Category: Class 9

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 6 Man and Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Man and Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Man and Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
All externa Influences and factors that affect the growth and development of living organisms is __________
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
(d) Abiotic factors
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 2.
The ‘World Population Day’ is observed on __________ every year.
(a) August 11th
(b) September 11th
(c) July 11th
(d) January 11th
Answer:
(c) July 11th

Question 3.
The statistical study of human population is __________
(a) Demography
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography
Answer:
(a) Demography

Question 4.
The extraction of valuable minerals and other geological minerals from the mines, is __________
(a) Fishing
(b) Lumbering
(c) Mining
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 5.
The Secondary sector of the economy produces __________ from raw materials.
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Finished goods
(c) Economic goods
(d) raw materials
Answer:
(b) Finished goods

Question 6.
Gradual increase of the earth’s temperature by the Green house gases in the atmosphere is called __________
(a) Acid rain
(b) thermal pollution
(c) Global warming
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(c) Global warming

II. Mitch the following

1. Loudspeaker – (a) Push factor
2. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil – (b) Pull factor
3. Cruciform settlement – (c) noice pollution
4. Natural disaster – (d) T- shaped settlement
5. Better living conditions – (e) Earth Summit, 1992

Answer:

1. – (c)
2. – (e)
3. – (d)
4. – (a)
5. – (b)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered as a protective shield.
Reason(R): It prevents the UV radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In tertiary activities, instead of producing goods by themselves, they are in the process of production.
Reason(R): People in Tertiary activities are purely eco friendly.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘density’ of population’?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people living per square kilometre. An area is said to be sparsely populated when it has a large area with less number of people. Similarly, smaller the area with a large number of people, it is said to be densely populated.

Question 2.
What is ‘black death’?
Answer:

1. The Black death is estimated to have killed 30 – 60 percent of Europe’s total population during the 14th century.
2. The dominant explanation for black death is attributed to the outbreak of plague.

Question 3.
Where do we have high and low densities of population?
Answer:
Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, northwest Europe & Eastern North America.
Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc.

Question 4.
Write any two ways of how the locals and the government restored Palk Bay.
Answer:

1. Saplings of native species of plants and trees are being grown planet and cared for
2. Live colonies of coral from the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve are being transplanted to Palk Bay. The existing mangroves and the region are being mapped and the way land is used around the mangrove is being studied.
3. Along with awareness programmes, the communities are also being provided with livelihood training, so they can earn an income in more ways than just fishing.

Question 5.
Define.

1. Population growth
2. Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census
4. Sustainable Development.

Answer:

1. Population growth refers to an increase in the number of people who reside in a particular area during a particular period.
2. The number of deaths under one year of age for every 1000 live births in a year is known as Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically. It records information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
4. “Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Deforestation is encouraged throughout the world.
Answer:
Deforestation results in many effects like floods and droughts, loss of soil fertility, air pollution, extinction of species, global warming, spread of deserts, depletion of water resource, melting of ice caps and glaciers, rise in sea level and depletion of ozone layer. Therefore, reforestation is encouraged throughout the world in order to conserve our mother Earth.

Question 2.
Acid rain destroys the ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Acid rain has many ecological effect, but none is greater than its impact on lakes, streams, wetlands and other aquatic environments.
2. Acid-rain makes water acidic, and causes them to absorb the aluminium that makes its way from soil into lakes and streams.
3. It limits the nutrients available to the plants and expose them to toxic substances that are released from soil.

Question 3.
The economy of the quaternary sector is called the knowledge economy.
Answer:
The quaternary sector deals with the activities related to Research and Development, as well as knowledge. For e g. Services like consultation, education, and banking. Hence, it is called a knowledge economy.

Question 4.
Population growth has to be brought under control.
Answer:

1. Urgent steps need to be taken to stabilise the population for sustainable development goals to be achieved.
2. Through education awareness of the problems faced due to population explosion like pollution, scarcity of resources, conflict low standard of living and disruption in the ecological balance.

Question 5.
Sustainable development growth has been set to protect the planet.
Answer:
The excessive usage of natural and manmade resources deplete its availability for the future generation. Hence conservation and awareness are the two important terms that can bring sustainability to our living: When we use the word sustainability to mean maintain, it means to maintain it forever. This is because our actions have a lasting effect on the environment and we should protect it for our future generations.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Birth Rate and Death Rate.
Answer:
Birth rate:
The number of live birth per 1000 children in a country during a year.

Death Rate:
The number of death per 1000 people in a country during a year.

Question 2.
Rural settlement and urban settlement
Answer:
Rural settlement:

1. An area located in the outskirts, is known as rural.
2. Villages and hamlets constitute ‘rural areas.

Urban settlement:

1. A settlement where the population is very high and has the features of a built environment, is known as urban.
2. Cities and towns constitute urban areas.

Question 3.
Primary activities and Secondary activities
Answer:
Primary Activities:

1. Primary activities pertain to the extraction of raw materials from the earth’s surface.
2. For example: Food gathering, hunting, lumbering, fishing, cattle rearing, mining and agriculture.

Secondary Activities:

1. Secondary activities transform raw materials into finished goods.
2. For example: Iron and steel industries, automobile manufacturing etc.,

VII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting the distribution of the population.
Answer:
The world population is not uniformly distributed, owing to the following factors.

• Physical Factors: Physical factors include temperature, rainfall, soil, relief, water, natural vegetation, distribution of minerals and availability of energy resources.
• Historical Factors: Regions with historical importance (river valley civilizations), war and constant invasions fall under historical factors responsible for population distribution.
• Economic Factors: Educational institutions, employment opportunities, manufacturing industries, luxurious amenities, trade and commerce and other facilities encourage dense population in an area.

Question 2.
Describe the patterns of rural settlement with neat diagrams.
Answer:

VIII. Map Skill

Question A.
On the outline map of the world mark the following.

1. An area of high density of population in Europe.
2. An area of low density of population in Australia.
3. PalkBay.
4. A fracking banned country.
5. England – A country affected by ‘black death’
6. Denmark – First country where the modem census was conducted.
7. River Hwang Ho.

Answer:

Question B.
On the outline map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.

1. A metropolitan city
2. A district with 7857 people per sq. km.
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Palk Strait

Answer:

IX. Hots

Question 1.
Study your area and write down its settlement pattern.
Answer:

1. A settlement pattern refers to the way that buildings and houses are distributed in a rural settlement.
2. Settlement patterns are of interest to geographers, historians and anthropologists for the insight they offer in how a community has developed over time.

Linear:
In a linear settlement pattern, the buildings are arranged in lines. These lines often follow the route of a road or body of water.

Dispersed:
In a dispersed settlement pattern, the buildings are scattered over a wide area. Dispersed settlement patterns are often associated with agricultural activity and are frequently surrounded by farmland.

Nucleated:
In a nucleated settlement pattern, the buildings are grouped around a central core. Nucleated settlement patterns are usually associated with patterns of agriculture in which the settlement is surrounded two or three fields, and each field divided into strips that were formed b individual farmers.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Man and Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The percentage of people in a given population who can read and write a language refer to ______
(a) Infant mortality
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Sex ratio
(d) Populationdensity
Answer:
(b) Literacyrate

Question 2.
In India the first census was carried out in the year ________
(a) 1800
(b) 1821
(c) 1872
(d) 1880
Answer:
(c) 1872

Question 3.
At the Confluence of river this pattern is developed ________
(a) Starlike
(b) Triangular
(c) Nebular
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Triangular

Question 4.
Automobile manufacturing comes under this economic activity
(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(c) Secondary

Question 5.
Van Mahotsav week celebrated during
(a) 1st July to 7th July
(b) 1st June to 7th June
(c) 1st January to 7th January
(d) 1st December to 7th December
Answer:
(a) 1st July to 7th July

Question 6.
News paper and Cardboard belong to
a) Wet waste
(b) Dry waste
(c) Rejected waste
(d) e – waste
Answer:
(b) Dry waste

Question 7.
Palk Bay is the home of
(a) Coconut trees
(b) Dry waste
(c) Mangrove trees
(d) e – waste
Answer:
(c) Mangrove trees

Consider the given statement and choose the right option given below.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Deforestation results in floods and drought.
Reason(R): Under deforestation trees are cut down clearing the forests.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Bpth A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R does not explain A
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Urbanisation is one of the environmental issues.
Reason(R) : As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on transport system, water supplies leading to air pollution, water pollution etc.
(a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explain (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explain (A)

II. Match the following

1. Monuments – (i) Low density
2. Denmark – (ii) Rectangular Pattern
3. Northern Russia – (iii) Madurai
4. Plain Areas – (iv) Man – Made
5. Metropolitan – (v) Census

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (v)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

III. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Classify the Environment.
Answer:
Environment can be classified as

1. Natural Environment
2. Human Environment and
3. Man Made Environment

Question 2.
What is demography?
Answer:

1. In ancient Greek, ‘demos’ means people and ‘graphis’ means study of measurement.
2. So ‘Demography’ is the statistical study of human population.

Question 3.
What is National Increase of population?
Answer:
National increase of population is the difference between the birth rate and death rate.

Question 4.
What is population change?
Answer:
Population change refers to an increase or decrease in the population of an area influenced by the number of births, deaths and migration.

Question 5.
Why do we observe the The World Population Day?
Answer:

1. The World Population Day is observed on 11th July every year.
2. It seeks to raise awareness of global population issues.
3. The United Nations Development Programme started celebrating this event from the year 1989.

Question 6.
Mention about the official population policy implemented in 1952.
Answer:

1. India has an official population policy implemented in 1952.
2. India was the first country to announce such a policy.
3. The main objective of this policy was to slow down the rate of population growth, through . promotion of various birth control measures.

Question 7.
Explain the Quinary Activities.
Answer:

1. The activities that focus on the creation, rearrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas are called quinary activities.
2. It includes the highest levels of decision making in a society or economy.
3. Eg. Senior business executives, scientists and policymakers in the Government.

Question 8.
Explain the term afforestation.
Answer:

1. Afforestation is the process of planting trees or sowing seeds on barren land devoid of any trees to create a forest.
2. Therefore afforestation is the creation of a new forest.

Question 9.
What is forest management?
Answer:

1. Forest Management seeks to achieve a balance between the society’s increasing demands for forest products, its benefits and the preservation of forest health and diversity too.
2. This balance is critical to the survival of forests and to the prosperity of forest dependent communities.

Question 10.
What are natural pollutants?
Answer:
The natural pollutants are volcanic eruptions, wind erosion, pollen disposal, evaporation of organic compounds and radioactive elements etc.,

Question 11.
What are man made pollutants?
Answer:
Man made pollutants refer to vehicular emission, industrial wastes, smoke from thermal power plants and refineries badly affects the environment.

Question 12.
Mention any three ways to conserve Water.
Answer:

1. To conserve water do not dump in or around rivers. Clean up rivers that have a lot of trash in and around them.
2. Never dispose of cooking fats and oils by proving them down the sink.
3. Turn off water while brushing teeth, washing, gardening and sharing.

Question 13.
Mention the preventive measures of land pollution.
Answer:

1. Things used for domestic purposes can be reused and recycled.
2. Organic waste matter should be disposed off far away from the settlements.
3. Inorganic wastes can be separated, reclaimed and recycled.

Question 14.
What is Smog?
Answer:

1. Smog is a mixture of smoke, gases and chemicals.
2. It causes a smoky dark atmosphere, especially over cities.
3. It decreases visibility and creates haze throughout the area.

Question 15.
Mention the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:

1. As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on transport system, water supplies, sewage and profuse disposal.
2. The overall development creates problems like air pollution, water pollution, traffic congestion and noise pollution etc.
3. This disturbed environment affects the human beings as mental illness, heart troubles, breathing problems etc.

Question 16.
Why is Sustainability important?
Answer:

1. The excessive usage of natural and manmade resources deplete its availability for the future generation.
2. We need to look after our planet, our resources and our people to ensure that we can hand over our planet to our children to live in true sustainability.
3. Hence conservation and awareness are the two important terms that can bring sustainability to our living.
4. When we use the word sustainability to mean maintain, it means to maintain it forever.
5. This is because our actions have a lasting effect on the environment and we should protect it for our future generations.

IV. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Internal Migration and International Migration.
Answer:
Internal Migration:

1. The movement of people within a country i.e. between states, districts, villages, etc is called as Internal migration.

International Migration:

1. The movement of people from one country to another, across international borders is called as International migration.

Question 2.
Land Pollution and Noise Pollution.
Answer:
Land Pollution:

1. Land pollution is contaminating the land surface of the earth through dumping of urban waste matter.
2. It arises from the breakage of underground storage tanks, application of pesticides and percolation of contaminated surface water, oil and fuel dumping.
3. One of the preventive measures. Inorganic wastes can be separated, reclaimed and recycled.

Noise Pollution:

1. Noise pollution is basically a problem of urban areas, industrial areas, transport areas due to bombardment, traffic etc.
2. It has an impact on the habitat of animals migration and health of inhabitants.
3. One of the control measures planting trees along the compound walls to protect houses.

Question 3.
Push factors and pull factors
Answer:
Push Factors:

1. In sufficient jobs and few opportunities.
2. Primitive conditions
3. Pollution
4. Poor infrastructural facilities

Pull factors:

1. Better job opportunities.
2. Better living conditions
3. Clean environment
4. Better infrastructural facilities

V. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Fracking’affect the environment.
Answer:

1. Fracking not only pollutes water and air but also pollutes the soil.
2. The oil spills during fracking can harm the soil and the surrounding vegetation.
3. The use of high pressure at the time of soil extraction and the storage of waste water on site may cause earthquakes.

Question 2.
Segregate bio degrable
Answer:

1. We should segregate biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes so that we can easily notice and separate all biodegradable which can be used as a fertilizer. While nonbiodegradable can be recycled.
2. Segregate of wastes in important for properly disposing of the huge amount of garbage in an environmentally conscious manner.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the classification of the Environment.
Answer:
(a) Natural Environment
(b) Human Environment
(c) Man made Environment

(a) Natural Environment : Natural components of environment such as Lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.

