business for an accounting year.
• This helps the business persons to find out the gross profit ratio by expressing the gross profit as a percentage of sales.
• It helps to compare and analyze the ratios of the previous years.
• Thus, it provides data for comparison, analysis, and planning for a future period.

ii) Provides an opportunity to safeguard against possible losses:

• If the ratio of gross profit has decreased in comparison to the preceding years, effective measures can be taken to safeguard against future losses.
• For example, the sale price of goods may be increased or steps may be taken to analyze and control the direct expenses.

iii) Provides information about direct expenses and direct incomes:

• All the expenses incurred on the purchase of goods are direct expenses. They are recorded in the trading account.
• The trading account also shows sales revenue, which is a direct income. With the help of a trading account, the percentage of such expenses on sales revenue can be calculated and compared with similar ratios of the previous years.
• Thus, it enables the management to have control over the direct expenses.

Question 4.
What is the Need for the preparation of profit and loss accounts?
Answer:
i) Ascertainment of net profit or net loss:

• The profit and loss account discloses the net profit available to the proprietor or net loss to be borne by him.
• Ascertainment of profitability helps in planning for the growth and efficiency of a business enterprise.
• Inter-firm comparison and intra-firm comparison of profit and loss account items help in assessing efficiency in comparison with other enterprises and other departments of the same enterprise respectively.

ii) Comparison of profit – The net profit of the current year can be compared with the profit of the previous years. It helps to know whether the business is conducted efficiently or not.

iii) Control on expenses – Profit and loss account helps in comparing various expenses with the expenses of the previous years. The percentage of individual expenses to net sales can be calculated and compared with the similar ratios of previous years. Such a comparison will be helpful in taking effective steps for controlling unnecessary expenses.

iv) Helpful in the preparation of balance sheet – A balance sheet can be prepared only after ascertaining the net profit or loss through profit and loss account. Net profit or loss is shown in the balance sheet. Thus, it facilitates the preparation of the balance sheet.

Question 5.
What is the Need for the preparation of a balance sheet?
Answer:
a) The main purpose of preparing a balance sheet is to ascertain the true financial position of the business at a particular point in time.

b) It helps in comparing the cost of various assets of the business such as the amount of closing stock, amount due from debtors, amount of fictitious assets, etc.

Moreover, as assets and liabilities of similar nature are grouped and presented in the balance sheet, a comparative study of these assets and liabilities is facilitated. It helps in comparing the various liabilities of the business.

c) It helps in finding out the solvency position of the firm. The firm’s solvency position is favourable if the assets exceed the external liabilities. The firm’s solvency position is not favourable if the external liabilities exceed the assets.

Question 6.
What are the Characteristics of the balance sheet?
Answer:
a) A balance sheet is a part of the final accounts. However, the balance sheet is a statement and not an account. It has no debt or credit sides and as such the words ‘To’ and ‘By’ are not used before the names of the accounts shown therein.

b) A balance sheet is a summary of the personal and real accounts, which have balances. Personal and real accounts having debit balances are shown on the right-hand side known as the assets side, whereas personal and real accounts having credit balances are shown on the left-hand side known as the liabilities side.

c) The totals of the two sides of the balance sheet must be equal. If the totals are not equal, it indicates the existence of the error. It must satisfy the accounting equation, ie., Assets = Capital + Liabilities, following the dual aspect concept.

d) Balance sheet is prepared on a particular date and not for a fixed period. It discloses the financial position of a business on a particular date. It gives the balances only for the date on which it is prepared.

e) It shows the financial position of the business according to the going concern concept.

Question 7.
What is the Classification of assets?
Answer:
a) Fixed assets – Fixed assets are those assets which are acquired or constructed for continued use in the business and last for many years such as land and building, plant and machinery, motor vehicles, furniture, etc. According to Finley and Miller, “Fixed assets are assets of a relatively permanent nature used in the operations of the business and not intended for sale”.

b) Current assets – Current assets are those assets which are either in the form of cash or can be easily converted into cash in the normal course of business or within one year. In the words of Howard and Upton, “The current assets are usually defined as those assets which are convertible into cash through the normal course of business within a short time, ordinarily in a year.”

Current assets include cash in hand, cash at the bank, short-term investments, bills receivable, debtors, prepaid expenses, accrued income, closing stock, etc.

c) Liquid assets – Liquid assets are the assets which are either in the form of cash or which can be immediately converted into cash within a very short period of time, such as cash at the bank, bills receivable, short-term investments, debtors, and accrued incomes.

In other words, if prepaid expenses and closing stock are excluded from current assets, the balance is known as liquid assets.

d) Investments – Amount invested outside the business in shares, debentures, bonds and other securities is called investments.

If it is invested for a period of more than a year they are called long-term investments. If they are invested for a period of less than a year they are short-term investments and shown under current assets.

e) Wasting assets – These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation. Examples: mines and quarries.

Question 8.
Explain the type of liabilities.
Answer:
a) Fixed or long-term liabilities – The liabilities which are to be repaid after one year or more are termed as long-term liabilities. Example: Long-term loans.

b) Current or short-term liabilities – The liabilities which are expected to be paid within the normal operating cycle or one year are termed as current or short-term liabilities. These include bank overdraft, creditors, bills payable, outstanding expenses, etc.

c) Contingent liabilities – These are the liabilities which are not certain at the time of preparation of the balance sheet. These liabilities may or may not occur.

These are the liabilities which will become payable only on the happening of some specific event which itself is not certain, otherwise, these need not be paid. Such liabilities are as follows:

IV. Problems and solutions

Question 1.
From the following particulars prepare the trading account and calculate the gross profit.

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 2.
From the following figures, ascertain the gross profit

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 3.
Front the information given below prepare trading account.

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 4.
From the following particulars calculate gross profit.

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 5.
Calculate the Grose profit from the following figures

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 6.
Prepare profit and loss account for the year ending 31.3.2017

Solution:
Trading Account

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare the Profit and Loss Account of a Trader for the year ending 31st March 2017.

Solution:

Question 8.
Prepare Trading and Profit Si Loss account from the following information:

Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c Cr

Question 9.
From the following information, prepare a Balance Sheet for Mr.A as of 31st March 2016.

Solution:

Question 10.
From the following information prepare a balance sheet

Solution:
Balance Sheet

Question 11.
From the following information prepare a trading account for the year ended 31.12.2016.

Solution:
Trading A/c for the year ended 31st Dec 2016

Question 12.
From the following balance extracted from the books of M/S Lavanya and sons, prepare a trading account for the year ended 31st March 2017.

Solution:
Trading A/c for the year ended 31st Mar 2017

Question 13.
Prepare trading account for the year ended 31st December 2017 from the following.

Closing stock is valued at ₹ 6,00,000
Solution:
Trading A/c for the year ended 31st Dec 2017

Note: Selling expenses, carriage on sales advertisement, and office rent will not appear in the trading account as they are indirect expenses.

Question 14.
Following in then extract of a trial balance as of 31st December 2017 prepare trading account.

Solution:
Trading A/c for the year ended 31st Dec 2017

Note:
Closing stock will not appear

Question 15.
From the following information prepare a trading account for the year ending 31st December 2017.

Solution:
Trading A/c for the year ended 31st Dec 2017

Question 16.
Compute the cost of goods sold from the following.

Solution:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 8,000 + 60,000 + 5,000 – 9,000
= ₹ 64,000

Note: Indirect expenses do not form part of the cost of goods sold.

Question 17.
Find the number of sales from the following.

Solution:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 20,000 + 70,000 + 10,000 – 30,000
= ₹ 70,000
Let the sales be less Gross profit (20% on sales i.e,100) (100 – 20 = 80)
cost of goods sold
Therefore percentage of Gross profit on cost of goods sold is \(\frac { 20 }{ 80 }\) x 100 = 25%
Gross profit = 25% on 70,000 (Ex) \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 }\) x 70,000 = 17,500
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit
= 70,000 + 17,500
= ₹ 87,500

Question 18.
Following the information prepare a profit and loss account for 31st March 2018.

Solution:
Profit and loss account for the year ended 31st March 2018

Question 19.
Prepare the profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 2017.

Solution:
Profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 2017

Note: Carriage inwards will not appear in the profit and loss account as is a direct expense.

V. Long Answers

Question 1.
The following trial balance of Mr.A is extracted on 31.12.2017. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss accounts. The closing stock is valued at ₹ 35,000,

Solution:
Trading and Profit & loss A/c for the year ended 31 Dec 2017

Balance Sheet of Mr. A as on 31.12.2017

Question 2.
From the following balances extracted from the accounts of Shri & Co for the year ending 31.03.2018, prepare Trading and Profit & loss account and also Balance sheet as of that date.

Solution:
Trading Account of Shri & Co for the year ended 31 Mar 2018

Balance Sheet as of 31 Mar 2018

Question 3.
From the trial balance of Thiru. Vetri for the year ending 31.12.2017 prepare trading & profit & loss account for that period and also Balance sheet as on that date.

Closing stock Rs. 1,970; outstanding rent ₹ 60
Solution:
Trading and Profi & loss A/c of Mr. Vetri for the year ended 31 Dec 2017

Balance Sheets as of 31 Dec 2017

Question 4.
The following particulars prepare profits and loss account year ended 31st December 2017.

Solution:
Profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec 2017

Question 5.
Following the balance of Niruban, prepare a balance sheet as of 31st December 2017.

Solution:
Balance Sheet as of 31^st Dec 2017

Question 6.
Prepare trading and profit and loss A/c of about Rahuman for the year ending 31st December 2016 and balance sheet as on that date. The closing stock on 31st December 2016 was valued at ₹ 2,000

Solution:
Balance Sheet as on 31st Dec 2016

Balance sheet as of 31st December 2016

Question 7.
The trial balance of sharn, prepare trading and profit and loss account for the year ending 31st December 2013 was valued at 25,00,000

Solution:
Profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec 2013

Balance sheet as of sharan 31st December 2017

Question 8.
The trial balance of Ms. Kalpana shows the following balance on March 31.2017

Adjustment:
The closing stock was valued at ₹ 60,000

The balance sheet of Ms. Kalpana as of 31st March 2017

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Depreciation Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Depreciation Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Depreciation Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Under straight line method, the amount of depreciation is _______.
a) Increasing every year
b) Decreasing every year
c) Constant for all the years
d) Fluctuating every year
Answer:
c) Constant for all the years

Question 2.
If the total charge of depreciation and maintenance cost are considered, the method that provides a uniform charge is _______.
a) Straight line method
b) Diminishing balance method
c) Annuity method
d) Insurance policy method
Answer:
b) Diminishing balance method

Question 3.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is _______.
a) Uniform in all the years
b) Decreasing every year
c) Increasing every year
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Decreasing every year

Question 4.
Depreciation provided on machinery is debited to _______.
a) Depreciation account
b) Machinery account
c) Trading account
d) Provision for depreciation account
Answer:
a) Depreciation account

Question 5.
Cash received from sale of fixed asset is credited to _______.
a) Profit and loss account
b) Fixed asset account
c) Depreciation account
d) Bank account
Answer:
b) Fixed asset account

Question 6.
Depreciation is provided on _______.
a) Fixed assets
b) Current assets
c) Outstanding charges
d) All assets
Answer:
a) Fixed assets

Question 7.
Depreciation is caused by _______.
a) Lapse of time
b) Usage
c) Obsolescence
d) a, b and c
Answer:
d) a, b and c

Question 8.
Depreciation is the process of _______.
a) Allocation of cost of the asset to the period of its useful life
b) Valuation of assets
c) Maintenance of an asset in a state of efficiency
d) Adding value to the asset
Answer:
a) Allocation of cost of the asset to the period of its useful life

Question 9.
For which of the following assets, the depletion method is adopted for writing off cost of the asset?
a) Plant and machinery
b) Mines and quarries
c) Buildings
d) Trademark
Answer:
b) Mines and quarries

Question 10.
A depreciable asset may suffer obsolescence due to _______.
a) Passage of time
b) Wear and tear
c) Technological changes
d) None of the above.
Answer:
c) Technological changes

Question 11.
Which method shall be efficient, if repairs and maintenance cost of an asset increases as it grows older.
a) Straight line method
b) Reducing balance method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Annuity method
Answer:
b) Reducing balance method

Question 12.
Depreciation is to be calculated from the date when _______.
a) Asset is put to use
b) Purchase order is made
c) Asset is received at business premises
d) Invoice of assets is received
Answer:
a) Asset is put to use

Question 13.
If the rate of depreciation is same, then the amount of depreciation under straight line method vis-a-written down value method will be _______.
a) Equal in all years
b) Equal in the first year but higher in subsequent years
c) Equal in the first year but lower in subsequent years
d) Lower in the first year but equal in subsequent years.
Answer:
b) Equal in the first year but higher in subsequent years

Question 14.
Residual value of an asset means the amount that it can fetch on sale at the _______ of its useful life.
a) Beginning
b) End
c) Middle
d) None
Answer:
b) End

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by depreciation?
Answer:
The process of allocation of the relevant cost of a fixed asset over its useful life is known as depreciation. It is an allocation of cost against the benefits derived from a fixed asset during an accounting period.

Question 2.
List out the various methods of depreciation.
Answer:
The following are the different methods of providing depreciation

• Straight-line method or Fixed installment method or Original cost method
• Written down value method or Diminishing balance method
• Sum of years of digits method
• Machine hour rate method
• Depletion method
• Annuity method.
• Revaluation method
• Sinking fund method
• Insurance policy method

Question 3.
Give the formula to find out the amount and rate of depreciation under straight line method of depreciation.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the annuity method?
Answer:
Under this method, not only the original cost of the asset but also the amount of interest on the investment is taken into account while computing depreciation. The idea of considering interest is that if the investment is made in any other asset instead of the relevant fixed asset, it would have earned a certain rate of interest. To calculate the amount of depreciation, the annuity factor is used. The annuity factor can be found out from the annuity table or by using a formula. The amount of depreciation is computed as follows:
Amount of depreciation = Annuity factor x original cost of the asset.

Question 5.
What is the sinking fund method?
Answer:

1. The sinking fund method is adopted especially when it is desired not merely to write off an asset but also to provide enough funds to replace an asset at the end of its working life.
2. Under this method, the amount charged as depreciation is transferred to the depreciation fund and invested outside the business.
3. This method of depreciation is suitable for assets of higher value.
4. This method is also known as depreciation fund method.
5. This method not only takes into account depreciation but also makes provision for the replacement of the asset.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of providing depreciation?
Answer:

1. To find out the true profit or loss
2. To present the true and fair view of financial position
3. To facilitate the replacement of fixed assets
4. To avail tax benefits
5. To comply with legal requirements

Question 2.
What are the causes for depreciation?
Answer:
1. Wear and Tear:

• The physical deterioration of assets due to normal use is called wear and tear.
• The value of the assets decreases proportionately.

2. Efflux of time:
Some kinds of assets become potentially less useful with the passage of time whether used or not.

3. Obsolescence:

• It is a reduction in the value of assets as a result of the availability of updated alternative assets.
  This happens due to new inventions and innovations.
• Though the original asset is in a usable condition, it is not preferred by the users and it loses its value
• For example, preference of latest computers by the users.

4. Inadequacy for the purpose:

• In some cases, the use of assets may be stopped due to their inadequacy for the purpose.
• These may become inadequate due to expansion in the capacity of a firm.

5. Lack of maintenance:

• Good maintenance naturally increases the life of the asset.
• When there is a lack of maintenance, there is the possibility of more depreciation.

6. Abnormal factors:

• The decline in the use of fixed assets may be caused by abnormal factors like damage due to fire accidents, natural calamities, etc.
• This leads to the state of the asset being discarded.

Question 3.
State the advantages and limitations of the straight-line method of depreciation.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Simple and easy to understand
• Equality of depreciation burden
• Assets can be completely written off
• Suitable for the assets having fixed working life

Limitations:

• Ignores the actual use of the asset
• Ignores the interest factor
• The total charge on the assets will be more when the asset becomes older
• Difficulty in the determination of scrap value

Question 4.
State the advantages and limitations of the written-down value method of depreciation.
Answer:
Advantages
(a) Equal Charge against income

• In the starting period depreciation is high and repaid charges are low.
• When the asset becomes older, the amount of depreciation charged is less but repair charges are high.
• The total burden on profit in respect of depreciation and repairs put together remains almost similar year after year.

(b) Logical Method:

• In the earlier years, when the asset is more productive, high depreciation is charged.
• In the later years when the asset becomes less productive, the depreciation charge is less.

Limitations:
(a) Assets cannot be completely written off – Under this method, the value of an asset even if it becomes obsolete and useless, cannot be reduced to zero and some balance would continue in the asset account.

(b) Ignores the interest factor – This method does not take into account the loss of interest on the amount invested in the asset. The amount would have earned interest, had it been invested outside the business is not considered.

(c) Difficulty in determining the rate of depreciation – Under this method, the rate of providing depreciation cannot be easily determined. The rate is generally kept higher because it takes very long time to write off an asset down to its scrap value.

(d) Ignores the actual use of the asset – Under this method, a fixed rate of depreciation is provided on the written down value of the asset by applying the predetermined rate of depreciation on its original cost. But the actual use of the asset is not considered in the computation of depreciation.