(b) Human Environment : This is the interaction between man as an individual, with his family, occupation and society. It is also related to various cultural aspects such as education, religion, economics and politics.

(c) Man made Environment :

1. This has been created by man himself for the purpose of fulfilling his needs and to make his life more convenient and easy.
2. For example, building, transport, park, industries, monument, etc.
3. To bring an equilibrium between man and the environment, man has to study the distribution of population, availability of resources, development in technology etc.

Question 2.
Explain the term density of population.
Answer:

1. Density of population refers to the number of people living per sq. km. An area is said to be sparsely populated when it has a large area with less number of people. Similarly, smaller the area with a large number of people, it is said to be densely populated.
2. Population Density = \(\frac { Total Population }{ Total land area }\)

The world’s population density is divided into three main groups.
(a) Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, North West Europe & Eastern North America.

(b) Areas of moderate density (10 to 50 people per sq.km) – The sub tropical regions like Angola, Congo, Nigeria and Zambia in Africa.

(c) Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc…

Question 3.
What is ‘Migration’? and explain its types.
Answer:

1. Migration is defined as the permanent or semi-permanent change of home of an individual or a group of people over a significant distance from their place of birth.
2. The causes of migration may be physical (climate, drought, flood, earthquake, volcanic eruption, epidemics etc.), social inequalities, economic opportunities, technology, education, cultural clashes, war or political issues.
3. There are two types of migration:

(a) Internal Migration – The movement of people.within a country i.e. between states, districts, villages, etc is called as Internal migration.

(b) International Migration – The movement of people from one country to another, across international borders is called as International migration.

Question 4.
What are Urban Settlements? apd explain its types.
Answer:

1. Urban is the term related to cities and towns where people are primarily engaged in non-agricultural activities.
2. The factors responsible for urbanization are better employment opportunities, suitable conditions for business, education, transport, etc.
3. Urban centres are classified as towns, cities, metropolitan cities, mega cities, conurbation, etc., depending on the size and services available and functions rendered to it.

(a) Town : A town is generally larger than a village, but smaller than a city. It has a population of less than 1 lakh. E.g.: Arakkonam.

(b) City : Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic
functions. The population in cities are estimated to be more than 1 lakh. E.g.: Coimbatore

(c) Metropolitan Cities : Cities accommodating population between 10 lakhs and 50 lakhs are metropolitan cities. E.g.: Madurai

(d) Mega cities : Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called Megacities. E.g.: Chennai

(e) Conurbation : A conurbation is a region comprising of a number of cities, large towns and other urban areas. E.g.: Delhi

Question 5.
What are the effects of Deforestation?
Answer:

1. Deforestation results in many effects like floods and droughts, loss of soil fertility, air pollution, extinction of species, global warming, spread of deserts, depletion of water resource, melting of ice caps and glaciers, rise in sea level and depletion of ozone layer
2. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) by name Earth Summit Conference held at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, on June 1992 concluded that all member countries should reduce their emission of carbon dioxide, methane and other green house gases thought to be responsible for global warming.

Question 6.
How can we conserve forests?
Answer:

1. Conservation of forests can be done through the regulation of cutting of trees.
2. Control over forest fire: Through regular monitoring and controlling the movement of the people forest fire can be prevented.
3. Reforestation and afforestation: Reforestation involves the replanting or regeneration of areas of forest which have previously been damaged or destroyed.
   Sometimes forests are able to regenerate naturally. Afforestation is the process of planting trees or sowing seeds on barren land devoid of any trees to create a forest.
4. Proper use of forest products: We depend on forests for our survival from the air we breathe, to the wood we use.
   Besides providing habitats for animals and livelihoods for humans, forest products are one of the most essential things in our day to day life. Therefore we must use forest products properly.
5. Sustainable forest management: The use of forest and forest lands in a way and at a rate, that maintains their biodiversity, productivity, regeneration capacity, vitality and their potential to fulfill the global levels should not cause damage to other eco systems.

Question 7.
Write short note on
(a) Green House Effect
(b) Add Rain
Answer:
(a) Green house :

1. Global warming is caused by the increase of green house gases such as carbondioxide, methane, water vapour and Chloro Fluoro Carbons(CFC), carbon monoxide, photo chemical oxidants and hydrocarbons.
2. They are responsible for the heat retention ability of the atmosphere.
3. Global warming causes climatic change, ozone layer depletion, rise in sea level and drowning of coastal inhabited land, melting of ice, etc.,
4. They are posing an even greater threat to human existence and so, man must start thinking of protecting the environment from pollution.

(b) Acid Rain :

1. When pollutants combine with water vapour in the presence of sunlight and oxygen, they form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids in the atmosphere.
2. When this mixture precipitates from the atmosphere, 0 is called acid rain.
3. The gases that cause acid rain are sulphur-di-oxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon-di-oxide and other minute bio-products, caused by the burning of fossil fuels.

Question 8.
W rite a note on Ozone layer.
Answer:

1. Ozone is a poisonous gas made up of molecules consisting of three oxygen atoms (03).
   This gas is extremely rare in the atmosphere, representing just three out of every 10 million molecules.
2. The ozone layer is not really a layer at all, but has become known as such because most ozone particles are scattered between 19 and 30 kilometre up in the earth’s atmosphere, in a region called the stratosphere.
3. Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
4. It also screens out the deadly UV-C radiation the ozone shield is this essential to protect life.

Question 9.
Explain the term Fracking.
Answer:

1. The modem technology applied to extract oil and gas while fracturing the rocks artificially with the use of pressurized liquid is called fracking.
2. Fracking fluid is a mixture of water, sand and thickening agents.
3. The first successful implementation of the process was done in 1950.
4. Methane is one of the most important chemicals used in fracking process.
5. It is estimated that four percent of methane escapes into the atmosphere during extraction.
6. Methane is 25 times stronger than carbon di-oxide in terms of trapping heat.
7. The spills of this gas is detrimental to the air quality of the surrounding fracking sites
8. Pollutants decrease the availability of clean air for workers and local residents.

Question 10.
How to dispose a Waste?
Answers:

1. Do not litter your surroundings. Use a proper waste bin to store your wastes.
2. People should practise to segregate degradable and non-degradable wastes and should dispose
   them in proper coloured bins. Wastage is generally classified into three types. They are

(a) Wet Waste: It comes from the kitchen/cooking/food, etc.

(b) Dry Recyclable Waste : Such as newspapers, cardboard, packing plastics, bottles, cans, etc., should go to a different bin.

(c) Rejected Waste: which does not belong to the above two categories, including bio waste like diapers and bandages, etc.

(d) Sewage: sewage slude is produced by waste water treatment processes. Due to rapid urbanization, there has been an increase in municipal waste water.

Electronic Waste (e-waste):

1. It can be defined as any electrical goods, devices or components that you no longer want or have already thrown away. For example, computers, televisions, mobiles and fax machines.
2. This waste can take many years to break down.
3. It can contain toxic chemicals such as mercury, lead and lithium that leach into the ground and cause illness.
4. Instead of sending e-waste to the dump, components from electronics can be reused to make new products.

Question 11.
Explain the term sustainable development. Why should we balance the economic, social and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony?
Answer:

1. “Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”.
2. For sustainable development tp be achieved, it is crucial to harmonize three core elements: economic growth, social aspects and environmental protection.
3. These elements are interconnected and are crucial for the well-being of individuals and societies.
4. To achieve true sustainability, we need to balance the economic ,social and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony.

Social Sustainability :

1. The ability of a social system such as a country, family or organization to function at a defined level of social well being and harmony is called social sustainability.
2. The balancing capacity of a government in maintaining peaceful existence towards other countries and at the same time providing the requirements of its citizens without affecting the environment creates social sustainability.

Economic Sustainability :

1. The economic sustainability is successfully implemented through strong Public Distrubution System.
2. Economic sustainability ensures that our economic growth maintains a healthy balance with our ecosystem.

Environmental Sustainability :

1. It is the ability of the environment to support a defined level of environmental quality and natural resource extraction rates forever to mankind.
2. Unnecessary disturbances to the environment should be avoided whenever possible.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 2 Employment in India and Tamilnadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Employment in India and Tamilnadu

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Employment in India and Tamilnadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
We take age group ______ years for computation of the workforce.
(a) 12 – 60
(b) 15 – 60
(c) 21 – 65
(d) 5 – 14
Answer:
(b) 15 – 60

Question 2.
Which is the correct sequence of various sectors in GDP of India in the descending order?
(a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector
(d) Secondary sector, Tertiary sector, Primary sector
Answer:
(c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector

Question 3.
Which one of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Public sector
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not in Primary Sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Mining
(d) fishery
Answer:
(a) manufacturing

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not in the Secondary Sector?
(a) Construction
(b) manufacturin
(c) Small Scale Industry
(d) forestry
Answer:
(a) Forestry

Question 6.
Tertiary Sector include/s
(a) Transport
(b) insurance
(c) banking
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) all of these

Question 7.
Which sector is not included in the occupational pattern?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Private sector
answer :
(a)private sector

Question 8.
Match List I with List II using the codes given below:

(1) Agriculture, Forestry, Fishery and Mining – a. Unorganised sector
(2) Manufacturing, Electricity, Gas and Water Supply – b. Service Sector
(3) Trade, Transport and Communication – c. Secondary sector
(4) Unincorporated Enterprises and Household industries – d. Primary Sector
Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

Question 9.
Which Delhi Sultan of medieval India formed ‘Employment Bureau’ to solve the unemployment problem.
(a) Muhamad Bin Tugluq
(b) Allauddin Khilji
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq
(d) Balban
Answer:
(d ) Feroz Shah Tugluq

Question 10.
_____sector is registered and follows government rules.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Organised
(c) Unorganised
(d)private
answer:
(b)organised

Question 11.
_______sector provides job security and higher wages.
(a) Public sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Private sector
answer :
(b) organised sector

Question 12.
Find the odd one
(a)banking
(b) Railways
(c)insurance
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(d) Small Scale Industry

Question 13.
The sectors are classified into Public and Private sectors on the basis of
(a) number of workers employed
(b) nature of the economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) employment conditions
Answer :
(c) ownership of enterprises

Question 14
Assertion (A): The unorganised sector of the economy characterised by household manufacturing activity and small-scale industry.
Reason (R): Jobs here are low paid and often not regular
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)]

Question 15.
People who employ workers and pay rewards for their work is termed as
(a) employee
(b) employer
(c) labour
(d) caretaker
Answer:
(b) employer

Question 16.
_____ continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Banking
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In _____ sector, the employment terms are not fixed and regular
2. Economic activities are classified into_____ and____ sectors.
3. _____ has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
4. Employment pattern changes due to_________
5. The nature of employment in India is__________
6. _______of the economy is the number of people in the country, who work and also capable of working
7. public sector means________

Answer:

1. unorganised
2. public, private
3. employment
4. the lifestyle of the people
5. multi-dimensional
6. labour force
7. government undertaking

III. Match the following

1. Public sector – a. Banking
2. Private sector – b. Poultry
3. Primary sector – c. Profit motive
4. Tertiary sector – d. Service motive

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (c)
3. – (b)
4. – (a)

IV. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is labour force of the economy?
Answer:
Labour force of the economy is the number of people in the country who work and also capable of working.

Question 2.
Why are children and old age (above 60 years) are not considered for the computation of the workforce?
Answer:

1. Persons less than 15 years are considered as children.
2. Persons above 60 years of age are excluded as they are not physically fit to take productive
   occupation
3. If larger percentage of population is accounted for by children and old age persons, then the progress of the country would be very slow as the working force is very small.

Question 3.
What are the three sectors of an economy?
Answer:
The economy is classified into three sectors. Primary (or) Agriculture sector, Secondary (or) Industrial sector, and Tertiary (or) Service sector.

Question 4.
Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in Gross Domestic Product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Agriculture despite a sharp decline in Gross Domestic Product continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
2. This is because the Non – agriculture sectors have not generated enough employment to affect a shift of labour force.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain: (a) primary sector; (b) secondary sector; (c) tertiary sector.
Answer:
The structure of employment denotes the number of workers engaged in different sectors of the economy.

Primary Sector: Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, poultry, dairy farming, fishing, etc.

Secondary Section: Manufacturing, small and large scale industries, and constructional activities.

Tertiary Sector: Transport insurance banking, trade, communication, real estate, government, and non-government services.
In developing countries like India that a large workforce will be engaged in the Primary Sector, while a small proportion in Secondary and Tertiary sectors.

Question 2.
Explain the employment structure of India.
Answer:

1. The nature of employment in India is multi-dimensional.
2. Some get employment throughout the year, some others get employed for only a few months in a year.
3. The economy is classified into three sectors. Primary or agricultural sector, secondary or industrial sector, tertiary or service sectors.
   • Primary Sector – Agriculture, animal husbandry, poultry, dairy farming etc.
   • Secondary Sector – Manufacturing, small and large scale industries and constructional activities.
   • Tertiary Sector – Transport, Insurance, Banking, Trade, Communication, Government and Non-government.
4. In developing countries like India, large workforce will be engaged in primary sector while a small proportion in secondary and tertiary sectors.
5. Employment growth in India has however not been adequate in view of faster growth in recent years.
6. Employment has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
7. Employment growth has increased at an average rate of 2% during the past four decades since 1972-1973.

Question 3.
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors
Answer:
Organised Sector:

1. It is incorporated with the appropriate authority or government with specific rules and regulations.
2. The employers in the sectors are provided with job security and receive higher wages than those of the unorganised sectors.
3. Employees of Central and State government, Banks, Railways, Insurance, Industry are called orgasnised sector.
4. They have fixed working hours, good salary, paid holidays and provides medical allowance and Insurance also.