Question 5.
Distinguish between straight-line method and written down value method of providing depreciation.
Answer:

IV. Exercises

Straight-line Method:

Question 1.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹ 40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹ 2,000. The effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under the straight-line method.
Solution:

Question 2.
A company purchased a building for ₹ 50,000. The useful life of the building is 10 years and the residual value is ₹ 2,000. Find out the amount and rate of depreciation under straight-line method.
Solution:

Question 3.
Furniture was purchased for ₹ 60,000 on 1-7-2016. It is expected to last for 5 years. Estimated scrap at the end of five years is ₹ 4,000. Find out the rate of depreciation under the straight-line method.
Solution:

Question 4.
Calculate the rate of depreciation under straight-line method from the following information
Purchased a second hand machinery on 1.1.2018 for ₹ 38,000
On 1.1.2018 spent ₹ 12,000 on its repairs
Expected useful life of machine is 4 years
Estimated residual value ₹ 6,000
Solution:

Note:
Original cost = Purchases price + repairs = 38,000 + 12,000 = ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Calculate the rate of depreciation under straight-line method.
Purchase price of a machine ₹ 80,000
Expenses to be capitalized ₹ 20,000
Estimated residual value ₹ 4,000
Expected useful life 4 years
Solution:

Note:
Original cost = Purchases price + Expense to be Capitalized
= 80,000 + 20,000
= ₹ 1,00,000

Question 6.
Machinery was purchased on 1^st January 2015 for ₹ 4,00,000. ₹ 15,000 was spent on its erection and ₹ 10,000 on its freight charges. Depreciation is charged at 10% per annum on the straight-line method. The books are closed on 31^st March each year. Calculate the amount of depreciation on machinery for the first two years.
Solution:
Calculation on the amount of depreciation on machinery

Amount of depreciation
31-3-2015 = ₹ 10625
31-3-2016 = ₹ 42500
Note:
Original cost = Purchases price + Erection charges + freight charges
= 4,00,000 + 15,000 + 10,000
= ₹ 4,25,000

Question 7.
An asset is purchased on 1.1.2016 for ₹ 25,000. Depreciation is to be provided annually according to the straight-line method. The useful life of the asset is 10 years and its residual value is ₹ 1,000. Accounts are closed on 31st December every year. You are required to find out the rate of depreciation and give journal entries for the first two years.
Solution:

Question 8.
From the following particulars, give journal entries for 2 years and prepare machinery account under straight-line method of providing depreciation:
Machinery was purchased on 1.1.2016
Price of the machine ₹ 36,000
Freight charges ₹ 2,500
Installation charges ₹ 1,500
Life of the machine 5 years
Solution:

Journal entries:

Machinary Account:

Question 9.
A manufacturing company purchased on 1 April 2010, a plant and machinery for ₹ 4,50,000 and spent ₹ 50,000 on its installation. After having used it for three years, it was sold for ₹ 3,85,000. Depreciation is to be provided every year at the rate of 15% per annum on the fixed installment method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year.
Solution:
Calculate profit or loss on sale of machinery.

Profit on sales = sale price – Book value
= 3,85,000 – 2,75,000
= ₹ 1,10,000

Question 10.
On 1st April 2008, Sudha and Company purchased machinery for ₹ 64,000. To install the machinery expenses incurred was ₹ 28,000. Depreciate machinery 10% p.a. under the straight-line method. On 30th June 2010, the worn-out machinery was sold for ₹ 52,000. The books are closed on 31st December every year. Show machinery account.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Question 11.
Ragul purchased machinery on April 1, 2014, for ₹ 2,00,000. On 1st October 2015, a new machine costing ₹ 1,20,000 was purchased. On 30th September 2016, the machinery purchased on April 1, 2014, was sold for ₹ 1,20,000. Books of accounts are closed on 31st March and depreciation is to be provided at 10% p.a. on the straight-line method. Prepare machinery account and depreciation account for the years 2014-15 to 2016-17.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Notes

Question 12.
An asset is purchased for ₹ 50,000. The rate of depreciation is 15% p.a. Calculate the annual depreciation for the first two years under the diminishing balance method.
Solution:

Question 13.
A boiler was purchased on 1^st January 2015 from abroad for ₹ 10,000. Shipping and forwarding charges amounted to 12,000. Import duty ₹ 7,000 and expenses of installation amounted to ₹ 1,000. Calculate depreciation for the first 3 years @10% p.a. on diminishing balance method assuming that the accounts are dosed 31^st December each year.
Solution:
Calculate the amount of Depreciation
Cost of the assets = Purchase price + shipping and forwarding charges + Import duty+Install – action charge.
= 10,000 + 2,000 + 7,000 + 1,000
= ₹ 20,000.

Question 14.
Furniture costing ₹ 5,000 was purchased on 1.1.2016, the installation charges being ₹ 1,000. The furniture is to be depreciated @10% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. Pass journal entries for the first two years.
Solution:

Question 15.
A firm acquired a machine on 1^st April 2015 at a cost of ₹ 50,000. Its life is 6 years. The firm writes off depreciation @ 30% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31st December every year. Show the machinery account and depreciation account for three years starting from 1^st April 2015.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 16.
A firm purchased a machine for ₹ 1,00,000 on 1-7-2015. Depreciation is written off at 20% on the reducing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31st December each year. Show the machinery account upto 31-12-2017.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Question 17.
On 1st October 2014, a truck was purchased for ₹ 8,00,000 by Laxmi Transports Ltd. Depreciation was provided @ 15% p.a. under diminishing balance method. On 31st March 2017, the above truck was sold for ₹ 5,00,000. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Find out the profit or loss made on the sale of the truck.
Solution:
Calculation of Profit (or) Loss on sales of assets.

Question 18.
On 1st January 2015, a second-hand machine was purchased for ₹ 58,000 and ₹ 2,000 was spent on its repairs. On 1st July 2017, it was sold for ₹ 28,600. Prepare the machinery account for the years 2011 to 2013 underwritten down value method by assuming the rate of depreciation as 10% p.a. and the accounts are dosed on 31st December every year.
Solution:

Machinery Account

Question 19.
Raj & Co purchased a machine on 1^st January 2014 for ₹ 90,000. On 1st July 2014, they purchased another machine for ₹ 60,000. On 1st January 2015, they sold the machine purchased on 1st January 2014 for ₹ 40,000. It was decided that the machine be depreciated at 10% per annum on the diminishing balance method. Accounts are closed on 31st December every year. Show the machinery account for the years 2014 and 2015.
Solution:

Machinery Account

11th Accountancy Guide Depreciation Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause ……………….
(a) Owen
(b) Wheeler
(c) Spicer and Pegler
(d) R.N. Carter
Answer:
(d) R.N. Carter

Question 2.
Sinking Fund is also known as ________.
a) Depletion Method
b) Annuity method
c) Depreciation Fund method
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Depreciation Fund method

Question 3.
The normal use of tangible asset results in physical deterioration which is called ……………….
(a) Wear and tear
(b) Abnormal factors
(c) Obsolescence
(d) Efflux of time
Answer:
(a) Wear and tear

Question 4.
In the process of provision method of depreciation, the asset always valued at ________.
a) Market Price
b) Cost Price
c) Scrap Value
d) None
Answer:
b) Cost Price

Question 5.
………………. is also known as residual value.
(a) Book value
(b) Scrap value
(c) Amortization
(d) Wear and tear
Answer:
(b) Scrap value

Question 6.
In the accounting records, the fixed assets are normally recorded ________.
a) At Cost
b) At Book Value
c) At Scrap Value
d) At replacement value
Answer:
a) At Cost

Question 7.
A fixed asset was bought for ₹ 5,000. Its accumulated depreciation is ₹ 1,000 and the rate of depreciation is 10%. What are the depreciation expenses for the current accounting period using the reducing balance method?
a) ₹ 600
b) ₹ 2000
c) ₹ 500
d) ₹ 400
Answer:
c) ₹ 500

Question 8.
Under which depreciation method the amount of depreciation expenses remains same throughout the useful life of a fixed asset ________.
a) Straight Line Method
b) Reducing Balance Method
c) Number of Units produced a method
d) Machine hour method
Answer:
a) Straight Line Method

Question 9.
The book value of machinery on 01.04.2016 was ₹ 70, 000. Depreciation is charged at 10% p.a under the Written Down value method on 31st March every year. The machine was sold for ₹ 50, 000 on 01.8.2017; calculate the Profit/Loss on the sale of machinery.
a) Profit ₹ 5,755
b) Profit ₹ 5,000
c) Profit ₹ 10,375
d) Loss ₹ 10,325
Answer:
c) Profit ₹ 10,375

Question 10.
The objectives of providing depreciation on an asset are ________.
a) To ascertain the true profit/loss of the firm
b) To provide funds for the replacement of the fixed assets
c) To show the true financial position of the firm
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 11.
The cost of an asset is ₹ 3, 00,000. The rate of depreciation is 10% on the WDV method. Value of the asset at the end of the second year will be ________.
a) ₹ 2, 70,000
b) ₹ 30, 000
c) ₹ 2, 50,000
d) ₹ 2, 43,000
Answer:
d) ₹ 2, 43,000

Question 12.
The depletion method of charging depreciation is adopted for which of the following assets?
a) Plant and Machinery
b) Buildings
c) Wasting assets like mines and quarries
d) Trademarks
Answer:
c) Wasting assets like mines and quarries

Question 13.
A trader followed the WDV method of depreciation; the book value of assets after 4 years is 24% of the original cost. Find rate of depreciation ________.
a) 24%
b) 26%
c) 32%
d) 30%
Answer:
d) 30%

Question 14.
The older name of Straight line method is ________.
a) Annuity method
b) Revaluation method
c) Fixed Installment method
d) None
Answer:
c) Fixed Installment method

Question 15.
Exhaustion is a ________ for depreciation.
a) Cause
b) Non-Cause
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Answer:
a) Cause

Question 16.
Under which method of depreciation, interest is also taken into consideration?
a) Revaluation method
b) Depletion method
c) Annuity method
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Annuity method

Question 17.
For oil wells ________ method of depreciation is to be followed.
a) Exhaustion
b) Wear & Tear
c) Depletion
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Exhaustion

Question 18.
Depreciation arises due to the following reason ________.
a) Wear & Tear
b) Fall in the market value
c) Effluxion of time
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 19.
When the value of fixed assets increases it is known as ________.
a) Depreciation
b) Appreciation
c) Depletion
d) None
Answer:
b) Appreciation

Question 20.
Depreciation on fixed assets is ________ expenditure.
a) Revenue Expenditure
b) Capital Expenditure
c) Deferred Revenue expenditure
d) None
Answer:
b) Capital Expenditure

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State R.N. Carter’s definition of depreciation.
Answer:
According to R.N. Carter, “Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause”.

Question 2.
What is ‘residual value’?
Answer:

1. The amount which is expected to be realized at the end of the estimated useful life of an asset is known as the scrap value of the asset. It is also known as residual value.
2. In determining the scrap value, costs to be incurred for the removal and sale of the asset should be deducted from the estimated gross realizable value.

Question 3.
What is obsolescence?
Answer:
It is a reduction in the value of assets as a result of the availability of updated alternative assets. This happens due to new inventions and innovations.

Question 4.
Write notes on ‘Effluxion of time’.
Answer:
Certain assets whether used or not become potentially less useful with the passage of time.

Question 5.
What is the ‘Straight Line Method’ of depreciation?
Answer:

1. Under this method, a fixed percentage of the original cost of the asset is charged every year by way of depreciation. Hence it is called the original cost method.
2. As the amount of depreciation remains equal in all years over the useful life of an asset it is also called as a fixed installment method.
3. When the amount of depreciation charged over its life is plotted on a graph and the points are joined together, the graph will show a horizontal straight line. Hence, it is called the straight-line method.

Question 6.
What is the written-down value method?
Answer:
Under this method, depreciation is charged at a fixed percentage on the written down value of the asset every year. Hence, it is called the written-down value method.

Question 7.
What is the ‘Revaluation method’ of depreciation?
Answer:

1. Under this method, the amount of annual depreciation is calculated by comparing the value of the assets at the end of the year and their value at the beginning of the year.
2. The value of the asset at the end of the year is determined with the consultation of relevant experts.
3. The excess of opening value over the closing value of the asset is the amount of depreciation for that year.
4. This method is used for livestock, loose tools, etc.

Question 8.
What is the ‘Insurance policy method’ of depreciation?
Answer:

1. Under this method, an insurance policy is taken for an amount equal to the cost of replacement of the asset.
2. The amount of depreciation is paid by way of insurance premium every year to the insurance company.
3. On maturity of the policy, the policy amount is received from the insurance company and it is used for the purchase of a new asset.

Question 9.
What are the factors determining the amount of depreciation?
Answer:
i) Actual cost of the asset:

• Actual cost means the amount incurred in acquiring or constructing the asset.
• It is the acquisition or construction cost or historical cost. It includes all the expenses incurred on the asset to bring the asset to present condition and location, that is, all incidental expenses incurred till it is put into use.
• Purchase price of the asset, freight, loading charges, unloading charges, erection cost, setting up cost, and expenses of trial run are included in the cost of the asset.
• If the asset is a second-hand one, the initial repair to make the asset useable is also to be taken as part of the actual cost of the asset.

ii) Estimated useful life of the asset:

• The period for which an asset can be used in the enterprise is known as the estimated useful life of an asset.
• It can be calculated in terms of the period for which the asset is expected to be used by the entity or units of output to be obtained by the use of the asset, etc.
• In the case of intellectual properties like patents and copyrights, their legal life is taken as their estimated useful life.
• The Indian Companies Act, 2013 has prescribed useful lives of fixed assets for the purpose of computation of depreciation.
• For example, the useful lives prescribed in Part C of Section 123 for general plant and machinery and general furniture and fittings are 15 years and 10 years respectively.

iii) Scrap value of an asset:

• The amount which is expected to be realized at the end of the estimated useful life of an asset is known as the scrap value of the asset. It is also known as residual value.
• In determining the scrap value, costs to be incurred for the removal and sale of the asset should be deducted from the estimated gross realizable value.

iv) Other factors: Besides the above-mentioned factors, legal provisions, technological factors, etc., also determine the amount of depreciation.

Question 10.
Write a note on the sum of years of digits method.
Answer:
This method is similar to the diminishing balance method. The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing year after year in proportion to the unexpired life of the asset. This method is suitable for those assets having more profitability of obsolescence and increased repair charges as the assets grow older. Under this method, the amount of depreciation per year is calculated by multiplying the cost of the asset and the number of remaining years of life and dividing it by the sum of the digits of all years of the life of the asset.

Question 11.
Find the amount of depreciation
Cost Price – ₹ 28,000 ; Estimated Life – 6 years; Scrap Value ₹ 4,000
Solution:

Question 12.
On 1st January 2016, Anand Ltd., purchased a machine costing Rs.6, 000. It is estimated that its working life is four years and it will fetch no scrap value. The company decided to write off depreciation according to the fixed installment method. Prepare the machinery account.
Solution:

Question 13.
A company purchased a plant for ₹ 2,00,000. The useful life of the asset is 10 years and the scrap value is ₹ 40, 000. Find the rate of depreciation under the straight-line method.
Solution:

III. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Find out the rate of depreciation under the straight-line method.
Cost of asset – ₹ 10,000
Scrap value – ₹ 1,000
Estimated Life 10 years
Solution:

Question 2.
Find out the rate of depreciation under straight-line method.
Cost of Plants – ₹ 2,30,000
Installation charges – ₹ 20,000
Expected Life in year 10 years
Scrap value – ₹ 50,000
Solution:

Question 3.
A machine was purchased For ₹ 2,40,000, on 1.1.2010. This is expected to last for five years. Estimated scrap at the end of a given year in ₹ 40,000. Find out the rate of depreciation under straight-line method.
Solution:

Question 4.
A company has purchased machinery for ₹ 1,70,000 and spent ₹ 20,000 for its installation. The estimated life of the machinery is 5 years with a residual value of ₹ 15,000. Find out the rate of depreciation under straight-line method.
Solution:

Question 5.
Monisha Garments purchased machinery on 1.4.2015 for ₹ 2,40,000. After three years the plane was sold for ₹ 1,80,000 The firm charges depreciation at the rate of 10% per annum on the straight line method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Prepare machinery account and depreciation A/C.
Notes:
(i) Amount of Depreciation = ₹ 2,40,000
(ii) Book value after three year = 2,40,000 – (24000 x 3) = 2,40,000 – 72,000 = ₹ 1,68,000
(iii) Selling price = ₹ 1,80,000
Profit on sale of machinery = ₹ 72,000
Solution:
Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 6.
Pugazh & CO purchased machinery for ₹ 4,70,000. On 1,4.2001 they spent₹ 30,000 on the repairs and installed the machinery. Depreciation is written after at 10% p.a on the straight Sine method on 31.3.2004, the machinery was found unsuitable and sold for ₹ 3,50,000. Prepare machinery A/C assuming that the account is closed on 31st March every year.

Solution:
Machinery Account

Question 7.
A Company purchased machinery on 1,4,2001 for ₹ 2,40,000 on 1 October 2002. It purchased another machinery for ₹ 60,000. On 1st October 2003, it sold off the first machine purchased on 1.4.20C1 for ₹ 1,68,000 on the same date, it purchased another machinery for ₹ 1,50,000 Account are closed every year on 31st march depredation is written of at 10% p.a on original cost. Prepare machinery account and depreciation account for three years.
Solution:
I. Machinery purchased on 1.4.2001 for ₹ 2,40,000
1.4.2001 – 31.3.2002 = 24,000 – I^st year
1.4.2002- 31.3.2003 = 24,000 – II^nd year
1.4.2003- 1.10.2003 = 12,000 – III^rd year
Book value = 60,000
(-) Book value = 24,000 – 60,000 = ₹ 1, 80, 000
(-) Sale of machinery = ₹ 1, 68, 000
Loss on sale of machinery ₹ 12, 000

II. Machinery purchased on 1.10.2002 for Rs.60,000
1.10.2002 – 31.3.2003 = 3,000 – II^nd year
1.4.2003 – 31.3.2004 = 6,000 – III^nd year

III. Machinery purchased on 1.10.2003 for Rs.1,50,000
1.10.2003 – 31.3.2004 = 7,500 – III^rd year

Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 8.
A plant is purchased for ₹ 90,000, It is depreciated as 10% p.a on reducing balance for the three years. When it becomes absolute due to a new method of production and is scrapped. The scrap produces ₹ 66,000 at the end of the third year. Prepare plant account for three years.
Solution:
Calculation of profit or loss on sales of the plant.

Plant Account

Question 9.
A firm purchased a machine for ₹ 1,00,000 on 1-7-2015 depreciation is written oft at 10% on reducing balance method. The firm closes its book on 31st December each year. Show the machinery account up to 31.12.2017
Solution:
Calculation of profit or loss on sales of machinery.

Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 10.
Dhanuja Shree started business on 1st April 2001 and she purchased machinery for ₹ 1,40,000. She purchased another machinery on 1st November 2002 costing ₹ 30,000. She ( adopted a policy of charging 15% p.a depreciation under the Diminishing balance method. The account is closed every year on 31^st March. Prepare machinery account and depreciation account for the first three years.
Solution:
Calculation of depreciation @ 15 % p.a.

Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 11.
On 1^st January 2014, Hyagreeva Ltd. purchased a machine costing ₹ 12,000. It is estimated that its working life is four years and it will fetch no scrap value. The company decided to write off depreciation according to the fixed installment method. Prepare the machinery account.
Solution:

Machinery Account

Question 12.
Bharathi Ltd. purchased certain machinery at a cost of ₹ 40,000 on 1st January 2014. They decided to write off depreciation @ 20% p.a, according to the straight-line method. Prepare Machinery Account and Depreciation Account for the year 2014 to 2017.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Depreciation Account

Question 13.
Shreyan & Co. purchased a computer for ₹ 47,000 on 1st October 2012 and installed it by spending ₹ 3,000. Every year depreciation is to be charged at 10% on its cost. The computer is sold on 1st July 2015 at a price of ₹ 35,000. Assuming that the accounts are dosed every year on December 31, prepare the computer account.
Solution:
Computer Account

Question 14.
A car was purchased on January 1, 2015, for Rs.80,000 depreciated at 10% on diminishing balance method. It was sold on 31st December 2017 for Rs.50,000. Prepare Car account.
Solution:
Car Account

Question 15.
In a business, there was a machine for ₹ 90,000 on 1st January 2014. On 30.06.2014, another piece of machinery was purchased for ₹ 10,000. On 31.12.2014 part of the machine was sold for 3,300, which had a cost price of ₹ 4,000 on 01.01.2014. Prepare machinery account after providing depreciation at 10% p.a on a fixed installment basis.
Solution:
Machinery Account

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Introduction to Internet and Email Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to Internet and Email

11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Internet and Email Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
What is the expansion of WLAN?
a) Wireless Local Area Network
b) Wired local Area Network
c) Wireless Local Area Netware
d) Wireless Area Netbande
Answer:
a) Wireless Local Area Network

Question 2.
Range of Campus Network is
a) 10 KM
b) 5 KM
c) 25 KM
d) 20 KM
Answer:
b) 5 KM

Question 3.
Each computer on net is called
a) host
b) server
c) workstation
d) node
Answer:
a) host

Question 4.
The internet is governed by
a) ICANM
b) ICANN
c) ICMA
d) ICNNA
Answer:
b) ICANN

Question 5.
Expansion of W3C
a) World Wide Web Consortium
b) Wide World Web Consortium
c) World Web Wide Consortium
d) World Wide Web Consortium
Answer:
a) World Wide Web Consortium

Question 6.
W3C was established in 1994 by
a) Tim Berners-Lee
b) Tim Burnard Lee
c) Kim Berners
d) Kim Bernard Lee
Answer:
a) Tim Berners-Lee

Question 7.
Hotspot uses which type of network services?
a) LAN
b) PAN
c) WLAN
d) CAN
Answer:
c) WLAN

Question 8.
USB WiFi adapters are often called as
a) Data Card
b) Pen Drive
c) Dongles
d) Memory Card
Answer:
c) Dongles

Question 9.
Looking for information on the internet is called
a) Surfing
b) Searching
c) Finding
d) glancing
Answer:
a) Surfing

Question 10.
Safari web browser was developed by
a) Google
b) Apple
c) Microsoft
d) Linux Corpn.
Answer:
b) Apple

Question 11.
How many types of websites are available?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
b) 2

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
List any four types of available networks.
Answer:
Depending upon geographical area covered by a network, it is classified as:

1. Local Area Network (LAN)
2. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
3. Wide Area Network (WAN)
4. Personal Area Network (PAN)
5. Campus Area Network (CAN)
6. Wireless Local Area Network (W-LAN)

Question 2.
Name the two important protocols for internet.
Answer:
The internet uses TCP / IP – Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol to transmit data via various types of media.

Question 3.
What is a network?
Answer:
A network is a collection of interconnected devices such as computers, printers, etc.

Question 4.
What is the role of ICANN?
Answer:
Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) administers the domain name registration. It helps to avoid a name which is already registered.

Question 5.
What is a search engine?
Answer:
A search engine is a software system that is designed to search for information on the World Wide Web.
Examples of popular search engines are Yahoo, Lycos, Altavista, Hotbot, Google and Askjeeves.

Question 6.
What is a browser?
Answer:

1. A browser is used to access websites and web pages.
2. Internet Explorer, Chrome, Firefox and Safari are the most popular web browsers.
3. A browser is used to access the Internet whereas in order to open a search engine we need a browser.

Question 7.
What are the components of url addressing ?
Answer:
A URL is an address that shows where a particular page can be found on the World Wide Web. URL is an abbreviation for Uniform Resource Locator (URL).
The components of url addressing

Question 8.
What is a website?
Answer:
Website:
A website is a collection of webpages. For example if there is a company that owns sricompany.com then this website will have several webpages like Home, About Us, Contact Us, Testimonials, Products, Services, FAQ’s, and others. The first page of the website is called a Home Page. All of these pages together make up a Website.

Question 9.
What is CC and BCC in an email?
Answer:
The CC (Carbon Copy) field allows us to specify recipients who are not direct addressees (listed in the “To” field). This field is optional.

The BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) field is similar to CC, except the recipients are secret. Each BCC recipient will receive the e-mail, but will not see who else received a copy. The addressees (anyone listed in the “To” field) remain visible to all recipients. This field is optional.

Question 10.
What is a Static Web Page?
Answer:
Web pages are called Static websites as they remain the same whenever it is visited. Examples of static websites are website owned by small business organizations, school websites etc.

Static Web Page:

• The content and layout of a web page is fixed.
• Static web pages never use databases.
• Static web pages directly run on the browser and do not require any server side application program.
• Static web pages are easy to develop.

Question 11.
What is a Dynamic web page?
Answer:
Websites that displays marks of Public Examinations and Entrance Examinations changes when different register numbers are given. Such websites are called as Dynamic Websites. Eg. Websites of Government and Entrance Exams.

Dynamic Web Page

• The content and layout may change during run time.
• Databases are used to generate dynamic content through queries.
• Dynamic web page runs on the server side application programs and displays the results.
• Dynamic web page development requires programming skills.

Question 12.
What are the benefits of e-governance?
Answer:
Benefits of E-governance:

• Reduced corruption.
• High transparency.
• Increased convenience.
• Reduction in overall cost.
• Expanded reach of government.

Question 13.
What is Phishing?
Answer:
Phishing:
Phishing scams are fraudulent attempts by cyber criminals to obtain private information. Phishing scams often appear in the guise of email messages designed to appear as though they are from legitimate sources.

For example, the message would try to lure us into giving our personal information by pretending that our bank or email service provider is updating its website and that we must click on the link in the email to verify our account information and password details.

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is TCP/IP?
Answer:

1. The internet uses TCP/IP(Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol) to transmit data via various types of media.
2. TCP/IP is not a single networking protocol – it is a suite of protocols named after the two most important protocols or layers within it – TCP and IP.
3. As with any form of communication, two things are needed: a message to transmit and the means to reliably transmit the message.
4. The internet protocol (IP) addressing system is used to keep track of the millions of users.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hotspot internet service.
Answer:
Hotspots:

1. Hotspots are sites that offer Internet access over a wireless local area network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider.
2. Hotspots utilize Wi-Fi technology, which allows electronic devices to connect to the Internet or exchange data wirelessly through radio waves.
3. Hotspots can be phone-based or free-standing, commercial or free to the public.

Question 4.
Differentiate Data Card and Dongles.
Answer:
Dongle:
Refers to any removable component used for enabling extra security. USB Dongles can be divided into

• WiFi Dongle
• Blue Tooth Dongle
• Memory Dongle

Data Card:
It is a removable electronic card which is used for storing for data. Types of data card are:

• Expansion Card
• Memory Card or Flash Card
• Identification Card

Question 5.
Write a note on two access methods of connecting to internet.
Answer:
There are two access methods Direct and Indirect and these can be either fixed or mobile.

Indirect Access:

• This is most common method used in home and office networks.
• The device e.g. computer connects to a network using Ethernet or WiFi and the network connects to the Internet using Asymmetric digital subscriber line ADSL (cable or fibre).

Direct Access:

• This is most common method used when travelling.
• The device e.g. smart phone connects directly to the Internet using 3G/4G mobile networks or public Wi-Fi.

Question 6.
Differentiate browser and a search engine with suitable examples.
Answer:

• A browser is used to access websites and web pages whereas a search engine is used to search for particular information.
• Internet Explorer, Chrome, Firefox and Safari are the most popular web browsers while Google and Yahoo are the most popular search engines.
• A browser is used to access the Internet whereas in order to open a search engine we need a browser.

Question 7.
Differentiate Website and Webpage.
Answer:

Webpage	Website
Consists of a single document displayed by a browser.	A collection of multiple documents displayable by a browser.
Shares a unique domain name.	Has its own unique domain name.
Makes up a website.	Contains one or more webpages.

Question 8.
What is the difference between Static and dynamic web page?
Answer:

Static Web Page	Dynamic Web Page
The content and layout of a web page is fixed.	The content and layout may change during run time.
Static Web pages never use databases.	Databases is used to generate dynamic content through queries.
Static web pages directly run on the browser and do not require any server side application program.	Dynamic web pages runs on the server side application programs and displays the results.
Static Web pages are easy to develop.	Dynamic web page development requires programming skills.

Question 9.
Write a note on W3C.
Answer:
1. W3C stands for “World Wide Web Consortium.” The W3C is an international community that includes a full-time staff, industry experts, and several member organizations. These groups work together to develop standards for the World Wide Web.

2. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international organization committed to improving the web. It is made up of several hundred member organizations from a variety of related IT industries.

3. W3C sets standards for the World Wide Web (WWW) to facilitate better communication ability and cooperation among all web stakeholders.

4.It was established in 1994 by the creator of the WWW, Tim Berners-Lee.

Question 10.
What are Advantages of email?
Answer:
Advantages of email:

1. Free delivery – Sending an e-mail is virtually free, outside the cost of Internet service. There is no need to buy a postage stamp to send a letter.
2. Global delivery – E-mail can be sent to nearly anywhere around the world, to any country.
3. Instant delivery – An e-mail can be instantly sent and received by the recipient over the Internet.
4. File attachment – An e-mail can include one or more file attachments, allowing a person to send documents, pictures, or other files with an e-mail.
5. Long-term storage – E-mails are stored electronically, which allows for Storage and archival over long periods of time.
6. Environmental friendly – Sending an e-mail does not require paper (Paperless), cardboard, or packing tape, conserving paper resources.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Compare the different geographical types of Network.
Answer:
Depending upon geographical area covered by a network, it is classified as:

• Local Area Network (LAN)
• Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
• Wide Area Network (WAN)
• Personal Area Network (PAN)
• Campus Area Network (CAN)
• Wireless Local Area Network (W-LAN)

LAN – LOCAL AREA NETWORK:
Range : Upto 10 Km
Location : Refers to same office; same building, same company and in same schools
Speed : Upto 10-100 Mbps
Advantages : Low Cost, Resource Sharing, Security.
Disadvantages : Area Covered-Limited. When number of nodes increases, performance Decreases.

MAN – Metropolitan Area Network:
Range : 10 to 15 Miles
Location : MAN is a network designed to extend
over an entire city.
Speed : Upto 5-10 Mbps
Advantages : Wider than LAN
Disadvantages : Data rate is slow compared to LAN. Cost higher than LAN.

WAN – Wide Area Network:
Range : Above 1000 Kms
Location: It span entire countries and continents
Speed : Upto 256 Kbps to 2 Mbps
Advantages : Large geographical Area
Disadvantages : Complicated and Complex. High Cost. Requires high Performance devices. Low security. Cost higher than LAN.

PAN – Personal Area Network:
Range : Upto 100 meters
Location : Used for shorter distance, controlled
by a single person within a single building.
Speed : upto 250 Kbps
Advantages : Efficient, Cost effective and convenient. Controlled by a single person Hotspot may connect upto 8 devices.
Disadvantages : Shorter distance upto 10 meters only. Data rate is low compared to other network.

CAN – Campus Area Network:
Range : Upto 5 Kms
Location : Larger than LAN, but smaller than MAN, University, School or Small business, Enterprise.
Speed : 40 KB/s TO 1 MB/s
Advantages : Cost effective, Wired or Wireless Network, High Bandwidth Multi-departmental Network access.
Disadvantages : Difficult to manage.

WLAN – Wireless Local Area Network:
Range : Upto 50 Kms
Location : Ranges from a single room to an entire campus. Uses Wifi or Bluetooth, Radio waves.
Speed : 1 Mbps to 54 Mbps
Advantages : Portable Installation is quick and easy.
Disadvantages : Low Bandwidth due to interference

Question 2.
Explain any five types of internet services. Common types of Internet service:
Answer:
Wireless:
Radio frequency bands are used in place of telephone or cable networks. One of the greatest advantages of wireless Internet connections is the “always-on” connection that can be accessed from any location that falls within network coverage. Wireless connections are made possible through the use of a modem, which picks up Internet signals and sends them to other devices.

Mobile:
Many cell phone and smartphone providers offer voice plans with Internet access. Mobile Internet connections provide good speeds and allow you to access the Internet.

Hotspots:
Hotspots are sites that offer Internet access over a wireless local area network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider, Hotspots utilize Wi-Fi technology, which allows electronic devices to connect to the Internet or exchange data wirelessly through radio waves. Hotspots can be phone-based or free-standing, commercial or free to the public.

Broadband:
This high-speed Internet connection is provided through either cable or telephone companies. One of the fastest options available, broadband Internet uses multiple data channels to send large quantities of information. The term broadband is shorthand for broad bandwidth.

Broadband Internet connections such as DSL and cable are considered high-bandwidth connections. Although many DSL connections can be considered broadband, not all broadband connections are DSL.

DSL:
DSL, which stands for Digital Subscriber Line, uses existing 2-wire copper telephone line connected to one’s home so service is delivered at the same time as landline telephone service. Customers can still place calls while surfing the Internet.

Question 3.
Explain any five internet applications with suitable examples.
Answer:
Internet Applications
1. Internet telephony:
Internet telephony (e.g. Skype) is another common communications service made possible by the creation of the Internet. VoIP stands for Voice-over-Internet Protocol, referring to the protocol that underlies all Internet communication.

2. Job search:
Nowadays, many people search for their jobs online as it is quicker and there is a larger variety of job vacancies present. People can publish resume online for prospective job. Some of the websites providing this service are naukri.com, monster.com, summerjob. com, recuritmentindia.com etc.

3. Online Shopping:
The internet has also facilitated the introduction of a new market concept consisting of virtual shops. They provide information about products or services for sale through www servers. Using the internet services customers can submit specific product queries and request specific sales quotes.

For example amazon.com is a www based bookshop on the internet where information on all types of international books can be found and books can be ordered online.

4. Stock market updates:
Selling or buying shares sitting on computer through internet. Several websites like ndtvprofit.com, moneypore.com, provide information regarding investment.

5. Travel:
One can use internet to gather information about various tourist place. It can be used for booking holiday tours, hotels, train, bus, flights and cabs. Some of the websites providing this service are goibibo. com, makemytrip.com, olacabs.com.

6. Research:
Research papers are present online which helps in the researcher doing a literature review.

Question 4.
Write a note on any five Internet browsers other than that given in the book.
Answer:
Internet browsers:

Opera is a web browser for Windows, macOS, and Linux operating systems developed by Norwegian company Opera Software AS. Features of the Opera web browser include private browsing, tabbed browsing, download manager, mouse gestures and browser extensions.

UC Browser is a web browser developed by the Chinese mobile Internet company UCWeb, which is in turn owned by the Alibaba Group. UC Browser is available on several smartphone and feature phone platforms. It has the feature of “fast download” which increases the downloading speed using multiple thread connection download technique.

Brave is a free and open-source pay-to- surf web browser developed by Brave Software Inc. based on the Chromium web browser and Its Blink engine. The browser blocks ads and website trackers. Currently, the company is developing a feature that allows users to opt in to receiving ads sold by Brave Software in place of the blocked ads.

Green Browser is a freeware web browser based on Internet Explorer’s core. GreenBrowser is based upon the Trident rendering engine used in Internet Explorer. Green Browser is a full-featured browser, highly customizable but compact in size and low in memory requirements.

Torch is a Chromium-based web browser and Internet suite developed by Torch Media. The browser handles common Internet- related tasks such as displaying websites, sharing websites via social networks, downloading torrents, accelerating. downloads and grabbing online media, all directly from the browser. Torch Browser is commercial freeware.