Unorganised Sector:

1. It is characteristic the household manufacturing activity and small-scale industry without proper rules and regulations.
2. Employment is not secure, when there is no work, people are asked to leave the job.
3. This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs such as selling on the street, doing repair work and so on.
4. The employment terms are not fixed and regular. They do not enjoy any special benefit or job security. These enterprises are not registered with the government.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the Public sector and the Private sector.
Answer:
Public Sector:

1. Service motive.
2. The government owns the assets.
3. Wages are paid by Government.
4. Preserves national wealth.
5. Eg: NLC, SAIL, BSNL

Private Sector:

1. Profit motive.
2. Private individuals own the assets.
3. Wages are paid by the owner of Private enterprises.
4. Exploitation of natural resources like forest, mines for their personal benefit.
5. Eg: TVS Motors, Ashok Leylnd, TATA steel.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Make a long list of all kinds of work that you find adults around you. In what way can you classify them?
Answer:

• Agriculture, Food & Natural resources.
• Business, Management & Administration.
• Communication & Information Systems.
• Engineering, Manufacturing & Technology.
• Health Science Technology.
• Human Services.

Question 2.
A research scholar looked at the working people in the city of Chennai and found the following
Answer:

Place of work	Nature of employment	Percentage of working people
In offices and factories registered with the government.	Organised	15
Own shops, offices, clinics in marketplaces with a formal licenses.		20
People working on the street, construction workers, domestic workers.		25
Working in small workshops usually not registered with the government.

Answer:

Place of work	Nature of employment	Percentage of working people
In offices and factories registered with the government.	Organised	15
Own shops, offices, clinics in marketplaces with a formal licenses.	Private	20
People working on the street, construction workers, domestic workers.	Unorganised	25
Working in small workshops usually not registered with the government.	Unorganised

Question 3.
Classify the following list of occupations under primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors. Milk vendor, tailor, teacher, doctor, farmer, postman, engineer, potter, fisherman, artisans, policeman, banker, driver, carpenter.
Answer:

Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
Farmer	Engineer	Doctor, Policeman,
Fisherman	Potter	Postman
	Carpenter	Banker
	Artist	Teacher

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
the tertiary sector is in top position in the world now justify.
Answer:

1. In a direct sense, the tertiary sector is mostly independent.
2. This sector primarily includes those activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
3. They aid and support the production process.
   e.g., The transport sector, that uses trucks to transport finished products from factory to the retail stores.
4. The service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods.
   e.g., Teachers, doctors, washermen, barbers, etc.
5. The tertiary sector actually caters to the excess income in a person’s hand after he is successful in acquiring his basic needs. This sector will remain a chief engine for future growth.

VIII. Life Skill

Question 1.
Discuss the sectors of your village economy.
Answer:

1. The teacher will make the students gain knowledge of the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors.
2. The students will be asked to collect information regarding the three sectors.
3. The students will be advised to classify the jobs available under the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors in their village.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Employment in India and Tamilnadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In India the nature of employment in India is _______
(a) agriculture-oriented
(b) industry-oriented
(c) skill-oriented
(d) multi-dimensional
Answer:
(d) multi-dimensional

Question 2.
The organised sector provides _________
(a) good salary
(b) medical allowance
(c) paid holidays
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Government plays a major role in sector _________
(a) agricultural
(b) private
(c) Public
(d) unorganised
Answer:
(c) Public

Question 4.
Iruvelpattu is a village in _________
(a) Erode
(b) Chengelpet
(c) Villupuram
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Those who are engaged in economic activities are called _________
2. In well-developed countries, the proportion of workforce engaged in agriculture will be _________
3.  In unorganized sector the employment terms are not _________
4. In recent times there has been a growth in _________
5. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in the year _________

Answers:

1. Employees
2. Very small
3. Fixed and Regular
4. Part-time employment
5. 2005

II. Match the following

1. Unorganised Sector – (i) Job security
2. Organised Sector – (ii) Iruvelpattu
3. Recent years – (iii) No fixed terms
4. Slater village – (iv) Increasing self-employment

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – i
3. – iv
4. – ii

IV. Write short answers

Question 1.
What is the basic need in the present world?
Answer:

1. The basic needs of every human being are food, clothes, and shelter
2. In the present world, one more thing also needs to be added to this list, is employment
3. To survive in the world, we all need employment to earn money.

Question 2.
Define the terms employer and employee.
Answer:

1. Those who are engaged in economic activities, in whatever capacity, are called employees.
2. People who employ these workers and pay rewards for their work in termed as employers.

Question 3.
In recent years what are the types of more flexible working patterns seen among the employees?
Answer:

1. In recent years, there has been a change in employment patterns.
2. This has helped the employer to develop more flexible working patterns among their employees.
3. The trends are
   • increasing self-employment
   • firms using fewer full-time employees and tending to offer more short term contracts
4. There has been a growth in part-time employment.
5. This may be due to the lifestyle of the people.

Question 4.
Mention the importance of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee of 2005 is able to provide work in rural areas for 100 days of employment in a year.
2. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas.

V. Answer in a detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the case study of Employment in Iruvelpattu.
Answer:

1. Iruvelpattu is a village in Villupuram District, Tamil Nadu.
2. This village has been studied for more than 100 years by many scholars.
3. This village is also called Slater village as Gilbert Slater was the first scholar working in the University of Madras went with his students to study this village in 1916.
4. Over the years, many scholars surveyed the occupations of villagers and collected many more details of each person in the village.
5. The government brought social security awareness among the people of the village through their primary health care, provision of schools, maintenance of public distribution system.
6. Though this village underwent many changes, is still depended on agriculture as the main occupation
7. In the following chart we can notice that during 1981, out of 100 families, 24 were engaged in non-agriculture employment.
8. In 2008, the percentage of families engaged in such employment increased to 41.

Employment details of Households in Iruvelpattu (in %)

Occupation	% of Households
	1981	2008
Cultivators	42	33
Agricultural labourers	34	26
Non-agricultural labourers	24	41
All households	100	100

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Suggest your views to increase agricultural productivity
Answer:

1. To facilitate the farmers to produce new farm inputs and enable them to sell their product in markets, villages should be linked with man dies.
2. Canals, Tube wells should be constructed to provide better irrigation facilities for the security of crops.
3. Adequate credit facilities should be made available at reasonable cheap rates in rural areas.
4. Marketing infrastructure should be widened and strengthened to help farmers to sell their products at better prices.
5. Efforts should be made towards completing the consolidation work with a specific period of time
6. Guidelines and advise could be given to the farmers regarding the adoption of new technology.
7. A proper climate should be generated to encourage the farm people to start employment in the subsidiary occupations. It will help to reduce the population pressure on land.
8. The farmers should be made familiar with the advantage of chemical fertilizer through exhibitions and these inputs should be made easily available through co-operative societies and panchayats.
9. To check up the subdivision and fragmentation of holding, the movement of co-operative farming should be launched.
10. In rural areas, more emphasis should be made to set up cottage and small scale industries.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
The term ‘Human resources’ refers to ___________
(a) investment on poor people
(b) expenditure on agriculture
(c) investment on assets
(d) collective abilities of people
Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people

Question 3.
For comparing development between countries, their is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
(a) growth
(b) income
(c) expenditure
(d) savings
Answer:
(b) income

Question 4.
___________ is considered a true measure of national income.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) NNP

Question 5.
The income is also called per capita income. ___________
(a) average
(b) total
(c) people
(d) monthly
Answer:
(a) average

Question 6.
Which one of the following country is not a G-8 country?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 7.
Which one of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) China

Question 8.
Assertion (A): The Net National Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output.
Reason (R): It is also known as national income.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 10.
The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimension in its calculation
(a) Gender
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Income
Answer:
(a) Gender

Question 11.
Among the following states which state have the literacy rate (2011) higher than national average
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
Sex-ratio means
(a) the ratio between adult-male and adult female in a population
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population
(c) the relationship between male of female
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Answer:
(d) the number of females per thousand males

Question 13.
Inter-generational equality is ensured under the process of
(a) Industrial Progress
(b) Economic development
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Economic growth
Answer:
(c) Sustainable development

Question 14.
Find the odd one
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Paper
(d) Natural gas
Answer:
(c) Paper

Question 15.
________ is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 16.
________ resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable
(d) New
Answer:
(c) Non-Renewable

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Economic progress of any country is known as __________
2. The head quarters of HRD Ministry is in __________
3. The state having the highest literacy rate in India is __________
4. Human Development Report of the world prepared and released by __________
5. Groundwater is an example of resource __________
6. The book An Uncertain Glory was written by __________

Answer:

1. Economic Development
2. Shastri Bhavan, New Delhi
3. Kerala
4. UNDP (United Nation Development Programme)
5. Renewable
6. Prof. Amartya Sen

III. Match the following

1. Development – (i) Wild life Protection Act
2. Human resource – (ii) Renewable resources
3. Solar energy – (iii) Part of daily life
4. 1972 – (iv) Education

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (ii)
4. – (i)

IV. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by development?
Answer:

1. The word ‘development’ refers to the progress of a particular field (or) a particular person.
2. Similarly, the economic progress of a country is known as ‘economic development’.
3. However, the interpretation of the concept development keeps On changing from time to time, from person to person.

Question 2.
What are the indicators of development?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why NNP is not considered as a useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries?
Answer:

1. For measuring a country’s development, its income is considered to be one of the most important factors.
2. NNP is considered a true measure of National output.
3. So NNP is not considered a useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries.

Question 4.
Why human resources is considered the foremost resource of any country?
Answer:

1. Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
2. Human resource refers to people who have the manpower which can be utilized in the production sector.
3. Therefore investment in human resource (education and health) can give a high rate of returns in the future.
4. Now the economists have realised that investment in human capital is as important as investment in physical capital.

Question 5.
Expand the following:

1. PPP
2. HDI

Answer:

1. PPP – Purchasing Power Parity.
2. HDI – Human Development Index.

Question 6.
Expand the following:

1. NNP
2. PCI

Answer:

1. NNP – Net National Product.
2. PCI – Per Capita Income.

Question 7.
What is ‘Solar Power’?
Answer:
Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly using photovoltaic cells (or) indirectly using concentrated solar power.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the policies for sustainable development.
Answer:

1. India depends on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs. Both these sources have an adverse environmental impact.
2. Thermal power plants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide, which pollute the environment.
3. Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly
   using photovoltaic cells or indirectly using concentrated solar power.
4. Solar panels absorb sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity. A solar electric system can reliably produce electricity for our homes and offices.
5. These distributed solar systems are often installed by home and business owners to reduce their electricity costs. Solar power in India is a fast-developing industry.
6. Tamil Nadu is the state with the highest installed solar capacity in India.
7. Tamil Nadu is one of the leading solar power producing states in India. As of 31 July 2017, the total installed capacity in Tamil Nadu is 1,697 MW.

Question 2.
Describe in detail environmental policies in India. Ans:
Answer:

1. Environmental policies in India have been evolved considerably over the past three decades.
2. These policies have covered a wide range of issues such as air, water pollution, waste management, and biodiversity conservation.
3. India faces challenges in economic development, which has to be achieved with limited resources, minimum externalities, and in the presence of an uncertain climate.
4. One of the approaches to overcome this challenge is through the path of sustainable development.
5. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted and introduced new changes in environmental protection through a series of directions and judgments.

Question 3.
Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Renewable Resource:

1. These resources cannot be exhausted.
2. It can be used again and again.
3. Eg: Solar Energy, wind energy, tidal energy and hydroelectric, etc.,
4. It has low carbon emission and hence environment friendly.
5. The cost is low.
6. These resources are pollution-free.
7. The life of resource is infinite.

Non-Renewable Resource:

1. These resources can be exhausted one day.
2. Cannot be used repeatedly.
3. Eg: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, etc.,
4. It has a high carbon emission and damages the environment.
5. The cost is high.
6. Non-renewable resources pollute the environment.
7. The life of resources is finite and vanishes one day.

Question 4.
Mention any five environmental acts and their action. Ans:
Answer:
Act:

1. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
3. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
4. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
5. Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974
6. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Action:

1. Environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
2. To provide for the conservation of biological diversity.
3. Providing for the protection and improvement of the environment.
4. Check deforestation and encourage afforestation of non-forest areas.
5. Provides maintenance and restoration and quality of all types of surface and groundwater.
6. Providing protection to wild animals and birds.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
List the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Answer:

Plastic bags, broken glass, obsolete cell phone (or) used battery cells, they are all used products that require appropriate disposal to limit their harm to the environment.
The various ways in which the problem of garbage and emissions are being dealt with:

1. Collection
2. transportation
3. dumping
4. recycling (or) sewage treatment.

Various waste disposal problems:

1. Production of too much waste.
2. Most of the waste is toxic.
3. Landfills are a problem as well.
4. Regulations are based on vested interests.
5. Reliance on dying technologies to reduce and recycle waste.
6. Some of the technologies marked as ‘green’ are not true in an actual sense.

You can do this project with the help of your teacher.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Write in detail what kind of environmental problems you face in your locality
Answer:
We face the following environmental problems in our locality:

1. Pollution of the air, water, soil, and others by chemicals.
2. Flood, an increased number of low-pressure depressions, cyclones, etc. from October to December.
3. The gradual caving in or sinking of areas near coastal land.
4. Usage and dumping of radioactive materials from hospital wastes.
5. Burning of garbage waste in open areas.
6. Increase of UV rays due to depletion of the Ozone Layer.
7. Insufficient energy, water, food, and other resources.
8. Other pollutions (noise, vibration, smell, radio wave damage, light pollution).
9. The extensive killing of animals and destroying of plants.
10. Rapid Global Warming.

VIII. Life Skill

Question 1.
How is the Per Capita income calculated?
Answer:
The average income is calculated by dividing the country’s total income by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Calculations on the per capita income of all countries are calculated only in the US dollar in order to compare the International level.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
India in said to be a _________ country.
(a) developed
(b) rich
(c) poor
(d) developing
Answer:
(d) developing

Question 2.
Development increases in the _________ of life.
(a) quantity
(b) quality
(c) nature
(d) style
Answer:
(b) quality

Question 3.
Which one of the following does not contribute to development?
(a) Stagnant
(b) Progress
(c) Improvement
(d) Bettering ourself
Answer:
(a) Stagnant

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The enrolment for higher education in Tamil Nadu is the highest in India.
Reason (R): Tamil Nadu’s literacy rate is higher than the national average.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Scientists, Economists, philosophers, and other social scientists are working together.
Reason (R) : Sustainable development means development should take place without damaging the environment and preserve it for the future.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Development refers to the __________ of a particular field or a particular person.
2.  __________ initiated bold social programmers such as midday meals in schools.
3. For the progress of any country __________ resource is necessary.
4. A rise in per capita income will always mean a rise in __________

Answer:

1. progress
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Human
4. aggregate real output

III. Match the following

1. Sustainable Development – (i) Progress
2. Human Resource – (ii) Per capita Income
3. Economic Development – (iii) Protect
4. Conserve – (iv) No damage to the Environment

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – iii

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is meant by the term economic development?
Answer:

1. The term economic development refers to the overall growth of all sectors of the economy by the adoption of new technologies.
2. The development improves the living standards of the people as well as the status of the country.

Question 2.
What is meant by the average Income?
Answer:

1. The average income is also called per capita income (PCI)
2. The average income is calculated by dividing a country’s total income by its total population.

Question 3.
We need to balance economic, social and environmental sustainability in equal harmony Why?
Answer:

1. Let us take the example of Ground water. It is an example of a renewable resource.
2. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. If these resources are overused, more than what is being replenished by rain, then would raise the question – How sustainable development is possible?
3. Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
4. These resources cannot be replenished.
5. Therefore to achieve true sustainability we need to balance economic, social, and environmental sustainability in equal harmony.

Question 4.
Why is LPG subsidy being provided?
Answer:

1. In rural areas, people use wood, cow dung cake, or other bio mass as fuel.
2. This practice brings deforestation, wastage of cattle dung, and air pollution.
3. To rectify this situation, LPG subsidy is being provided, which is a clean fuel and reduce pollution to a large extent.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the indicators of economic development.
Answer:
(a) sentence:

1. The major indicators to measure the level of economic development are Net National
   Product (NNP), Per Capita Income (PCI), Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), Human Development Index (HDI).
2. Among these indicators, we shall discuss Per Capita Income and Net National Product.

(b) Per Capita Income:

1. For comparing a country’s development, there is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
2. Countries with higher income are more developed than with less income.
3. So income itself considered being one of the indicators of economic development.

(c) Net National Product:

1. Net National Product is considered as a true measure of national output.
2. It is also known as National Income.
3. A rise in per capita income will always mean a rise in aggregate real output. Hence this is better than that of National Income.
4. Since countries have different populations, comparing total income will not be suggestive of what an average person is likely to earn.
5. Hence we compare average income (Total income of the country divided by total population).
6. This average Income is also called Per Capita Income.

(d) Sentense:

1. According to the World Bank report, countries having more than 12,235 US dollars as Per Capita Income are called as rich countries.
2. India’s GDP per capita is 1,99,000 US dollars.
3. India is said to be a developing country.

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
What can a common man do to improve the economy of India?
Answer:
Some of the suggestions are given below:

1. Pay taxes.
2. Ask for bills whenever you purchase anything.
3. Do not buy gold and keep in lockers. Keep your money in circulation.
4. Use less electricity. Install solar panels.
5. Walk or use cycle whenever you can.
6. Do not indulge in corrupt practices.
7. Teach underprivileged children, the future citizens of India.
8. If possible start your own company, creating job opportunities.
9. Treat women properly by recognizing their efficiency.
10. Use your vote rightly and wisely.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 4 Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Sunda Trench lies in the ______ ocean.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Pacific
(c) Indian
(d) Antarctic
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 2.
The temperature of the ocean waters generally ______ at greater depth.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 3.
Ocean currents are produced due to ______
a) due to rotation of earth
b) due to variation in temperature
c) due to earth’s movement
d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Question 5.
The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
(b) divergence of tectonic plates
(c) lateral movements of plates
(d) stearing of plates.
Answer:
(b) divergence of tectonic plates

Question 6.
Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface of the sea?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
Answer:
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream – Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador current – North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current – Mediterranean sea
(d) Mozambique current – Indian Ocean
Answer:
(a) and (c)

Question 8.
The amount of planktons to be found in the ocean is determined by
1. Depth of the water.
2. Ocean currents.
3. Temperature and Salinity.
4. Length of day and night.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct.
Answer:
(b) 1,2 and 3 are correct

II. Questions are of Assertion (A), Reason (R) type.

(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.
(D) A is false R is correct

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason(R) : It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A) : Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyots.
Reason(R) : All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A) : Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason(R) : They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise
Answer:
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : Atolls are more common in the Atlantic ocean.
Reason(R) :The marine population at the depth is less.
Answer:
A is false R is correct

III. Match the following

1. Mariana trench – (i) Decreases salinity in the oceans
2. Great Barrier Reef – (ii) Along the coast of Japan
3. Sargasso sea – (iii) Deepest point in the Pacific
4. Spring tides – (iv) Australia
5. Heavy rains – (v) Second order landform
6. Kuroshio current – (vi) North Atlantic Ocean
7. Continental slope – (vii) On full and new moon days

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (vi)
4.  – (vii)
5. – (i)
6. – (ii)
7. – (v)

IV. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term Hydrosphere?
Answer:

1. Hydrosphere consists of water in various forms found on the earth.
2. Over 97% of the water on the Earth’s surface is confined to oceans.
3. Less than 3% of water is held on land as glaciers, ice caps, groundwater, rivers, lakes, and also as the water vapour in air.

Question 2.
What is hydrological cycle?
Answer:

1. The Earth’s water is not static.
2. It is always in motion.
3. This continuous movement of water on, above and below the earth’s surface is called the Hydrological Cycle.

Question 3.
Mention the various relief features of ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean basins are characterised by the following major relief features:

1. Continental shelf
2. Continental slope
3. Continental rise
4. Deep sea plain or Abyssal plain
5. Oceanic deep
6. Oceanic ridge

Question 4.
What are the factors that generate the ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

1. Earth’s rotation
2. Prevailing winds and
3. Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on sea waves.
Answer:

1. Of all the movements of the oceans, sea waves are considered to be the strongest.
2. Sea waves are ripples on water caused when winds blow over the sea.
3. The height of these waves depends on the speed of wind, its duration and the direction from which they blow.
4. Sometimes waves are also caused by tremors felt on the ocean floor.
5. Such waves are quite destructive and called Tsunami.

V. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are called land and water hemispheres respectively.
Answer:

1. The Northern Hemisphere holds 61 % of land.
2. The Southern Hemisphere holds 81% of water.
3. It is because of this pattern of land and water distribution, the Northern hemisphere is called as the land hemisphere and the Southern hemisphere is called as the water hemisphere.

Question 2.
Continental shelf provides good Ashing ground.
Answer:

1. The continental shelf is shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water.
2. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton.
3. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world.
4. Example: The Grand bank of New foundland

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Spring tide and Neap tide.
Answer:
Spring tide:

1. When the Sun, Moon and Earth are aligned in the same line, the collective gravitation pull of the sun and moon on earth’s water strengthens to form a high tide known as spring tide.
2. Such tides always occur on full moon and new moon days.

Neap tide:

1. When the sun and the moon are at right angles, their gravitational forces work against each other, causing a low tide called neap tide.
2. A neap tide occurs between two spring tides i.e., twice a month, when the first and last quarter moon appears.

Question 2.
Abyssal plains and Ocean deeps.
Answer:
Abyssal plains:

1. The deep sea plains or abyssal plains are underwater plains found on the deep ocean floor.
2. These plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments composed of clay, silt and sand, brought by the rivers.
3. These are often characterized by features like abyssal hills, sea mounts, guyots, coral, atoll etc.

Ocean deeps:

1. Trenches are the deepest part of the oceans and occupy about 7% of the total relief of the ocean floor.
2. Ocean deep are sediment free, most trenches are V-shaped with steep sides.
3. Epicentre of the great earthquakes are all found in the trenches.

VII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the origin of oceans.
Answer:

1. The ocean is a continuous body of salt water that forms the major part of hydrosphere.
2. Geoscientists believe that the oceans were formed on Earth nearly three billion years ago.
3. It is difficult to believe that in the beginning there was no water on our planet.
4. In due course of time, when the Earth started cooling, steam escaped from the interior and entered the atmosphere to form clouds.
5. At first, the clouds brought incessant rains.
6. The rain water filled the depressions for tens of thousands of years and eventually a super ocean was formed.

Question 2.
Write a note on continental shelf and continental slope.
Answer:
(A) Continental Shelf:

1. A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental land mass into the sea is called Continental Shelf.
2. It i-s almost a uniform zone of sea bed with a gentle gradient.
3. It is significant in promoting richest fishing grounds.
4. Since the continental shelf in shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton to feed fishes.
5. The continental shelves have extensive deposits of minerals and mineral fuels.
6. Hence, this zone becomes accessible for oil drilling and mining activities.
   E.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

(B) Continental Slope

1. A steep siope which descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep ocean-bed is called continental slope.
2. It forms a boundary between the Continental Crust and the oceanic crust.
3. This zone is free from deposits as they are steep.
4. The most important characteristic of continental slope is the presence of deep canyons and trenches.
5. Due to the low penetration of sunlight, the slope has nearly freezing temperature.
6. Hence aquatic life has very slow rate of metabolism.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ocean currents? Explain its types.
Answer:

1. The movement of oceanic water on the surface and at the depths in a definite direction is called ocean current.
2. Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the northern hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the southern hemisphere.
3. The factors that generate ocean currents are:
   Earth’s rotation, Prevailing winds and Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.
4. On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents.
5. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current. Example Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Explain the influences of the marine resources on mankind.
Answer:

1. The biotic and abiotic resources found in the oceanic water and at the bottoms are called marine resources.
2. The ocean’s resources play a vital role in sustaining the needs of society.
3. A diverse array of marine organisms is used for food, medicine, cosmetics, and a wealth of industrial applications.
4. The world’s demand for energy, minerals and water have become increasingly dependent on non-living marine resources.
5. Fishes, plankton, sea grass, Coral etc. are biological resources.
6. Petroleum, Naturalgas, Metallic Minerals, sand, gravel etc. are mineral resources.
7. Energy fuels, Tidal energy, wave Energy etc. are energy resources.

Intext Hots

Question 1.
71% of the earth is covered by water, but very little can be used by humans. Why?
Answer:
Though 71% of the Earth is covered by water, 97.5% of the Earth’s water is in the oceans in the form of saltwater that cannot be used. About 2% of the water is found in the form of glaciers and ice sheets. Thus, only 0.5% of Earth’s water is available for human use. It makes fresh water a critical resource.

Question 2.
The oceans are salty. Why?
Answer:

1. Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
2. The rain that falls on the land contains some dissolved carbon dioxide from the surrounding air. This causes the rainwater to be slightly acidic due to carbonic acid (which forms from carbon dioxide and water).
3. As the rain erodes the rock, acids in the rainwater break down the rock. This process creates ions, or electrically charged atomic particles. These ions are carried away in runoff to streams and rivers and ultimately to the ocean.
4. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean and are removed from the water. Others are not used up and are left for long periods of time where their concentrations increase over time.
5. Two of the most prevalent ions in seawater are chloride and sodium. Together, they make up over 90 percent of all dissolved ions in the ocean. Sodium and Chloride are ‘salty’. So, the oceans are salty.

Question 3.
What will happen if the seas and oceans contain only fresh water?
Answer:

1. All of the organisms in the sea are adapted to salt water. If they were suddenly immersed in fresh water, too much water would diffuse into their bodies and they would die.
2. The global ecosystem would collapse, and the oceans and atmosphere would eventually revert to their composition before the evolution of photosynthesis: Almost no oxygen and lots of carbon dioxide.
3. The ocean currents will be completely disturbed. Hence it will trigger profound climatic changes at the global scale.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Hydrosphere Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The deepest point in the Arctic ocean is _____
(a) Java Trench
(b) Fram basin
(c) Puerto Rico
(d) South Sandwich Trench
Answer:
(b) Fram basin

Question 2.
Hawaii islands are located on the ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Indian
(c) Atlantic
(d) Arctic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

Question 3.
The height of the waves depends on _____
(a) speed of wind
(b) Its duration
(c) the direction
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Marine resources consists of resources.
(a) Biological
(b) Mineral
(c) Energy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
A very long narrow depression on the ocean floor is called _____
(a) Guyot
(b) Ridge
(c) Trench
(d) atoll
Answer:
c) Trench

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
1. There are four major processes involved in the water cycle.
2. The ground water gets collected below the earth’s surface
3. The Northern hemisphere holds 81% of land
4. The ocean floor is flat.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 is correct
(d) 2,3 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(c) 2 is correct

Question 7.
Consider the following statements.
1. Sylvia Earle is a famous American oceano-grapher
2. The continental shelves have extensive deposits of mineral fuels.
3. Submarine fans are located in continental slope.
4. Abyssal plains are otherwise called shallow sea plains
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1,2, and 3 are correct
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct

Question 8.
Consider the following statements.
1. Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sink hole in the world.
2. Epicentre of the great earthquakes are found in Aby ssal plains.
3. Fathom means an imaginary line joining the points of equal salinity.
4. Salinity’ is maximum at the poles.
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 4 is correct
(d) 2 and 3 correct
Answer:
(a) 1 is correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A) : The Ocean water is dynamic
Reason (R) : Waves and currents are in horizontal motion w hile tides have vertical motion.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R gives the explanation of A
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R gives the explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion (A) : The gravitational pull of the sun and moon on earth cause tides on sea water.
Reason (R) : Neap tides are caused when the first and last quarter moon appears.
(a) Both A and B are wrong
(b) A is correct, R gives the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false R is correct
(d) A is correct R does not give correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) A is correct, R gives the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power.
Reason (R) : Gulf of Khambat is one of the potential Tidal energy Zones.
(a) A and R are correct, but R does not explain A
(b) A and B are false
(c) A is correct R gives correct explanation of A
(d) A is false, R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct, but R does not explain A

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : On the basis of temperature, ocean currents can be classified as warm currents and cold currents.
Reason (R) : The movement of ocean current from the low latitudes towards high latitudes cause cold current.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R gives the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is correct but R does not explain A
(d) A is correct, R is false.
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is false

Question 13.
Assertion (A) : The mid ocean ridge is probably the most extensive single feature of the earth’s topography.
Reason (R) : The Mid – Atlantic Ridge is the largest unbroken oceanic ridge,
(a) A is correct, R explains A
(b) A is correct R is wrong
(c) A is false, R is correct
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R explains A

Question 14.
Assertion(A) : Salinity is higher in closed ocean basins.
Reason(R) : Enclosed ocean bhsins undergo little mixing with the open ocean.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R gives the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is correct but R does not explain A
(d) A is correct, R is false.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct, R gives the correct explanation of A

II. Match the following

1. Finland – (i) Atlantic Ocean
2. Land Hemisphere – (ii) Fishing grounds
3. Green land – (iii) Equal depths
4. New foundland – (iv) Kerala
5. Iso bath – (v) Goa
6. Vizhinjam – (vi) Land of Thousand Lakes
7. NIO – (vii) Northern Hemisphere

Answer:

1. – (vi)
2. – (vii)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)
6. – (iv)
7. – (v)

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the four spheres of the earth.
Answer:

1. The earth consists of four spheres
2. They are
   1. Lithosphere
   2. Atmosphere
   3. Hydrosphere
   4. Biosphere

Question 2.
Why is earth called a Blue planet?
Answer:

1. One of the most indispensable natural resources on earth is water.
2. The Earth is also called the Blue planet, as it holds water in abundance.
3. Thus stands unique among all other planets.