Question 5.
Classify and explain any five e-commerce parties with suitable examples.
Answer:
Classifying e-commerce according to the parties involved:
1. Business to consumer (B2C):
Transactions happen between businesses and consumers. In B2C ecommerce, businesses are the ones selling products or services to end-users (i.e. consumers).

2. Business to business (B2B):
As its name states, B2B e-commerce pertains to transactions conducted between two businesses. Any company whose customers are other businesses operate on a B2B model.

3. Consumer to business (C2B):
Consumer to business e-commerce happens when a consumer sells or contributes monetary value to a business. Many crowd sourcing campaigns fall under C2B e-commerce.

4. Consumer to consumer (C2C):
As we might have guessed, C2C e-commerce happens when something is bought and sold between two consumers. C2C commonly takes place on online marketplaces such as eBay, in which one individual sells a product or service to another.

5. Government to business (G2B):
G2C transactions take place when a company pays for government goods, services, or fees online. Examples could be a business paying for taxes using the Internet.

6. Business to government (B2G):
When a government entity uses the Internet to purchases goods or services from a business, the transaction may fall under B2G e-commerce. Let’s say a city or town hires a web design firm to update its website. This type of deal may be considered a form of B2G.

7. Consumer to government (C2G):
People paying for traffic tickets or paying for their car registration renewals online may fall under this category.

Question 6.
Explain the different types of interactions in e-governance.
Answer:
Types of Interactions in e-Governance
1. G2G (Government to Government):
When the exchange of information and services is within the periphery of the government, is termed as G2G interaction. This can be both horizontal, i.e. among various government entities and vertical, i.e. between national, state and local government entities and within different levels of the entity.

2. G2C (Government to Citizen):
The interaction amidst the government and general public is G2C interaction. Here an interface is set up between government and citizens, which enables citizens to get access to wide variety of public services. The citizens has the freedom to share their views and grievances on government policies anytime, anywhere.

3. G2B (Government to Business):
In this case, the e-governance helps the business class to interact with the government seamlessly. It aims at eliminating red-tapism, saving time, cost and establish transparency in the business environment, while interacting with government.

4. G2E (Government to Employees):
The government of any country is the biggest employer and so it also deals with employees on a regular basis, as other employers do. ICT helps in making the interaction between government and employees fast and efficient, along with raising their level of satisfaction by providing perquisites and add-on benefits.

11th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Internet and Email Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
A(n) …………… is a collection of interconnected devices.
a) network
b) wifi
c) internet
d) modem
Answer:
a) network

Question 2.
Networks decrease ……….
a) cost
b) time
c) effort
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 3.
…………… help in resource optimization.
a) network
b) wifi
c) internet
d) modem
Answer:
a) network

Question 4.
……………. helps to share resources.
a) network
b) wifi
c) internet
d) modem
Answer:
a) network

Question 5.
Depending upon geographical area covered by a network, it is classified as ……………..
types.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
d) 6

Question 6.
What is the expansion of LAN?
a) Local Area Network
b) Linear Access Network
c) Less Access Network
d) Local Access Network
Answer:
a) Local Area Network

Question 7.
What is the expansion of MAN?
a) Multiple Access Network
b) Manual Access Network
c) Metropolitan Area Network
d) Multi-purpose Access Network
Answer:
c) Metropolitan Area Network

Question 8.
What is the expansion of WAN?
a) Work Area Network
b) Wide Area Network
c) Wired Area Network
d) Wireless Access Network
Answer:
b) Wide Area Network

Question 9.
What is the expansion of PAN?
a) Public Area Network
b) Popular Access Network
c) Private Area Network
d) Personal Area Network
Answer:
d) Personal Area Network

Question 10.
What is the expansion of CAN?
a) Computer Aided Network
b) Campus Area Network
c) Central Access Network
d) Circular Access Network.
Answer:
b) Campus Area Network

Question 11.
The range of LAN is ………….
a) Upto 10 Km
b) Upto 1-10 Miles
c) Upto 1-100 Km
d) Upto 10-100 Meters
Answer:
a) Upto 10 Km

Question 12.
The range of MAN is ………….
a) Upto 10-100 Meters
b) 10 to 15 Miles
c) Upto 1-100 Miles
d) Upto 10-100 Miles.
Answer:
b) 10 to 15 Miles

Question 13.
The range of PAN is ………………
a) Upto 10-1000 Meters
b) Upto 1-10 Meters
c) Upto 100 Miles
d) Upto 100 Meters
Answer:
d) Upto 100 Meters

Question 14.
The range of CAN is …………….
a) Upto 5 Km
b) Upto 1-10 Km
c) Upto 1-100 Miles
d) Upto 10-100 Km
Answer:
a) Upto 5 Km

Question 15.
The range of WLAN is …………..
a) Upto 5 Km
b) Upto 50 Meters
c) Upto 100 Meters
d) Upto 1-10 Km
Answer:
b) Upto 50 Meters

Question 16.
The speed of LAN is ……………..
a) Upto 2 Kbps
b) Upto 1-10 Kbps
c) Upto 1-10 Mbps
d) Upto 10-100 Mbps
Answer:
d) Upto 10-100 Mbps

Question 17.
The speed of MAN is ……………….
a) Upto 5-10 Mbps
b) 10 to 15 Mbps
c) Upto 1-100 Mbps
d) Upto 10-100 Kbps
Answer:
a) Upto 5-10 Mbps

Question 18.
The speed of WAN is …………….
a) Upto 10-100 Mbps
b) Upto 10 to 15 Mbps
c) Upto 1-100 Kbps
d) Upto 256 Kbps-2 Mbps
Answer:
d) Upto 256 Kbps-2 Mbps

Question 19.
The speed of PAN is ……………
a) Upto 10-100 Mbps
b) Upto 1-10 Mbps
c) Upto 250 Kbps
d) Upto 100 Mbps
Answer:
c) Upto 250 Kbps

Question 20.
The speed of CAN is ……………..
a) Upto 5 Kbps
b) Upto 40Kbps -1 Mbps
c) Upto 1-100 Mbps
d) Upto 10-100 Gbps
Answer:
b) Upto 40Kbps -1 Mbps

Question 21.
The speed of WLAN is ……………
a) Upto 10-100 Mbps
b) Upto 1 Mbps -54 Mbps
c) 256Kbps -2 Mbps
d) Upto 10-100 Gbps
Answer:
b) Upto 1 Mbps -54 Mbps

Question 22.
Several networks, small and big all over the world, are connected together to form a Global network called the ……………
a) internet
b) extranet
c) intranet
d) none of these
Answer:
a) internet

Question 23.
The internet uses …………… protocol.
a) TCP
b) IP
c) HTTP
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 24.
TCP stands for …………..
a) Transmission Control Protocol
b) Transfer Control Protocol
c) Transmission Control Procedure
d) Transmission Channel Protocol
Answer:
a) Transmission Control Protocol

Question 25.
IP stands for …………….
a) International Protocol
b) Internet Protocol
c) Internal Protocol
d) Information Protocol
Answer:
b) Internet Protocol

Question 26.
…………… addressing system is used to keep track of the millions of users.
a) The internet protocol (IP)
b) WiFi
c) Modem
d) None of these
Answer:
a) The internet protocol (IP)

Question 27.
Each computer on net is called as …………
a) server
b) host
c) PC
d) None of these
Answer:
b) host

Question 28.
The ………….. is the most cost-effective method of communications in the world.
a) Internet
b) LAN
c) PAN
d) CAN
Answer:
a) Internet

Question 29.
Internet service ¡s
a) Email
b) Web-enabled audio/video conference services
c) Online movies and gaming
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 30.
Internet service is _____ .
a) Data transfer/file-sharing
b) Instant messaging
c) Internet forums
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 31.
Internet service is
a) Social networking
b) Online shopping
c) Financial services
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 32.
________ allows one computer to talk to another computer via the Internet through compiling packets of data and sending them to right location.
a) TCP/IP
b) H1TP
c) Telnet
d) All the above
Answer:
a) TCP/IP

Question 33
In ____ ¡s a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommuncation system to securely share part of a business’s information’.
a) Intranet
b) extranet
c) WAN
d) MAN
Answer:
b) extranet

Question 34
An …………… is a website used by organizations to provide a place where employees can access company information.
a) Intranet
b) extranet
c) WAN
d) MAN
Answer:
a) Intranet

Question 35.
Who is called ac father of internet?
a) Bob Kahn
b) Vinton Gray Cerf
c) Bjarne Stroustroop
d) Ken Thompson
Answer:
b) Vinton Gray Cerf

Question 36.
Vinton Gray Cerf involved in the formation of
a) W3C
b) ICANN
c) WWW
d) None of these
Answer:
b) ICANN

Question 37.
_______ Is a name or an identity which become a online identity and can be access by the web browser when connected to internet.
a) Browser
b) Search Engine
c) Domain Name
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Domain Name

Question 38.
……………… is the domain name for commercial organisation.
a) .gov
b) .org
c) .net
d) .com
Answer:
d) .com

Question 39.
…………… is the domain name for government institution.
a) .gov
b) .org
c) .net
d) .com
Answer:
a) .gov

Question 40.
………………. is the domain name for non-profit organisation.
a) .gov
b) .org
c) .net
d) .com
Answer:
b) .org

Question 41.
…………….. is the domain name for network support group.
a) .gov
b) .org
c) .net
d) .com
Answer:
c) .net

Question 42.
……………… is the domain name for educational institution.
a) .gov
b) .org
c) .net
d) .edu
Answer:
d) .edu

Question 43.
The heart of intranets and the internet is called as the …………..
a) Domain Name System
b) http
c) Web Sites
d) Browsers
Answer:
a) Domain Name System

Question 44.
uses Internet address information and the DNS to deliver mail and other information from computer to computer
a) HTTP
b) Internet Protocol
c) HTTPS
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Internet Protocol

Question 45.
…………….. is the country level domain name for India.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .in
Answer:
d) .in

Question 46.
…………….. is the country level domain name for Australia.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .in
Answer:
a) .au

Question 47.
……………… is the country level domain name for United States of America.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .in
Answer:
b) .us

Question 48.
……………. is the country level domain name for Japan.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .in
Answer:
c) .jp

Question 49.
…………….. is the country level domain name for Russia.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .ru
Answer:
d) .ru

Question 50.
…………….. is the country level domain name for Singapore.
a) .au
b) .us
c) .jp
d) .sg
Answer:
d) .sg

Question 51.
Every server on the internet has an ………… number.
a) IP
b) PIN
c) Secret
d) None of these
Answer:
a) IP

Question 52.
……………. is a unique number consisting of four parts separated by dots.
a) IP Number
b) PIN
c) Secret
d) None of these
Answer:
a) IP Number

Question 53.
The IP number is the server’s …………..
a) password
b) address
c) username
d) none of these
Answer:
b) address

Question 54.
HTTP means …………….
a) Heavy Text Transfer Protocol
b) Hyper Text Transfer Program
c) Hyper Text Tuning Protocol
d) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
Answer:
d) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 55.
The URL and the IP number are ……………
a) one and the same
b) different
c) neither same nor different
d) same or different
Answer:
a) one and the same

Question 56.
A ……………. is an address that shows where a particular page can be found on the World Wide Web.
a) HTTP
b) URL
c) Web Page
d) None of these.
Answer:
b) URL

Question 57.
URL means ……………..
a) Unique Resource Locator
b) Uniform Resource Launcher
c) Uniform Resource Locator
d) Uniform Resource Loader
Answer:
c) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 58.
Identify the correct statement.
a) The internet as a whole does not have a single controller.
b) ICANN was created on September 18, 1998, and incorporated on September 30, 1998, in the US State of California.
c) Web site addresses are given “word-based” addresses called URL.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 59.
Expand ICANN.
a) Internet Corporation for Assigned Name and Numbers
b) International Corporation for Assigned Name and Numbers
c) Intermediate Corporation for Assigned Name and Numbers
d) Internet Consortium for Assigned Name and Numbers
Answer:
a) Internet Corporation for Assigned Name and Numbers

Question 60.
W3C stands for ……………..
a) World Wide Web Council
b) World Wide Web Computer
c) World Wide Web Consortium
d) Worldwide Web Corporation
Answer:
c) World Wide Web Consortium

Question 61.
………………. develop standards for the World Wide Web.
a) W3C
b) ICANN
c) TCP/IP
d) None of these
Answer:
a) W3C

Question 62.
W3C was established in the year ……………
a) 1994
b) 1995
c) 1993
d) 1984
Answer:
a) 1994

Question 63.
W3C was established by ……………..
a) Bob Kahn
b) Tim Berners-Lee
c) Bjarne Stroustroop
d) Kerl Thompson
Answer:
b) Tim Berners-Lee

Question 64.
The creator of the WWW ……………
a) Bob Kahn
b) Tim Berners-Lee
c) Bjarne Stroustroop
d) Ken Thompson
Answer:
b) Tim Berners-Lee

Question 65.
……………… is internet service type.
a) Wireless
b) Mobile
(c) Hotspot
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 66.
…………….. is internet service type.
a) Broadband
b) DSL
c) Cable
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 67.
…………….. is internet service type.
a) Satellite
b) ISDN
c) Dongles
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 68.
…………….. are sites that offer Internet access over a wireless local area network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider.
a) Hotspots
b) ISDN
c) DSL
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Hotspots

Question 69.
……………. utilize Wi-Fi technology.
a) Hotspots
b) ISDN
c) DSL
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Hotspots

Question 70.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) Wireless connections are made possible through the use of a modem, which picks up Internet signals and sends them to other devices.
b) Mobile Internet connections provide good speeds and allow you to access the Internet.
c) Hotspots can be phone-based or free-standing, commercial or free to the public.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 71.
High-speed Internet connection is provided through ………………
a) Telephone companies
b) Cable
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 72.
DSL stands for …………….
a) Digital Subscriber Locater
b) Digital Subscriber Licence
c) Digital Subscriber Link
d) Digital Subscriber Line
Answer:
d) Digital Subscriber Line

Question 73.
Customers can place calls while surfing the Internet using …………..
a) Hotspots
b) ISDN
c) DSL
d) None of these
Answer:
c) DSL

Question 74.
ISDN stands for ……………..
a) Integrated Services Digital Network
b) Integrated Services Direct Network
c) integrated Services Dual Network
d) Integrated Services Discrete Network
Answer:
a) Integrated Services Digital Network

Question 75.
……………. allows users to send data, voice and video content over digital telephone lines or standard telephone wires.
a) Hotspots
b) ISDN
c) DSL
d) None of these
Answer:
b) ISDN

Question 76.
USB Wi-Fi adapters are often called ……………..
a) dongles
b) Hotspot
c) ISDN
d) DSL
Answer:
a) dongles

Question 77.
……………. dongle allows to connect to the Internet even when Wi-Fi is not available.
a) Built-in Wi-Fi chips
b) Mobidata adapters
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 78.
USB Dongle is …………….
a) WiFi Dongles
b) Bluetooth Dongle
c) Memory Dongle
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 79.
Type of datacard is ……………
a) Expansion Card
b) Memory Card or Flash Card
c) Identification Card
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 80.
There are …………….. access methods of internet.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer:
a) two

Question 81.
……………… method Is most common method used in home and office networks.
a) Direct access
b) Indirect access
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Indirect access

Question 82.
ADSL stands for ……………..
a) Asynchronous digital subscriber line
b) Advanced digital subscriber line
c) Asymmetric digital subscriber line
d) All digital subscriber line
Answer:
c) Asymmetric digital subscriber line

Question 83.
……………… access method of internet is most common method used when travelling.
a) Direct access
b) Indirect access
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Direct access

Question 84.
The smart phone connects directly to the Internet using ……………..
a) 3G/4G mobile networks
b) public Wi-Fi
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 85.
There are …………….. ways to look for the information on the web.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer:
a) two

Question 86.
If is the URL is not known, then ………………. will help us to get the information.
a) Search Engines
b) Browsers
c) Websites
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Search Engines

Question 87.
A ……………… is a software system that is designed to search for information on the World Wide Web.
a) Search Engine
b) Browsers
c) Websites
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Search Engine

Question 88.
………………. is a search engine.
a) Yahoo and Lycos
b) Altavista and Hotbot
c) Google and Askjeeves
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 89.
A …………….. is used to access websites and web pages.
a) Browser
b) Search engine
c) WWW
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Browser

Question 90.
……………. is used to search for particular information.
a) Browser
b) Search engine
c) WWW
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Search engine

Question 91.
…………… is a browser.
a) Internet Explorer
b) Chrome
c) Firefox and Safari
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 92.
SERP means ………………
a) Search Engine Result Page
b) Search Engine Request Page
c) Search Engine Reset Page
d) Search Engine Router Page
Answer:
a) Search Engine Result Page

Question 93.
VoIP stands for …………..
a) Voice-over-Integrated Protocol
b) Voice-over-Internet Page
c) Voice-over-Internal Protocol
d) Voice-over-Internet Protocol
Answer:
d) Voice-over-Internet Protocol

Question 94.
……………… referring to the protocol that underlies all Internet communication.
a) VoIP
b) Telnet
c) TCP/IP
d) All the above
Answer:
a) VoIP

Question 95.
……………….. is a job search web site.
a) naukri.com and monster.com
b) summerjob.com
c) recuritmentindia.com
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 96.
………………….. is used for online shopping.
a) amazon.com
b) flipkart.com
c) snapdeal.com
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 97.
………………… websites provide information regarding investment.
a) ndtvprofit.com
b) moneypore.com
c) nseindia.com
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 98.
………………. web site providing travel services.
a) goibibo.com
b) makemytrip.com
c) olacabs.com
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 99.
………………. is the buying and selling of goods and services, or the transmitting of funds or data, over an electronic network, primarily the Internet,
a) e-Commerce
b) Commerce
c) Internet commerce
d) None of these
Answer:
a) e-Commerce