Question 3.
Mention the three major processes involved in the water cycle.
Answer:

1. The three major processes involved in the water cycle are evaportation, condensation and precipitation.
2. Water changes its form constantly i.e. Ice, water and water vapour.

Question 4.
Explain the term
(a) Water Table
(b) Aquifers
Answer:
(a) Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface.
(b) Aquifers are porous rock strata filled with water, found below the earth’s surface.

Question 5.
What is Hypsometric curve?
Answer:

1. Hypsometric curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place found on land and the height of ocean features at sea.
2. ‘Hypso’ means height in Greek.

Question 6.
Write a note on ONGC.
Answer:

1. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) is India’s largest oil and gas exploration and production company.
2. Its latest estimate is that about 20 million tons of oil reserves are found west of Mumbai High off shore.

Question 7.
Explain the terms
(a) Isobath
(b) Isohaline
Answer:
(a) Isobath – An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal depths.
(b) Isohaline – An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal salinity in oceans.

Question 8.
What role is played by NIO (National Institute of Oceanography)
Answer:

1. National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) was established on 1st January 1966.
2. The headquarters of NIO is located at Dona paule, Goa.
3. It conducts research and observations to understand Oceanic features, Ocean engineering, Marine Archaeology etc.,

Question 9.
Where do we see the Great Barrier Reef?
Answer:

1. The Great Barrier reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres.
2. The reef is located in the Coral sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
3. These coral reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as coral polyps.
4. This sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet.

Question 10.
What do you mean by the ocean salinity?
Answer:

1. The degree of concentration of salts in the sea water is called salinity.
2. It is usually expressed in terms of parts per thousand (ppt or %o).
3. Salinity varies both horizontally and vertically.
4. The influence of temperature on ocean salinity depends upon the heating up of the surface water, which varies from tropics to polar regions.

IV. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Pacific ocean and Atlantic ocean.
Answer:
Pacific ocean:

1. Pacific ocean is spread between the western coast of America to the fareast coast (China)
2. It has less sea traffic
3. It is larger in Size.
4. Deepest point – Mariana Trench (10,924 m)

Atlantic ocean:

1. Atlantic ocean is spread between Europe and eastern coast of America.
2. It has served as an important sea route for trade in the earlier countries and has contributed to the discovery of America.
3. It has stronger ocean currents.
4. Deepest point – Puerto Rico Trench (8,605 m)

V. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Abyssal plains in the Atlantic and Indian Oceans tend to be extensive than the Pacific
Ocean. Why?
Answer:

1. Abyssal plains in the Atlantic and Indian Oceans tend to be extensive than the Pacific Ocean.
2. Because, majority of the world’s largest rivers empty their sediments into either Atlantic or Indian Ocean.
3. E.g. Amazon, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

Question 2.
The ocean waters are saline in nature.
Answer:

1. After years and years of river inflow and evaporation, the salt content of the lake water built up to the present levels.
2. The same process made the seas salty.
3. Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
4. Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salt remains in the oceans. Therefore the ocean waters are saline in nature.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write a note on Fresh Water.
Answer:

1. Rain water is considered to be the purest form of water, as it contains very less proportion of salts when compared to the oceans and seas.
2. Hence it is called fresh water.
3. A major part of fresh water is found in the frozen state in the form of ice caps and glaciers.
4. Around 0.5 tol% of it, is found in the liquid state as rivers, streams, lakes, ponds etc.
5. Surface water may also penetrate through porous rocks and gets collected beneath the Earth’s surface.
6. This is called groundwater.

Question 2.
Explain the terms
(a) Continental Rise
(b) Oceanic ridge
Answer:
(a) Continental Rise

1. At the base of the continental slope is a gently sloping layer of sediments which merge into the deep-sea floor.
2. This underwater feature found between continental slope and abyssal plains is called the continental rise.
3. It consists of submarine fans which are similar to the alluvial fans found on land.

(b) Oceanic Ridge

1. Oceanic ridge is a continuous submarine mountain chain.
2. They are made of young basaltic rock formed when two tectonic plates moves apart.
3. The mid-ocean ridge is probably the most extensive single feature of the earth’s topography.
4. Two of the most well laiown mid- ocean ridges are the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Ridge.
5. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is the largest unbroken oceanic ridge.

Question 3.
Why should we conserve marine resourses?
Answer:

1. Oceans are the life blood of planet earth and mankind.
2. The humankind depends on the marine resources for its survival.
3. They are also essential for the economic prosperity, social well-being and quality of life.
4. Oceans have extensive deposits of oil reserves.
5. Besides a major fishing ground, it helps in generating non-conventional energy, development of many ports and harbours for trade activities.
6. Coastal tourism also attracts people around the world.
7. Loss of biodiversity, loss of habitats, contamination through dangerous substances, and the impacts of climate change – all these are a threat to the marine environment.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 7 The Christmas Truce Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 7 The Christmas Truce

9th English Guide The Christmas Truce Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The story is set during the ……………………
(a) World War I
(b) World War II
(c) Kargil War
(d) Indo-China War
Answer:
(b) World War II

Question 2.
The story is about the celebration of …………………….. festival.
(a) Deepavali
(b) Pongal
(c) Ramzan
(d) Christmas
Answer:
(d) Christmas

Question 3.
Tom called the incidents that happened there as a …………………..
(a) fairy tale
(b) poetry
(c) tragedy
(d) comedy
Answer:
(a) fairy tale

Question 4.
The Germans had placed Christmas trees in front of their ……………………
(a) houses
(b) trenches
(c) tanks
(d) cars
Answer:
(b) trenches

Question 5.
One of the German soldiers worked as a ………………….. at Victoria Station.
(a) tea-seller
(b) ticket-checker
(c) porter
(d) shop keeper
Answer:
(c) porter

Question 6.
This letter was written on ……………….. day.
(a) New year
(b) Deepavali
(c) Christmas
(d) Pongal
Answer:
(c) Christmas

Question 7.
This incident took place in the year ……………………
(a) 1944
(b) 1814
(c) 1947
(d) 1914
Answer:
(d) 1914

Question 8.
The British and the enemy soldiers were on the battlefields of …………………….
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) America
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) France

Question 9.
As darkness fell on our Christmas Eve the …………………… stopped entirely.
(a) fighting
(b) talking
(c) singing
(d) shooting
Answer:
(d) shooting

Question 10.
The narrator’s friend was ……………………
(a) Tom
(b) Janet
(c) John
(d) Jacob
Answer:
(c) John

Question 11.
One of the Germans worked as a ………………….. at the Hotel Cecil.
(a) porter
(b) doctor
(c) servant
(d) waiter
Answer:
(d) waiter

Question 12.
To our astonishment, we saw …………………….. figures rise from a trench.
(a) three
(b) no
(c) two
(d) a few
Answer:
(c) two

Question 13.
The ………………… were better dressed, with fresh uniforms for the holiday.
(a) Germans
(b) Americans
(c) English
(d) Indians
Answer:
(a) Germans

Question 14.
The narrator himself traded for a leather equipment belt.
(a) penknife
(b) jackknife
(c) dagger
(d) butter knife
Answer:
(b) jackknife

Question 15.
There was even some talk of a ………………… match.
(a) cricket
(b) basketball
(c) volleyball
(d) football
Answer:
(d) football

Question 16.
One of the English boys walked with a spiked …………………….
(a) boots
(b) helmet
(c) hat
(d) shoes
Answer:
(b) helmet

B. Identify the character, speaker, or both of the following lines.

1. Our first complete silence in months!
2. Come and see! See what the Germans are doing!
3. Hold your fire.
4. You no shoot, we no shoot.
5. My God, why cannot we have peace and all go home?

Answers:

1. The narrator
2. The narrator
3. The English captain
4. A German officer
5. An older German

Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Yet I could not sleep before writing to you …………………..
Answer:
Narrator

Question 2.
Come and see! Narrator’s friend …………………..
Answer:
John

Question 3.
See what the Germans are doing. Narrator’s friend
Answer:
John

Question 4.
“Christmas trees!” Narrator’s friend
Answer:
John

Question 5.
“What is it?”
Answer:
Narrator

Question 6.
You come over here.
Answer:
One of the British soldiers

Question 7.
“Because many have worked in England.”
Answer:
One German

Question 8.
I am not lying you.
Answer:
Narrator

Question 9.
But we must ask our hearts.
Answer:
Older German

Question 10.
‘Send officer to talk’.
Answer:
A German

C. Answer the following questions in about 100 – 120 words.

Question 1.
Narrate the Christmas celebration as happened in the war field.
Answer:
On Christmas eve, the soldiers had their first good freeze. Everything was tinged white with frost and a bright sun shone. It was perfect Christmas weather. Clusters of tiny lights were shining all along the German line and they had placed Christmas trees, lit by candles, lanterns, like beacons of goodwill. The Germans began singing, “ Stille Nacht.” The British applauded the Germans. Both the troops crossed the barbed wires and were in No Man’s Land.

They shared their joy, greeted, and wished each other. They exchanged wonderful presents with all that they had, badges, tea, coffee, buttons, knife, etc… The Christmas celebration was wonderful as joy prevailed everywhere and they longed for peace.

(OR)

The British and Germans celebrated Christmas during a temporary cessation of world war I. On Christmas Eve, the Germans invited the British to come out to celebrate Christmas. The Germans placed Christmas trees in front of their trenches, lit by candle or lantern, like beacons of goodwill. They sang, “Silent Night, Holy Night.” It was lovelier and more meaningful.

The British soldiers applauded the Germans. Then the British soldiers sang “The first Nowell, the angel did say” Britain and Germany were harmonizing across ‘No man’s Land.’ They exchanged gifts – tea with coffee, com meat for sausage. The narrator traded a jackknife for a leather equipment belt to keep as a fine souvenir. “Why cannot we have peace and all go home?” was a far cry of every soldier.

“Peace begins with a smile” – Mother Teresa.
“Never wage a war but peace”.

D. Think and Answer.

Question 1.
Do you envision a similar truce taking place in any wars or fighting today? Explain.
Answer:
Yes. I feel the same enmity is between India and Pakistan borders. Both countries were united before the British left India. People who lived as brothers and sisters are now partitioned and called different nationalities. The bond of ‘ brotherhood still exists.

Question 2.
Today, much of what we know about the truce comes from soldier’s postcards home. In the post-card given below, write a short message home, imagine that you took part in the 1914 Christmas Truce.
Answer:

Post Card Christmas Day, 1914. Dear Mom, I can’t help writing to you about what happened here. You may wonder that we had a break on the battlefield. It was because of Christmas Eve. To our surprise, the Germans came out of their trenches. They called us to come to the ground between the trench called ‘No man’s Land’. They had the preparation for the Christmas celebration. They placed the Christmas trees in front of the trench lit with candles and lanterns. The Germans sang ‘Silent Night, Holy Night”. It was very lovely. We applauded their singing. Then we sang “The First Nowell, the angel did say. ”They responded with their applause. We exchanged our gifts in food, buttons, etc. No one wanted war but peace. Even the Germans want to end the war and go home. We hope to see you all soon. Your loving son, Sam.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 6 Mother’s Voice Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 6 Mother’s Voice

9th English Guide Mother’s Voice Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Mother was excited because …………………….
(a) her son would be home in the spring
(b) he son was coming back to earth
(c) it was her first visit to the moon
(d) her son was going to another galaxy
Answer:
(c) it was her first visit to the moon

Question 2.
On weekdays, as Mother went about the chores ……………………..
(a) she constantly thought of her son
(b) she was always tired
(c) her singing would be soft and almost inaudible
(d) her singing was muted and a little sad
Answer:
(d) her singing was muted and a little sad

Question 3.
…………………… occupies more than a hundred square kilometers on the moon.
(a) Selenopolis
(b) Metropolis
(c) Astrodrome
(d) Orchards
Answer:
(a) Selenopolis

Question 4.
The Community of Nations Square is where people …………………….
(a) live on the moon
(b) work on the moon
(c) walk on the moon
(d) of different nationalities come after work
Answer:
(d) of different nationalities come after work

Question 5.
They are planning an expedition to a neighbouring ……………………..
(a) galaxy
(b) country
(c) planet
(d) star
Answer:
(a) galaxy

Question 6.
The mother was not able to understand why people wanted to leave the moon because …………………….
(a) it was better to remain as a part of solar-system
(b) it was better to remain on the earth
(c) it was not possible to come back
(d) it was a place to enjoy life
Answer:
(d) it was a place to enjoy life

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The astronaut’s mother looked around and admired the ……………………..
(a) landscape
(b) waterscape
(c) moonscape
(d) escape
Answer:
(c) moonscape

Question 2.
His mother had a young ringing ……………………
(a) noise
(b) voice
(c) choice
(d) toy
Answer:
(b) voice

Question 3.
His mother was a great …………………..
(a) dancer
(b) singer
(c) runner
(d) winner
Answer:
(b) singer

Question 4.
The astronaut almost told her mother about the ………………….
(a) excursion
(b) execution
(c) expedition
(d) entertainment
Answer:
(c) expedition

Question 5.
A moving pavement was covered with ………………… plastic strips.
(a) pink
(b) red
(c) yellow
(d) green
Answer:
(d) green

Question 6.
The enormous lily – shaped tent over a crater was atleast a …………………… in diameter.
(a) mile
(b) hectametre
(c) kilometre
(d) few yards
Answer:
(c) kilometre

Question 7.
It is quite an exotic experience to have a swim on the …………………….
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Galaxy
(d) Moon
Answer:
(d) Moon

Question 8.
At the ……………………. there were two spaceships the size of the Ostankino TV tower,
(a) aerodrome
(b) syndrome
(c) astrodome
(d) helipad
Answer:
(c) astrodome

Question 9.
The astronauts’ mother pleaded him to come atleast in the ………………………
(a) Autumn
(b) Spring
(c) Summer
(d) Winter
Answer:
(a) autumn

Question 10.
The mother thought that her son might be lost to his ………………….. forever.
(a) friends
(b) playmates
(c) relatives
(d) neigbours
Answer:
(c) relatives

B. Identify the characters or speaker of the following lines.

1. It’s so easy to walk here, son!
2. They’re planning an expedition to a neighboring galaxy.
3. Why should people go off into the unknown?
4. I don’t know when we’ll see each other again.
5. Operator on duty, …………. report to the office.

Answers:

1. Mother
2. Son
3. Mother
4. Son
5. A voice from the loud Speaker

C. Answer the following question in about 100 – 120 words.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph listing all the sentimental and the scientific reasons given by the mother against the expedition to the neighbouring galaxy?
Answer:
The mother’s sentimental and scientific reasons against the expedition to the neighboring galaxies are that a moon is a beautiful place, easy to walk on. There are lots of fruits on earth. The river Dnieper is better to swim. She asked her son why people should go off into the unknown and ask for trouble. She also suggested that it is advisable for people to settle on the moon first and then on the planets in the solar system.

She philosophized that the moon has the same gravitational field as their native earth, under the native sun. She sentimentally invited her son to come in the autumn for the apples, pears, and watermelons. She persuaded him to come to their deepened pond to fish and indicated that the pond was now full of fish.

(OR)

The astronauts’ mother admired the moonscape. She wondered that the moon was a beautiful place. But she thought of her orchards to bloom and yield fruits. She was excited to see the enormous lily – shaped tent over a crater. Though it might be an exotic experience to swim on the moon she prefers the river Deeper on the Earth. She was against the expedition to a neighbouring galaxy.

She asked why people should go off into unknown places. She did not want them to invite trouble. The astronauts were interested in more expeditions. Mother wanted the people to settle properly on the moon first, and then on the planets in the solar system before going further.

According to her life on Earth was a miracle. She wanted him to return to the Earth atleast in Autumn. But he had made all arrangements to go to another planet. The astronaut could not help it even though he would not hear his mother’s voice.

‘There’s something cool about being involved in new missions to other planets’.

D. Think and answer.

“The explorer in this story is travelling to another galaxy. The final destination is an unknown planet in another galaxy. The travel will take many years’. What qualities and life skills do you think an explorer-like him must possess? Why? Do you have any of these skills and qualities? Explain.
Answer:
The qualities and life skills an explorer-like him need to possess:
Regardless of one’s position, an astronaut needs certain qualities for the selection process and space travel.

Intelligence:
Astronauts need above-average intelligence.

Adaptability:
Astronauts have many responsibilities in space.

Education:
The basic requirement is a bachelor’s degree in engineering, biological science,

physical science or mathematics followed by three years of professional experience (or 100 hours of pilot – in – command time in jet aircraft) candidate also must pass NASA’s astronaut physical examination.

Physical requirements:

• Distant visual acuity: 20/100 or better uncorrected, correctable to 20/20 each eye.
• Blood Pressure: 140/90 measure in a sitting position.
• Height between 62 and 75 inches. (5″ 2″ and 6″ 3″)

Mental Endurance:
An astronaut has to undergo a psychological evaluation to determine the fitness to fly on a mission of NASA or ISRO.

About myself:
Regarding intelligence, I am an average student at present. I shall maintain it in my higher studies too to prove to be a candidate with a high IQ. I am good at maths and physical requirements science, subjects including computer science my blood pressure is normal.

• I have a 20/20 normal eye. sight in both eyes.
• I may have a normal height of 5 feet 5 inches when turn out to be a youth.

Mental Endurance:
I possess mental endurance. I have never been short-tempered. I have the adaptability and the responsibilities to perform the allotted duties.

E. Based on the understanding of the story, discuss in groups, and make a note of the following settings.

Setting:
The story of a young astronaut who wants to hear his mother’s voice which is still young and ringing. The astronaut and his mother are on the moon. She has gone there for the first time. She admires the moonscape. However, she wants to live on the earth. She is also against people who are interested in the exploration of neighbouring planets.

The astronaut is ready to leave for another planet. It may take many years to reach the destination. The mother is worried that her son will lose his friends and relatives. Characters A young astronaut The mother of the astronaut People who are on the moon.

Plot:
The moon is the plot. The astronaut and his mother are on the moon. She is astonished to see strange space ships and people planning to go on an expedition to the neighbouring galaxy. The long . tunnels and enormous lily-shaped tent over a center with a diameter of one kilometer surprise the mother. She admires the moonscape. She also praises the wonderful life on the earth.

Conclusion:
The mother is excited to see the strange things as the moon. She is also surprised to see the people. who are busy to leave for another planet. The mother wonders why the people are planning to other planets ever before setting on the moon.

She pleads with her son to visit the earth during Autumn. But the astronaut is quite sure that he cannot see his mother again. He has got the command to leave for another planet. The mother who longs to see her son will have only a disappointment. It will take a long number of years for the mother and her son to meet again.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 5 Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 5 Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub

9th English Guide Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Use the following phrases in sentences of your own.

1. Earn one’s name (to become well known or famous or popular)
Kamal earned his name in politics as powerful public speaker.

2. in the rear of (cat the back of)
There is a church in the rear of this college

3. to see one fight (to make someone fight with)
The youth irritated a little monkey to see him fight

4. devoid of (without)
The letter was devoid of warmth and feeling

5. air and manner (impression and polite behavior)
All were attracted by the air and manners of the new Principal.

6. quick as a flash (extremely fast)
Quick as flash, the prisoner said, “No, I won’t”

7. in wild haste (very quickly)
The thief escaped in wild haste.

8. make a pass (to fly over or close by something)
The bird made a pass at me as I got close its nest.

B. Now refer a dictionary and find idioms on the following animals, birds and insects. Learn their meanings and share what you have learnt with your class. Try to frame illustrative sentences with those. Find opportunities to use them in your everyday conversations.

Answer:

C. Based on your reading, answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 -150 words each.

Question 1.
Describe the appearance of the little cyclone.
Answer:
Little Cyclone is a grizzly cub from Alaska. He earned his name by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. He was a curious and amusing little cub. It had fluffy hair, two big black eyes which sparkled like jet beads, short and fat nose, and high shoulders. But his claws were strong and dangerous and he had a truly grizzly spirit. He did not show any fear to his opponents. He was bom full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear. He was a queer-looking gray fellow with a broad head. He could fight any other bear on three seconds’ notice.

(OR)

Little Cyclone was a grizzly cub from ALASKA in America. He was different like the other grizzlies. He too was bom with courage and devoid of all sense of fear. Little cyclone was as droll and roguish looking cub as ever stepped.

He had a grizzly gray full moon of fluffy hair. His eyes were big and they sparkled like jet beads behind a pudgy nose. It was absurdly short for a bear. He was little more than a big bale of gray for set up on four posts of the same material. He had the true grizzly spirit.

He was a newcomer at the Bear’s Nursery in the New. York zoological park. Every newcomer would be badly scared during the first day and very timed the next day. But cyclone was different. He had no sense of fear.

When the box was opened he stalked deliberately to the centre stage, halted, and looked calmly about him. He told the other bears that he was from Alaska and anyone could come and take from him. He put everyone down in the attack. From then on his position was assured. He was treated with respect.

“Might is right even in a fight”

Question 2.
What does the fight Little Cyclone and his brother put up, tell you about the nature of grizzly?
Answer:
Title: Little Cyclone: The story of a grizzly cub
Author: William Temple Homaday
Characters: Little Cyclone and his brother
Theme: Unity is strength. Fear kills even heroes

The grizzly cub was famous for its courage and vigour of its resistance to ill-treatment. Once when the mother was fired at the cub and its brother ran away. When they were found sleeping with the mother grasped by the captor, the next morning. Both the cubs fought against the captor. One of the cubs made a fight so fierce and terrible. The captor could not withstand it and let the cub go.

Though the other cub fought desperately the captor seized him and carried him away. He was established with collar, chain, and post in the rear of the saloon. The public irritated the little grizzly cub with a long pole. Before he could become insane, he was rescued by the zoological society’s field agent. He was shipped to New York and later sent to the Bear’s Nursery at the New York zoological park.

He had every chance to prove his courage there. He was a daring newcomer in the Nursery. He conscientiously met every attack genuine or feigned that was made upon him. In less than an hour, every bear understood his vigour and strength. From that time on cyclone’s position was assured and all respected him. Grizzlies dare any bear without fear. They are different. They are born full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear.

“Fear kills but the spirit of courage revives”

(OR)

A grizzly cub is different. It is born full of courage. It is full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear. It has the vigour of resistance to ill-treatment. When the mother was fired at in the forest. The cubs ran away and came back later. They slept with their mother who was dead. The next morning they were awakened by the grasp hands of a man. They bit and scratched him. One of them fought so fiercely and terrible. The captor became nervous and let him go.

The other grizzly bear fought desperately but the captor seized him and chained him to a post. The people wanted to see the fight. So they poked it with the pole. But he was rescued by the zoological society and shipped to the Bear’s Nursery at the New York zoological park.

The grizzly bear dared every other bear in the Nursery. He met conscientiously every true or feigned attack. In less than an hour, every bear understood his vigour and strength. From that time on grizzly’s position was assured and all respected him.

Question 3.
“If any of you fellows think there is anything coming to you from me, come and take it”. How did Little Cyclone prove this?
Answer:
When Little Cyclone’s travelling box was opened, he found himself free in the Bear Nursery in New York. He walked stiffly with pride to the centre of the stage, halted, and calmly looked about him. His air and manner said as plainly as English, “I’m a grizzly from Alaska, and I’ve come to stay. If any of you fellows think there is anything coming to you from me, come and take it’. Usually, a newcomer would be badly scared during his first day in the Nursery and very timid during the next. But grizzlies are different. They are born full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear.

Naturally, it is a good test of courage and temper to turn a new bear into that roistering crowd. But Little Cyclone was fearless and quick in attacking his opponents on three seconds’ notice.

(OR)

Little cyclone was a grizzly cub from he was known for his vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. He was seized by a captor. The people tried to make him insane by their violent torture. Luckily he was rescued by the zoological society. It was shipped to the Bear’s Nursery at New York zoological park. When the box was opened, he found himself free there. He stalked deliberately to the stage.

Little czar, a European bear walked up and aimed a blow at Cyclone’s left ear. Quick as a flash, Cyclone outshot him with his right leg on his head. Czar was amazed and confused. He fled in wild haste. Another black bear got a fierce counter charge. He quitted the field scrambling to the top of the cliff.

Cyclone met every real or fake attack meticulously. Soon every bear understood that queer gray fellow could fight any other on three second’s notice. “If any of you fellows think there is anything coming to you from me, come and take it”, said Cyclone openly. Every daring action of Cyclone against his fellow bears in the Nursery proves that grizzly is different.

Obviously, little Cyclone was born full of courage. Little cyclone was born full of courage. Little Cyclone became great because it was devoid of all sense of fears. No wonder that a grizzly bear has no fear and none can go anywhere near.

“Dare to share that there’s a bear devoid of fear”.

Question 4.
The confrontation of Little Czar and Little Cyclone?
Answer:
Title: Little Cyclone: The story of a grizzly bear
Author: William Temple Homaday
Characters: Little Cyclone and Little Czar
Theme: Storm before calm

Little Cyclone was a grizzly cub from Alaska. He earned his name by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. Grizzlies are different. They are born full of courage and devoid of all sense of fears. The zoological society rescued him from the clutches of the captor and the violent people the society shipped him to the Bear’s Nursery at the New York zoological park.

He was a newcomer to the nursery. Usually, a newcomer would be scared and timid. But little cyclone was different. He challenged every fellow bear in the Nursery. Little czar was a European brown bear cub. He was saucy and good-natured.

He took Little Cyclone like any other newcomer. He walked up to Cyclone with pride and overconfidence. He thought that he could defeat the cyclone easily. With all his strength and courage he aimed a sample blow at Cyclone’s left ear.

Cyclone reacted as quick as flash. He couldn’t wait even a second. He outshot Czar with his right paw. Only a grizzle could strike like that. It was too heavy to bear. It caught the little Cyclone’s right leg outshot czar on his head.

Czar had never expected this sort of hard and quick treatment for his attack. He was totally amused and confused. So he fled in wild haste. All of them understood that no one could fight against little Cyclone. That time onwards Cyclone’s position was assured with great respect.

Fear tears the heart and brings out tears.
Courage endears the heart and brings out cheers.