Question 100.
Largest e-commerce company in India is ………………
a) Flipkart and Snapdeal
b) Amazon India
c) Paytm
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 101.
…………………… is the use of internet-based social media programs to make connections with friends, family, classmates, customers and clients.
a) Intranet
b) Social networking
c) Extranet
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Social networking

Question 102.
Example of social networking is ……………..
a) Facebook
b) Twitter
c) Telegram
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 103.
……………. is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.
a) e-Banking
b) Online banking
c) Internet banking
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 104.
……………. is course that is specifically delivered via the internet to somewhere other than the classroom where the professor is teaching.
a) e-Learning
b) Smart learning
c) Virtual learning
d) None of these
Answer:
a) e-Learning

Question 105.
……………. is not a course delivered via a DVD or CD-ROM, video tape or over a television channel.
a) e-Learning
b) Smart learning
c) Virtual learning
d) None of these
Answer:
a) e-Learning

Question 106.
The first mail was sent by ………………
a) Ray Tomlinson
b) Tim Berners-Lee
c) Vinton Gray Cerf
d) Bill Gates
Answer:
a) Ray Tomlinson

Question 107.
The first mail was sent in ……………….. year.
a) 1972
b) 1971
c) 1981
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 1971

Question 108.
The first mail was sent as a test e-mail message containing the text like ……………..
a) QWERTYUIOP
b) First Mail
c) ZXCVBNMUIOP
d) None of these
Answer:
a) QWERTYUIOP

Question 109.
……………. is information stored on a computer that is exchanged between two users over telecommunications.
a) E-Learning
b) Electronic mail
c) Browsing
d) Surfing
Answer:
b) Electronic mail

Question 110.
is a message that may contain text files, images or any other attachments sent through a network to a specified individual or group of individuate.
a) Email
b) SMS
c) Chatting
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Email

Question 111.
………………. is a field in e-mail.
a) To and From
b) CC and BCC
c) Subject
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
While sending an e-mail, the ……………… field is where we type the e-mail address of the person who is the recipient of our message.
a) To
b) From
c) BCC
d) All the above
Answer:
a) To

Question 113.
While sending an e-mail, the ……………… field should contain our e-mail address.
a) To
b) From
c) BCC
d) All the above
Answer:
b) From

Question 114.
If we are replying to a message, the field is automatically filled out.
a) To and From
b) CC and BCC
c) Subject
d) All the above
Answer:
a) To and From

Question 115.
While sending an e-mail, the ………………. field consist of a few words describing the e-mail’s contents.
a) To
b) From
c) BCC
d) Subject.
Answer:
d) Subject.

Question 116.
While sending an e-mail, the …………….. field is an optional.
a) CC
b) BCC
c) Subject
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 117.
The …………….. field lets the recipient see what the e-mail is about, without opening and reading the full e-mail.
a) To
b) From
c) BCC
d) Subject
Answer:
d) Subject

Question 118.
While sending an e-mail, the ……………… field allows us to specify recipients who are not direct addressees.
a) To
b) CC
c) From
d) Subject
Answer:
b) CC

Question 119.
While sending an e-mail,the …………….. is the location we type our main message.
a) To
b) CC
c) From
d) Message Body
Answer:
d) Message Body

Question 120.
What is sent in an e-mail?
a) A picture
b) PDF file
c) Word processor document
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 121.
A computer …………….. is a small piece of software that can spread from one infected computer to another.
a) virus
b) anti-virus
c) Either A or B
d) none of these
Answer:
a) virus

Question 122.
Malware means ……………..
a) Malicious software
b) Malicious hardware
c) Malicious socialware
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Malicious software

Question 123.
Malware could be computer …………….
a) Viruses
b) Worms
c) Trojan horses
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 124.
…………….. software that records every keystroke on our keyboard.
a) Keylogger
b) Mouselogger
c) Operating Ssytem
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Keylogger

Question 125.
A computer ………………….. is a software program that can copy itself from one computer to another, without human interaction.
a) Worm
b) Anti-virus
c) Game
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Worm

Question 126.
A …………….. is a group of computers connected to the Internet that have been compromised by a hacker using a computer virus or Trojan horse.
a) Keylogger
b) botnet
c) Rootkit
d) None of these
Answer:
b) botnet

Question 127.
An individual computer in the botnet group is known as a ……………… computer.
a) Zombie
b) Worm
c) Rootkit
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Zombie

Question 128.
………….. is an unwanted message in our email inbox.
a) Rootkit
b) Trash
c) Spam
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Spam

Question 129.
………….. is a nuisance as it can clutter your mailbox as well as potentially take up space on your mail server.
a) Spam
b) Electronic junk mail
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 130.
……………… scams are fraudulent attempts by cybercriminals to obtain private information.
a) Phishing
b) Botnet
c) Rootkit
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Phishing

Question 131.
A ……………… is a collection of tools that are used to obtain administrator-level access to a computer or a network of computers.
a) Phishing
b) Botnet
c) Rootkit
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Rootkit

Question 132.
…………… may contain spyware that monitors and records keystrokes.
a) Phishing
b) Botnet
c) Rootkit
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Rootkit

Question 133.
Looking for information on the internet is called ……………
a) surfing
b) browsing
c) surfing or browsing
d) None of these
Answer:
c) surfing or browsing

Question 134.
To browse the internet, a software called the …………… is used.
a) web browser
b) browser
c) web browser or browser
d) None of these
Answer:
c) web browser or browser

Question 135.
………….. translates HTML documents of the website and allows to view it on the screen.
a) Web browser
b) Spam
c) Phishing
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Web browser

Question 136.
Google Chrome is a freeware familiar web browser developed by …………..
a) Google Inc
b) Mozilla Corporation
c) Apple Inc
d) Microsoft
Answer:
a) Google Inc

Question 137.
Mozila Firefox is a free and open source web browser developed by …………..
a) Google Inc
b) Mozilla Corporation
c) Apple Inc
d) Microsoft
Answer:
b) Mozilla Corporation

Question 138.
Internet Explorer is developed by ………..
a) Google Inc
b) Mozilla Corporation
c) Apple Inc
d) Microsoft
Answer:
d) Microsoft

Question 139.
Safari is a web browser developed by ……………..
a) Google Inc
b) Mozilla Corporation
c) Apple Inc
d) Microsoft
Answer:
c) Apple Inc

Question 140.
……………. browser exclusively used in Apple Mac system.
a) Google Inc
b) Mozilla Corporation
c) Apple Inc
d) Microsoft
Answer:
c) Apple Inc

Question 141.
……………. is default browser in Ubuntu.
a) Google Chrome
b) Mozilla Firefox
c) Safari
d) Internet Explorer
Answer:
b) Mozilla Firefox

Question 142.
…………….. supports Windows, Mac OS X, Linux and Android system.
a) Google Chrome
b) Mozilla Firefox
c) Safari
d) Internet Explorer
Answer:
b) Mozilla Firefox

Question 143.
…………………. supports on Android 4.0 or higher, iOS 6.0 or higher, Mac OSX 10.6 or higher and Windows XP or higher and Linux system.
a) Google Chrome
b) Mozilla Firefox
c) Safari
d) Internet Explorer
Answer:
a) Google Chrome

Question 144.
……………. is best for its speed, simplicity, security, privacy and customization features.
a) Google Chrome
b) Mozilla Firefox
c) Safari
d) Internet Explorer
Answer:
a) Google Chrome

Question 145.
A ……………… is a collection of webpages.
a) Website
b) Surfing
c) Browsing
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Website

Question 146.
The first page of the website is called a ……………… Page.
a) Start
b) Home
c) Default
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Home

Question 147.
…………….. is a webpage.
a) Home / About Us
b) Contact Us / Testimonials
c) Products / Services / FAQ’s,
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 148.
A webpage is a …………….. of a Website.
a) Page
b) Screen
c) Home page
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Page

Question 149.
A web page can be accessed by a ……………… in a browser.
a) URL
b) Protocol
c) Home page
d) None of these
Answer:
a) URL

Question 150.
Every webpage has a unique address called
a) URL
b) Protocol
c) Home page
d) None of these
Answer:
a) URL

Question 151.
The ……………… locates the pages on the internet.
a) URL
b) Protocol
c) Home page
d) None of these
Answer:
a) URL

Question 152.
Web pages are classified as ……………… types.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 3
Answer:
b) 2

Question 153.
Web pages are classified as …………… webpages.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 154.
Web pages are called ……………. websites as they remain the same whenever it is visited.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Static

Question 155.
Web pages are called ……………… websites as they change during run time.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Dynamic

Question 156.
Website owned by Small business organizations, School .websites etc. are ………………. websites.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Static

Question 157.
Websites of Government and Entrance Exams are ……………. websites.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Dynamic

Question 158.
………………… is the activity of buying or selling of products on online services or over the Internet.
a) E-commerce
b) EDI
c) Amazon
d) None of these
Answer:
a) E-commerce

Question 159.
EDI means ………………
a) External Data Interchange
b) Essential Data Interchange
c) Endless Data Interchange
d) Electronic Data Interchange
Answer:
d) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 160.
B2C means ……………
a) Business to Corporate
b) Business to Customer
c) Business to Consumer
d) Business to Company
Answer:
c) Business to Consumer

Question 161.
B2B means ………………..
a) Business to Broadrange
b) Business to Business
c) Business to Bank
d) Business to Broker
Answer:
b) Business to Business

Question 162.
C2B means ……………
a) Consumer to Business
b) Corporate to Business
c) Consumer to Bank
d) Company to Business
Answer:
a) Consumer to Business

Question 163.
C2C means ……………
a) Consumer to Company
b) Consumer to Consumer
c) Consumer to Citizen
d) Consumer to Corporate
Answer:
b) Consumer to Consumer

Question 164.
G2B means ………………
a) Government to Business
b) Government to Bank
c) Goods to Business
d) Global to Business
Answer:
a) Government to Business

Question 165.
B2G means …………….
a) Bids to Government
b) Brokers to Government
c) Business to Government
d) Bank to Government
Answer:
c) Business to Government

Question 166.
G2C means …………..
a) Government to Consumer
b) Government to Corporate
c) Government to Contractor
d) Government to Citizen
Answer:
d) Government to Citizen

Question 167.
G2G means ………………
a) Government to Government
b) Government to Goods
c) Government to Global
d) Government to Group
Answer:
a) Government to Government

Question 168.
G2E means ……………
a) Government to Exporters
b) Government to Employees
c) Government to Experts
d) Government to Endusers
Answer:
b) Government to Employees

Question 169.
ICT means ………………
a) Information and Communication Technology
b) Information and Communication Technic
c) Information and Communication Trend
d) International Communication Technology
Answer:
a) Information and Communication Technology

Question 170.
………………… is a type of Interactions in e-Governance.
a) Government to Government
b) Government to Employees
c) Government to Citizen
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 171.
Theme of Safer Internet Day is …………..
a) Create
b) Connect
c) Share respect
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 172.
Safer Internet Day is celebrated around the world in …………….. of every year.
a) February
b) May
c) December
d) October
Answer:
a) February

Question 173.
When setting our password, use a mixture of …………….
a) Letters
b) Numbers
c) Upper and Lower case characters
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 174.
……………… is a software managing technique through which programs that are suspected to be infected with a virus can be run.
a) Sandboxing
b) IoT
c) Social Network
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Sandboxing

Question 175.
IoT means …………….
a) Internet of Trade
b) Internet of Techniques
c) Information of Things
d) Internet of Things
Answer:
d) Internet of Things

Question 176.
……………. is the network of physical devices, such as vehicles, home appliances.
a) Internet of Trade
b) Internet of Techniques
c) Information of Things
d) Internet of Things
Answer:
d) Internet of Things

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Define: Internet.
Answer:
Several networks, small and big all over the world, are connected together to form a Global network called the internet.

Question 2.
What do you mean by host?
Answer:
Each computer on net is called as host.

Question 3.
What are the protocols used by internet?
Answer:
The Internet works by using a protocol called TCP/IP. TCP/IP allows one computer to talk to another computer via the Internet through compiling packets of data and sending them to right location.

Question 4.
What is extranet?
Answer:
An extranet is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share part of a business’s information or operations with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Question 5.
What is intranet?
Answer:
An Intranet is a website used by organizations to provide a place where employees can access company information, tools and collaborate to social sharing tools similar to facebook.

Question 6.
Write note on domain name.
Answer:
It is a name or an identity which become an online identity and can be access by the web browser when connected to internet.
Example: .com/.edu

Question 7.
Write about domain name system.
Answer:
The heart of intranets and the internet is called as the Domain Name System(DNS), the way computers can contact each other and do things such as exchange electronic mail or display Web pages. The Internet Protocol (IP) uses this Internet address information and the DNS to deliver mail and other information from computer to computer.

Question 8.
What is URL?
Answer:
Every server on the internet has an IP number, a unique number consisting of four parts separated by dots. The IP number is the server’s address.

Example:
165.113.245.2
128.143.22.55
Addresses are given “word-based” addresses called URL. The URL and the IP number are one and the same.

Question 9.
Who Governs the Internet?
Answer:
1. The internet as a whole does not have a single controller. But the internet society, which is a voluntary membership organization, takes the responsibility to promote global information exchange through the internet technology.

2. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) administers the domain name registration. It helps to avoid a name which is already registered.

Question 10.
What is e-mail?
Answer:

• Electronic mail or email is information stored on a computer that is exchanged between two users over telecommunications.
• Email is a message that may contain text, files, images or any other attachments sent through a network to a specified individual or group of individuals.

Question 11.
What is sent in an email?
Answer:
In addition to text messages being sent over e-mail, it is also possible to attach a file or other data in an e-mail. For example, an attachment could be a picture, PDF, wordprocessor document, or any file stored on the computer.

Question 12.
What is computer virus?
Answer:
Computer virus:
A computer virus is a small piece of software that can spread from one infected computer to another. The virus could corrupt, steal, or delete data on our computer-even erasing everything on our hard drive. A virus could also use other programs like our email program to spread itself to other computers.

Question 13.
What is malware?
Answer:
Malware:
Malware is short for “malicious software”. Malware is used to mean a “variety of forms of hostile, intrusive, or annoying software or program code.” Malware could be computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, dishonest spyware, and malicious rootkits.

Question 14.
Write about Trojan horse.
Answer:
Trojan horse:
Users can infect their computers with Trojan horse software simply by downloading an application they thought was legitimate but was in fact malicious. Once it enters inside the computer, a Trojan horse can do anything from recording our passwords by logging its keystrokes, hijacking our webcam to watch and record every movement.

Question 15.
Write about malicious spyware.
Answer:
Malicious spyware:
1. Malicious spyware is used to describe the Trojan application that was created by cyber criminals to spy on their victims.

2. An example would be key logger software that records a victim’s ever/ keystroke on our keyboard. The recorded information is periodically sent back to the originating cyber criminal over the Internet.

3. Keylogging software is widely available and is marketed to parents or businesses that want to monitor their kids’ or employees’ Internet usage.

Question 16.
Write note on botnet.
Answer:
Botnet:
A botnet is a group of computers connected to the Internet that have been compromised by a hacker using a computer virus or Trojan horse. An individual computer in the group is known as a “zombie” computer.

Question 17.
What is spam?
Answer:
Spam:
Unwanted messages in our email inbox. Spam, or electronic junk mail, is a nuisance as it can clutter our mailbox as well as potentially take up space on our mail server. However, spam messages can contain links that when clicked on could go to a website that installs malicious software onto our computer.

Question 18.
What is rootkit?
Answer:
Rootkit:
A rootkit is a collection of tools that are used to obtain administrator-level access to a computer or a network of computers. A rootkit could be installed on our computer by a cyber criminal exploiting a vulnerability or security hole in a legitimate application on our PC and may contain spyware that monitors and records keystrokes.

Question 19.
Define Browsing or Surfing.
Answer:
Looking for information on the internet is called surfing or browsing. To browse the internet, software called the web browser or browser is used.

Question 20.
What is sandboxing?
Answer:
Sandboxing is a software managing technique through which programs that are suspected to be infected with a virus can be run. The programs are run is a separated memory area and therefore cannot damage the operating systems.

Question 21.
What is the theme of SID?
Answer:
Safer Internet Day (SID) 2018 is celebrated around the world in February of every year with a theme of “Create, connect and share respect: A better internet starts with you”.

Question 22.
Write note on ISDN.
Answer:
1. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) allows users to send data, voice and video content over digital telephone lines or standard telephone wires.
2. The installation of an ISDN adapter is required at both ends of the transmission on the part of the user as well as the Internet access provider.

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the different methods of accessing the Internet?
Answer:
Indirect Access:
This is most common method used in home and office networks. The device e.g. computer connects to a network using Ethernet or WiFi and the network connects to the Internet using Asymmetric digital subscriber line ADSL (cable or fibre).

Direct Access:
This is most common method used when traveling. The device e.g. smart phone connects directly to the Internet using 3G/4G mobile networks or public Wi-Fi. There are two ways to look for the information on the web.

Question 2.
What are the ways to look for the information on the web?
Answer:

1. If the URL of the website is known, enter it on the address bar.
2. If is the URL is not known, then “Search Engines” will help us to get the information.

Question 3.
Write note on e-commerce, e-commerce:
Answer:

1. e-commerce (electronic commerce or EC) is the buying and selling of goods and services, or the transmitting of funds or data, over an electronic network, primarily the Internet.
2. These business transactions occur either business-to-business, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-consumer or consumer-to- business.
3. Largest e-commerce companies in India are Flipkart, Snapdeal, Amazon India, Paytm.

Question 4.
Write about social networking.
Answer:
Social Networking:
Social networking is the use- of internet- based social media programs to make connections with friends, family, classmates, customers and clients. Social networking can be done for social purposes, business purposes or both.

The programs show the associations . between individuals and facilitate the acquisition of new contacts. Examples of social networking includes Facebook.

Question 5.
What do you mean by e-banking?
Answer:
e-banking:

e-banking (Online banking), also known as internet banking, it is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.

The online banking system will typically connect to or be part of the core banking system operated by a bank and. is in contrast to branch banking which was the traditional way customers accessed banking services.

Question 6.
Write about e-learning.
Answer:

1. It is a program delivered completely online. E-learning is interactive in that we can also communicate with teachers, professors or other students in a class.
2. Sometimes it is delivered live, where we can “electronically” raise our hand and interact in real time and sometimes it is a lecture that is prerecorded.
3. There is always a teacher/professor interacting/ communicating, grading participation, giving assignments and conducting tests.

Question 7.
What is computer worm?
Answer:
Computer worm:
A computer worm is a software program that can copy itself from one computer to another, without human interaction. Worms can replicate in great volume and with great speed. For example, a worm can send copies of itself to every contact in our email address book and then send itself to all the contacts in our contacts’ address books.

Because of their speed of infection, worms often gain notoriety overnight infecting computers across the globe as quickly as victims around the world and switch them on to open their email.

Question 8.
Write about Webpage.
Answer:
Webpage:
A webpage is a page of a Website. A webpage can be accessed by a URL in a browser and that page can be copied and or send to a friend for review whereas websites are collections of multiple page that must be navigated to view other content.

Question 9.
Explain IoT.
Answer:
The Internet of Things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, such as vehicles, home appliances, and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators and connectivity which enables these things to connect and exchanges data creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer – based systems, resulting in efficiency improvements, economic benefits, and reduced human exertions.

Question 10.
Write about broadband.
Answer:
Broadband:
This high-speed Internet connection is provided through either cable or telephone companies. One of the fastest options available, broadband Internet uses multiple data channels to send large quantities of information. The term broadband is shorthand for broad bandwidth.

Broadband Internet connections such as DSL and cable are considered high-bandwidth connections. Although many DSL connections can be considered broadband, not all broadband connections are DSL.

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
What are the different browsers? Explain.
Answer:
Familiar Internet Browser:
1. Google Chrome is a freeware familiar web browser developed by Google Inc. It is best for its speed, simplicity, security, privacy and customization features. Google Chrome supports on Android 4.0 or higher, iOS 6.0 or higher, Mac OSX 10.6 or higher and Windows (XP or higher) and Linux system.

2. Mozila Firefox is a free and open source web browser developed by Mozilla Foundation and Mozilla Corporation. Firefox is default browser in Ubuntu. It supports Windows, Mac OS X, Linux and Android system.

3. Internet Explorer commonly known as Microsoft Internet Explorer or Windows Internet Explorer is the first or default browser for a Windows PC. It is developed by Microsoft.

4. Safari is a web browser developed by Apple Inc. and comes with OS X and iOS. Some version of safari browser also supports in. Windows Operating System. Exclusively used in Apple Mac system.

Question 2.
What are the do’s and don’t of safe Surfing on Internet?
Answer:
1. Don’t give out our personal information – Don’t put personal details such as our home address, telephone numbers or parent’s work address online as cyber criminals can use this information to create a fake profile with our details.

2. What goes online, stays online – Use privacy settings to make sure only our friends and family can see photos we post. Avoid posting holiday plans as criminals have been known, to track our movements.

3. Check our security and privacy settings – Make sure our social network privacy settings are secured so only our friends can see our personal information and use our privacy settings to restrict who can see our posts, videos and photos.

4. Password safety – Sharing our password with our parents is a sensible idea, but avoid sharing our password with our friends, even if they promise they won’t tell anyone Also, when setting our password, make sure it isn’t something people may guess such as our pet’s name. Use a mixture of letters, numbers and upper and lower case characters.

5. Always protect our mobile device – Make sure our mobile phone is pin-protected so all our personal information stored on it is safe. Download a security app which allows us to remotely wipe any personal data, should our mobile be lost or stolen.

6. Don’t talk to strangers online or offline – Don’t meet up with strangers and let our parents know if a stranger has tried to get in contact with us online.

7. Listen to the adults who know – Adults will always be worried about us. Help set their mind at rest and avoid chatting online with strangers.

8. Be wary of unsecured or unknown websites – When shopping online, use reputable and known retailers.

9. Be careful what links we click on – Avoid clicking links in an email, Instant Message or on our social network unless we are sure the message is from someone we know.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of email.
Answer:
Structure of email:
Click the Compose button and then writing an e-mail contents.

When sending an e-mail message, several fields are required to be filled: The To field is where we type the e-mail address of the person who is the recipient of our message.

The From field should contain our e-mail address.

1. If we are replying to a message, the To and From fields are automatically filled out; if it’s a new message, we’ll need to enter them manually.

2. The Subject should consist of a few words describing the e-mail’s contents. The Subject lets the recipient see what, the e-mail is about, without opening and reading the full e-mail. This field is optional.

3. The CC (Carbon Copy) field allows us to specify recipients who are not direct addressees (listed in the “To” field). This field is optional.

4. The BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) field is similar to CC, except the recipients are secret. Each BCC recipient will receive the e-mail, but will not see who else received a copy. The addressees (anyone listed in the “To” field) remain visible to all recipients. This field is optional.

5. Finally, the Message Body is the location we type our main message. It often contains our signature at the bottom; similar to a hand-written later.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to ………………
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Question 2.
The profounder of double entry system of book-keeping is ……………..
(a) J, R. Batlibai
(b) Luca Pacioli
(c) Old Kesal
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) Luca Pacioli

Question 3.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is
(a) Business Entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservatism
Answer:
(b) Going concern

Question 4.
GAAPs are …………….
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Question 5.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of ……………….
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservatism
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservatism

Question 6.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ……………
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 7.
Which of the following does not follow dual aspect concept?
(a) Increase in one asset and decrease in other asset
(b) Increase in both asset and liability
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset
(d) Increase in one asset and increase in capital
Answer:
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define book-keeping.
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. (J.R.Batlibai)
“Book-keeping is the science and art of recording correctly in the books of account all those business transactions of money or money’s worth”. (R.N. Carter)

Question 2.
What is meant by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts are the basic assumptions or conditions upon which accounting has to be laid. The word concept means a notion or abstraction which is generally accepted. Accounting concepts provide a unifying structure to the accounting process and accounting reports.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about revenue recognition concept.
Answer:
According to the accrual concept, the effects of the transactions are recognized on a mercantile basis, i.e., when they occur and not when cash is paid or received. Revenue is recognized when it is earned and expenses are recognized when they are incurred. All expenses and revenues related to the accounting period are to be considered irrespective of the fact that whether revenues are received in cash or not and whether expenses are paid in cash or not.

Question 4.
What is the “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting?
Answer:

1. It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement.
2. This is important because the management is different from the owners in most organizations.
3. The disclosure should be full, fair, and adequate so that the users of the financial statements can make a correct assessment of the financial position and performance of the business unit.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on the ‘Consistency’ assumption.
Answer:
The consistency convention implies that the accounting policies must be followed consistently from one accounting period to another. The results of different years will be comparable only when the same accounting policies are followed from year to year.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the matching concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept?
Answer:
1. According to this concept, revenues during an accounting period are matched with expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenue during that period.
2. This concept is based on the accrual concept and periodicity concept.
3. Periodicity concept fixes the time frame for measuring performance and determining financial status.
4. Based on this the adjustments are made for outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.
5. It matches the revenues earned during an accounting period with the expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenues before sharing any profit or loss.

Question 2.
Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
This concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money, are recorded in the accounts. Since money serves as the medium of exchange transactions expressed in money are recorded and the ruling currency of a country is the measuring unit for accounting. Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts. For example, working conditions in the workplace, strike by employees, the efficiency of the management, etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Question 3.
“Business units last indefinitely”. Mention and explain the concept on which the statement is bused.
Answer:
1. It is based on Going Concern Concept.
2. It influences accounting practices in relation to the valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses, and accrued and unearned revenues.
3. Business will be continued for a foreseeable future.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on Accounting Standards.
Answer:
Accounting Standards provide the framework and norms to be followed in accounting so that the financial statements of different enterprises become comparable. It is necessary to standardize the accounting principles to ensure consistency, comparability, adequacy, and reliability of financial reporting. Thus, Accounting Standards are written policy documents issued by the expert accounting body or by government or other regulatory bodies covering the aspects of recognition, measurement, treatment, presentation, and disclosure of accounting transactions and events in the financial statements.

11th Accountancy Guide Books of Prime Entry Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
ASB was constituted in India in the year………………
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1976
Answer:
(a) 1977

Question 2.
Business is distinct from the owner. This concept is called …………….
(a) Going Concern Concept
(b) Separate Entity Concept
(c) Money measurement Concept
(d) Revenue Realization Concept
Answer:
(b) Separate Entity Concept

Question 3.
According to ……………… concept, every transaction or event has two aspects i.e.,’dual effect.
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 4.
Financial or business transaction is recorded, according to accrual concept of accounting ………………
(a) When cash is received or paid
(b) When a transaction occurs
(c) When profit is computed
(d) When the balance sheet is prepared
Answer:
(b) When a transaction occurs

Question 5.
……………… requires analytical skill.
(a) Accounting
(b) Single entry
(c) Book-keeping
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 6.
Which of the following is not the main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertaining profit or loss
(c) Ascertainment of financial position
(d) Solving tax disputes
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes

Question 7.
Capital + Liabilities = Assets
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 8.
A business enterprise is separate from its owner according to ……………… concept.
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Entity concept

Question 9.
The non-financial transactions are not entered because of …………..
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) Money measurement concept

Question 10.
Historical cost concept requires the recording of an asset………..
(a) At its cost
(b) At the market value
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) At its cost

Question 11.
The rule ‘every transaction affects two or more ledger accounts’ is based on the concept of …………….
(a) Going concerned
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping
(c) Money measurement
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping

Question 12.
Which of the following is correct about ‘Accounting Concept’?
(a) Accounting concepts are based on accounting conventions
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices
(c) Accounting concepts are methods or procedures accepted by general agreement
(d) Personal judgment has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.
Answer:
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a fundamental accounting assumption?
(a) Going concerned
(b) Consistency
(c) Prudence
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Prudence

Question 14.
A businessman purchased goods for Rs. 25, 00,000 and sold 80% of such goods during the accounting year ended 31st March 2015. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs. 4,00,000. He valued the dosing inventory at cost. He violated the concept of
(a) Money measurement
(b) Conservatism
(c) Cost
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Conservatism

Question 15.
Total sales during the year amount to Rs.70,000; cash sales Rs.10,000; Balance of trade receivables at the end of the year Rs.25,000. Cash received from customers during the year will be …………….
(a) Rs. 35,000
(b) Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 37,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Rs. 35,000

Question 16.
Selection of accounting policies is based on …………..
(a) Prudence
(b) Substance over form
(c) Materiality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
As per the dual aspect concept, every business transaction has ………….
(a) Three aspects
(b) One aspect
(c) Two Aspects
(d) Four Aspects
Answer:
(c) Two Aspects

Question 18.
XCAI stands for ……………….
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) Institute of Cost Accountants of India
(c) International Chartered Accounts Investigation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 19.
if land is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and its market value is Rs. 5,00,000. At the time of preparing final accounts the land value is recorded only for …………
(a) Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,00,000
(c) Rs. 8,00,000
(d) Rs. 2,00,000
Answer:
(b) Rs. 3,00,000

Question 20.
The direct advantage of accounting does not include ………..
(a) Preparation of financial statements
(b) Competitive advantage
(c) Ascertainment of profit or loss
(d) Information to interested groups
Answer:
(b) Competitive advantage

Question 21.
Going concern assumption tells us the life of the business is ……………..
(a) very short
(b) very long
(c) short
(d) none
Answer:
(b) very long

Question 22.
The cost incurred should be matched with the revenues of the particular Period is based on …………….
(a) matching concept
(b) historical cost concept
(c) full disclosure concept
(d) dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) matching concept

Question 23.
IFRS is…………………
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards
(b) International Final Reporting Standards
(c) India Financial Reporting Standards
(d) India Final Reporting Standards
Answer:
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards

Question 24.
…………… said, “Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”.
(a) J.R. Batliboi
(b) R.N. Carter
(c) Luca Pacioli
(d) Menhir
Answer:
(b) R.N. Carter

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two features of book-keeping.
Answer:
The main features of Book-keeping are:

1. It is the process of recording transactions in the books of accounts.
2. Monetary transactions only are recorded in the accounts.

Question 2.
What are the limitations of book-keeping?
Answer:
Only monetary transactions are recorded in the books of accounts.
1. Effects of price level changes are not considered.
2. Financial data recorded are historical in nature, i.e., only past data are recorded

Question 3.
Write any two advantages of book-keeping.
Answer:
The advantages of Book-keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.

Question 4.
what is meant by IFRS?
Answer:

1. International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are issued by the International Accounting Standard Board (IASB).
2. IFRS is a set of International Accounting Standards stating how particular types of transactions and other events should be reported in financial statements.
3. IFRS is issued to develop Accounting Standards that would be acceptable worldwide and to improve financial reporting internationally.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of book-keeping?
Answer:
The main objectives of book-keeping are:

1. To have a complete and permanent record of all business transactions in chronological order and under appropriate headings.
2. To facilitate ascertainment of the profit or loss of the business during a specific period.
3. To facilitate ascertainment of financial position.
4. To know the progress of the business.
5. To find out the tax liabilities.
6. To fulfill the legal requirements.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Book-Keeping?
Answer:
Book-keeping has the following advantages:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by businesses serve as legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information over the years is possible. Also, a comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Book-keeping is useful to find out the tax liability.

Question 3.
Differentiate Book-Keeping with Accounting.
Answer:

Question 4.
What are the advantages of book-keeping?
Answer:
The advantages of book-keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by businesses serve as legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Bookkeeping is useful to find out the tax liabilities.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Concepts of Accounting. (Any Five)
Answer:
Business Entity Concept:

• A business unit is separate from the owner or owners
• Accounts are prepared from the point of view of the business and not from the owner’s point of view.
• Only business transactions are recorded.

Money Measurement Concept:

• Those transactions which can be expressed in terms of money are recorded in the accounts.
• Money serves as the medium of exchange transactions.
• Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.

Going Concern Concept:

• It is the basic assumption that business is a going concern and will continue its operations for the foreseeable future.
• It influences accounting practices in relation to the valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of the fixed assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses, and accrued and unearned revenues.

Dual Aspect Concept:

• Every transaction or event has two aspects
• This concept recognizes the fact that for every debit, there is a corresponding and equal credit.
• This the basis of the entire system of double-entry book-keeping.
• This concept arises the basic accounting equation that it:
  Capital + Liabilities = Assets.

Realization Concept:

• Any change in the value of an asset is to be recorded only when the business realizes it.
• When assets are recorded at historical value, any change in value is to be accounted for only when
  it realizes.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The root of financial accounting system is
(a) Social accounting
(b) Stewardship accounting
(c) Management accounting
(d) Responsibility accounting
Answer:
(b) Stewardship accounting

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertainment of the profitability of the business
(c) Ascertainment of the financial position of the business
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a branch of accounting?
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 4.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

Question 5.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define accounting.
Answer:
American Accounting Association has defined accounting as “the process of identifying, measuring and communicating economic information to permit informed judgments and decisions by users of the information.”

Question 2.
List any two functions of accounting.
Answer:
Measurement:
The main function of accounting is to keep a systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger, and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. It is also possible to compare with the accounting policies. Effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the process of accounting?
Answer:

Question 4.
Who are the parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
The following are the parties interested in accounting information

Question 5.
Name any two bases of recording accounting information.
Answer:
Cash Basis:
The actual amount of cash received and cash paid is recorded in this. Any kind of income received and expenditure paid will be entered in this.

Accrual or Mercantile Basis:
The income which is not received but has been earned or accrued and the expenses incurred, which is paid and not recorded, is known as Accrual or Mercantile Basis.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of accounting.
Answer:
Accounting is the systematic process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarising, interpreting and communicating financial information. Accounting gives information on:

1. The resources available
2. How the available resources have been employed and
3. The results achieved by their use.

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the branches of accounting.
Answer:

The following are the branches of accounting:
Financial Accounting:
It involves recording financial transactions and events. It provides financial information to the users for taking decisions.

Cost Accounting:
It involves the collection, recording, classification and appropriate allocation of expenditure for the determination of the costs of products or services and for the presentation of data for the purposes of cost control and managerial decision making.

Management Accounting:
It is concerned with the presentation of accounting information in such a way as to assist management in decision making and in the day-to-day operations of an enterprise.

Social Responsibility Accounting:
It is concerned with presentation of accounting information by business entities and other organisations from the view point of the society by showing the social costs incurred such as environmental pollution by the enterprise and social benefits such as infrastructure development and employment opportunities created by them.

Human Resources Accounting:
It is concerned with identification, quantification and reporting of investments made in human resources of an enterprise.

Question 3.
Discuss in detail the importance of accounting.
Answer:

Systematic records:
1. All the transactions of an enterprise which are financial in nature are recorded in a systematic way in the books of accounts.
2. The records are classified under common heads and summaries are prepared.

Preparation of financial statement:
1. Results of business operations and the financial position of the concern can be ascertained from accounting periodically through the preparation of financial statements namely, income statement or trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet.