(OR)

Little cyclone was a grizzly cub from Alaska. He earned his name by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. Cyclone was seized by a captor and ill-treated along with the people. The zoological society rescued him and took him to the Bear’s Nursery in New York. His fellow bears were ready to test his strength and courage. They thought that Cyclone would be scared and timid.

Little Cyclone was different. He had no fear but full of courage. He challenged the other bears to come and take from him as they wished. The fellow bears wanted to subdue him and his activities. But little Cyclone overcame everyone.

Little czar was a European brown bear cub. He was saucy and good-natured. He walked up and aimed a sample blow at cyclone’s left ear. Cyclone outshot Czar on his head with his right paw. He was amazed and confused.

The highy anticipated encounter between Cyclone and Czar ended in a ‘tit for that’ manner. The reaction was heavier than the action. From that time onwards Cyclone’s status was assured. He was treated with respect by all. Being a fine-spirited, dignified little grizzly bear never attacked anyone nor had a fight anymore.

“Confidence is the key to success.”

D. Telling the story again.

Little Cyclone was a grizzly cub from ………………….. (1) ………………….. earned his name ………………….. (2) ………………….. When his mother was fired at, they ………………….. (3) ………………….. The next day at sunrise the two orphans found themselves at ………………….. (4) ………………….. One of them escaped ………………….. (5) ………………….. So the captor let him go. But the other cub was ………………….. (6) ………………….. and taken to the ………………….. (7) ………………….. at New York. Zoological Park had ………………….. (8) ………………….. Usually, a newcomer is badly scared on his first day but ………………….. (9) ………………….. When the box was opened he stood up with courage ………………….. (10) …………………… Cyclone courageously met every ………………….. (11) ………………….. In less than an hour, all the other bears understood ………………….. (12) ………………….. From then on Little Cyclone’s position was ………………….. (13) …………………..

Answer:

1. Alaska, who
2. by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment.
3. ran away as fast as their stumpy legs could carry them.
4. the rough grasp of human hands.
5. after a fierce and terrible fight,
6. seized
7. Zoological Park
8. Bears’ Nursery
9. grizzly bears are different
10. and walked stiffly with pride to the center of the stage, halted, and calmly looked about him.
11. attack real or faked.
12. that Cyclone could strike quick and hard and fight any other bear on three seconds notice.
13. assured with respect and dignity.

E. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Little Cyclone is a grizzly cub who earned his name by …………………….
(a) his appearance and behaviour
(b) his viguor of resistance to ill-treatment
(c) his speed and courage
(d) he escaped from a cyclone
Answer:
(b) his viguor of resistance to ill-treatment

Question 2.
The nervous captor let one bear go because …………………….
(a) he was afraid of bears
(b) he did not have proper equipment to seize him.
(c) the bear fought so fiercely
(d) the bear escaped and ran away.
Answer:
(c) the bear fought so fiercely

Question 3.
Little Cyclone was rescued by the ……………………..
(a) members of the Blue Cross
(b) friendly hands of the Zoological Society
(c) members of the National Zoo
(d) volunteers from New York
Answer:
(b) friendly hands of the Zoological Society

Question 4.
Little Czar was a ………………….
(a) good-natured European brown bear.
(b) grizzly cub from Alaska
(c) furry little Polar bear
(d) North American black bear
Answer:
(a) good-natured European brown bear.

Question 5.
Little Cyclone will fight any other bear in ……………………
(a) 10 minutes notice
(b) 15 minutes notice
(c) 3 seconds notice
(d) 10 seconds notice
Answer:
(c) 3 seconds notice

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 4 The Cat and the Pain-killer Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 4 The Cat and the Pain-killer

9th English Guide The Cat and the Pain-killer Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Choose the most suitable option.

Question 1.
Tom was disturbed because …………………..
(a) he didn’t sleep well
(b) his scores were low at school
(c) his friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school
(d) he had picked up a fight with Becky Thatcher
Answer:
(c) his friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school

Question 2.
Aunt was an experimenter in ……………………
(a) trying new recipes
(b) designing fashionable frocks
(c) modern gardening techniques
(d) trying out new medicines
Answer:
(d) trying out new medicines

Question 3.
Tom used the pain-killer to …………………….
(a) take care of his health
(b) mend the crack on the sitting room floor
(c) cure Becky Thatcher
(d) help his aunt
Answer:
(b) mend the crack on the sitting room floor

Question 4.
Peter sprang a couple of yards in the air as ……………………..
(a) he had a teaspoon of the pain-killer
(b) his tail was caught in the mouse trap
(c) Tom threw him out of the window
(d) Aunt gave him a push
Answer:
(a) he had a teaspoon of the pain-killer

Question 5.
Finally Aunt Polly said to Tom that he ……………………..
(a) need not take any more medicine
(b) has to go to school regularly
(c) should not meet any of his friends
(d) must take medicines every day
Answer:
(a) need not take any more medicine

B. Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

Question 1.
He banged against furniture, upsetting flower-pots and making general havoc?
Answer:
Peter, the cat

Question 2.
She stood petrified with astonishment peering over her glasses.
Answer:
Aunt Polly

Question 3.
‘That is, I believe they do’
Answer:
Tom

Question 4.
‘What has that got to do that with it?’
Answer:
Tom

Question 5.
‘I done it out of pity for him.’
Answer:
Tom

C. Based on your reading, rearrange the following sentences in the correct sequence.

1. Since all her methods failed, finally she gave him a pain-killer.
2. He told his aunt that Peter had no aunt, so he gave him the medicine.
3. The pain-killer triggered adverse reactions on Peter.
4. It jumped out of the open window.
5. Tom was dull and depressed.
6. This incident upset Aunt Polly and she questioned him.
7. But, Tom gave that pain-killer to the cat Peter.
8. So, Aunt Polly tried diff erent types of remedies on him.

Answers:
5, 8, 1, 7, 3, 4, 6, 2

5. Tom was dull and depressed.
8. So, Aunt Polly tried diff erent types of remedies on him.
1. Since all her methods failed, finally she gave him a pain-killer.
7. But, Tom gave that pain-killer to the cat Peter.
3. The pain-killer triggered adverse reactions on Peter.
4. It jumped out of the open window.
6. This incident upset Aunt Polly and she questioned him.
2. He told his aunt that Peter had no aunt, so he gave him the medicine.

D. Based on your understanding of the story, write the answers to the following questions in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
Why did Tom lose the charm of his life?
Answer:
Tom’s friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school. So he lost the charm of his life.

Question 2.
Why did Aunt Polly try different remedies on Tom?
Answer:
Aunt Polly was an incurable experimenter in these things, so she began to try all manners of remedies on Tom.

Question 3.
How did medicine diminish?
Answer:
Tom professed to be fond of pain-killer. So he asked for it often. He used to pour it into a crack in the sitting room floor. Thus the medicine diminished.

Question 4.
Did Tom compel Peter to have the pain-killer?
Answer:
No, Tom did not compel peter to have the pain killer.

Question 5.
Why did Peter wish to taste the pain-killer?
Answer:
Peter wished to taste the pain-killer because he wanted it.

Question 6.
How did Aunt Polly discover the reason for peter’s absurd behavior?
Answer:
Aunt Polly bend down and took the teaspoon and held it out. Thus she discovered the reason for Peter’s absurd behaviour.

Question 7.
What was the reason given by Tom for giving the pain-killer to the cat?
Answer:
Tom said that the cat had no aunt. So he gave it the medicine.

Question 8.
Why did Aunt Polly’s eyes water?
Answer:
Aunt Polly felt that she had done cruelty to the boy. she began to soften and felt sorry, so her eyes watered.

Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Why did Tom put his hoop and bat away?
Answer:
Tom put his hoop and bat away because there was no joy in them anymore.

Question 2.
What happened when there was no joy in hoop and bat anymore?
Answer:
When there was no joy in hoop and bat anymore, Tom’s aunt Polly was concerned.

Question 3.
What was aunt Polly infatuated with?
Answer:
Aunt polly was infatuated with patent medicines and all new methods of producing health or mending it.

Question 4.
What was aunt Polly in patent medicines and new methods of healing?
Answer:
Aunt polly was an incurable experimenter in this thing.

Question 5.
What was a windfall to aunt Polly?
Answer:
Tom’s low condition was a windfall to her.

Question 6.
What happened to the boy after the treatment?
Answer:
Notwithstanding all this, the boy grew more and more and more and more sad and pale and dejected.

Question 7.
What did aunt Polly fill Tom up everyday with?
Answer:
Aunt polly filled Tom up everyday with quack cure-alls.

Question 8.
Why did Tom become a nuisance to aunt Polly?
Answer:
Tom asked aunt Polly for pain killer so often that he became a nuisance to her.

Question 9.
How did she end it?
Answer:
She ended it by telling him to help himself and quit bothering her.

Question 10.
Who begged for pain killer? Why?
Answer:
Peter, the cat begged for pain killer for a taste.

Question 11.
Why did Tom give the pain killer to Peter?
Answer:
Peter asked Tom for the pain killer. So he gave it to him.

Question 12.
What was the reaction of the old lady over the strange behaviour of Peter?
Answer:
Over the strange behaviour of Peter, the cat, the old lady petrified with astonishment, peer-ing her glasses.

Question 13.
What did Tom do on seeing the strange behaviour of the cat?
Answer:
On seeing the strange behaviour of the cat, Tom lay on the floor expiring with laughter.

Question 14.
What did Tom tell aunt Polly for the cat’s act?
Answer:
Tom told aunt Polly that cats always act so why they were having a good time.

Question 15.
What did aunt Polly advise Tom finally?
Answer:
Finally, Aunt Polly advised Tom that if he could not be a good boy, for once, he needn’t take any more medicine.

E. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
Describe the different types of remedies tried by Aunt Polly on Tom?
Answer:
Tom’s aunt was the type of person who was infatuated with patent medicines and new ways of producing health or mending it. The first remedy aunt Polly tried on Tom was the water treatment. She stood him up in the woodshed and drowned him with a deluge of cold water; then she scrubbed him down with a towel like a file; then she rolled him up in a wet sheet and put him under blankets till he sweated his soul clean.

The boy remained as dismal as a hearse. Aunt Polly began to assist the water with a slim oatmeal diet and blister plasters. When she heard of Pain-killer, she ordered a lot at once. She tasted it and it was simply fired in a liquid form. She gave Tom a teaspoonful pain-killer and watched with anxiety for the result.

(OR)

Aunt Polly was infatuated with patent medicines and all-new healing methods. She was an incurable experimenter. She tried all manners of remedies on Tom. The water treatment was new. Tom’s low condition was a windfall to her. She kept him out at daylight, drowned him in cold water, and then rubbed him hard with a file like a towel.

He was put under blankets. He became upset. She gave hot baths, sitz baths, shower baths, and plunges. He remained bored. She added to water with a slim oatmeal diet and blister – plasters. To his capacity, she filled him with quack cure-alls.

He became fed up. He thought over various plans of relief. He preferred a pain killer. He asked for it. It was a nuisance to aunt Polly. But finally, she told him to help himself and quit bothering her. “Too much of anything is good for nothing”.

Question 2.
Narrate the funny sequence between Tom Sawyer and Peter, the cat?
Answer:
Title: The cat and the pain killer.
Author: Samuel Langhorne Clemens (1835-1910) [Pen name: Mark Twain]
Character: Tom Sawyer and Peter, the cat.
Theme: “Cruelty to an animal is inhumane”.

(OR)

Aunt Polly had given Tom, the pain killer. One day he was in the act of dosing the crack in the floor with it. Aunt Polly’s cat, Peter was begging for the pain killer. Tom agreed to give him the painkiller on his risks. Tom opened his mouth and poured it. Peter sprang a couple of yards in the air. Then he delivered a war-whoop and set off round and round the room.

He banged against furniture upsetting flower – pots and making general confusion. Next danced around on his hind feet in a frenzy of enjoyment with his head over his shoulder. His voice proclaimed his joy. Then he went tearing around the house again spreading chaos and destruction in his path.

Aunt Polly entered and saw him throw double somersaults delivering a mighty hurrah. He went through the window carrying the other flower pots with him. The old lady stood petrified with astonishment. Tom lay on the floor expiring with laughter.

“One man’s suffering is another man’s enjoyment”

(OR)

One day Tom was dosing the crack to heal it. Aunt’s cat Peter noticed it and begged Tom for it. Tom gave it to peter on his risk. When Tom poured it in his mouth, he sprang in the air and then delivered a war-whoop. He went round and round the room banging against furniture, upsetting flower pots, and making general confusion.

Next, he danced on his hind feet in a frenzied of excitement. He held his head over his shoulder and voice proclaiming his happiness. He went tearing around the house again spreading chaos. Aunt entered and saw him throw somersaults with a mighty hurrah. He sailed through the window carrying the other flower pots with him. The old lady stood petrified with astonishment. Tom lay on the floor expiring with laughter.

“One’s torture is other’s laughter”

F. Complete the summary of the extract using the appropriate words from the box below.

Tom Sawyer felt (1) ……………… as Becky Thatcher had stopped coming to (2) ……………… His Aunt Polly was very concerned about his (3) …………….. condition. So, she began to try various (4) …………….. on him. Tom became fed up with his Aunt’s brand of remedies and (5) to like the pain-killer. He started to ask for it very often. But, Tom used the medicine to mend the (6) ……………….. on the floor. One day, Tom gave the pain-killer to his Aunt’s cat, (7) …………… The (8) …………………. had an adverse effect on the cat and it started to jump around the room. Aunt Polly entered the room in time to see the cat throw a few (9) …………….. and sail through the open window. She found the (10) ……………… with a little pain-killer sticking to it and knew that Tom had treated the cat with it. She realized that what was (11) ……………. to the cat should be the same to the boy too and (12) ………….. giving medicines to him.

Answers:

1. dejected
2. school
3. health
4. remedies
5. pretended
6. crack
7. Peter
8. pain-killer
9. summersets
10. teaspoon
11. cruelty
12. stopped

G. In the story we find a lot of American slang usage of English, Complete the tabular column with standard English. One has been done for you.

Answer:

H. Complete the mind map based on the inputs from the extract.

Answer:

1. stopped
2. unhappy
3. was concerned
4. all manners of remedies on Tom
5. the pain killer
6. Peter
7. petrified

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What are the benefits of wearing a helmet while driving?
Answer:
First of all, wearing a helmet helps to reduce traffic accidents. People will pay enough attention while they are driving their motors if they wear helmets. More over it helps us in protecting our eyes from the dust or terrible lights from other vehicles because we don’t need to use our hands or fingers to clean it while we are controlling our vehicles.

Question 2.
List out the factors of road accidents.
Answer:
Different factors to road accidents

1. Drivers
2. Pedestrians
3. Passengers
4. Vehicles
5. Road conditions
6. Weather conditions

Question 3.
Which colour in the signal means ‘stop?
Answer:
Red colour in the signal means ‘stop’

Question 4.
List out any three road safety rules:
Answer:

1. Know your signals
2. Stop, look and cross
3. Don’t run on roads

II. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the factors involved in road accidents.
Answer:
The different factors that contribute to road accident are,

1. Drivers: Over speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol.
2. Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers.
3. Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, traveling on foot boards, catching a running bus, etc.,
4. Vehicles : Failure of brakes or steering, tire burst, insufficient headlights, overloading.
5. Road Condition: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways, and illegal speed breakers.
6. Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 2.
Explain in detail: The road safety rules.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run on Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Answer in a word

1. This is required by law to drive _____________
2. A life saving _____________
3. They are ehere to key system safe _____________
4. A large vechicle to take precaution _____________ around
5. How the driver indicate which _____________ way they are turning
6. Something you should avoid while driving
7. Watch for there to even the road _____________
8. You apply this to stop your vechicle _____________
9. A pace by which you must abide by _____________
10. This indicates of how quickly you are travelling _____________
11. People, the driver is responsible for _____________
12. The part of your vehicle that meet the road _____________
13. An area where traffic fines double _____________
14. You should turn these on for safety _____________
15. A digital aid in navigating _____________

Answer:

1. licence
2. seat belt
3. Police
4. wide load
5. Blinker
6. Distractions
7. Pedestrian
8. Break
9. speed limit
10. speedo meter
11. Passengers
12. Tyre
13. work zone
14. Lights
15. GPS

II. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
The direct consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

Question 2.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents are,

1. Education and awareness about road safety.
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure.

Question 3.
Mention the major reasons for road accidents.
Answer:
The major reasons for road accident are

1. Negligence in driving
2. Drunk and drive
3. Overlooking the other vehicles
4. High speed
5. Improper driving training and
6. Non-stop long driving

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevelant local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73rd and 74,h constitutional Amendment Acts, was enacted during the year in __________
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councillors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ was known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of ______ has become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. ______ was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which are function in the villages are called ______
5. ______ will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.

Answer:

1. Lord Ripon
2. Panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayat
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following

1. Zilla Parishad – (a) Villages
2. Gram Sabhas – (b) Mayor
3. Ward Committees – (c) Chairman
4. Panchayat Union – (d) District Collector
5. Corporation – (e) Municipalities

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (a)
3. – (e)
4. – (c)
5. – (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS)
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are elected by the people.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

V. Give a short note

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:

• Property Tax
• Professional Tax
• House Tax
• Taxes for connection of drinking water
• Land Tax
• Taxes levied on shops

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act of 1994.

1. A three-tier system
2. Gram Sabha
3. Establishment of Election Commission
4. Constitution of Finance Commission
5. Reservation of Seats for SS/ST’s proportionate to their population.
6. One-third reservation of seats for women and
7. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Functions of the Village Panchayat

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of street lights
• Maintenance of roads.
• Maintenance of village libraries
• Maintenance of small bridges
• Granting permission to the housing plots
• Maintenance of drainage
• Construction of group houses
• Cleaning of streets
• Maintenance of burial grounds
• Maintenance of common lavatory facilities

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
Voluntary functions of the local governments are

1. Maintenance of street light in the villages
2. Maintenance of markets and fairs
3. Implantation of trees
4. Maintenance of playgrounds
5. Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughterhouses, and Cattle shed
6. Control over places of exhibition

Question 5.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:

1. Urban local governments are Corporation, Municipality and Town Panchayat
2. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called a Town Panchayat
3. Municipalities were constituted in India for the first time in Chennai in 1688
4. Municipal Corporation is established in big cities.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient features of the 73rd and 74lh Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)

1. Panchayats and Municipalities will be “Institutions of Self Government”.
2. Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered.
3. The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels. Smaller states with a population below 2 million only two tiers.
4. Seats at all levels filled by direct election.
5. Seats reserved for SCs and STs at all levels in proportion to their population.
6. One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third of officers of Chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
7. Uniform five-year term and election to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term.
8. In the event of dissolution, elections compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self-government.
Answer:
Problems and challenges facing the local self-government.

1. Local self-governments are the crucial basis for our democracy.
2. The Constitutional status of local self-governments adds more significance to their functioning.
3. There are a few critical concerns in the working of local self-government in India.
4. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below.
   • Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies.
   • Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched.
   • Combined with accountability, the local self-governments demand for more autonomy and economic freedom may be addressed.
   • Role of caste, class, and religion in decision making at the local self-government.
   • Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroots of democracy.

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your Panchayat President / Municipal Chairman and discuss with him how the local self-government is being administered.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In India local self government was introduced in 1882 by Lord __________
(a) Ripon
(b) Richard
(c) William
(d) Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Ripon

Question 2.
James Munroe was the Governor of __________
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Madras
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Madras

Question 3.
The Community Development Programme was introduced in the year __________
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1953
(d) 1954
Answer:
(b) 1952

Question 4.
Panchayats are constituted wherever the population of the village is __________
(a) 2000
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
Answer:
(c) 500

Question 5.
The Village Councils functioned very well under the __________
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(d) Cholas

Question 6.
According to the GVK Rao Committee post of to be created acting as the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
(a) District Development Commissioner
(b) Chairman of Panchayat Raj
(c) Grama Munisif
(d) Councillors
Answer:
(a) District Development Commissioner

Question 7.
government’s term the 73rd and 74th constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992 became a reality.
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Janata
(c) Narasimha Rav
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rav

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Local bodies provide ___________ to the local Comunity.
2. After independence, the creation of Village Panchayats became a _________ movement.
3. In a Village Panchayat, the President and Ward members are _________ elected by the people.
4. In Tamil Nadu local government Act was passed in the year _________.
5. According to Mahatma Gandhi, ‘India’s soul lives in the _________.
6. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the _________ of the Erode Municipality.
7. Election to the local self government are conducted by the _________
8. The “Lanchashirse of the Eastern World” was _________
9. Under the permanent settlement the cultivators more at the mercy of _________
10. Malayans, Sahukars and bohras were _________
11. _________ was the Governor of Madras rejuvenated the Village Panchayat system in British India.

Answer:

1. Services
2. Social
3. directly
4. 1994
5. Village
6. Chairman
7. State Election Commission
8. Zamindars
9. Moneylenders
10. Thomas Munroe

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Gram Sabha – (i) Five years
2. Local Self Government – (ii) Three-tier system
3. Ashok Mehta – (iii) Planning Commission
4. Balwant Rai Mehta – (iv) Basic Limit
5. GVK Rao – (v) Two-Tier system

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (v)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Provincial Autonomy was introduced in India in 1942.
(ii) Munroe was all for administration in the local language.
(iii) The Community development programme and National Extention Service became a basis for “Great charts on Panchayat Raj” in 1957.
(iv) There are no problems and challenges facing the local self-government in India.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Village Panchayats have a variety of functions to be carried out.
Reason (R): Village Panchayats are empowered to levy taxes.
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is correct, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted by the Janata government.
Reason (R): The committee was formed at that time to study Panchayat Raj Institutional.
(a) A is wrong. R is correct.
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Who was Balwant Rai Mehta?
Answer:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta was an Indian Politician.
2. He served as the Second Chief Minister of Gujarat.
3. He is considered as the “Architect of Panchayati Raj” due to his contribution towards democratic decentralization which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Question 2.
Mention the importance of the Ashok Mehta Committee.
Answer:

1. In December 1977, The Jana government appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the Chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
2. The main recommendation of the Committee was a Two-tier system with Zila Parishad at the district level and below it the Mandal Panchayat.
3. It also insisted that all political parties should participate at all levels in elections.

Question 3.
Write about GVK Rao Committee on Panchayat Raj Institutions.
Answer:
The GVK Rao Committee was appointed by the

1. Planning Commission in 1985 to look at various aspects of Panchayat Raj Institution.
2. It recommended that Panchayat Raj Institution should be activated and provided with all the required support to become an effective organisation.
3. Panchayati Raj at the district level and below should be assigned the work of Planning, Implementation, and Monitoring of rural development programmes.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Local Self Government?
Answer:

1. Local Self Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community, such as a village, a town, or a city.
2. It operates at the lowest level of society.
3. It works at the grassroots level, close to the people.
4. It manages the local affairs by local bodies elected by the people.
5. These local bodies provide services to the local community.

Question 5.
What does Article 40 of the Indian Constitution
Answer:
Article 40 was incorporated in the Constitution, which read as: “the state should take steps to organise panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as the units of self-governments.”

Question 6.
Why are meetings conducted in Gram Sabha?
Answer:

1. In each and every village, the people living within its jurisdiction will be the members of Panchayat.
2. The President of the Panchayat will preside over its meetings.
3. In the meetings of the Gram Sabha, the income and expenditure and the beneficiary of the schemes in the village are discussed.

Question 7.
When are the meetings of the Gram Sabha conducted?
Answer:
The meetings of the Gram Sabha are conducted four times a year. They are given below:

1. January 26 – Republic Day
2. May 1 – Labourers Day
3. August 15 – Independence Day
4. October 2 – Gandhi Jayanthi

Question 8.
What are the functions of Panchayat Union?
Answer:
The functions of the Panchayat Union are :

1. Supply of drinking water
2. Maintenance of Village Health Centres
3. Maintenance of the roads
4. Establishment of Maternity Homes
5. Establishment of Public fair
6. Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
7. Maintenance of Social forest
8. Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 9.
Who is empowered to supervise the developmental functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. District Collector
2. Planning Officer
3. concerned Block development officers is empowered to supervise the developmental function of the Panchayat Union.

Question 10.
What are the functions of District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are :

1. Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
2. Supervising the functions of District Planning Commission.

Question 11.
Explain the term Town Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
2. Members and President of the Town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
3. There is one Executive Officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat and their term of office is five years.

Question 12.
What Is a Corporation?
Answer:

1. Municipal corporations are established in big cities where the population of the city is many lakhs.
2. The municipal commissioner is the Administrative Officer.
3. Mayor is the Chairman of the corporation.
4. The term of the Mayor and other members holds office for a period of five years.

Question 13.
Mention important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:

1. He is elected by the people.
2. He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
3. He presides over the meeting of the corporation council.
4. He receives dignitaries from foreign countries.

Question 14.
Mention the types of their Urban Panchayat.
Answer:
The types of other urban Panchayat are,

1. Notified area committee
2. Town area committee
3. Cantonment Board
4. Township
5. Port Trust and
6. Special Purpose Agency

Question 15.
How are the elections to the local government in Tamil Nadu conducted?
Answer:

1. The State Election Commission conducts the elections to the local government like general elections.
2. The electoral roll is prepared ward wise.
3. Seats are reserved for the SC and ST and also for the women in proportion to the population by rotation basis.

Question 16.
List out the 12 corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, there are 12 Corporations. They are:

1. Chennai
2. Kovai
3. Madurai
4. Trichy
5. Tirunelveli
6. Salem
7. Erode
8. Vellore
9. Tuticorin
10. Tirupur
11. Tanjore
12. Dindigul.

Question 17.
Give the two important recommendations of the L.M. Singhri Committee (1986).
Answer:

1. Rajiv Gandhi’s government in 1986 appointed a committee on “Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj institutions for Democracy and Development”.
2. It was under the Chairmanship of L.M. Singhri.
3. Its recommendations were
   • Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
   • a new chapter should be added to the constitution of India.
   • Nyaya Panchayats should be created for a cluster of villages.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Mention the Role of Ripon and Munroe in Madras Presidency.
Answer:
(a) Ripon

1. Lord Ripon was the one who introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
2. He was advocating for the decentralization of administration.
3. He tried to remove obstacles in the sphere of Local Self government by his resolution of 1882.
4. Under him, a large number of tahsildars had quasi-judicial powers in their sub-districts, along with revenue collection.

(b) Munroe

1. He was all for administration in the local language.
2. He was against the practice of appointing administrative posts and the judiciary those who were not fluent with the-local lexicon (language).
3. He felt that Indians ought to be allowed to dispense justice by themselves.

Question 2.
Write about Gandhi’s Concept of Gram Swaraj.
Answer:

1. Gandhi really wanted ‘Swaraj’, The self-rule by the people of India who represent the rural mass.
2. He observed, “India’s soul lives in the village”.
3. He dreamt of village republics in term of Panchayat in free India.
4. Mahatma Gandhi advocated Panchayat Raj, a decentralized form of government where each village is responsible for its own affairs.
5. Gandhi’s ideal village should be basically self-reliant, making provision for all necessities of life, food clothing, clean water, sanitation, housing, education, and other requirements, including government and self-defense.
6. According to Gandhi Gram Swaraj should be a complete republic, independent of its neighbor.
7. Every village should be a democracy in which they will not depend even on neighbors for major needs.

Question 3.
Write a Note on Periyar.
Answer:

1. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the Chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years from 1917.
2. During his tenure in Erode Municipality, EVR worked effectively for drinking water supply and provision and Health facilities to the people.
3. He only provided the piped water supply first in India.
4. He was a member of the District Board and Secretary of the Water Works Committee and Plague Committee.
5. He gave a proposal to expand the municipality by adjoining Neighboring areas but it came into existence only in 1980.