2. This helps in distribution of profits to the owners and to provide funds for future growth of the business.

Assessment of progress:
Analysis and interpretation of financial data can be done to assess the progress made in different areas and to identify the areas of weaknesses.

Aid to decision making:
1. Management of a firm has to make routine and strategic decisions while discharging its functions.
2. Accounting provides the relevant data to make appropriate decisions. Future policies and programmes can be planned by the management based on the accounting data provided.

Satisfies legal requirements:
Various legal requirements like maintenance of Provident Fund (PF) for employees, Employees State Insurance (ESI) contributions, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS), filing of tax returns are properly fulfilled with the help of accounting.

Information to interested groups:
Accounting supplies appropriate information to different interested groups like owners, management, creditors, employees, financial institutions, tax authorities and the government.

Legal evidence:
Accounting records are generally accepted as evidence in courts of law and other legal authorities in the settlement of disputes.

Computation of tax Accounting:
Records are the basic source for computation and settlement of income tax and other taxes.

Settlement during merger:
When two or more business units decide to merger, accounting records provide information for deciding the terms of merger and any compensation payable as a consequence of merger.

Question 4.
Why are the following parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
1. Investors: Persons who are interested in investing their funds in an organisation should know about the financial condition of a business unit while making their investment decisions. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk-bearing capacity of the organisation which will affect the return to the investors.

2. Government: The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Information about the performance of business units in different industries helps the government in policy formation for the development of trade and industry, allocation of scarce resources, grant of subsidy, etc.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of an accountant in the modern business world:
Answer:

The important role of an accountant is:
1. Recordkeeper: The accountant maintains a systematic record of financial transactions.

2. Provider of information to the management: The accountant assists the management by providing financial information required for decision making and for exercising controls.

3. Protector of business assets: The accountant maintains records of assets owned by the business which enables the management to protect and exercise control over these assets.

4. Financial advisor: The accountant analysis financial information and advises the business managers regarding investment opportunities, strategies for cost savings, capital budgeting, provision for future growth and development, expansions of enterprise, etc.

5. Tax managers: The accountant ensures that tax returns are prepared and filed correctly on time and payment of tax is made on time

6. Public relation officer: The accountant provides accounting information to various interest users for analysis as per their requirements.

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In 1494, ……………. an Italian developed double-entry bookkeeping system.
(a) Luca Pacioli
(b) Kautilya
(c) Wheeler
(d) R.N.Cart
Answer:
(a) Luca Pacioli

Question 2.
Accounts of persons with whom the business deals are known as …………….
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account
Answer:
(a) Personal Account

Question 3.
Which one is not a role of an accountant?
(a) Recordkeeper
(b) Tax manager
(c) PRO
(d) Owner
Answer:
(d) Owner

Question 4.
The main aim of the proprietor is to earn …………….
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Cash
(d) Capital
Answer:
(a) Profit

Question 5.
The original entry is otherwise called ………………
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(a) Journal

Question 6.
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called …………….
(a) Receipt
(b) Credit Note
(c) Debit Note
(d) Voucher
Answer:
(a) Receipt

Question 7.
Financial information for managerial decision making caused the emergence of ……………… accounting.
(a) Management
(b) Cost
(c) Financial
(d) Corporate
Answer:
(a) Management

Question 8.
……………… involves the recording of transaction and events which are financial in nature.
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Financial accounting

Question 9.
The balance in the trading account is the gross profit or ……………….
(a) Net profit
(b) Net loss
(c) gross loss
(d) balance
Answer:
(c) gross loss

Question 10.
Goodwill is an example of …………….
(a) Liabilities
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Intangible assets
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Intangible assets

Question 11.
Two or more business units forming a single entity is known as ……………….
(a) Joint
(b) Merger
(c) Link
(d) Compound
Answer:
(b) Merger

Question 12.
………….. refers to choosing a desirable course of action from alternative courses of actions.
(a) Control
(b) Forecasting
(c) Decision Making
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Decision Making

Question 13.
Unsold goods lying in a business on a particular date are known as ……………….
(a) Stock
(b) creditor
(c) debtor
(d) cash
Answer:
(a) Stock

Question 14.
A person who owns a business is called as …………………
(a) Borrower
(b) Landlord
(c) Owner
(d) Salesman
Answer:
(c) Owner

Question 15.
………………. is the amount incurred in order to produce and sell the goods and services.
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Stock
(d) Expense
Answer:
(d) Expense

Question 16.
……………. is said to be the root of accounting.
(a) Cost Accounting
(b) Stewardship Accounting
(c) Management Accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Stewardship Accounting

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two objectives of Accounting.
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.

Question 2.
What is a Voucher?
Answer:
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called a voucher. Examples: Cash receipt, invoice, cash memo, bank pay-in-slip, etc.

Question 3.
What are goods?
Answer:
It includes articles, things or commodities in which a business is dealing with. Examples: Furniture will be goods for those who deal in furniture.

Question 4.
What is mean by solvency?
Answer:
Solvency is the capability of a person or an enterprise to pay the debts.

Question 5.
What do you mean by depreciation?
Answer:
A person who gives a benefit without receiving money or money’s worth immediately but to claim in future.

Question 6.
What are bad debts?
Answer:
It is a loss to the business arising out of the failure of a debtor to pay the dues. It is irrecoverable debt.

Question 7.
What is depreciation?
Answer:
It refers to the gradual reduction in the value of fixed assets due to usage and passage of time.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the attributes of account emerge.
Answer:
The following are the main attributes of accounting.
1. Accounting is an art. It requires the expertise and skill of accountants design accounting system and policies, to decide the accounting process in order to suit the requirements of an organization.

2. The transactions or events of a business must be recorded in monetary terms.

3. Accounting process involves recording, classifying and summarizing of transactions and analysis and interpretation of the results.

4. The results of such analysis must be communicated to the persons who are interested in such information.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the process of accounting cycle.
Answer:

Identifying the transactions and journalizing:
1. The first step in the accounting process is identifying the financial transactions of a business.
2. All the monetary transactions are recorded in the books of original entry called journals.
3. Recording the transactions in the journal is called journalizing.
4. Entries are made in the journals on the basis of source documents in the chronological order, i.e., the order of occurrence of the transactions.

Posting and Balancing:
1. Transferring the entries from the journal to the ledger is called posting.
2. In the ledger, entries are made in each account after classifying them under common heads.
3. Finding the difference between the total of the debit column and credit column of all the ledger accounts is called balancing.

Preparation of trial balance:
1. The list of ledger balances namely trial balance is prepared as the next step.
2. On the basis of ledger balances the financial statements are prepared.

Preparation of trading account:
1. Next step is preparation of trading account for a particular accounting period.
2. All the direct revenues and direct expenses are transferred to trading account.
3. The balance in the trading account is the gross profit or gross loss.

Preparation of profit and loss account:
1. It is prepared next for a particular accounting period. Alt the indirect revenues and indirect expenses along with gross profit or gross loss are transferred to profit and loss account.
2. The balance in the profit and loss account is the net profit or net loss.

Preparation of balance sheet:
1. A statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities namely balance sheet is prepared as the final step in the accounting process.
2. It is prepared on a particular date, normally, on the last day of the accounting period.
3. The closing balances of an accounting year are taken as the opening balances for the next accounting year.
4. The transactions identified and recorded for the next year are followed by posting and other steps.
5. The results are communicated to the users of accounting information for the purpose of analysis and decision making.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cash transactions and credit transactions?
Answer:
Cash transaction:
It is a transaction which involves immediate cash receipt or immediate cash payment.

Credit transaction:
It is a transaction in which cash is not received or paid immediately, but will be received or paid later.

Question 3.
Explain the Functions of Accounting.
Answer:
The main functions of accounting are as follows:
Measurement:
1. The main function of accounting is to keep a systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger, and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

2. Accounting works as a tool for measuring the performance of business enterprises. It also shows the financial position of the business enterprises.

Forecasting:
With the help of the various tools of accounting, future performance and financial position of the business enterprises can be forecasted.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. Through comparison of the actual financial results of the business enterprises with projected figures and standards, effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Decision making:
Accounting provides relevant information to the management for planning, evaluation of performance and control. This will help them to take various decisions concerning cost, price, sales, level of activity, etc.

Control:
As accounting works as a tool of control, the strengths and weaknesses are identified to provide feedback on various measures adopted. It serves as a tool for evaluating compliance of business policies and programmes.

Assistance to government:
Government needs full information on the financial aspects of the business for various purposes such as taxation, grant of subsidy, etc. Accounting provides relevant information about the business to exercise government control on business enterprises.

Question 4.
Write a note on the Evolution of Accounting.
Answer:
1. In the earliest days of civilization, accounting was done by stewards who managed the properties of wealthy people.

2. stewardship accounting is said to be the root of accounting.

3. In 1494, Luca Pacioli an Italian developed a double-entry book-keeping system.

4. To safeguard the interest of owners and investors, the business establishments required detailed information about the business which paved the way for the development of a comprehensive financial accounting information system.

5. In the 20th century, the need for analysis of financial information for managerial decision making caused the emergence of Management Accounting as a separate branch of accounting.

6. Though accounting was individual-centric in the initial stage of evolution of accounting, it has gradually developed into Social Responsibility Accounting in the 21st century.

Question 5.
Write a note on Transaction.
Answer:
An activity that involves the transfer of money or money’s worth (goods, services, ideas) from one person to another, is known as a Transaction. It is of two types, namely.
Cash transaction:
It is a transaction which involves immediate cash receipt or immediate cash payment.

Credit transaction:
It is a transaction in which cash is not received or paid immediately, but will be received or paid later.

Question 6.
Who are all the internal users of Accounting Information?
Answer:
The internal users are owners, management, and employees who are within the organization.
Owners:
1. The owners of a business provide capital to be used in the business.

2. They are interested to know whether the business has earned profit or not during a particular period and also its financial position on a particular date.

3. They want accounting reports in order to have an appraisal of performance and also for an assessment of future prospects to ensure that they will get their expected returns from the business and get back their capital.

Management:
1. Accounting data are the basis for most of the decisions made by the management.

2. The trends in sales and purchases, relationship of expenses to the sales, efficiency of employees, comparative profitability of different departments, capital structure and solvency position are some of the vital data required by management for planning and controlling the business operations.

3. Financial statements and other reports prepared under financial accounting provide this information to the management.

Employees:
The employees are interested in the profit earning capacity of the business which will affect their remuneration, working conditions and retirement benefits and stability and growth of the enterprise.

Question 7.
Explain the External Users of Accounting Information.
Answer:
External users are the persons who are in outside of the organisation but make use of the information for their own purpose. The following are the external users:
Creditors and Financial Institutions:
1. Suppliers of goods and services, commercial banks, public deposit holders and debenture holders are included in this category,
2. They are interested in knowing the liquidity position and repaying capacity of the business to ensure the safety of getting the amount due to them or interest and the principal amount.

Investors:
1. Persons who are interested in investing their funds in an organisation should know about the financial condition of a business unit while making their investment decisions.
2. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk bearing capacity of the organisation.

Customers:
1. Customers who buy and use the products and services of business enterprises are interested in knowing the details of the products and the prices charged to them.
2. They are interested in knowing the stability and profitability of an enterprise to ensure the continued supply of the products or services by the enterprise.

Tax authorities and other regulatory bodies:
1. Accounting information helps the tax authorities in computing income tax and taxes on goods and services and other taxes to be collected from business units.
2. Other regulatory bodies also require information about revenues, expenses, and other financial aspects of the business to ensure that the enterprises comply with statutory requirements.

Government:
The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Information about the performance of business units in different industries helps the government in policy formulation, for development of trade and industry, allocation of scarce resources, grant of subsidy, etc. Government also administers prices of certain commodities.

Researchers:
Researchers to carry out their research can use accounting information and make use of the published financial statements for analysis and evaluation.

General public:
From accounting information, the general public at large can get a view of the earning capacity and stability of the enterprise as well as the social responsibility measures undertaken by the enterprise particularly in its area of operation and also the employment opportunities provided to the local people.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms

11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I

I. Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
Which image format was standardize by W3C?
a) JPEG
b) SVG
c) GIF
d) PNG
Answer:
b) SVG

Question 2.
The tag used to insert an image in HTML:
a) Image
b) Picture
c) Img
d) Pic
Answer:
c) Img

Question 3.
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using:
a) <marquee>
b) <img>
c) <embed>
d) <text>
Answer:
a) <marquee>

Question 4.
Inline sound can be inserted using which of the following tag?
a) <inline>
b) <backgroundsound>
c) <bgsound>
d) <sound>
Answer:
c) <bgsound>

Question 5.
Which value causes the audio play as long as the page is in view?
a) Stop
b) Never Stop
c) Continue
d) Infinite
Answer:
d) Infinite

Question 6.
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are
a) method and action
b) name and size
c) post and get
d) type and name
Answer:
a) method and action

Question 7.
The tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML is:
a) <dropdown>
b) <select>
c) <listbox>
d) <input>
Answer:
b) <select>

Question 8.
Match the following:

a) 3 1 4 2
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 2 1 3 4
Answer:
b) 3 4 1 2

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
List out the popular image formats.
Answer:

1. GIF (Graphical Interchange Format)
2. JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group)
3. PNG (Portable Network Graphics)
4. SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics)

Question 2.
Write down the general format of marquee.
Answer:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>

Question 3.
What is inline sound or movie?
Answer:
The inline refers to audio(sound) or video (movie) files are handled as part of the page. These media files play the audio or video when the page is visible in the browser window.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of <input> tag?
Answer:
Most of the form controls are created by using <input> tag. The <input> is an empty tag used to create different form elements or controls such as text box, radio buttons so on.

Type attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag.

Question 5.
Which tag is used to specify the list of items in dropdown list box?
Answer:

• The <select> tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML.
• The <option> tag is used to specify list items.

Attributes of <Option> tag:
Selected – Indicate default selection Value – Value to be submitted to server

Example:

Question 6.
What are the major attributes are available in <textarea> tag?
Answer:
The main attributes of <Textarea> are:

• Name – Used to define name to the control
• Rows – Specifies the number of rows in the text area control
• Cols – Specifies the number of columns in the text area, (number of characters in a line)

Example:
<Textarea rows=5 cols=50 name=comments> </Textarea>

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on familiar images format.
Answer:
Familiar Image Formats – GIF (Graphical Interchange Format):
This format is one of the popular format for animated images. It was developed by CompuServe. Usually this image format is suitable for presenting tiny animated images, logos, icons, line art etc., It is not suitable for photographic work, because it uses maximum of 256 colours. Animated GIF do not support sound or playback control.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG is the most popular image format supported by all web browsers. This format is suitable for photographic images. Unlike GIF, JPEG can include any number of colours.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
PNG is designed as a replacement for GIF. It is also supported by all browsers.

SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics):
SVG is a graphics format that was developed for web. It was standardized by World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) in 2001.

Question 2.
How will you scroll the text in HTML?
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive.

General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>

Example:
<marquee direction=right> Welcome to <b> The State Council of Educational Research and Training </b>, Tamilnadu </marquee>

Question 3.
Explain the main attributes used with <form> tag.
Answer:
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are method and action attributes.

Method: The method attribute of the form tag is used to identify how the form element names and values will be sent to the server.

The get method will append the names of the form elements and their values to the URL.
The post method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets.

Action:
The action attribute identifies the server side program or script that will process the form. The action will be the name of a Common Gateway Interface (CGI) program written in programming languages like Perl, JavaScript, PHP or Active Server Pages (ASP).

Question 4.
Explain the values of <input> tag’s type attribute.
Answer:
<Input> Tag
Most of the form controls are created by using <input> tag. The <input> is an empty tag used to create different form elements or controls such as text box, radio buttons so on.

Type attribute of <input> tag:
This attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag. The values of type attribute is listed below:

Example:
<Form action=”mailto:abcd.xyz@com” method=post>

<p> Student Name:
<Input type=text name=name size=30 maxlength = 25></p>

<p> Gender:
<input type=radio name=gender value=boy> Boy
<input type=radio name=gender value=girl> Girl
</p>

<p> Subjects:
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Tam> Tamil
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Tel> Telugu
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Eng> English
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Phy> Physics
<input type=checkbox name=sub value=Eco> Economics
</p>
<input type=reset name=reset value=”Clear”>
<input type=submit name=submit value=”Submit”>
</Form>

Question 5.
Explain the attributes of <select> and <option> tags.
Answer:
<Select> Tag
The <select> tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML. It provides a list of various options as a dropdown list. This element is more helpful when a number of options are to be displayed in a limited space. The <option> tag is used to specify list items.

Attributes of <Select> tag:
1. Name – Provide the name to the control, which is sent to the server.

2. Size – Determine the style of dropdown list box.

• o Size = 1 dropdown list box
• o Size = 2 List box

3. Multiple – Allows user to select multiple values:

Attributes of <Option> tag:

• Selected – Indicate default selection
• Value – Value to be submitted to server

Example:

11th Computer Applications Guide HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – I

I. Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
________ are used to depict many complex concepts in simple way.
a) Images
b) Tables
c) Formatted text
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Images

Question 2.
To make more attractive and communicative web pages, ________ should be added in the appropriate places.
a) Images
b) Tables
c) Formatted text
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Images

Question 3.
Host of the browsers supports ________ image format.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 4.
HTML-5 introduces ________ images.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) SVG
Answer:
d) SVG

Question 5.
One format of image can be converted to another format by using ________ Image editing application.
a) Photoshop
b) Picasa
c) GIMP
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 6.
Expand GIF.
a) Graphical Interchange File
b) Grade Interchange Format
c) Graphical Interchange Format
d) Graphical Integrated Format
Answer:
c) Graphical Interchange Format

Question 7.
GIF format was developed by ________.
a) CompuServe
b) Microsoft Corporation
c) Graphics Group
d) Borland International
Answer:
a) CompuServe

Question 8.
GIF image format is suitable for ________.
a) presenting tiny animated images
b) logos
c) icons / line art
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 9.
________ image format is not suitable for photographic work.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) PNG
d) SVG
Answer:
a) GIF

Question 10.
GIF uses maximum of ________ colours.
a) 1024
b) 256
c) 512
d) All natural
Answer:
b) 256

Question 11.
________ do not support sound or playback control.
a) Animated GIF
b) MP4
c) Quick Time Format
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Animated GIF

Question 12.
Expand JPEG.
a) Joint Photo Experts Group
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group
c) Joint Photographic Express Group
d) Joint Photographic External Group
Answer:
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 13.
________ is the most popular image format supported by all web browsers.
a) JPEG
b) MP4
c) Quick Time Format
d) None of these
Answer:
a) JPEG

Question 14.
________ image format is suitable for photographic work.
a) GIF
b) JPEG
c) MP4
d) None of these
Answer:
b) JPEG

Question 15.
Expand PNG.
a) Portable Network Graphics
b) Portable Network Group
c) Physical Network Graphics
d) Portable Natural Graphics
Answer:
a) Portable Network Graphics

Question 16.
Expand SVG.
a) Support Vector Graphics
b) Scalable Vector Graphics
c) Script Vector Graphics
d) Scalable Vector Group
Answer:
b) Scalable Vector Graphics

Question 17.
________ tag is used to insert an image in web page.
a) <IMG>
b) <IMAGE>
c) <PIC>
d) <SRC>
Answer:
a) <IMG>

Question 18.
________ is the main attribute of <IMG> tag.
a) Source
b) SRC
c) HREF
d) DYNSRC
Answer:
b) SRC

Question 19.
________ is the attribute of <IMG> tag.
a) Alt
b) Width and Height
c) Vspace and Hspace
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 20.
The ________ attribute within <img> tag is used to describe the image, so that some text is conveyed even when the image cannot be displayed.
a) Alt
b) Width and Height
c) Vspace and Hspace
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Alt

Question 21.
________ attribute is used to set the width of an image.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
a) Width

Question 22.
________ attribute is used to set the height of an image.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
b) Height

Question 23.
________ attribute is used to set the vertical space between the images.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
c) Vspace

Question 24.
________ attribute is used to set the horizontal space between the images.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
d) Hspace

Question 25.
The ________ attribute used to align the image with respect to the base line of the text.
a) align
b) Height
c) Vspace
d) Hspace
Answer:
a) align

Question 26.
Align attribute has the ________ value.
a) Bottom
b) Middle
c) Top
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 27.
Using ________ value with align attribute, displayed the image on the left side of the text.
a) Left
b) Right
c) Start
d) End
Answer:
a) Left

Question 28.
Using ________ value with align attribute, displayed the image on the right side of the text
a) Left
b) Right
c) Start
d) End
Answer:
b) Right

Question 29.
Scrolling text using ________ tag.
a) <Marquee>
b) Scroll>
c) <Move>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Marquee>

Question 30.
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using ________ tag.
a) <Marquee>
b) <Scroll>
c) <Move>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Marquee>

Question 31.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behavior
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 32.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 33.
________ is the attribute of <Marquee> tag.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 34.
________ attribute is used to specify the direction of the movement of text or image.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behaviour
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Direction

Question 35.
________ is the possible value of direction attribute.
a) Up
b) Down
c) Left / Right
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 36.
________ attribute is used to specify the type of scrolling.
a) Direction
b) Height and Width
c) Behaviour
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Behaviour

Question 37.
________ is the value of behaviour attribute.
a) Scroll
b) Slide
c) Alternate
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 38.
________ attribute is used to define the time delay between each jump.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
a) Scrolldelay

Question 39.
The time unit of scrolldelay should be in ________.
a) Minutes
b) Seconds
c) Hours
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Seconds

Question 40.
________ attribute is used to define the speed of the scroll.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
b) Scrollamount

Question 41.
________ attribute is for defining how many times the marquee element should repeat on the screen.
a) Scrolldelay
b) Scrollamount
c) Loop
d) Behaviour
Answer:
c) Loop

Question 42.
The default value of loop attribute is ________.
a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) Endless
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Infinite

Question 43.
________ attribute is used to specify the background color to the marquee elements.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Bgcolor

Question 44.
________ attribute is for defining the horizontal space around the marquee.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace.
c) Vspace
d) Behaviour
Answer:
b) Hspace.

Question 45.
________ attribute is for defining the vertical space around the marquee.
a) Bgcolor
b) Hspace
c) Vspace
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Vspace

Question 46.
The value of Vspace and Hspace attribute can be in ________
a) Pixels
b) Percentage
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 47.
________ is the core part of the modern web pages.
a) Video
b) Sound
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 48.
In HTML, a video or audio content may be included as ________ data.
a) Inline
b) External
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either A or B

Question 49.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) The inline refers to audio or video files are handled as part of the page.
b) Inline media files play the audio or video when the page is visible in the browser window.
c) The external refers, linking external audio or video files as url.
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 50.
The ________ tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage.
a) <embed>
b) <Bgsound>
c) <Img>
d) All the above
Answer:
a) <embed>

Question 51.
________ tag includes the controls of the multimedia automatically in the browser.
a) <Embed>
b) <Bgsound>
c) <Img>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Embed>

Question 52.
The ________ tag may be used as an alternate to display some other media file, in the case of the browser does not support <embed> tag.
a) <Cancel>
b) <Noembed>
c) <Skip>
d) None of these
Answer:
b) <Noembed>

Question 53.
________ is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag.
a) Src
b) Source
c) File
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Src

Question 54.
________ is the attribute of <embed> tag.
a) Align
b) Height / Width
c) Align
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 55.
The ________ tag is used to attach an inline sound file in HTML.
a) <Bgsound>
b) <Background>
c) <Inline>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Bgsound>

Question 56.
The ________ attribute is used to define the location of the media file.
a) Src
b) Source
c) File
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Src

Question 57.
________ attribute of <bgsound> tag is used to adjust volume control.
a) Volume
b) Slider
c) Sound
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Volume

Question 58.
The ________ attribute of <bgsound> tag defines the duration of play.
a) Duration
b) Loop
c) Repeat
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Loop

Question 59.
The ________ value causes the audio play as long as the page is in view.
a) Infinite
b) Endless
c) Complete
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Infinite

Question 60.
________ is used to receive information from the user.
a) Frame
b) Container
c) Form
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Form

Question 61.
Forms are commonly used to allow users ________.
a) to register on a Web site
b) to log in to a Web site
c) to send feedback
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 62.
In search engines, ________ are used to accept the keywords for search.
a) Frames
b) Containers
c) Forms
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Forms

Question 63.
The tag is used to create a form.
a) <Form>
b) <Frame>
c) <Container>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Form>

Question 64.
Forms contain ________ element.
a) Text boxes / Radio buttons
b) Check boxes
c) Buttons / Drop-down lists
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 65.
The form has ________ button, which will submit the entries of a form to a server application to process the entries.
a) Submit
b) Send
c) OK
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Submit

Question 66.
Each element in the form is assigned a name using the ________ attribute.
a) Title
b) Name
c) Heading
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Name

Question 67.
In a form, users enter values into the ________.
a) Text boxes
b) Radio buttons
c) Check boxes
d) Drop down lists
Answer:
a) Text boxes

Question 68.
In a form, users make selections from the ________.
a) Drop down lists
b) Radio buttons
c) Check boxes
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 69.
The important attribute used with the <form> tag is ________.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 70.
The ________ attribute of the form tag is used to identify tow the form element names and values will be sent to the server.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Method

Question 71.
The_______ method will append the names Of the form elements and their values to the URL.
a) Post
b) Get
c) Append
d) Add
Answer:
b) Get

Question 72.
The ________ method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets.
a) Post
b) Get
c) Append
d) Add
Answer:
a) Post

Question 73.
The ________ attribute identifies the server side program or script that will process the form.
a) Method
b) Action
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Action

Question 74.
CGI means ________.
a) Common Gateway Interaction
b) Common Gateway Induction
c) Common Gateway Interface
d) Classic Gateway Interface
Answer:
c) Common Gateway Interface

Question 75.
CGI is a program written in programming language ________.
a) Peri / PHP
b) JavaScript
c) ASP
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 76.
ASP means ________.
a) Active Server Pages
b) Additional Server Pages
c) Accumulate Server Pages
d) All Server Pages
Answer:
a) Active Server Pages

Question 77.
________ is a control used in a form to collect the data.
a) Text box / Password box
b) Checkbox / Radio buttons / Text area,
c) Select box/Submit Button/Reset Button
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 78.
Most of the form controls are created by using ________ tag.
a) <Input>
b) <Control>
c) <Content>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Input>

Question 79.
________ attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag.
a) Text
b) Input
c) Content
d) None o these
Answer:
b) Input

Question 80.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a text box.
a) Text
b) Reset
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
a) Text

Question 81.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a password text box.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
b) Password

Question 82.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a checkbox.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
c) Checkbox

Question 83.
The value of type attribute is ________, to create a radio button.
a) Text
b) Password
c) Checkbox
d) Radiobutton
Answer:
d) Radiobutton

Question 84.
________ is used to select multiple option.
a) Text box
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
c) Checkbox

Question 85.
________ is used to select any one of the multiple options from the list.
a) Text box
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
d) Radio button

Question 86.
________ command button is used to clear all the entries made in the form.
a) Reset button
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
a) Reset button

Question 87.
________ command button is used to submit all the entries made in the form to the back end server.
a) Reset button
b) Submit button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Submit button

Question 88.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create a standard button on the form used to call functions on dick.
a) Reset
b) Button
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Button

Question 89.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create command button is used to submit all the entries made in the form to the back.
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
b) Submit

Question 90.
The <input> tag attribute type value ________ is used to create command button is used to clear all the entries made in the form.
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Checkbox
d) Radio button
Answer:
a) Reset

Question 91.
________ is the attribute of <input> tag.
a) Name / Value
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 92.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to assign a name to the input controls.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
a) Name

Question 93.
________ attribute of <input> is used to define default value to some controls.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
d) Value

Question 94.
________ attribute of <input> is used to set the width of the input text in terms of characters.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
b) Size

Question 95.
The <input> tag attribute ________ is applicable only for textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 96.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to set the length of the input character to the textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 97.
________ attribute of <input> tag is used to set the number of characters to be inputted to the textbox and password boxes.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Maxlength
d) Value
Answer:
c) Maxlength

Question 98.
The ________ tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML.
a) <select>
b) <ddown>
c) <dropdn>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <select>

Question 99.
In form design, ________ element is more helpful when a number of options are to be displayed in a limited space.
a) Text box
b) Checkbox
c) Dropdown list box
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Dropdown list box

Question 100.
The ________ tag is used to specify list Items in a dropdown list box.
a) <Option>
b) <U>
c) <LItem>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Option>

Question 101.
________ is the attribute of <Select> tag.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 102.
________ is the attribute of <Option> tag.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 103.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ provides the name to the control, which is sent to the server.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Name

Question 104.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ determines the style of dropdown list box
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Size

Question 105.
The <Select> tag attribute size ________ to create a dropdown list box.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
a) 1

Question 106.
The <Select> tag attribute size ________ to create a list box.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
b) 2

Question 107.
The <Select> tag attribute ________ allows user to select multiple values.
a) Name
b) Size
c) Multiple
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Multiple

Question 108.
The attribute of <Option> tag ________ indicates default selection.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Selected

Question 109.
The form value to be submitted to server using ________ attribute of <Option> tag.
a) Selected
b) Value
c) Both A and B
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Value

Question 110.
The ________ tag used to receive multiline text data as input.
a) <Textarea>
b) <Text>
c) <MultiText>
d) None of these
Answer:
a) <Textarea>

Question 111.
________ is the main attribute of <Textarea> tag.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ is used to define name to the control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cots
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Name

Question 113.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of rows in the text area control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Rows

Question 114.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of columns in the text area control.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Cols

Question 115.
The <Textarea> tag attribute ________ specifies the number of characters in a line.
a) Name
b) Rows
c) Cols
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Cols

Question 116.
Photoshop is a familiar photo editing tool developed by ________.
a) Adobe
b) Lifescape
c) Microsoft
d) Apple
Answer:
a) Adobe

Question 117.
________ is a free image organizer and editing tool developed by Lifescape.
a) GIMP
b) Photoshop
c) Picasa
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Picasa

Question 118.
________ is a open source image editing tool.
a) GIMP
b) Photoshop
c) Picasa
d) None of these
Answer:
a) GIMP

Part – II

II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
How will add background music In a web page?
Answer:
Background music:
Music can be played in the background to a webpage, while the page is viewed. This is known as ‘inline’ sound or movie. The <bgsound> tag is used to attach an inline sound file in HTML.

• The src attribute is used to define the location of the media file.
• Volume attribute used to adjust volume control.
• The loop attribute defines the duration of play.

The ‘infinite’ value causes the aydio play as long as the page is in view.

General Format:
<bgsound src=music file name with location >

Example:
<bgsound src=”D:\CS_Videos\TamilThai Vazhthu.mp3″ loop=infinite>

Question 2.
Write note on form in HTML.
Answer:
Forms are used to receive information from the user. Forms are commonly used to allow users to register on a Web site, to log in to a Web site, to order a product, and to send feedback. In search engines, forms are used to accept the keywords for search.

The <form> tag is used to create a form. An HTML from starts with <form> and ends with </ form> tag. Forms contain many types of form elements, such as text boxes, radio buttons, check boxes, buttons and drop-down lists.

Question 3.
What are the form controls?
Answer:
In HTML, there are different types of form controls are used to collect data. They are Text box, Password, Checkbox, Radio buttons, Text area, Select box, Submit and Reset Button.

Question 4.
What are the popular image format supported by most of the browsers?
Answer:
Most of the browsers supports, GIF, JPEG and PNG images formats. HTML-5 introduces SVG images.

Question 5.
List some of the Image editing applications.
Answer:
Image editing applications are Photoshop, Picasa, GIMP etc.

Part – III

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
How will you insert an image in a HTML document?
Answer:
Inserting Images with HTML document
The <IMG> tag along with the attribute src (Source) is used to add images in HTML document.

General format:
<img src = image_name_with_extension> (OR) <img src = URL>

Example:
<img src = image1.gif>

Src attribute is the main attribute used to specify the file name of the image to be inserted. If the image is not in the current working folder, the image file name should dearly specify with the path of the file or URL, where the file is available.

Example:
<img src = “D:\images\animals\cat.jpeg”>

An HTML code to insert an inline image:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 2.
Explain align attribute of <IMG> tag with suitable example.
Answer:
Align attribute:
The align attribute used to aligns the image with respect to the base line of the text. This attribute has the following values.

Bottom – Aligns the bottom of the image with the baseline of the text. This is the default setting.
Middle – Aligns the middle of the image with the baseline of the text.
Top – Aligns the top of the image with the baseline of the text.

Left and Right values of Align attribute:
Using left and right values with align attribute, displayed the image on the left and right side of the text.

An HTML code to demonstrate baseline of text:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 3.
How wilt you insert video and sound in a webpage?
Answer:
The <embed> tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage. This tag includes the controls of the multimedia automatically in the browser. The <poembed> tag may be used as an alternate to display some other media file, in the case of the browser does not support <embed> tag.

Src is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag. The src attribute used to specify the name of the media file with its source location. Other attributes such as alt, height, width and align are used as it is used with <img>.

General Format:
<embed src = audio / video file name with location > </embed>

An HTML code to demonstrate adding audio and video files (internal source):

Output:

Part – IV

IV. Explain In Brief

Question 1.
Explain all the attributes of <IMG> tag with suitable HTML code.
Answer:
Attributes of <img> tag:
Other than src, the <img> tag has many attributes the enable to control how the image is presented on the page.

Alt (Alternative Text)
The alt attribute within <img> tag is used to describe the image, so that some text is conveyed even when the image cannot be displayed.

Example:
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”>

Width and Height:
Width and Height attributes are used to set the width and height of an image. The values of these attributes should be either pixels or percentage of its actual size. If these attributes are not specified, the browser displays the image in its original size.

Vspace (Vertical Space) and Hspace (Horizontal Space):
Vspace and Hspace attributes are used to set Vertical and Horizontal space between the images.

An HTML code to demonstrate <img> attributes:

The OUTPUT will be:

Question 2.
Explain scrolling text using <Marquee> with its attribute.
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive.

General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>
Attributes of <marquee>

Height and Width:
These attributes are used to set height and width of the marquee. The values should be either in pixels or in percentage of browser window.

Direction:
This is used to specify the direction of the movement of text or image. The text or image will move towards right to left by default. So, the default direction is left. The Possible values are ‘up’, ‘down’, ‘left’ or ‘right’.

Behaviour:
This attribute is used to specify the type of scrolling. The values are ‘scroll’, ‘slide’ and ‘alternate’.

Scrolldelay:
This attribute is used to define the time delay between each jump. The. time unit should be in seconds.

ScroUamount:
This is used to define the speed of the scroll.

Loop:
This is for defining how many times the marquee element should repeat on the screen. The default value is ‘infinite’ which means the marquee element scrolls endlessly.

Bgcolor:
This is used to specify the background color to the marquee elements.

Hspace and Vspace:
This is for defining the horizontal and vertical space around the marquee, The value can be in pixels or percentage.

An HTML code to demonstrate marquee: